#groups-rings-fields
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eM
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its consistent that there are just 2
there are only 2 and you cannot convince me otherwise
If they define it with standard norm |•| then it's fixed
idk why i dont understand this theorem
i need examples
yeah its actually not easy imo to understand it early
everyone either shows the diagram or says the same shit on youtube
it eventually clicks
first iso is fantastic once you truly understand it
lemme explain I wanna explain the first iso ME ME ME
dont
ok I won't
let moldi
Yo first iso thread when

yes
POST THE ARROWS
I need to sleep 
no
catfan the first iso is the ONE thing I can actually explain intuitively 
hell one might say visually
Yooo wew rant time
make a thred
I shall come inspect your thread tomorrow
so i can come back and read this easily :D
first iso
the best way ive heard it explained is that the kernel of a homomorphism is the "resolution" of the map- how accurately it preserves the structure of the domain
I won't dw
Id like to think that dividing by kernel basically kills all non injective elements into just 1, anmely neutral element so since the map was surjective now its also injective so you have iso
wew lookin fresh wit da ✓
why ✓
i started typing before thread 😌
Tinky dinky cult
bean cult when
Merge into tinky cult and you may not get killed before you can register
join 1337 gang
I'm catfan tinky cult at the same time 😌
where is the monoids thread 
Archived
truly we live in dark times
wew lads ngl
do induction
ive said literally nothing here lol
and prove it yourself
thats your proof?
so far
I think you can reduce words...
You can just say at the end that inverses are unique so beta is alpha inverse
Since alpha beta = 1
And beta alpha = 1
couldnt u multiply the 2 things together
Then uniqueness
Thats like a 1 line proof surely
banana pingu 🍌 🐧
personally I'd drop 90% of the first paragraph 
looks fine though
being extra verbose when you're starting is useful to make sure you fully understand what's going on
I fuckin hate this guy dunno if I've mentioned it yet
your english is fine
ok just because it's your first language doesn't mean you can't type utter drivel
lord knows I do 
im the one who has to sit through lectures with him
who said it was my first language 
how do i even get formal about this lol 
you check the axioms duh
inherits identity is easy
but closure
do i even need to prove closure
actually probably inherits from R too
a line about the product of two positive numbers being positive won't go amiss
it's a subset you can't say it inherits closure
this sign wont stop me because i cant read
R_+ is associative
proof:
im gonna assume associativity is inheritable right
if i do well enough on everything else im slapping one of these on a homework at some point
Does anyone know what an Ext and Tor Functors are exactly?
My backgrounds in topology are fairly limited
Is there a good explanation of the two from the perspective of commutative algebra?
They're the derived functors of Hom and the tensor product
Explicity if you want to compute Ext^n_A(M,N) you take either a projective resolution P_i of M then look at Hom(P^i,N) and then take the n-th homology, or an injective resolution of N I^i and then look at Hom(M,I^i) and then take n-th homology
for Tor_n^A(M,N) you can take a projective resolution P^n of M, then look at the n-th homology of P^n (x)_A N, or do the same with a projective resolution of N and then look at n-th homology of M (x)_A N
Tor is named Tor because among other things, if a is a non zero divisor in A, then Tor_1^A(M, A/(a)) is the a-torsion of M
and Ext is called Ext because it classifies extensions, which are certain exact sequences with M and N on the end of length n up to some equivalence relation
can someone plz explain what the notation (m,n) = 1 means? not looking for help with problem just unfamiliar with that expression. tyty
It’s their gcd
But in this case
Since it’s an integral domain
I think it just means that (m,n) = (1)
So like that ideal is the entire ring
In a general integral domain I don’t think you have a notion of gcd in general, so unless this is saying “assume they have a gcd, and it’s 1…”
okay thanks that makes sense
I need to classify the groups of order 28
is this enough?
I feel like there's something more that I need to do, some more justification
oh I could say P is normal so PQ = G
but otherwise
idk ¯_(ツ)_/¯
you're missing an abelian group of order 28 btw
wtf is a "nonsingular" matrix
invertible
No
speaks
can someone explain wut $\mathbb{R}[S_3]$ means
JustKeepRunning
dumb question, how can i prove that all positive reals have inverses
It’s the group ring
Look up “group ring” and you’ll see what it is
Take negative
*under multiplication
yeah that's my problem lol
In which case you probably have to resort to using Cauchy sequences and then using that Q is afield
idk if should do analysis here 
As long as the thing is non-zero, eventually the Cauchy sequence representing a is non-zero
So you can invert that I think or something
¯_(ツ)_/¯
i heard somewhere that the construction of completion by cauchy sequences uses that Q is dense in R, so the definition of R as the "completion of Q" would be circular.
moral of story: break out the dedekind cuts
Lol no
You define R as being the completion
And then you get that Q is dense by construction
@fossil shuttle do you have a good motivation for group cohomology?
Um, yeah maybe
Id like to hear it, please
idk? let's give it a shot
hi sorry dumb rq
what's a correct negation of this
Group Cohomology
i thought "There exists a group $G$ such that $a,b \in G$ and $aba^{-1}b^{-1} \not = 1$" but that could be wrong
nonabelian beans
It would be “there exists a,b”
It’s not a forall
"\exists a,b in a group G such that..."
i was thinking this cuz i was gonna use dihedral group as a specific example
The claim that’s written down is literally just that all groups are abelian

all the order 2 subgroups seem to be an automorphism for this F(t_1 t_2 t_3)
order 3 too
what does he mean by invariant under G_f\cap V
because it's not fixed under G_f\cap V
nvm
I see why
for a set of givens we can just append them as "and" statements, so the negation becomes "G is not a group OR there are a,b in G where that eq is false"
ik yall settled this already just wanted to make it super clear what the negation was precisely
Suppose p(x) \in F(x) and it has a root c in F, so we can write p(x) = (x-c) q(x). And q(x) is also in F(x). Is it because if it has coefficient not in F, then p(x) will not be in F(x)? Or in other words, if a \in E \ F where E is an extension of F, ab is guaranteed to be not in F if b is in F?
(Sorry if my words are confusing)
hm u right
wait but that gives 5
wait r u sure?
no other factorization of 28 satisfies classification
are these questions related in any way?
I solved 9, that wasn't bad
if I have the 4 congruence classes
my brain isn't working right rn so I can't show it in full, but this is almost the same as claiming that the division algorithm works for polynomial rings
are the 4 homomorphisms determined by the image of 1 in C_2
so that proof should justify what you need
ohh right. I see. Thank you! I'll take a look
me too 😂
There is a connection, such a homomorphism is determined by where you take the non identity element, and you can take the non identity element to any automorphism f of C_2^n that satisfies ff=id, now any automorphism of f is determined by its value at 1, say x. (because then t is forced to go to tx) and any choice of x will give an automorphism. To satisfy ff=id, it is enough that ff(1)=1, in other words x^2=1
yeah, although to be honest you should prove the correspondences that i mentioned as well
still want to double check this tho: if E is an extension of F, a \in E but not in F, b \in F, is it guaranteed that ab not in F?
as long as b is nonzero, yes. prove this by by contradiction by multiplying ab by b^-1
right.. Thank you!
First part is easy
then let g be the minimal polynomial of r, we have deg g <= p
and if K contains E the splitting field of f, since [E:F] = 3, 3|[K:F] <= p
p = 3 case is clearly false so deg g < p
yea
and I'm stuck here
I guess E is Galois so normal and Gal(K/E) ⊲ Gal (K/F)
and Gal(K/F)/Gal(K/E) = Gal(E/F) = Z_3
but what can Gal(K/F) be
min poly of r in F is x^p, would it be wrong to say [K:F] is exactly p?
I'm thinking pth root of unity
in that case x^p-1 is not irreducible
and [K:F] would be p-1
so I have no clue about what the min poly actually looks like
It would be x^p-a for some a in F and so far I showed it must split over F
hang on
the identity is 0 right?
cause the integers mod 2^n are not in general a group under multiplication
so don't I need x^2 = 0?
the identity is 0
NO
yes
this class is making me feel dum
saying the occasional silly thing doesn't mean anything really
ur feelings are valid but they are also inherently arational
just pointing it out cause I sometimes go through a similar thought pattern
that f splits in F? wasn't it irreducible over F? so then you're done via contradiction? you're ahead of me with your understanding of several things but just was curious about the proof you were doing :)
no that x^p-a splits in F
basically this
ohh the min poly of r my bad
I definitely did not follow that earlier bit but best of luck
Vector space, unless F is just a ring, in which case they mean module
F is a field, so we're good
back to this
ok so the order of C_2 x C_2^n = C_2^n+1
I can get that
but how do I show that the 4 homomorphisms give 4 unique semidirect products
I think you have to use the structure of the homomorphisms. Maybe there’s something you can argue about the orders of the elements?
I know ways to show that two homomorphisms give rise to the same semi direct product (they differ by an automorphism)
But I don’t think the converse is true
i went w this ¯_(ツ)_/¯
Guys I tried doing some algebra for part a but I think I might have to use the correspondence theorem
why do you need correspondence theorem for part a?
is i inverse just equal to plus or minus 1?
no
use the given identities 
so i = jk right?
You have to construct an element which multiplies with i to give 1. ||Find this in steps by multiplying i by one thing at a time||
hi moldi
hello former bean
ye
does this look aight
damn very nice
not my handwriting
how tf do i do part b
Nice
The current time for nitezba is 02:09 AM (EST) on Thu, 17/02/2022.
fighting for my life rn

I would start by listing all elements
Bro you just need to get through this week
just one more week bro
so like order of 1 would be 1
one more week is all i'll be aight
yes
okay so
i got
order of -1 = 2
order of 1 = 1
idk how to do the rest
lol
I know i^2 = -1
But I need it to be 1
wtf is this
,ti
The current time for nitezba is 02:34 AM (EST) on Thu, 17/02/2022.
idc
im working w a friend we're ok w potential badness
@hidden haven do i need to show associativity?
I will see after lunch
F
first line does it right....?
thats a weekend problem
btw, do you mind if i ping? like in general?
i wont abuse ofc (unless i do)
asking bc i wanna study more of this on my own and you and wew lad seem to know the shit
just this week bro
petition to make this a sticker
or a better version of it at least
Let me put this in suggestions and get sullied out of existence
guys
when it asks give order of a coset
its just how many elements are in that coset right?
i got a quotient group with 4 distinct cosets in it
each coset has 2 elements in it so that means that the order of each coset is 2?
If you're within the quotient group, your group elements are cosets so "order" might refer to the order of your coset as an element of the group.
yeah so 2
And not necessarily the number of elements in your coset.
Okay, you'll agree that Z/5Z={0,1,2,3,4}, right?
yes
Here each of the elements 0,..,4 is representative of a coset
So order of the coset being represented by, say, 2, is the order of 2 in this group
(which is 5)
1H is just H, it's the identity for your quotient group and naturally has order 1
For the rest, multiply coset by itself till you get the identity coset
how would i multiply say jh
{j,-j} {j,-j} ?
how do i multiply them
is it kinda like fouil
FOIL
You won't be multiplying these as sets, you choose a representative for your coset and multiply it with itself
Like we were adding stuff mod 5 in Z/5Z with our coset representatives
Direct your attention to Q/H={H,iH,jH,kH} instead
Precisely
Yes
so H would stay H
Furthermore, there are only 3 possibilities for orders of these elements by Lagrange's theorem
(1, 2, or 4)
yes
Yes, that's the group identity.
ohh
so i can lowkey just check for order 2
and it doesnt finish the job
so it must be 4
right?
@paper flint
Exactly!

hey @paper flint
can i ask u one question for part e?
cant i just say that the order of Q and Q/H are not equal
so not isomorphic
since |Q| = 8
Yeah absolutely
An isomorphism is meant to be a bijection, you can't have a bijection between sets with different cardinalities.
So your argument is completely valid.
No worries, goodluck. 
If L : K is an algebraic field extension
It doesn't follow K[x] = K(x) yes?
^this would just be nonsense
Yes
It totally does
But (forall a in L) K[a] = K(a)
For all A in L
yah, but im writing the polynomial ring/polynomial fraction field
Just clearing up this confusion in my head between the 2
Well in that case L is completely irrelevant
Like there's no way K[x] = K(x)
Ye if x is a variable then those aren't equal
Because x transcends 
oooooohhhhhhhhhhhh
Ok ok heh heh
Still wrapping my head around what exactly this is 

Field of fractions of F_p[x] 
im getting there yh... thanks 😅
don't most people take F_p to mean integers modulo p, p is prime
yes
idk, I'm just mixing up ideas in my head.
I am thinking of stuff like K[x] / (f) at the same time
Remember to take t!cat breaks in the middle of study 😌
ah
Thanks 😄
What is F[x] 
i have two modes: study way too much, take a break that lasts weeks
You mean Z[x] 
OH
AHHHHHHH
ahahahahaahaha
godamn
i was looking at a specific case all the time smh

so before u said that
i was thinking to myself what if we mod p and mod f at the same time
(Z[x]/(p)) / (f) or something 🤔
That is isomorphic to Z[x]/((p)+(f))
Third isomorphism theorem
R/(I+J) = (R/I)/J, where the J on the right side really means J/I
right, cus that (f) is mod p
Let $B$ be a basis of vector space $V$ over $F$. Then
$$V = \left{\sum_{k\in I} a_kb_k : I \subset\bN, |I| < \infty, (\forall k\in I)(a_k\in F, b_k\in B)\right}$$
Shuri2060
Uff thats ugly
But checking --- we only take finite linear combinations for an infinite basis right (me attempting to express that with symbols ^ )
$\sum_{\text{finite}} a_kv_k$
is what I use
Why I ⊂ ℕ
SO TRUE MOLDI
?
You don’t have to have a countable basis
Where ℕ come in
But you can only have a finite combination
Even if countable basis
(was my original Q)
Is it not by definition, we can only take finite linear combinations ?
Yeah Moldi that was what I realized too
In that case you can also sum from 1 to n and say n ∈ ℕ
that sounds less symbols so yes !
$$V = \left{\sum^n_{k=1} a_kb_k : n\in\bN, (\forall k)(a_k\in F, b_k\in B)\right}$$
Shuri2060
isn't it a given that the n on top of the sum is in N
If I want to be accurate, the n can be different for each combination, so I want it after the colon regardless to be clear about its scope
in the very beginning of the paper say n\in N = {1,2,3,4,...} and then forget about it
I'm not writing a paper, but that aside, if I omit n after the colon, it may be assumed to be a constant
then use words or just use the finite one
Let $n \in \bN$.\
$$V = \left{\sum^n_{k=1} a_kb_k : (\forall k)(a_k\in F, b_k\in B)\right}$$
Shuri2060
This is very different
so yh - either words/finite, or what was before to be accurate about the meaning
$$F_3[x] / (2x + 1)$$
Shuri2060
Hmm
Claim from me : (2x + 1) = (1)
I'm just thinking how to show this immediately uff
2x + 1
4x + 2 = x + 2
@plush wasp In practice, euclidean algorithm with 2x+1 and 3 should be in the ideal...
*4x + 4 = x + 4
yes, oh right, sry 🤦♂️
Imma just shut and listen
Ansh how do you do gcd on this (2x+1, 3) (ive forgotten)
no clue lmao
eh???
If $A$ is an algebra over a comm ring $k$, and there is a ring hom $\epsilon \colon A \to k$, then it makes sense to look at the tensor products $\overline{M} = M \otimes_A k$ for any right $A$-module $M$, where $A$ acts on $k$ from the left via $\epsilon$. Let $A^+ = \ker\epsilon$.
Why do we have $\overline{M} = M/MA^+$?
I see the obvious map $\pi \colon M \to \overline{M}$, the only thing I'm missing is the inclusion $\ker \pi \subset MA^+$.
expectTheUnexpected
ansh
If you have an exact sequence 0->A+->A->k->0 (it is surjective bc A is a k-algebra) by tensoring by M you get the exact sequence M(x)A+->M->Mbar->0, the image of the first morphism is by definition MA+
Ah, very good. Thanks 🙂
can someone explain why $\mathbb{N}_0$ satisfies the ACCP condition
JustKeepRunning
whats N_0?
I can't seem to verify this result
i get different answers for sigma(x), ...
and this is an example of automorphism group of a lie algebra
unless im mistaken because those results arent even in the group SL(2,F)
i got sigma(x) = exp(h), sigma(y) = (exp(h))^2, and some completely different matrix for sigma(h)
how did you get an exp of a lie algebra element ?
exp (ad x) = 1 + (ad x) + (ad x)²/2 + ....
exp (ad x) (y) = y + [x,y] + [x,[x,y]]/2 + ...
for this special case, all those "infinite sums" are finite
so it should be easy to get the matrices of exp (ad x) and exp (ad (-y))
if I call fx = exp (ad x)
I get fx(x) = x, fx(h) = h-2x, fx(y) = y+h-x for example
no exp anywhere
btw i had a question, so i was wondering when we could say the following,
R --> S is a map between rings then SL_n(R) --> SL_n(S) is surjective
I could prove it for Z --> Z/NZ and SL_2 but don't see anything nice in general
in general we can't expect GL_n(R) --> GL_n(S) to be surjective, because if it were, then so would be R* --> S*, which doesn't hold even in nice conditions like Z --> Z/5Z
like one necessary condition i would expect is R --> S surjective which won't happen for fields
Fair
the proof for Z/nZ was also pretty bad
say a matrix [a b \ c d] which is sent to something with det 1 in Z/NZ, we need to be able to tweak a, b, c, d by Ns so that the new matrix [a' b' \ c' d'] has det 1
the main idea was the following if gcd(c, d, N) = 1 then we can find c' and d' such that c = c' (mod N) and d = d' (mod N) such that gcd(c', d') = 1
now we can tweak a and b, and since c' and d' are coprime, we could be able to prove what we needed.
don't see how this idea would generalize, showing coprime cofactors would be annoying?
Oh i forgot the y in the start of the sum in this case lol
i think i was just doing exp(ad x(y)) lol
Claim: if f in R[x] is irreducible, (f) is maximal
This is true if R is a field. Is it true if R is a ring?
in Z[x], x is irred but (x) is not maximal as (2, x) is a proper ideal containing (x)
it's true in PIDs
its true in PIDS in general
can someone explain wut this diagram is syaing
like why are there two V--> W arrows idk wut is the point of that
thanks
it's saying T(av) = aT(v)
and i don't see how that is equivalent to the condition T(a * v ) = a * T(v)
wait how
follow the arrows
also wut do $\rho_1$ and $\rho_2$ represent
JustKeepRunning
row(a) means scale by a
top line is multiplication by a first, and then T
i.e. T(av)
bottom is T first, then multiplication by a
which is aT(v)
the fact that the diagram commutes is equivalent to saying these two compositions are always equal
this sticker is like the "QED" of any proof contacting the word "diagram"

ok thx for explaining uguys
why you'd ever phrase that as a commutitive diagram I will never know
Associative diagrams when
Just you wait till I finish this fire pasta
I mostly said that as a joke but there's also proper reasons
when your supervisor writes this on your coursework 
when your supervisor writes this on your coursework 

I just wrote so true on an assignment I was grading
my proofs using diagrams are still very sloppy apparently 🤨
Lol diagrams aren't a get out of sloppy jail card
yeah I know, I thought I was being rigorous
it's fine it's just like, I didn't explicitly explain how something was defined - which I'll make sure to do in the future
the actual proofs were correct
mostly 
I might run a few of my proofs for the next exercise sheet through here if no one minds (once I TeX them)
So the reason here is that if you look at the theorem statement it goes like
For every f: G → H there is a unique injective map g: G/ker f → H such that gp = f, where p is the quotient map. How do you understand this statement, in particular the equation? You draw this diagram in your head lmao unless you're a witch
This is like the most basic reason
THIS one
monad moment I think
That one's even better
Absolutely monad moment
My phone doesn't have enough battery for what's about to happen
moldi you're infecting me stop it 
(I'm kidding I don't plan on typing that much)
"my proof is marvellous but my phone battery is too short to write it"
But am I infecting you in a good way though 
are you sure about that 
As they always say
Moldilocks knows best 😌
Just close your eyes and give me the steering wheel 😌
Preferably in the opposite order
no promises
the order of a cycle decomposition is the # of elements in it rite 
or is't
smallest common multiple of permutations
If you write your cycle as a product of disjoint cycles, then yes, its order is the lowest common multiple of all the cycle lengths.
Hi, I don't quite understand the (2) -> (1) direction, as I don't know why sigma permutes the roots? I know sigma has to map roots to roots, but why is it injective? Thank you 
(F^alpha is just the algebraic closure)
Homomorphisms from field are injective…
Fields don’t have non trivial ideals
right.... I forgot again. Thank you!
For a group, G, all subgroups of the center Z(G), are normal. But Z(G) isn't necessarily the largest normal subgroup... or is it?
Also, does G/[G, G] have anything to do with Z(G)
[G, G] being the commutator subgroup
Z(G) is not necessarily the largest
And well, G/[G,G] is a commutative group, it is isomorphic to Z(G) when G is abelian, not sure what else youre looking for
When G is abelian 
Center of S_n is {1} when n>=3…
catfacts1337
anyway yeah uhh
something something all normal subgroups are unions of conjugacy classes so just pick a conjugacy class consisting of elements not in the centre and you'll get a bigger one something something
Thanks. No idk if they were related (just was wondering)
just realised this is why all normal subgroups are intersections of the kernels of some characters
time to add another lemma to my dissertation! 
Perhaps if [H, K] is normal, you can say something meaningful about Z(G/[H,K]) ? 🤔
Shuri2060
from my old notes, for H, K subgroup G
Schuri's Lemma
uhh how do I put it --- the intuition I had from the course like a few yrs back was as [H, K] gets 'bigger' Z(G/[H, K]) also gets bigger (changing H or K while keeping [H, K] normal)
yeah intuitively it makes sense
Well it's completely unrelated to what I'm doing rn, but something someone said a few days ago brought this back to me
In a commutative ring, if $P$ is a prime ideal, and $x\in P\setminus P^2$, then how do I show $x^n \notin P^{n+1}$?
AoiKunie
If this is not true in a general ring, how can one show it in a Dedekind domain?
You want to localize at P, and then A_P is a DVR. Now it follows because the valuation of x is 1, and then the valuation of x^n will be n so that it isn’t in P^n+1A_P
It then follows that x^n is not in P^n+1
For a general ring I’m not sure it’s true, for example take k[x]/(x^2) and take P = (x) and the element x
Then x is in P\P^2, but x^n is in (x)^n+1 for all n > 1 because x^n = 0
AoiKunie
Ah, but the $A_p$ thing works in all integral domains?
AoiKunie
No
This specifically uses that A is a Dedekind domain
You need the localization to be a DVR
I can’t think of a counterexample when A is an integral domain off of the top of my head, but my proof at least required A_P to be a DVR
I see, I will have to work out the details
Okay here’s a counterexample with an integral domain
Take k[x,y]/(x^2-y^3), this is isomorphic to k[t^2,t^3]< k[t] so is an integral domain
Let P be the image of (x,y), then x is in P\P^2
However note that x^2 = y^3, and so x^2 is in P^3
Ah thanks

Why does this follow?
Sorry for the question, this topic is interesting
Because the valuation of x^n is n
In a DVR with maximal ideal m, you have a valuation v(x) which is the unique n so that x is in m^n\m^n+1
It’s basically just the largest power of the maximal ideal you’re in
Part of the axioms of a valuation is that v(xy) = v(x) + v(y)
From knowing that x was in P\P^2 you know that v(x) = 1 from which it follows that v(x^n) = n
Thus x^n is in P^n\P^n+1
Buried in here is some of the theory, I make no attempt to justify why this function v exists
Or why v(xy) = v(x) + v(y) because it’s kind of annoying
But it is true
Anyway, in our specific case the DVR is A_P and the maximal ideal m is the ideal PA_P
Ok I think I found a theorem that gives me the valuation
If I can show $$A_p$$ is Noetherian, Normal, domain with only two prime ideals
AoiKunie
Only the normality is not immediately clear I guess
It follows almost definitionally that A_P is a DVR when A is a dedekind domain
In fact one definition is a dimension 1 Noetherian integral domain all of whose localizations are DVRs or a field
What’s your definition of a Dedekind domain?
Noetherian domain with all primes maximal
This isn’t enough
Oh wait
Normal also
And I seem to recall localising something normal gives normal
Been a while since I did commutative algebra
Also this is non-zero :)
Non-zero primes, I mean
Yup
Otherwise you got a very nice ring 🙂
yeah
Thank you Chmonkey, it was very useful
completely unrelated – I know of Nielsen equivalence of generators of a group. Is there some notion of „nielsen distance“ generalizing that, e.g. S₁ nielsen equiv. S₂ iff d(S₁, S₂)=0? like in, how many „detours“ through non-generating sets do you have to take?
Ah nevermind it kinda leaves the number of generators constant, which is not what I'm looking for
why is the highlighted part true
$\mathbb{N}_0$ is the nonnegative naturals
JustKeepRunning
but thats not a ring so how can we talk about ideals?
no its a numerical monoid
idk maybe there's a different definitin for ACCP on monoids?
I dont know how you define ideals on monoids
your definition isn't well defined
(there's no way to have it well defined but I don't get your argument that it is not surjective)
what subgroups of order 4 are in Q8?
Q8 has 3 of them and they're all isomorphic to your group A
but A has an element of order 4
does Q/H have any element of order 4?
iH*iH=?
-1H
is -1 in H?
read c) again
yeah it normal
H=?
1 , -1
ok what is iH*iH
i^2H
which is?
but -1 is in H
-1H=H
yeah
rest would be 2 as well right?
i get it
so i had part d wrong
i put all of them as 4
its 2
oka
so how do i do 2e?
im gonna eat lunchbrb
<i>=<j>=<k>=Z4
can't be isomorphic to V4
be right back
Okay, so I am having a little trouble with this. Although I think I can figure it out on my own no problem, I am not too sure how to represent a polynomial in F[a_1,...,a_n].
How is this statement true
Whats V4
Isn’t this definitional?
Like F[stuff] should be the smallest subring containing F and containing stuff
Like definitionally
|G/H|=4
And likewise for F(stuff) but as a field
and all groups of order 4 in Q8 are <i> <j> <k>
But anyway, if you’re taking it as polynomials in those elements
You can take it as the image of the following map, F[x1,…,xn] -> L defined by sending the polynomial f(x1,…,xn) to f(a1,…,an)
but there are order 4 elements in <i> <j> <k>
and none in G/H
so they cannot be isomorphic
And likewise for F(a1,…,an) except using rational functions instead of polynomials
So how do we express a polynomial in f(x1,...,xn)?
like a normal polynomial
f(x1,...xn) is the field of rational functions in x_1....x_n
polynomials would still be polynomials
I think there is a misunderstanding of what I am asking. How do I write an expression for a polynomial with n variables? I know examples of them, but I am not so sure of a general form for them
honestly p(x_1,...x_n) is enough for the purpose of this question
@lavish nexus so we are comparing the order of elements in Q vs the order of elements in Q/H ?
I mean you're not trying to prove F[x_1,..,x_n] is a ring
but if you are you can always consider it as F[x_1,...x_n-1][x_n]
and write it like a single variable polynomial with coefficients in F[x_1,...x_n-1]
yes this is a common strat to prove two groups are not isomorphic
what do you mean when you said there are 4 elements in <i> <j> <k> but none in G /H
Oh I misunderstood what you were saying Todd.
I said there exist elements of order 4 in them
like i, j, k, -i, -j, -k
but in G/H all nonidentity elements have order 2
Nice. Latex is not working rn
$
dackid
There we go.
Where m is just the total number of terms
Maybe more variables then needed, I don't really know
I have absolutely no idea how to do 3 can anyone help?
take a \phi : F[x_1,...x_n] to L by sending x_i to \alpha_i
this is obviously (handwaving is enough) a homo and the image is F[\alpha_i,...\alpha_n] contained in L
then because F[x_1,...x_n] is a ring
the image has to be a subring
can someone explain why the red part is true
why does schur's lemma imply constant
how do i use the correspondence theorem to find subgroups of G/H ?
im assuming i use the correspondence theorem
so if Q/H is 4 then the possible orders for subgroups would be 1,2,4?
yes
wut is 4 🤔
the representations are irreducible right? So schur's lemma lets us know that any homomorphism between them is either an isomorphism or the 0 map
I'm guessing n isn't equal to m?
so im basically looking for subgoups of G that are order 1,2,4 that contain H
and by contain H you mean the whole group right
yeah
okay so I have Q8
and H = {1,-1}
so obviously the trivial subgroup works
but say i do
{1,-1,k,-k}
that wouldnt worjk
that works
how
it's <k>
k *-k
Formally you'd say {{1,-1},{k,-k}} -- a set of two cosets of H.
that's <k>/H
H only has {1,-1}
Sorry, I seem to have missed the direction of the original question.
I am dum dum is the operation on $\phi$ here composition?
Spamakin🎷
So Q/H is just V4 and we know what its subgroups are.
<i>/H = {H, iH}
so
<j>/H = ?
Q/H = {H , iH, jH, kH}
Yes, since it is introduced as an element of the automorphism group.
im so lost man
the subgroups of G are
G, <i> <j> <k> H {1}
the first five contain H
so by correspondence the subgroups of G/H are
ok figured but idk why they wrote it without the composition symbol lol
G/H, <i>/H, <j>/H, <k>/H, H/H
how is <i> a subgroup of G
That's just a matter of writing the group operation (in this case of the automorphism group) multiplicatively. Happens all the time in higher algebra.
it's the cyclic group generated by i
it must be a subgroup of G
i, i^2=-1, i^3=-i, i^4=1
repeat
By definition <i> means the smallest subgroup of G that contains i.
okay
yes
how did u get the first H
<i> contains H
{H}
H
hhhhhhh
hurb
c squared you've done it again 🥳
I don't know 
what's wrong?!?!
nitezba you wouldn't to have a group theory question for me would you 
fuck guess I gotta stop procrastinating
reading a paper on geodesics rn 
i love big looking words that arent big
dw tho i'll be here to get degraded over the weekend
me too
are you british wew?
think so. hes like six hours behind me lmao
i see 
this was actually hilbert's 25th question
this is why I was procrastinating 
time to do the even length case 
Extensions are still a mystery to me
so for (3) I've shown G is a group, that's fine
the fuck
so if it's an extensions of K by H then that means H is normal in G and K = G / H
or
H injects into G, G is surjective into K, and the image of the injection is the kernel of the surjection
idk how to do either of these
with the given info
I had a quick question about a problem. I'm not sure how to go about this problem
And this is F, just for more info
umm
2 and 5 are primes dividing 10
so you have to have an element of order 2 and an element of order 5
I understand that, but I'm not sure if it's asking for some sort of explanation
why is it true that "homomorphism is either an isomorphism or the zero map." The statement in the book is that its multiplication by a scalar
lemme check my notes
Indeed you're right, my apologies
wait wait wait
do we know that these are isomorphisms or just homomorphisms
cause my notes say that if it's a homomorphism of representations it is indeed either 0 or an isomorphism
but if it's an isomorphism then your statement is correct
its a homomorphism of representations
ah ok, then the map is either 0 or a scalar multiple of the identity (the latter iff it's an isomorphism)
lemme take a look at the original question again
the commutitive diagram is confusing me (what a surprise 🙄) - what does it mean for a map to be constant? That the composition always results in the same overall map regardless of the choice of T?
this is my quesiton lol
idk wut it means
damn
yea its confusing 😦
Are these field extensions?
even length case done 
no way did that take an HOUR
damn u be crossing shit out
I omit that and leave that as an exercise for the grader
"lol figure out how I got from this line to the next it works"
the poor bastard has to sit though my proofs that aren't just straight computation, I feel like I'll go at least a little easy on them where I can 
fair enough
speaking of not just straight computation
uh
the question I sent above 
like I'm throwing around all sorts of fraudulent definitions
oof
which one
number (3)
this
#2 defines what a characteristic map is
but then like I've shown G is a group
idk how to show it's an extension
I'll have a quick look but it is nearly 2am
if u can't it's ok
Outer automorphisms
🚪 🚶♂️
appreciate it tho
yea

I have like 4 problems in this topic in this HW
I did the other 8 problems tho so we good-ish
knowing the definition of a group extension might help me here, one mo
I sent



