#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 669 of 407
tinky mfin dinky
How am I supposed to pronounce it though
I was on call with saketh today
and I was totally telling him how cool the user called nitezba was
and I couldn't figure out how to pronounce it 
that is a problem i have with it but i got nothing better for now 
in other words idk it was just the closest thing to a made up word i could come up with if that makes sense
bad lore tbh
goldilocks but not quite 

I mean not like you can do much with all the security around me 
I can just wait for 2024

What does it mean for a group to be soluble-by-(locally finite)? I assume it means soluble with successive quotients being locally finite?
Which of these properties is 'inherited' for a polynomial ring in 1 variable? Is there something I can refer to (or is it 'obvious' to think about) 🤔
I know K[X] is euclidean for a field K and not much else.
Polynomial ring over a UFD is a UFD
Integrally closed, UFD, PID, ED, field, alg closed field are not inherited
Oh wait
I thought inherited meant by subset

For PID, think about Z
PID isn't inherited
^
ED isn't either
Also @hidden haven , do you know if this is what this means?
no clue but your guess seems legit
And yeah, you can also see ED with Z
Z is an ED, Z[X] is not a PID
And fields it's easy to see it's not inherited
Same with ACF
Because k[X] has no inverse for X
No matter what k is
And even if you take K(X), algebraic closure isn't inherited
The GCD domain one seems annoying
and same for integrally closed
Well the only characterisations I know of those are GCDs exist and field of fractions is integral closure so maybe they are easier with some better theorems
I feel like I've been neglecting this server, I've barely been active recently
Now I'm gonna slink back to lurking in #foundations while looking at pseudo-finite groups
D: lots to think about
Thanks for the insights every1
but yeah moldi id be curious if you can figure out my name from username
only not pointing it out myself cuz ive said my uni here before and then it becomes a lil to easy to guess
Can't be their real name. There is an i in there.


professor insists on using matrices for everything


i mean i like that he's using an example for shit like the symmetric group
but he doesnt say as much "general" stuff as id like
u mean nxn matrix for elements of Sn?
yeah
permutation matrices?
F
I take it back then
like why do i have to deal with matrices when it's just permutations
and i can call them permutations
yes because they make computation easier harder
the matrices or just calling them permutations?
i feel like just saying permutations would be easier to grasp idk
following curriculum is a pain for me
i mean yeah, most learning in all my classes is done outside of class anyways
The (intuitive) explanations of the tensor-hom adjunction I've seen talk about how bilinear maps from U x V are actually the same as maps U to Hom(V,-), and the universal property gives us the adjunction. In that case, why is the adjunction not between Hom and -\oplus V? Is the latter not a functor? Or is there some other reason?
Oh wait nvm
I understand
The reason is that the morphisms from U \oplus V are simply linear and not bilinear, so it can't be an adjunction in the category R mod (or bimodules or whatever)
Tensor allows you to basically treat bilinear maps as R-linear
That's like, the big idea right
The adjunction is between - ⊗ V and Hom(V, -)
So I didn't get what conclusion you came to
Ye this is right, the bilinear maps are not morphisms in R-mod
I just meant why the adjunction is not between direct sum and Hom
But the reason is the maps aren't correct
oh direct sum
But tensor lets you 'cheat' by treating bilinear maps as R-linear
Ye
And the universal property tells you this correspondence is well-defined
Between R-linear maps out of tensor and maps U->Hom(V,-)
Isn't Hom defined as the adjoint to tensor?
Depends on which way you wanna go I suppose
Hom first seems more natural to me idk
Who wants to work with the construction of the tensor more than they want to
I suppose I'm asking which other definition is there (in a general monoidal category)?
Because if you start with hom first then you can easily get that both are bifunctors
Oh ye in that case yes
You define internal hom that way
Wait I guess if you define tensor using bilinear maps then it's fine that it's a bifunctor
Probably
I can't see a proper categorical way to say this though, you treat bilinear maps as maps M → hom(N, -) if you already have hom
Exactly
How do you talk about bilinear maps without hom 
Learning cat theory makes you worse at math

Lmao
Anyway one of my favourite theorems about adjunctions is that an adjoint of a bifunctor can be made into a bifunctor

Like hom(V, -) has left adjoint - ⊗ V
And hom is a bifunctor
Ohhh
Then there's a unique way to make V ↦ - ⊗ V into a functor
Cool
And by currying, this makes tensor a bifunctor
This isn't even uniqueness up to isomorphism lmao
It's straight up uniqueness up to equality

Oh wow
Because the up to isomorphism part already happens in choosing each adjoint lmao
pranked
Lmao
let $G$ be a group , $a,b\in G$ and $\langle a,b\rangle$ the subgroup of $G$ generated by $a$ and $b$, suppose $a^pb^p \in [\langle a,b\rangle, \langle a,b\rangle]$, this implies $a^pb^p=1$?
Or x1
G = S_3, a = (12), b = (23), p = 1 doesn't work I think
what does [a, b] mean? commutator subgroup gen by of a and b?
Typically just the commutator itself.
subgroup generated by conmutators
aba^-1b^-1
sorry, G is a p-group
You forgot D_3 moldi 
The group of symmetries of a 1.5-gon? I think that one's abelian
the 1.5-gon
the gon between a circle and a half circle
I don't see a problem. Is the subgroup of O(2) generated by a 240° rotation and a reflection.
This makes me see that I remember do little on p groups
I can’t think of any tools to help tackle this 
Why must we forget things we don’t do so easily
Was it worth classifying simple groups
If R is a Noetherian ring and I an ideal (tho Ig you could possibly generalize this to modules maybe), is there a finite number of maximal ideals containing I?
I thought about trying to prove this for a proof (not like I could've used it anyways) but I'm not actually sure if it's true or not and can't find anything on it
finite number? there's only one maximal ideal containing I
oh nvm
I always thought "a maximal ideal" does not imply there's a unique one
Seems false you can try correspondence theorem
With unity*
Thanks Moldi! And damn
I am not good at pointing out counter examples
Lmao
Ngl tho I now hate knwoing that minimal prime ideals are finite but maximals aren't (containing I)
"Suppose it is true. Then it would be a famous theorem. It is not. Therefore it is false. QED."
LMFAO well played
when I see some people justify why a-b=c
Pf: the full name of c is the full name of a minus the full name of b
Because ergo therefore
ah yes proof by tautology
"Constrait"
LOL
I have an upgraded version of proof by logic
Declare yourself to be a strong anti-constructivist, and so you don’t believe that one needs to actually explicitly construct a proof if one knows it exists
And thus, by virtue of this problem being on this problem sheet, it must be a true fact, and this was established via a proof at some point in time so we know a proof exists
QED
declare yourself a chmonkey
S_4 can be generated by two elements?
yes
What would those elements be?
not much choice lol
I thought you needed n-1 elements to generate S_n
In fact you can generate S_n with 2 elements
(12) and (12...n)
wtf
yea lol
S_4 is the set of all permutations of 4 elements
12 shouldn't be there???
What am i misunderstanding

?
(12) is notation
1 maps to 2
2 to 1
(12....n)
Oh
ok
Well
Do you have any hints for how to prove that D_24 is not isomorphic to S4 then
Cause my idea was to prove that they required different amounts of generators
Tho I now know that that is false
just a hint cause I would like to largely figure it out myself for pedagogy
Not sure how to show that but perhaps looking at orders of elements?
Maybe there are more elements of order say 2 or 3 in one of the groups
That's a good idea
There are elements of big orders in D_24
yea, theres an element of order 12 in D_24 but elements in S_4 have order at most 4 (because of cycle decomposition)
^
Okay
I am once again confused on a basic concept
My confusion is thus: Take all the permutations of S_3: {(1, 2, 3), (1, 3, 2), (2, 1, 3), (3, 1, 2), (2, 3, 1) (3, 2, 1)}. Is (1, 3, 2) == (2, 1, 3) == (3, 2, 1) and (1, 2, 3) == (3, 1, 2) == (2, 3, 1) since all that matters is what numbers are the right of what numbers?
yes
But then, wouldn't s_3 only have two elements?
no
what abt (1,2)?
becaue (1,2) is in it as well
well if you have (12) you can obviously generate (12)...
Okay
I believe that I understand now
Wait
But S_3 can be generated by (12) and (123)
yes it can
But (12) and (123) only give the elements which I previously listed
that's the generating set
but you asked for the whole set
not the generators
unless i misunderstood u
No, this is a separate question
wait so you are asking like why is the generating set correct?
My question is how can I generate the set you listed with (12) and (123)
(0) = (12)(12)
(12) = (12)
wait no not (12) and (123)
should be (12) and (132) i think
You're confusing two diferent notations here. The first notation is cycle notation; in cycle notation, if $\sigma = (123)$ means that $\sigma(1) = 2, \sigma(2) = 3$ and $\sigma(3) = 1$. In the notation you're using for that set, $\sigma = (1, 2, 3)$ refers to the permutation with $\sigma(1) = 1, \sigma(2) = 2, \sigma(3) = 3$; $(1, 3, 2)$ refers to the permutation $\sigma$ with $\sigma(1) = 1, \sigma(2) = 3$ and $\sigma(3) = 2$
Nick
In cycle notation (12) and (123) do indeed generate all of S3. But (12) and (132) also generates all of it.
so in the notation you wrote, $(1, 2, 3) = ()$, $(1, 3, 2) = (23)$, $(3, 1, 2) = (132)$, $(2, 3, 1) = (123)$, $(2, 1, 3) = (12)$ and $(3, 2, 1) = (13)$
Nick
just converting your notation (which my class called one row notation) to cycle notation
I had never heard of row notation
I shouldn't have used commas
I was referring to cycle notation
the cycles you wrote are not the elements of $S_3$
Nick
Well, you only wrote 2 of them
you missed lots
$S_3 = {(), (12), (13), (23), (123), (132)}$
Nick
You are correct that in cycle notation, $(123) = (312) = (231)$ and that $(132) = (213) = (321)$
Nick
I wasn't carrying out my cycle notation operations correctly
it's a general convention to put the smallest number first - there's no mathematical reason, it's just easier to read and compute and it's nice to have some standard
Yeah, I had some confusion as to how to compose cycle notation expressions...
As an example, for $(12) \circ 123) \circ (23) \circ (12)$, if I wanted to find out where $1$ went, I would start in the rightmost bracket; that sends $1$ to $2$. Then in the next bracket over, $2$ gets send to $3$. The in the next bracket, $3$ gets sent to $1$, and finally, in the last bracket, $1$ gets sent to $2$, so the final result is $2$. Whatever you get out of some permutation is what you stick into the next one, and remember, if something doesn't appear in a cycle, the permutation fixes it; $(12)$ applied to $3$ just gives you $3$.
Nick
for the same $(12) \circ (123) \circ (23) \circ (12)$, if I wanted to find out where $2$ goes, I would see tha the rightmost cycle sends $2$ to $1$, the next one sends $1$ to $1$, the next one sends $1$ to $2$, and the last one sends $2$ to $1$, so I just get $1$
Nick
in particular, this tell you that $(12) \circ (123) \circ (23) \circ (12) = (12)$, since it's a permutation that sends $1$ to $2$ and $2$ to $1$, so it must send $3$ to $3$; see if you can verify this by trying the composition
Nick
Are there any nice homology lemmas I can appeal to that gives me the middle column is exact
Everything other row & column is already
FWIW these are modules over a PID, all are free except B, C, & D
I think I’ve sorted out the rest but why is E a normal extension of F?
In proof line 6-7 seems to require E/F normal
wait this is just the Horseshoe lemma nvm lol
Can anyone help me with the process of solving this problem using First iso theorem?
what is the obvious map from C* to R*
ummmm
(Unrelated question) if A B C are fields, A normal over B, B normal over C, is A normal over C?
yes
basically for this question you just want to use first iso directly
like in that form
so you need a mapping which has an image of $\mathbb{R}^{\times}$ and a kernel of $S^1$
JustKeepRunning
Think about it this way what’s the one thing common for all S1
Because they’re in the kernel you’re mapping them all to the same thing
no
damn
φ:C* to R*
S1 is the pre-image (or the fiber) of the identity coset
yo you in my class?
so i have to prove homomorphism between C and R, prove surjectivity and well defined right?
don't think about it like this
generally u just think of an intutive mapping (literally the reason ppl call this a natural mapping in ring theory)
and then worry about the technical details later
ok the mapping should be ||natural log of magnitude||
to start my proof i would start it as "phi: C -> R by phi(S1) = 1"
JustKeepRunning
where did the ln come from?
oh wait wait
no you don’t need ln it’s to R*
i think my homomorphism might be wrong
phi: C -> R by phi(x) = 1?
That would make the whole C kerφ
im fucking lost
Because all elements of S1 has norm 1 we map all elements of S1 to 1
Therefore for any other element x what do we map it to
Just take a wild guess
No, in the case of the norm, phi: C\{0} -> (0,infty)
oh crap
to prove homomorphism can i do this? since z is in C then let x be in C also. Then phi(zx) = phi(x)phi(z)?
Uhm ... reading closer, the claim in that task is not even true. C×/S¹ doesn't have an element of order 2, but R× does (namely -1), so they can't be isomorphic.
In order to get a true statement, what you can prove is that the the quotient is isomorphic to the multiplicative group of positive (not merely nonzero) reals.
🤦♂️
ln
No nvm
(Unrelated question) if A B C are fields, A normal over B, B normal over C, is A normal over C?
that problem is super hard
no
ty
This damn lecture note I have is just ridiculous at this point
I get a headache every time I look through dummit and foote 😵💫
@upbeat juniper better than not having it tho 😭
our prof banned D&F for the midterm and replaced it with his own book
and what really sucked was we all used D&F for the group theory term, and he decided to put quite a bit on the test
and i didn't care for trying to scan for group theory results that I've never read on a timed test :,)
Visual Group Theory by Nathan Carter is amazing
highly recommend reading that before taking abstract algebra to provide an intuition as to what abstract algebra even is
personally what I did was I read Galliean's Contemporary Abstract Algebra
and that was enough to set me up for D&F
I did learn group theory from D&F and it's a good introductory book. the galois theory part just left a sour taste in me for some reason
Suppose I have some linear subspace V of R^n and also an automorphism t.
Will dim(t(V))=dim(V)?
I think this might've been more appropriate for #linear-algebra, but yes. Recall that an automorphism is a bijection and a homomorphism (which in this case is a linear transformation)
Got you
But also, I forgot to add that t is an automorphism of R^n , not necessarily V. Does that matter?
Nah, linear transformations/homomorphisms preserve subspaces (which are normal subgroups)
Wait, what do you mean by preserve subspaces?
Bijection between subspaces by t
And it preserves containment (lattice isomorphisn theorem)
if no then there is a nontrivial kernel in V hence R^n
Thanks guys
Wait what?
No they don’t, it’ll send a subspace to an isomorphic sub space but it doesn’t preserve it, you can shift it around
You can take the automorphism of K^2 swapping two basis vectors
Yea this is what I mean. It's still an isomorphic subspace before and after
Sorry if there's multiple interpretations
Okay this isn’t what preserve normally means
It usually means that it either doesn’t affect the subspace, so it’s the identity
Dym like identity
Or that t(V) = V
Gotcha
i am confused while writing the structure of C[x]/<x^2+1>, any help?
That polynomial factors
like c[x]/<x-i> x c[x]/<x+i> ?
crt
tbh , this is what make me confuse every time, i cant write the structires of quotients
C
Why do you know that?
just rembered this
Try to think of a proof
ok so i have to make an iso form C[x] to C
Well not an iso
But a surjective morphism
With kernel <x>
This is just appealing to the first isomorphism theorem
my bad yes it should be surjective
Let’s think a little more broadly tho
When we mod out by x
What we’re saying is “we’re gonna set x = 0”
Right?
polynomials with zero at 0?
Idk what that means
I’m just talking about the idea behind quotients
We’re setting the thing we’re quotientinf to by 0
Is the idea
Like R/I is what you get when you set I = 0
Everything in I is now 0
And we kinda turn our equality based on if the difference lies in I
ok in case of c[x]/<x-i> , we are considiring like x-i=0 or x= i?
Yup
Exactly
But we can express that idea via a map C[x] -> C right?
The idea being “x = i”
I mean if I have a polynomial p(x) in C[x]
And I want to send it to a number in C
Along the ideas of “x = i”
whose factor is (x-i)?
What’s the easiest way to do that?
No
Any polynomial
I want to make a map C[x] -> C
With the idea in mind “x = i”
i am thinking
I mean
Think back to like when you weee much much younger
And you have a polynomial in algebra class
What do you do with polynomials?
Think of it like you’re in analysis class, calculus or something
A polynomial is a function right?
And what do you do with functions?
Or even way way more explicit
If your hw said
“Compute the value of x^2 + 3x + 2 at x = 5”
What do you do?
put x=5 in place of x
Is that actually what you did?
You replaced x with x = 5?
(x = 5)^2 + 3(x = 5) + 2?
(5)^2+3(5)+2
yup
So like back to this
What’s the map C[x] -> C we want which has the idea “x = i”
wait so that means value of polynomial at x = i?
yesss
Right, constants
every elemnet in C has preimage
I mean
That’s just the definition of surjective lol
It’s not an argument for it being surjective
But we have constants
Any number is a degree 0 polynomial which maps to itself
What’s the kernel?
If p(i) = 0
every polynomial that have x-i as factor
hmmm, intresting
similaly for other part
right
does this concept works for all?
Yes
quotients?
If you have
Well
Of the form
C[x]/<x - a>
You just look at C[x] -> C
p(x) -> p(a)
And then it’s surjective with kernel <x-a>
does this work for any R/I?
okk
What if R is like 2x2 matrices
Then none of what we did makes any sense
There’s no polynomials anywhere
Ok , Thankyou @next obsidian , This is very much clear to me

Hey, I saw this symbol in dummit, could anyone tell me what it means?
(F = Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3)))
It's the norm. If you have a finite field extension F/K then N_{F/K} is a function F -> K given by N_{F/K}(a) = determinant of (multiplication of a)
multiplying by a is a K-linear function F -> F, and F is a K-vector space so we can take a determinant and get a number in K
if F/K is galois then it's also the product of all galois conjugates of a
er that's not exactly right sorry
$N_{F/K}(a) = \prod_{\sigma \in \mathrm{Gal}(F/K)} \sigma(a)$. it is a product of conjugates but you can get repetition
Shamorck
Swagonkey
I see. Thank you!! 
Oh one thing here
This isn’t well-defined!
It’s well-defined up to the square of the determinant of a change of basis matrix
But at least over Q, this number is the square of a unit inside of Z, which means it’s forced to be 1
Or wait
I think the norm is well-defined
It’s the trace that isn’t?
I think the norm is actually well-defined FML 
what?
are you concerned that the determinant of a linear transformation isn't defined without a choice of basis?
I think the trace is too now 
One of these things is not-well defined I swear
It’s well-defined up to some square of a unit given by a change of basis matrix
det(P A P^-1) = det(A) for any P, so det doesn't depend on change of basis
It’s the like trace form
I swear there’s something like uh
Take a basis, look at the thing with alpha_ialpha_k
Oh yes!
Okay
Hurb so what it is is
Take a basis {alpha_i}
Make a matrix where M_ij = trace(alpha_ialpha_j)
The trace of the map given by multiplying by alpha_ialpha_j
Then the determinant of this is an important number which is only well-defined up to det^2 of a change of basis matrix
this number is non-zero iff the extension is separable

AAAAAAAA
Thats the discriminant
You are talking about the discriminant of the trace form
Can someone help: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4382724/dimension-of-tensor-product-space-should-be-leq-dimv-dimw ?
This is wrong
(a+b, c+d)
~ (a+b, c) + (a+b, d)
~ (a, c) + (b, c) + (a, d) + (b, d), so you are missing the middle 2 terms in that
Bilinearity behaves a lot like multiplicative distributivity
Because distribution of multiplication is equivalent to saying that multiplication is a bilinear function
Still, the following statements remain valid if each equivalence class can be represented as (v,w). So this must mean that each class can't be represented as (v,w) ?
Yep
Not every tensor is a pure tensor
A general element is always a linear combination of these pure tensors
When you talk about permuting polygons in dihedral groups
Are we permuting the vertices or the positions
I'm in a muddle rn D:
Can you give more context
How would you write this permutation (which isnt in the dihedral group, was explaining what you cant have)
1 -> 2
2 -> 4
3 -> 3
4 -> 1
Is my instinct
You are saying 'vertex 1 maps to where vertex 2 was'
Ye or more succinctly we would write (124)
Right, and you don't think about 'positions' at all
Ye I guess
1 -> 4
2 -> 1
3 -> 3
4 -> 2
I think of positions still but you don't need to perhaps
I can then write down the inverse correctly
Ye
If you think of positions, I think u get muddled up no?
wait no im still in a muddle
I think of it as the element at the first position goes to the element at the fourth position
Correct in the sense that one will be confused what the dihedral group is meant to be
I think permuting vertices will confuse this
Right right I think you need to think of your 'rotations and reflections' invariant with respect to the vertices
Those actions act on the space
If those actions at on the space, you are interested in permuting positions, not vertices
god 
😵💫
Oh lord why we writing permutations backways
this ain’t how the baby Jesus decreed 
what I wrote was crap before being enlightened
And yet moldi agreed....
what
I read (124) as 1->2->4->1
That one was the inverse
Ok good
L
Cause I do know of some people who do actually write it backwards like that
Apparently it “makes composition nicer” 

You can think of it as either, both work
Although if you think about it as permitting vertices you have to chose some arbitrary labelling
Which is smelly
It won't.
or at least it won't work like you want it to
@delicate orchid We want to consider these 2 reflections the same
If we consider how they permute the vertices, they aren't.
Yes which is why having to arbitrarily pick a labelling smells
But once you fix a labelling for the identity position it’s consistent
In exterior algebra's construction why do we take quotient with respect to the ideal generated by ($x \otimes x$) rather than just taking equivalence classes of the relation $v\otimes w = -w \otimes v$ ? Also, is there some general way of converting from ideals to relations that represent those ideals?
Life(3.14159265)
There’s issues if 2 is not invertible, namely the universal property won’t be satisfied
Take for example char 2, then you’d end up with the symmetric algebra
why will 2 not be invertible, if it is in the field?
Well, this is a more general construction that one can do, even over a ring
But also, 2 could be 0 even in a field
If the characteristic is 2
Sorry I am very beginner.. can you please tell what is the universal property here?
Well, if we’re dealing with just the exterior product for now, it’s that alternating maps factor uniquely through it
When you go the algebra itself, I don’t quite remember off the top of my head
Bht it’s something about factoring certain maps into a ring I think
From x ⊗ x ≡ 0 you can get the other one by taking x = v + w
But you can't go the other way if 2 is not invertible as
said
ie the ideal generated by the relations v ⊗ w = - w ⊗ v doesn't contain x ⊗ x necessarily
And 2 not invertible means that you could have a field that looks like ℤ/2ℤ
what is an example of non regular group which is the direct product of regular groups?
Can someone give me some intuition as to what group cohomology is measuring?
H^k(G,M) where G is an abstract group and M is G-module
there are many ways to interpret some of the low degree cohomology groups, but the original motivation behind group cohomology is to compute the cohomology of spaces like BG in a purely algebraic way
Hm
Where are you stuck? @median valve did you try a direction of the first part of the proof yet?
Thank you for the reply. I am actually stuck in the first part.
Since there 1-1 correspondance, it is evident that 2 is equivalent to 1
However, I can't go in the other direction
It's evident to you that 2 implies 1 you mean maybe?
Umm ... no. It is evident that 1 implies 2
Because
ok you said "evident that 2 is equivalent to 1" so you can see why I wasn't sure what you meant lol
Oh my bad. I am really new to this subject.
All good!
what onto function did you construct from B to A, out of curiosity?
One second
Something like this?
🙂
Sure, but can you express the function in terms of elements of B and A? not explicitly of course but just in terms of set theory stuff
if you mean you're taking the things in B that weren't in the image/range of f and sending them to some random thing in A, and reversing f otherwise, then I agree
I honestly don't know how to do that 😦
ok that's fine! I think the picture you sent gives us something to work with
so if f:A->B was sending D to 1, B to 2, C to 3, that's 1-1 so we start there
Oh one second
and we can reverse that mapping to get something that is almost a function but not really since we left out some elements
Is that 1-1?
in this case we left out 4
Let me check my definition once more
D to 1, B to 2, C to 3 is one to one yes
Indeed, it is an injective function!
nice
back to this, we have something that is almost a function from B to A but we left out 4, so we map it to some thing in A, doesn't matter what it is
Yep
and the resulting thing is an onto function since sending y to x when f(x) = y guarantees that we get all x in A, because f is a function
and we are allowed to send y to x in this well defined way because f is injective
Ok that's the first direction, you probably understood it intuitively but I wanted to write the sketch out a little more concretely
Could you give me a second please 🙂
I'm trying to digest this real quick
"and the resulting thing is an onto function since sending y to x when f(x) = y guarantees that we get all x in A, because f is a function"
So this is a 1-1 correspondance
that is yeah
whats the last thing there
null?
Yeah that won't make sense
Yeah that won't make sense
Now this is a onto function
this isn't a function
but with the arrows reversed then it's onto from the numbers to the letters
its good practice lel
other way around the way you've drawn it
Got it. g:\alpha onto beta
the first set that appears in that notation is the source (domain), second is the target (codomain)
just for the record
Thank you!
🙏
Now how would I prove that g can be equivalent to a 1-1 correspondance function?
Coz that's what the question asks
are we still doing (1) implies (2)?
Oh
But I thought we settled that
My bad
no I'm asking xD
idk what you did on your own so just want to know what to help ya with
Sure. One second.
The above is a 1-1 correspondance and it seems pretty evident it is a onto function
I mean there is nothing to prove here, since there is a known defintion -
This is taken from Sipser's notes, unless I am reading it wrong
this is all true
although I can't see it applying very much to what you want to show
maybe intuition of how things might fail to be a bijection/1-1 correspondence, that might be good
of course, I enjoy it 😄
well if a function is 1-1 but not onto what does that mean about the codomain
Lemme try to draw this out
It means that there is an element in the co-domain that nothing maps to
Something like this
yeah
Nice!
so if you wanted to construct a function that goes the other way around, and is onto, that extra element has to go somewhere
you can reverse all the arrows to begin with, but 4 has no place to go so we don't have a function yet
but send 4 to anywhere, and now we have a function
Ah!
and by the earlier argument I gave it has to be onto
Yep!
(since the original function was 1-1)
ok I think that direction is a closed case tbh
So onto (2) implies (1), starting off with some g that we know is onto from B to A, we want to find an f:A->B injective
I don't see how it is onto
4 is still not going anywhere
Oh yes
I can send it somewhere and then it becomes a onto function. f(beta) onto (alpha)
and since the arrows came from every element of alpha, reversing them makes the resulting function (after sending the orphaned elements somewhere) onto
nice nice
maybe you will be inspired to try (2) implies (1) on your own, I'd give it a try
okay, lemme think about it
I'll ping you if I don't get it after some thinking
I sincerely appreciate your help
For future reference this kind of question fits in #proofs-and-logic
how do I show (c)
I know how to do (d) if I have (c) but (c) doesn't even make intuitive sense to me
I know that C_n is generated by a single element, call it a, and thus the map from C_n to hat(C_n) is determined by where a goes
but then for that to be a homomorphism wouldn't we need to map a to some element of the same order in C^x?
also does (d) have to be done with induction or can I just argue that directly without induction?
the induction isn't hard but it just seems obvious given parts (b) and (c)
yep, eg what's an element of order 3 in C^x?
ig you should at least state b holds for finite number of products instead of just 2
Hm ok I'll just do the induction then
the order of the image of a will divide the order of a
the idea here is you want to find a cyclic generator for G hat
too tired to think rn, but the idea is probably just like, roots of unity
you have certain constraints on what a hom phi : Cn --> C^x can be as well. Like phi(a)^n = 1 so |phi(a)| = 1, i.e. you know the image of phi is in the circle group, so this is sort of crying out roots of unity
ok i slep 💤
very confused as to what this is even asking
cause it says define a homomorphism
and then it
defines it?
like k in K = gH for some g and so we map theta(k) to conj_g | H
oh do I just have to show that's a homomorphism?
then why say "show how to define a homomorphism"?
Any Favorite quotient groups?
the one in the problem I sent
I mean I kinda find it funny that inner automorphisms are actually automorphisms of a group
but outer automorphisms aren't automorphisms
they're equivalence classes of the group of automorphisms by the group of inner automorphisms
ok cool
that doesn't sound too bad but that's shit wording lol
Is Aut(D_4) is isomorphic to D_4 where D_4 is dihedral group of order 8?
and except n=4, order of Aut(D_n) is n*phi(n) for n>2 right
Maybe
How hard is it to determine the structure of a group generated by two finite groups intersecting in some shared subgroup?
both
👍
in a group, since we dont know for sure if it's commutative or not, do we always need to perform operations left to right?
Wdym,group operation is always associative so the order doesn't matter
word hard
yea, school be taking a lot
does anyone knows the importance of fundamental theorem of abelian group i have to prepare that topic for viva but idk its real life application
tried searching but couldnt find anything
it classifies all finite abelian groups
the real life application is the application to math

guys help
every time i have to ready the word “abelian” my brain automatically appends a
to the end
i blame wew lads
abeliana
abelian gr-
Anybody remember any quick example of some ideal which is strictly greater than its contraction extension?
Does this make sense?
so a general element of R[x,y] looks like ax^i y^j which is contained in (x,y) which means that (x,y) really contains any polynomial and so (x,y) = R[x,y]
btw (x,y) is the ideal generated by x and y
Your ideal doesn’t contain constant terms
oh crap
yeah
I mean it obviously depends on the map, the ideal i mean
But i just can't see right now why they wont be equal
A general element is a sum of terms like that
Consider Z[i] and the ideal generated by 1+i, its contraction to Z is (2), and its extension is (2) again
yeah i realized that afterwards
Is this definiton incorrect?
Looks fine
Thanks, we can even use Z[x] right?
Id think so yeah
Its just that richard borcherds talks abt this exampr on his yt channel
(x,2) becomes (2) 😌
And i find the example cute
I feel like this is easier to visualise
this youtube channel looks awesome 
Its awesome to complement a pdf you’re reading
This dude truly has the understanding of a god and the way he presents different subjects is so nice
Defn 2.1 the curve is notated E/K. Is that notation, or is there actually some kind of quotient at work here???
K is just a field.
E has not been referred to before this.
Looks like it's just notation.
😢 pain
Like how e.g. a field extension F/K is also just notation, not a quotient at work.
Let
$$G = \left\langle a,b , \big| , a^2, b^2, abab^{-1}a^{-1}b^{-1} \right\rangle.$$
What is $G$ isomorphic to?
eM
Ah really? My lecturers use F : K for that
I get the elements $e, a, b, ab, (ab)^2$, which is a group of order 5 (prime), hence only isomorphic to Z_5, but if this the case, $G$ must be abelian, which I'm not sure how to derive from the relations.
The group can't possibly have order 5 since there are elements of order 2.
Yes.
Figure from this if any of the elements you've written are the same
as well as convince yourself you haven't 'missed' out any elements
For example, can't aba be in there?
(corrected typo)
Since a²=b²=e you can get rid of the ^-1 on a and b.
If you have been introduced to cayley graphs, I think drawing one would be handy 🤔
Shuri, why are you squaring the abab'a'b' relation?
cus im blind
(corrected the typo that wasn't there in the first place)
Further, since a and b are their own inverses, everything of the form abab..ba is its own inverse too.
But the last relation also tells us that bab is an inverse of aba, so these must be equal,
Hmm
e,a,b,ab,ba,aba
Thinking if I can reduce this any further
Oh wait, this might be S_3 then
No, it's D_3
Aren't...they...isomorphic?
One reason to call the result D3 is that <a,b|a²,b²,(ab)^n> in general produces dihedral groups.
I have yet to read up formally on group presentations --- is it possible to write down a 'bad' presentation
I've kindof convinced myself that it's not --- just the presentation can be simplified, worst case (I am visualizing it in terms of cayley graph)
For example, if you write <a,b | a^2, a^3, b^8, ab^6> , then that is just <b|b^2> I believe
Depends what you mean on a bad presentation
I mean if you write a presentation for a group using more generators than necessary that’s already not great
Ideally you have the minimal amount of relations and generators
yh sure - but I mean more like writing something that isn't a group
It always end up as a group, by definition.
Yeah no matter what relations you write your presentation is valid
The worst thing that can happen is that you get the trivial group back if your relations are inconsistent.
Yeah exactly
is the correct negation of this that there exists some group G where the equality holds
Can someone help me on this last time I posted this, it had a typo
You want to define a homomorphism from C to R such that the kernel is complex numbers of abs value 1 
are u 100% positive bout dis one
negation of this statement? I think so
yes
bleh aight
it's just phrased weird to me for some reason idk
the question not you
also are inverses in a group unique?
Hmm
try proving this and see what fails
Idk how to do that
Not many such functions come to mind, its a natural one
acutally ig dihedral group again
? why
if tau is flipping a square across y = -x then it's inverse could be tau as well as tau^3 and so on
in dihedral groups inverses are unique
i mean it is. it just equals tau
r u sure that it’s R^+ and not R^x?
its supposed to be R^x
okay
is this a good start
No its supposed to be R^x
not R^+
why
because it wouldnt be true with +
it was x in original problem
you drew over it lmfao
yeah
i know
the professor updated it
its a+ now

wait
it was a x before and he said it doesnt work lol

the + is in the actual problem
i got it!
wait actually I misread the problem I think, I thought z -> |z| would work but its not surjective obviously
It shouldve been R^*_+
what are my steps in order to solve these type of questions
like idek what to do bruh
isn't that the same as R^+ 
They both look like the positive real numbers to me 🤷♀️
R^+ has negatives
lets go
i think id seen the proof somewhere before so not that hard
I dont think so, there might be problems with things because of -1 and 1
but still cool :)
its >0
It should be R^*_+ im pretty sure
idk man. R^+ is positive reals to me. R^* is nonzero reals
catfan is right
R^* is reals but with different operation
R^+
R^+ is reals with addition
wtf
R^* is the group of units in R you muppets
R^*_+ are positive reals with multiplication
bruh. never seen that notation
Oh right
if you really want to be pedantic it should be notated (R^*_+, *)
Yeah nvm you're right
The placing of the + on superscript vs subscript confused me
I actually spoiled the solution in previous msgs idk feels like you didnt read them
moldi awoogens
I just have an exquisite first isomorphism sense
find a funny map
moldi question
little funny map lol
how many maps are there that would prove this?
ah that's a fun homomorphism to visualise actually
Like is there just one?
Prove what
the isomorphism
I didn't read the conversation I just saw you say first iso
C*/S^1 = R^*_+
$\bC^{\times}/S^1 \cong \bR^{\times}_+$
GM Wew Lads Tbh ✓
||You define C* → that thing by norm I suppose||
SPOILERS
this one is particularly easy to visualise
bro idek how to use that diagram
ben
||the choice of norm is arbitrary, I think it works for any norm||
Idk that's the only obvious thing that comes to mind
That norm here needs to be multiplicative
oh fun fact comes to mind
Otherwise not group map
ah just realised the problem is that S^1 as a set changes with the norm as well 
there are only 2 C automorphism without zorn and c^c with zorn 
multiple problems
No, S¹ is a fixed thing regardless of norm choice 
not with how they've defined it, right?
Kinda reminds of that problem where we want to show $\mathrm{GL}_n(\mathbb{R})/\mathm{SL}_n(\mathbb{R}) \cong \mathbb{R}^*$







