#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Β· Page 668 of 407
I'm confused about the explanation here: https://i.uguu.se/kGwfpAEV.png . In particular I don't understand the sentence "Therefore, a prime group should be in the form ${e, g^1, g^2, ..., g^{N-1}}$." If every member of the group has order either 1 or N, then say, $x_1^1 = e$ or $x_1^N = e$. So with $e = x_j^1$ for some j, how do we get that for say $x_l$, $x_l = g^i$ for some $i$?
joesmith1042
If an element g has order N, that means that the elements 1, g, gΒ², gΒ³, ..., g^{N-1} are all different (because otherwise the order of g would be smaller). If N is also the size of the group, this means that the powers of g are actually the entire group.
@tribal moss Oh, yeah, that makes sense.
@tribal moss So that implies that for any x_i in G, that x_i must be equal to one of the g^j.
Yes.
Cool, thanks, really appreciate your help π
yes I mean this but a group that isn't simple I definitely didn't mean that theres no other group that maps onto G. also since I sent that I realized my group was wrong ππ not all quotients are isomorphic to G itself unless the subgroup is finitely generated in my particular case
consider g^n = g^m for |g| > n > m. Then g^(n-m) = e, so |g| = n-m but |g| > n > m > n-m, which is a contradiction so g^n cannot equal g^m
just if you wanted a proof
@chilly ocean chmonkey and I proved that there's no group which is abelian and iso to all of its nontrivial quotients
He wanted me to relay the proof
so have i πππ
oh nice, how did you do it?
well the group obviously has to be infinitely generated
Yep
and if all subgroupa are normal
causw it's abelian
you can quotient out by a cofinite set of generators
How do you know that there's such a set with nontrivial quotient?
my original example is abelian, and the result holds for finitely generated normal subgroups
oh so
I thought about that
Q/Z?
yes ππ
That was my guess too :P
I have a sort of wishy washy way around that
When chmonkey dmed me I immediately said Q/Z haha
And then he pointed out the subgroup <1/3, 1/5, 1/7,...>
yup exactly
ok so for the question you askwd
take a minimal set of generators (don't ask me how to get one, idk π³π³π¬π¬)
I'm suspicious already
yeah like Q has no minimal set of generators π
generation isn't stable under intersection, I think, so you can't do a Zorn type thing
okay so I don't buy your proof haha
ok what's yours ππ
Okay so it's only for the abelian case
Let G be a group which blah blah blah
First, G has to be either torsion free or entirely torsion
This is because the subgroup of all torsion elements must be the entire group or trivial
π€¨
otherwise you can quotient by it?
If it's inbetween then the quotient can be distinguished from G, bc G has torsion and the quotient doesn't
Right
and be left with a torsion free nontrivial group
yeah, I was getting it confused with module torsion
They're related!
is this true?
I'm thinking about Z x Z/2Z here, but this might not satisfy the "blah blah blah" 
G is the sum of a torsion group and torsion free, right??
I never get the Indexing right but Tor_1(Z/nZ,G) = n torsion of G or something
I'm not sure if this holds in general
Outside of fg groups
yeah I just realized this condition
This is for G a group isomorphic to each of its finite quotients
That's the blah blah blah
Okay so
For the torsion free case
ah ok, then yes I agree
Take any nontrivial element g and look at G/<g^2>
g is not in <g^2> so it's nontrivial in the quotient and has order 2
yup yup yup
So G must be entirely torsion
that's what I was thinking too
Let n = min { |g| : g β e }
n is prime because if n = ap and g^n = e then (g^a)^p = e, so |g^a| = p
yup
I claim every nontrivial element of G has order n
Let H be the subgroup of e and all elements of order n
oh I seeee
If x, y have order n then n(x+y) = 0, so the order of x+y divides n and then it actually is n by minimality/primality. So H is a subgroup
H is a F_n vector space
Yep!
and a subgroup
And H = G
yup
yessss
Yeah
ok now for non wvelan groups
Still no idea about the nonabelian case
abelian*
Even the torsion elements aren't a subgroup
yeah π¬
So we immediately fail
I was gonna say tho structure thm fails in non fg
Q has no torsion, isnβt free
Anyway I drive
yeah for sur
here you can actually take a minimal set of generators
and then get a cyclic quotient
exactly
Or you're cyclic and it's easy
for non abelian infinitely generated
somehow I want something where all infinitely generated subgroups are G
that seems like too much to ask
or actually all I want is all cofinite sets of generators to be like that
I don't like thinking in terms of infinite sets of generators
Bc they can just be all the elements of the group
And there's no really a difference between G and G equipped with the set of all of its elements as generators
idk
I don't know that I believe this proof anymore
The step where you show G = H
Seems suspect now
if H isn't the whole of G, then some element g has order other than n
I don't see why G only has elements of order n
Is what I'm saying
That's what the shorthand G = H meant to me, sorry
you're in the abelian case still?
Yep
s
so
G/H is isomorphic to G
I think what this gives us is that every element of G has order divisible by n?
yeah I just realized elements can have order nΒ²
right
that's the same mistake we made
so I don't actually see how to use this info about G = G/H but I did prove the divisibility thing in a completely different way
for a prime p, let T_p(G) = { g in G : p is coprime to |g| }. This is a subgroup
T_n(G) is not all of G
so either it's trivial (everything in G has order divisible by n) or G/T_n(G) is iso to G
ugggh I think I'm running into the same issue
right, I am trying to prove this
oh I have a proof
oh sorry I wrote divisible by n when I meant "a power of n"
oh cool!
what's the proof?
I'm getting all twisted around
if the order of g has a prime factor other than n
then let's say n^k is the largest power of n dividing |g|
then g^(|g|/n^k) has order coprime to n
both in G and in H
what is H?
H is the subgroup of elements of order n
thinking
this element has order n^k, right?
g^(n^k)?
yes hahaha
I don't see why this is an element of H
and otherwise I don't see where you can get a contradiction
I had a contradiction earlier but I forgot what it was π
hmm
are there such things as p-sylow subgroups of infinite grouos
I don't think so
I have an idea
it really feels like n should divide the order of everything haha
you defined T_p(G)
yep
take the intersection of all such subgroups for p not equal n
sure
aka just the group of elements whose orders are powers of n
this is stuff of order divisible by n, right?
right
oh sorry
you're right
just the powers
ah the quotient should have no n torsion
if it's trivial, great
exactly
yes
nice
I knew there was something going on haha
okay so
we know that G has to be a p group for some p
nice
yup
I was just thinking that
haha
cause Z_p has the property where Z_p/H=Z_p
yeah
how are you notating elements of Z_p btw
through their normalized series cofficienfs
or
as elements of the product of pβΏ cyclic groups
right the issue with Q/Z is you could select out a prime
and hey this looks like my original guess π€§π€§
hahaha
I don't really know sorry
lol
is there some external characterization of Q_p/Z_p?
I want to just say "G/K still has property Nice so it's iso to Q_p/Z_p"
hmmmm
I was thinking more just like
classifying all subgroups π³π³π³
but that is probably pointless
seems hard
yes it does
pointlessly hard
are there any p groups that have elements of every order tbag don't contain a subgroup iso to Q_p/Z_p
Under which operation? I should think it's torsion-free under both multiplication and addition.
I don't know very much about the p adics Β―_(γ)_/Β―
neither do I π
I know someone who's researching the p adics rn
should I ask him hahahaha
It has solutions to $\underbrace{x+\cdots+x}_n = 1$ for all $n$ coprime to $p$, but since $1$ is not the additive identity, that doesn't a torsion element make.
Troposphere
troposphere, do you know if Q_p/Z_p has any nontrivial quotients that are not isomorphic to Q_p/Z_p?
we're trying to find an example of such a group
or prove there are none
Hmm, that challenges my spotty knowledge about p-adics too :-)
Additive groups, I suppose?
yep
I can think of a group that has quotients other than Q_p/Z_p πππ
we know that if such a group is abelian, it must not be fg and all elements must have order p^k for some p
Hmm, everything in sight looks abelian.
Q/Z doesn't work because of a subgroup like <1/3, 1/5, ...>, but the hope was that by selecting out one prime ahead of time you could avoid this
Or are you looking for "groups where all quotients are isomorphic to the group itself" in general?
That one (but where the group isn't simple)
How about Z?
Z/2Z is not isomorphic to Z
Oh whoops
so Q/Z has the property that every quotient by a fg subgroup is isomorphic to Q/Z
but it's not quite right
ok what about the subgroup of Q_p/Z_p generated by 1/p,1/pΒ²,1/pΒ³,....
what does the quotient of this subgroup give
That's the entire Q_p/Z_p, isn't it?
wait is that subgroup just all of Q_p/Zp
yes
fuck
ok interesting that makes me think
let H be a subgroup of Qp/Zp
yes
weird
it's very comparable to the standard integers base p, but just like backwards
that's how you can enumerate the elements
let m=max{k| 1/p^k in H}
if m doesn't exist, meaning if the set is infinite, then H is all of Qp/Zp (I think)
Sounds convincing.
But if m does exist then H is generated by the negative powers of p up to -m.
otherwise H is just the multiples of 1/p^m, is it not
yeah that's what I'm thinking
In sum, every nontrivial quotient of Q_p/Z_p is isomorphic to the whole group.
so is Q_p/Z_p presented by <x_1, x_2, ... | x_1^p = e, x_{i+1}^p = x_i>?
This sounds convincing but I don't really feel like I have a handle on the group
it's a weird group for sure
essentially like
there's some non-existent element and we're looking at all it's pth powers
sort of
start with an element with x^p = e and add in all the iterated pth roots of x
weird
but cool
It's also the same as "the ordinary rationals whose denominator is a power of p" quotiented by Z.
Yes.
there's a result that I have been procrastinating on to read the proof of which is that if f(x) factors in F_p[x], it factors in Q_p[x] as well
yeah oops that makes it much simpler hahaha I was thinking about it as some weird convoluted "reverse integers" this whole time
yeah haha I don't want to think about p adics if I don't have to
so we ended up classifying all subgroups anyway
hopefully my p adics friend will be impressed π
Oh hey, this is an example of a group where all cofinite subsets of any generating set generate it
Bc otherwise your proof would go through wren
yessss
Note that for p=2, Z[1/p] is exactly the "dyadic" rationals, which to help with the confusion is something different from "2-adic" rationals
right
Makes sense to me
it was fun to think about
But I was reading a book when Alex dmed me and now I get to back to reading the book bc this isn't going to keep occupying my thoughts
what book
anyone have a good way to get intuition for group extensions and semi direct products
it just seems like
"yea ok we have this injection, this surjection, if this other function actually has an inverse it's split"
etc etc
but it all seems so arbitrary
how is something "extending" something else
Extending A by B is like taking the group A, then putting B in place of each element in a way that makes everything work
This is my intuition for why it's called an extension
As for why we care about exact sequences, there's a lot of stuff, mostly in homological algebra and its applications
Idk why about extensions of groups in particular because I've never worked with those
@barren sierra
π· looking a lot like β 
is there any practical use for knowing what a semi ring or semi group is
lol
mood
hm
More practical than literally all of math, I've seen those used in automata theory 
this sign cant stop me cuz idk what that is :D
I'm taking an automata theory course rn I'll have to ask my prof
Monoids and semirings do, a lot
automata are extremely simple machines
I assume semigroups sometimes too
that in short are various versions of machines that have a state and take an input and give you a new state
they're really cool
yea
ok good to know tho, ty moldi
And you can use this to do some shit
imma have to ask my prof lol
I haven't really encountered them much in math
But no harm knowing definitions, not like you have a finite amount of storage in your brain
Oh wait that's just me, sorry
.
semigroups
demisemigroups
hemidemisemigroups
I've yet to see a semigroup in the wild
Consider the semigroup of contracting endomorphisms of a metric space π
idk im just going through my notes to make sure i know all this mf terminology
it's a lot 
It will very quickly feel like a lot
it has 0 
not in this case
then it's Z^+
0 is both positive and negative and is thus in Z^+
what's A moldi
fuck you <3
set
ok
why u gotta ruin my logic
ok wait
ok yeah I can see that being a monoid
cause you always got the identity map, and it's associative
Lol remove identity from any monoid and you're left with semigroup
yeah ok but that seems like a big deal
"the non-identical endomorphisms"
"identical to what?"
"what?
ok I'm gonna be honest I don't get that one
smol brain go play f6
yall weren't kidding the other day 
knife f5
magma theory is incredibly important and widely studied
By geologists
are you memeing or not 
well, most people call "magma theory" "algebra" for some reason
cuz it's an algebra 
no... all algebras are magmas acting on magmas (acting on magmas) 

I did have an actual question when I clicked on this channel
I cannot remember it
trolled
Before you ask, could I ask a quick question? How do you prove that a set is a partition?
a partition is a collection of subsets
Not sure what that means
it's a partition if the union of them all is the entire set and they're disjoint
anyway I have a composition $i_1f = gi_2$ where $g$ is unique and $i_1$ and $i_2$ are some fixed inclusion maps - and are thus also unique, would it be correct to conclude that $f$ must be unique?
GM Wew Lads Tbh
No 
it feels like it's either "yes duh" or "no you buffoon here's an obvious counter example" and nothing inbetween
Thank you
interesting
Wait I misinterpreted
I still believe the answer should be no
Or maybe not
Lul it's true I think
quick question sorry to interrupt you wew - for a set to be a semi group, does it multiplication specifically have to be associative or simply whatever its binary operator is
,w semigroup
it has to be associative
wolfram words it like it's specifically multiplication so idk
what
So composition of injectives is injective, and then the first map in an injective composite is injective
oh you're still in the mindset that multiplying = numbers, ok

First meaning the one applied first
so multiplying im gonna assume just means applying the binary operation then
Yes
Like when you multiply sets you get A Γ B their Cartesian multiple
ignore me
Does it make sense to speak of the diagonalizability of an endomorphism? Similar to the diagonalizability of a square matrix
yeah it's just some group homomorphism
it's more free group universal property shenanigans if you want context
Definitely if it's an endomorphism of some direct sum
Otherwise I'm not sure
Then I see no reason for f to be unique
What was I even proving bruh
Can't read
it's alright moldi, I have another proof in mind (that doesn't require that composition) it's just a bit more spooky
Hmmmm okay I think I understand about the free group stuff.
But when I think of square matrices I think of diagonalization as a factorization via eigenvalues.
So in the case of an endomorphism is a diagonalizable endomorphism a factoring into several endomorphism?
Not sure if that makes sense
Injective set maps are left cancellable
oh yeah
it was the first option 
The free group stuff was unrelated I think lol
2 parallel conversations
it was 
Is that true that a Lie algebra of dimension at most 2 solvable? If the dimension is 1 it is trivial I guess, becaus then L = Rad(L). But what is the dimension is 2?
But I was saying that end(some direct sum) has a notion of diagonalisability for direct sums of anything, be it vector spaces, abelian groups, modules or even exotic stuff like chain complexes and sheaves
15625 convos in abstract alg at once 
This is because you can write endomorphisms of a direct sum as a matrix
In the following sense
If you have A β B, then every endomorphism of this is uniquely determined by maps
f_AA, f_AB, f_BA, f_BB
Where f_CD is a map from C to D
Vector spaces are a special case of this
This extends to direct sums of more things too
So you get n Γ n matrices
And matrix multiplication still corresponds to composition
Every vector space is a direct sum of 1 dimensional spaces, and maps of 1 dimensional spaces are just scalars, so there the matrices just become numbers
But here our matrices will have functions as entries
@long obsidian
This is by the universal property of the product and the coproduct and finite direct sums are both in all additive categories, which includes all the above mentioned situations
Basically whenever the symbol β is used
gonna retract my devastation
And diagonalization would a direct-sum decomposition where the cross-maps f_AB and f_BA vanish?
Yeah, so you need a notion of 0 morphisms
But how do you know you've decomposed into enough pieces to deserve the "diagonal" name?
Require that each summand has an abelian automorphism group?
how do yall remember all this terminology
is it just constant usage
I assumed that we are given a direct sum decomposition
Perhaps indecomposability
Hmm, that might work.
It is only daunting when you don't know what it means
says the mf speaking an entire language of 1,000,000+ words
two of them actually 
wow thanks for making my point twice as valid
worth it for the smug
Add something like German which has denumerably many words.
the set of german words is uncountably infinite
I remember my first year in ug
constantly listening to my batchmates talk about tychonoff and hausdorff and thinking holy shit those sound like proper mathematician words
DonauΒdampfschifffahrtsΒelektrizitΓ€tenΒhauptbetriebswerkΒbauunterbeamtenΒgesellschaft
though i really only started second yr
Ah damn that's one thing we didn't cover properly in our deqnastral course
my case in point

baby moldi
πΆ
,w semiring
i think there is an error in this
I sometimes read semiring as present continuous tense of semire
wait does a semi ring not have additive id then???
no 
Whereas actually it's the present contrantinuous tense.
Semiring is just rng right
nah it's double monoid
I think it does have an additive identity...?
yes
it does
wikipedia says additive identity
I think it's rig, actualy.
but wolfram doesnt point it out
oh come on "rig" is actually on the wikipedia semiring page 
Is a semiring a monoid object in the category of abelian monoids 
Then it would actually make sense to call it double monoid π
2-monoid, perhaps?
hmm yes indeed
That could be easily confused with a 2-category with 1 object
Ngl half the time I say extra cat bs just to get a reaction out of you wew 
It would be a tragic day when you learn cat theory
I am naught but a play thing in this category hell 
an abelian monoid is an interesting one though
hmmmm is the free abelian monoid nicely behaved like the free module and free abelian group are
I must answer this question
is it just N^r I feel like it is
yeah it is
thanks for your help #groups-rings-fields in cracking this case
Lul np
Monoids are very cool
There's a more general definition of a monoid than a set with operations
Under that, the usual monoid is just a monoidal set
A ring is exactly a monoidal abelian group
Similarly there are monoidal categories
lemme guess, categories of objects with an operation that a monoid distributes over?
Which are categories like the category of abelian groups with the tensor product as its monoid "operation"
No, we are talking about a category that itself is a monoid
Lol
But that also works with ordinary product, ordinary coproduct etc
There are lots of monoidal structures
And once you have a monoidal category you can define monoidal objects in that category
I remember someone the other day talking about some construction with the tensor product that resulted in a group but I never made the further leap to consider that the tensor product in general is a monoid
I gotta get a ring out of this thing
A monoidal set is a monoidal object of (Set, Γ). A monoidal abelian group (a ring) is a monoidal object of (Ab, β)
hmmm
are we viewing abelian groups as Z-modules here or something?
I've never heard of taking the tensor product of groups
And whenever you have a monoidal object, you immediately also get something called a simplicial object that you can do a lot of topology and homology on
wait a minute is the tensor product of two abelian groups just an abelian group that satisfies the universal property?
Yes
ah yeah but we don't know that it actually exists
I forget about that slight catch
You can talk about bilinear maps of abelian groups
I'll just go with the Z-module view as I'm slightly more familiar with it
Ye whichever works
Same everything in both
Also, notice that rings are exactly β€ algebras
So β€ algebras are exactly rings which are exactly monoidal abelian groups which are exactly monoidal β€ modules
R-algebras in general are exactly monoidal R-modules

horrifying
It's such a great definition
You would never forget a condition to check whether something is an R-algebra if you remember this 
that would require remembering this 

I can kinda see it though
funny algbera over a ring is funny module over a ring with some multiplication on the module elements
Do you see why tensor product comes in
lemme re-read
my only thought is you're defining the multiplication of the module elements to be their tensor but that doesn't make sense to me
So a monoidal set (ordinary monoid) is a set M, a map M Γ M β M (multiplication) and a map 1 β M (unit) where 1 is the singleton set, such that certain nice conditions are satisfied
An important point to note here is that all of these nice conditions can actually be stated using only commutative diagrams, no elements required
I gathered 
π
Sasha feel free to post anything lol we'll move
xD I dun wanna interrupt the fun conversation flow
but if you insist
I'mma throw this here just to check I'm not being dumb
Counting the number of group homomorphisms from Zmβ x Zmβ to Znβ x Znβ I get gcd(mβ, nβ) gcd(mβ, nβ) gcd(mβ, nβ) gcd(mβ, nβ)
Using the fundamental theorem of presentations (or whatever it's called), given a presentation G = < X | R >, every function f: X --> H which satisfies the image of the relations R in H, extends to a unique group homomorphism.
The presentation Zmβ x Zmβ = < x, y | mβx = mβy = [x, y] = 0 >, means I just need to pick f(x) & f(y) so that mβf(x) = mβf(y) = 0 (the abelian requirement is automatically satisfied in Znβ x Znβ).
Pretty sure this breaks down to 4 equations where I need to count g in Znβ±Ό where mα΅’ g = 0 mod nβ±Ό, which is gcd(mα΅’, nβ±Ό), and so the total number of such functions is the product gcd(mβ, nβ) gcd(mβ, nβ) gcd(mβ, nβ) gcd(mβ, nβ).
ah so that's why you were typing for 10 minutes 

I can't see anything wrong there
monoids
assuming |Hom(Z_m1, Z_n1)| = gcd(m1, n1) is actually true because I forgor if it is 
yeah, that's true
I feel like a simple counting argument would work here rather than needing the universal property of the free group though
I'm just quoting the universal property, because it confirms I only need to count functions that preserve the order condition
the actual counting said functions is a different calculation entirely
because again it breaks down to counting x such that mx = 0 mod n with x in Zn
and if we write d = gcd(m, n)
then m = da & n = db with a & b coprime
dax = 0 mod db
ax = 0 mod b
b divides x
so counting said x gives b, 2b, 3b, ..., db = n
i.e. d = gcd(m, n) possibilities
is there a more subtle understanding to what a homomorphism is than just the raw definition?
ok maybe asking that is dumb bc the definition is easy to remember
i mean like how i can remember a homeomorphism as a map between topological spaces with no tears
it's just a map between groups that preserves the group structure, i.e. f(ab) = f(a)f(b)
other than that
I don't really think of it in a more interesting way
it gives you a copy of the group you're mapping from in the group you're mapping to
wouldn't that be an injective homo?
ok wise guy

ok ok
so it gives you uhh
wait
ok the groups abelian ok? groups are just abelian now ok that's just how it works

it gives you a copy of a subgroup of the group in where ever you're mapping 
π
thing of add is add of thing
this shit makes my brain mush man
don't look in the monoids thread
do all uncountable groups have some countable quotient? this seems obvious but idk how to show it
does (R,+) even have one?
oh wait yeah idk
R is a Q-vectpr space, so it has a basis and you can project onto a one dimensional space
it has an uncountable basis as a Q-vector space
yeah
I believe you can either have a minimum positive absolute value in which case the subgroup is basically Z, else 0 is a limit point so you should be able to get any real number as a combination?
yea
but I'm talking about quotients of R
to get a countable quotient you'll need to have an uncountable subgroup I believe
I'm not sure though my set theory is very rusty
yeah you definitely do
yea that was my thought
yeah
I'm pretty sure the set of algebraic reals is the largest subfield of R
and it's countable 
no it's not
you could pick any transcendental number and throw it in
and get a larger field
this does seem feasible but its very jank
when you added continuum many 
Hi, I am working on this problem. I proved the first half, but had a hard time figuring out the later half. I assume a^m = 1 mod p for contradiction, so a^n - a^m = 0 mod p. Then p | a^m or p | (a^{n-m} - 1). p|a^m is not possible because if so, p|a^n. I dunno how to show p|(a^{n-m} - 1) is not possible and how to use (p,n) = 1. Any hint would be appreciated 
sounds more like a #elementary-number-theory problem to me
yeah, I feel the same way. I'll ask in that channel
can someone help explain what is the difference between a direct sum and a direct product
i googled it and found some stuff but it was pretty confusing
for example is $\mathbb{R}^{\oplus2}$ a direct sum or a direct product of $\mathbb{R}$ and $\mathbb{R}$?
JustKeepRunning
I don't think the direct product is a thing
wait are u sure
cuz i've heard ppl using it
yeah they're synonyms
wut is qm
whoopsie
it's the direct sum then
i don't think so
\oplus is the direct sum
then wuts direct product
\times
no like i don't mean the symbol
i mean like literally wut is it
also i've seen ppl use the \oplus symbol and say the "direct product of..." so that means the notation is often misused ig
quantum mechanics
yeah they're the same for finite groups
no idk qm
I ask because I only understood linalg after learning quantum
no
only for abelian
according to d&f at least
you can't direct sum non-abelian groups
I was kind of implying the "abelian"
but you're right I should be more explicit
theres some categorical definition I dont know
so for finite direct products and direct sums, they are basically the same. but they're different in the infinite case. in an infinite direct sum R(+)R(+)..., all but finitely many of the terms are 0. so the element (1,1,1,1...) isn't an element of this direct sum. but in the direct product, you don't have this restriction
but for vector spaces, the sum is like adding vectors from 1 vector space to vectors from another and the product is a new vector space generated by taking products of vectors from one space and the other
(fun fact it's the same direct sum for vspaces and abelian groups)
wait shoot, direct product is different from tensor product isnt it
ignore what I said
yes it is very different
the tensor product is a quotient of the direct product
so they're related at least!?! 
i thought it was the quotient of some free module 
yeah they take the free module on the set MxN and quotient by some massive submodule
hmm
i guess yeah, they're related
I think you might be right
If I have an equivalence relation on RΓR, what does it look like geometrically? Say I have (x,y) ~ (u,v) iff ax^2 + by^2 = au^2 + bv^2 (where a,b > 0)
This is a special case of a more general equivalence relation: x ~ y if f(x) = f(y). The equivalence classes are the fibers of points in the image of f. i.e. level sets of f
the second equality?
expand the exponential and then notice both are the same due to V being unitary
is this saying sl(2) = su(2)+i*su(2)
it says they're isomorphic so I think that means there's a map between the basis that sends one set of structure constants to the other
or something
no i think (s)he's asking what the symbols on both side of the isomorphic symbol mean
tensor product with C, so like pretend the coefficients can take values in C and everything else is the same
convoluted way to say it
but it just means the matrix groups are seen as modules over C
or ig ur right
but its a little much if u never seen them before
yea ignore the first 4 words
focus on the "coefficients are in C and everything else is the same"
I see thank you
if M is a maximal normal subgroup of G, is G/M always cyclic
Is G finite?
But I think so
If it wasnβt then there should be some x not in M such that <M,x> is not all of G
no G is infinite
oh also is the frattini subgroup of infinite groups always nilpotent
nor cyclic
It's simple by the correspondence theorem
that's good enough for me! and how do you show this
Oh ye I meant cyclic lol
Simple, and not all simple are cyclic
Nice
ok what about the frattini subgroup
is it always nilpotent
please say yes π€π€π€
Probably not since all the statements were mentioning finite
The frattini subgroup can be empty I think
Or no it can be everything
Frattini is interscetion of maximal subgroups right?
Is Q nilpotent?
The frattini subgroup of Q is Q
yes by definition since Q doesn't have any maximal subgroups
so if it's empty it's defined to be everything
yes
shamrock gave me a little nugget about the frattini subgroup now I'm struggling with something about it
Oof
I just accidentally proved that the normalizer of a subgroup is always normal in the larger group, but this isn't true in general and idk where I went wrong π’π’
let H be a subgroup of G. G acts on left cosets of H by left multiplication. the kernel of this action is N(H). how does this not imply that N(H) is normal
nvm I see my errors
Am I mistaken or is this incorrect? Isn't this a K-module morphism regardless of commutativity?
Thatβs exactly what my first impression was. Either way Wikipediaβs treatment of generalized linear algebra is roundabout and confusing.
They're only defining algebras over commutative rings
the stress is over 'K-module homomorphism' and not 'if K is a commutative ring'
But also doesn't algebra over a ring only make sense if the ring is commutative
Since you require the structure map to be into the center
Why was that again
if you want the scalars to interact in certain way, then yea
Probably follows from monoidal R-module directly
probably something like (ax)*(by) = (ab)xy?
One reason I remember is that you want multiplication by a fixed scalar to be an endomorphism
Ah yes it also follows from monoidal R-module definition trivially lmao
Or like what follows is that the image of R has to be in the center
Not that R itself has to be commutative
Because we have the unit multiplication laws on both sides
for that we would require like M to be a (R, R) bimodule something right?
So basically algebras over non commutative rings are more complicated in their definition and that's probably why they are not talking about them 
Det did you see the monoid thread
That's what I spent 2 hours on last night
Talking about how monoids are amazing

i saw the existence 

Did you know that monads are monoids in the endofunctor category where the monoidal bifunctor is functor composition

i've heard that phrase 

I agree but wouldn't it still be a K-Module homomorphism even if it wasn't a commutative ring?
Ye that is true
But also this lol
That feels like it should be editted and I'm too lazy rn so rip. Another time maybe
Also you guys got nice colors (I think that changed?)
If new role congrats but I think y'all already had it so looking good instead
Yes, you leave out piss to dry, its color becomes stronger
Uhg I wanna ask one more question but unfortunately I don't think i can ask it due to stupid honor code policy even though it's more of a clarification π
Imma just ere on the side of caution
We've moved on from category theory and homology (for now) and now our ring/module theory prof is trying to give us a taste into algebraic geometry lolll
I already hate the Rees Algebra
Apparently he's an algeo-ist primarily so I am rather curious
This course has been a lot of fun but also a massive pain in the ass
Is there a good intuition for an algebraic set at my level? He briefly talked about it but the audio was having issues in the recording
My understanding is we're letting polynomials trace out curves on spaces and their solution sets to 0 have something to do with algebraic sets but Idk much else
if you have a set of polynomials in k[x1, ..., xn] then their set of common zeros is called an algebraic set 
idk what more to say about intuition about them
Can you explain what the difference is between that and a variety?
my AG isn't very good, but i think classically they mean the same thing
modern AG defines variety as something like reduced separated finite type scheme over a field?
So literally just a set of shared 0s (basically) ? A lot simpler than I thought
classically you also consider varieties living in projective space
its also hard to write down a variety (in modern language) that cannot be embedded in some projective space
so the classical language is already pretty powerful
usually you add some hypothesis like Β«the ideal of definition is primeΒ»
or you patch together these sets of shared 0's
maybe one thing is this, if F was that set of polynomials, then the set of common zeros of F and the ideal generated by F is the same thing, but as k[x1, ..., xn] is noetherian, that ideal is finitely generated, so, that algebraic set would be shared 0s of finitely many polynomials
no not here
the nullstellensatz tells you that the system has a solution in some finite extension of the base field
Mm yea I got a lot more to cover, but getting there
Still got several more years for better or for worse (spoiler alert, probably the latter
)
(you need some hypothesis, your ideal should be proper)
Nice moon pfp btw
I always assumed that to be true before reaching Nullstellensatz given the existence of field extensions, but I suppose there is no reason to without it
field extensions works well for polynomials with one variable
for >= 2 variables it's way harder
Could you elaborate?
I need to get some sleep so good night everyone, thanks as always π§‘
For a one variable polynomial P , you know that in some extensions it has a root, you can split it in a finite extension, if the polynomial is separable you can study the field of decomposition through Galois theory
I don't know if there is Galois theory of >= 2 variables's polynomials
In order to show that polynomial in >= 2 variables has a root (in some extension, assuming it's not invertible), you need to use the Nullstellensatz, which is way harder to prove that looking at a quotient k[X]/P(X) if P is irreducible
algebraic geometry can be described as the study of systems of equations of polynomials in multiple variables
depending of the base ring/field you are considering (the integers, the rationnals, the reals, the complex numbers, the p-adics, a number field, a function field, β¦) you get different theories, with specific methods
solving $x^n+y^n=z^n$ over the integers does not raise the same questions/problems than solving it over the reals numbers (where it's trivial)
Adrien
Youβre right, it quickly branches into many other subjects. I wasnβt even thinking of Fermatβs Last Theorem
I can't give a proper background/overview of the subjet since I'm far from being an expert, but IΒ want to emphasize that the problems gets usually way harder when you generalise them, and for some of them you may be close to research's questions !
depending of the context you get algebraic number theory, real algebraic geometry, complex geometry, p-adic geometry, β¦
concerning Galois theory, it's far from being understood nowadays
the Langland's program studies the representations of the absolute Galois group of the rationals, and relate them to automorphic forms
it's still highly conjectural, and has been a field of research for 50 years
on the other hand, you can take a look at analytic number theory
here are some questions you could have about a systems of equations : Β«Does the system has solutions ?Β» Β«If it does, how many are they ?Β» Β«Can we give a formula ?Β» Β«Can we have asymptotic resultsΒ» ? Β«How are they distributed ?Β» Β β¦
basically, you try to give quantitative statements
random question, but is there a nice description of endomorphisms of F_2 up to inner automorphisms?
I know for instance that the outer automorphism group is GL_2(Z)
F2 ?
the free group on 2 generators
yeah it turns out to be the outer automorphism group of F_2 as well
it only works for n=2
isn't the group of inner automorphisms isomorphic to FΒ²
yes it is
ah is the outer group the quotient of the whole automorphism group by the inner ones
yeah
if you take an automorphism f and make a matrix M(f) by counting the occurences of a and b in f(a) and f(b) you get something in GL2 and it is not changed by composition with a inner automorphism
so maybe it's that ?
the hard part to show is that it is left unchanged only by the inner automorphisms
in general the inner automorphism group is contained in the kernel of the map Aut(F_n) -> GL_n(Z)
For the first time today, I saw a polynomial ring with possibly an uncountable number of variables being used in a proof in Galois Theory.
I ran back through my notes and all the results seem to be proven for single variable polynomials. Uhhh should every proof be the same if I try to extend it to the infinite case? Stuff like proving it is a euclidean domain, etc.
algebraic closure?
is this a standard result I can find somewhere
Idk any resources but I spent like 3 hours proving this with Saketh the day before an exam once 
The way we did this was by basically picking a value for f(1) then halving the input repeatedly and then arguing by continuity that after some number of halvings this value has to start choosing only the "principal" value as its square root and the point where it stabilizes gives you what it will be in the exponential form
something like that
Hmm, even with countably many variables, the polynomial ring stops being Noetherian, for example.
Even with two variables you lose PID. I can't remember about UFD off the top of my head though. You don't even need to get to the infinite case to get totally different behaviour from the one-variable case.
Uhhhh ok
If D is a UFD, so is D[x]
let me show
And I believe that the union of an ascending chain of UFDs should be a UFD
This would show UFD for all polynomials rings
big if true
Proof goes onto 2nd page but im referring just to the 1st part
I thought we needed PID but maybe not uh (nvm just realised that dumb lol)
A particular element of the polynomial ring can only mention finitely many variables, so if polynomial rings with finitely many variable admit unique factorizations, then so does every polynomial ring.
So reading up, what do I know about this poly ring with infinite var
Other than its a ring (im convinced about that at least)
I don't think you need anything in this proof
All you do is adjoin elements t_i which will act as roots for q_i(x)
And then quotient by (q_i(t_i))
but this need not be a field
So you take a maximal ideal containing all q_i(t_i)
Only issue is showing that this is a proper ideal
I don't think you need much for that
I see
proper ideal is what the thing sets out to do
at the end there, i follow that barely
thanks for clearing that up
ah right
I thought we needed other properties and stuff
but the proof aside
it is a ufd
but not pid
?
From this?
Yeah UFD follows from transfinite induction + adjoining 1 variable doesn't break UFD + unioning ascending chains of UFDS doesn't break UFD
PID breaks as soon as you adjoin 2 variables
yh
Now transfinite induction is just that but now our variables are numbered by a general well ordered set, rather than the natural numbers
Well ordered set because they are numbered by some set, and you can assume that that indexing set has a well ordering because every set can be well ordered
And then we are inducting by using the fact that every element of a well ordered set is either a successor or a limit
Oh you can view this as zorn's lemma lol
We take zorn as an axiom essentially at the start of this course
But thanks for explaining will look into that too π
Ye it's not math if you don't assume zorn 
Given K[infinitely many variables], you can take the poset of K[any subset of the variables]
Well the poset of K[any subset of the variables] that are UFDs
Apply zorn on this to get a maximal element, since the union of any ascending chain of UFDs is a UFD this works
And then prove that the maximal such UFD has to be the entire ring because if not, you can adjoin a missing variable and make it a larger UFD
symmetric groups arent about symmetries in the middle school sense right
it's taking the word symmetric as just like... "the same"...?
Yeah, here symmetry doesn't mean symmetry of a geometric shape, it means symmetry of any object
In symmetric groups, you talk about symmetries of a set
but if it's like the dihedral group then it technically does mean that kind of symmetry ig...?
or am i mixing things
Yes
oh ok
You can talk about symmetries of any object, and they always form a group
This argument ought to work even if the set of variables is not well-orderable.
then the problem is i only know an example of a symmetry, like how i only know open sets in R until topology :D
Ye you will learn about automorphisms soon if you haven't already
he defined them but it seems we're going back to it in two weeks
It is an invertible homomorphism
And you intuitively think of it as a relabelling of elements
yeah i came across it yesterday as bijective homomorphism so same thing
and it actually made sense!
ie if you have a group G and another group H, then an isomorphism G β H is a way of identifying corresponding elements of G and H so that these groups are essentially the same
And only differ in the names of their elements
The analagous thing for sets is bijections
ie bijections are isomorphisms of sets
:O
Now you can talk about isomorphisms from an object to itself
That is a way of relabelling elements of that object so that the object is still essentially the same
β
Isomorphisms from an object to itself are called automorphims
ie symmetries of that object
And for any object, the set of symmetries on that object forms a group
so then we're probably gonna do that without him actually saying the word automorphism lol
You have seen a specific instance of that
the dihedral group
I think he will after you see isomorphisms
Ye and the symmetric group as an example of Aut(S)
Aut(S) meaning group of automorphisms of a set S

ie bijections S β S
And now you can do Aut(G) for a group
or Aut(R) for a ring R
and all the other stuff
All of them are groups because symmetries can be composed to give symmetries and composition of functions is associative and identity is symmetric and symmetries are invertible
That's all I have rn
i'll be back to bother later dw <3
Good thing I will not be home for the next 4 days π
Anyway what does nitezba mean
what does β mean
That I have accepted tinky dinky as the supreme overlord

You should try it
"meg" "kanga gang" "β"
much better π
Ye idk what all those other weird things are, β is just tinky cult, the least weird
yes that is what some call tinky dinky



