#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 665 of 407
think of Z/2Z x Z/4Z
k!=0
so like I have Z/10Z
Then {0,2,4,6,8} is a cyclic subgroup
generated by 2
and the order is 5
Now for any group G with prime order
consider the subgroup generated by any element of G
if you work out examples of possible generators you will find there arent any that single handedly generate entire group
it could be the identity element which generates the trivial subgroup
so there are 0
yes
the group is finite and not cyclic
there are simplier examples though
but for every other element what can the order be?
fuck man
|<g>| ||G|=p
bruh just gimme the answer not a riddle
what is |<g>|
it divides a prime
have you learned lagrange theorem @chilly ocean ?
so it’s either 1
i did bruh
or the prime itself
this is so confusing
what is confusing?
all lagrange says
is
order of h divides order of g
idk how you guys got all this it amazes me
im a junior in college
"A group of order p prime has exactly one generator" is this true or false and why? can you guys help me on this problem?
can yoy think of a counter example?
order of any subgroup H divides order of the whole group G
yes i agree on this
or better yet use lagrange theorem
doesnt all the coprimes generate the group itself?
thats what i thought
what are coprimes?
a cyclic subgroup is a subgroup

so the order of a cyclic subgroup divides the order of G
the order of G is prime, so the cyclic subgroup has the same order as the order of G
1 and itsefl\
then the cyclic subgroup is the whole group
so for this statement are we assuming H is a cyclic subgroup
cause it says generators
?
no
so the group G is cyclic and every non identity element is a generator
generators are just elements of a group that generate a subgroup
okay
all elements of a group generate a subgroup
you can always take any element of a group and generates a cyclic subgroup
okay so A group of order p prime has exactly one generator
Yes that can be shown in three steps
where does lagranges theorem
take play in all of this
<g> is the subgroup of G generated by g
every subgroup H of G has order dividing order of G by lagrange theorem
so order of <g> must divide order of G
We know G is prime
so order of <g> must be 1 or the prime
if it is 1 then <g>=e
if it is the prime then it is G
thank you u saved my ass tonight
☺️
we pick the subgroup generated by any element!= identity
then show its order is the same as the whole group
since order is the number of elements
if you think of <g> and G as just sets with <g> contained in G
and they have the same order hence same amount of elements
we must have <g>=G
then G is cyclic
bro youre so smart that you dont even understand the question
oh whatever you wanna take Zp go ahead
everything except 0 generates Zp are you satisfied?
his question was what is the number of generators of a group G of prime order
why don’t you show how they’re all isomorphic to Zp without proving G is cyclic
Oh right go talk about invariant factors
ookaayyy at least i touch grass
It isnt much to show that finite cyclic groups of same order are isomorphic
Is a theorem
yes but you have to prove prime order implies cyclic
to prove that well use Lagrange
We already went over this though
Indeed we were already done
It’s prime order so it’s cyclic
which means every subgroup is either just the identity
or the whole group
because it has to divide the order of the whole group which is prime
so 1 and 11
every element except identity generates a nontrivial cyclic subgroup, which must be the whole group
so every element except the identity is a generator
now in Z11
so just 11?
the elements are {0,1,2,…,10}
identity would be 0
every other element generates the whole group
so the generators are 1,2,3…,10
They are also all coprime to 11
ohhhh i think i get it it
thanks bro
so for 11
it would be
3,5,7,9?
@lavish nexus
yes
11 is prime
Do you see the problem
yes
No
also 11=0 in Z11
Yeah
The number of elements coprime to some integer n is denoted φ(n)
oh okay thanks bro
so this is the answer you first got
since |Imφ|·|Kerφ| = |G|, then |φ(a)| divides
|a|. Why can you not make this leap?
Every integer is coprime to a prime number
yeah
gcd(n,p)=1 for all n if p prime fo
idk how i forgot that bruh
actually bro idek what this means im jk
assuming he knows 1st iso
Lol
im done bro this shit too abstract
no dont
i want you to stay
dude this class is killing me
im so lost
it gets way worse when you go higher, you will appreciate the struggle
i need a map from dora the explorer bro
or when you talk about sylow theorems ☺️
this my last math class
😣
F
I wont blame you, if you dont enjoy it
i dont enjoy this class at all
I am a proponent for human rights
i loved combintorics
intro to proofs
i love psych101
well maybe you’re an analyst
in this class?
i know how to fit 5 choclolates into 4 boxes
pigeonhole principle baby
stars and bars baby
breast first search
Then are you sure it's not just that your prof this time is bad 
he is bad
@hidden haven enablor
yall rocking with the bfs?
or yall dfs type guys
boyfriends!
I'm a tree exists kinda guy 
me in love with suffix trees
Me 
me too 🙈
noice
same
Where do people typically go after finishing an algebra sequence in undergrad?
Finishing with galois theory for example
Id think they would jump to commutative algebra stuff
but when do they use the galois theory stuff?
Just a taste of the horrors of cat theory diagrams
ECE here I'll appreciate your nfts
I remember when I first saw it in intro to proofs
A month later it seemed completely natural
But also there’s algebra sequence in grad
at least the second semester would be basically all new stuff
Yeah atm im taking second sem grad alg
and we learning comm alg and baby ag
but galois theory stuff on backburner
i also took an at course
and it felt like there was so many things i could build off of from there
i guess you can use lots of galois theory for doing alg nt
Galois theory is geometry in disguise anyway 
How to interpret this kind of diagram ? The middle part is, I think, the usual way of putting the fundamental theorem. The rest I suppose is talking about the kernels of the different maps? But have no idea how to read it. Maybe this has to do with exact sequences or something likke that, but I have not gotten into that.
This is from the wikipedia article btw
thanks
the long diagonal going from the bottom left to top right is an exact sequence yes
the only thing the diagram on its own says is that these maps commute
so like
f = iota circ pi
Not sure if this has an answer, but does the language of lattices help us in any way to formulate these statements in a more compact manner?
It's from Carter's book on lie algebras, and abstractly all of these statements are various compatibility conditions for the subspace / subalgebra / ideal lattices of a lie algebra L
like, (i) and (ii) tells me that the embeddings Id(L) → SubSp(L), SubAlg(L) → SubSp(L) are meet-semilattice-homomorphisms
Hm… does (iv) mean that Id(L) → SubSp(L) is also a join-semilattice-homomorphism?
library's copy of artin is checked out
what textbooks do yall use besides that
or judson which my library also doesnt have 
I used D&F and Aluffi
You can find the pdf in google
the point is that i cant stand pdf's lol
Check the pinned message in #book-recommendations of Several Sloths, he gives some recomendations there
i... can't see book-recs, i have perma study
I don't know what this means tbh
i have a role that hides all the discussion channels
pdfs or reading in any electronic device is much superior than physicial books, specially for maths. Because you don't have to hold the cover so that it doesn't close. And so on
but just my opinion
ive heard a lot of people cite D&F, is there any benefit to one over the other
my library also has neither actually 
Herstein
Topics in algebra
Topics in algebra is what I used
Bro what kinda library do you have at your school

One of them is at a higher level than the other
The lower level one doesn’t talk about eg group actions which is kinda monka
ok correction we have em theyre just checked out
which means other people in my class probably checked em out which means they’ll be checked out the whole semester
it’s like we all have stands and we’re gonna see who does best with what textbook 
not actually i dont watch jojo or know most of my classmates lol
Jacob son
You bought it?
interesting
Nice\
thank u all for suggestions 
How do you solve x^5 - 5x^2 + 15 = 0 in radicals?
Use the quintic formula
like wikipedia says it's solvable
and it's galois group is D_5
oh yeah, proof by desmos
for iv) isnt that just... by the way the elements are defined...?
he's muted 
i talked to him tho lol
guys quick wew lads is muted post wew lads slander
Just to make sure i'm not being stupid: This exercise has me prove that the direct sum of quotient modules is isomorphic to quotient of the direct sums. Now, this is true for a direct product too right? (With an arbitrary index set ofc, otherwise both notiond are the same). I'm not seeing any reason why the obvious argument won't work, it just makes it a bit weird the exercise is specifically about direct sums
Direct sum = elements s.t. finitely many indices are nonzero, while direct product has no such restriction
What is the argument you are thinking of?
I don't have a counterexample but the proof I have in mind only works for direct sums
Just 1st iso
Where does it fail for direct products
Like define the obvious map from
\prod M_i -> \prod M_i/N_i
Ans apply first iso
Yea would it not be
It's 0 exactly when all the elements are in Ni
Like I don't think the cardinality of the index set affects anything
Alright cool, just direct products with arbitrary index sets can be kinda funky sometimes so I wanted to make sure I wasn't missing anything
I might be missing something too
Like this argument seems fine but the statement feels somewhat sketchy and unnatural to me on sight
Same tbh
I don't see where it goes wrong if not finitely.many of your elements are nonzero
Yeah
Might be true then
Oh I guess this should just be a simple enough statement to google
Very

Moldi has been honourable for long
omg when did that happen
Lmao
Oh color change nvm
Oh another thing that's semi-related that idr if I asked here. I know the contravariant hom-functor turns direct sums into direct products
(i.e. Hom(\oplus Ai,B)=\prod Hom(Ai,B))
But why does this fail w/ direct products
Loll
well while you are here
UwU?
do you know if direct products preserve quotients
it seems so weird because can't find anything by googling and it is not a left adjoint so why would it preserve coeqs
but this argument 😵💫
It works with direct products if the product is in the second slot
Yea ik, i'm asking specifically about the contravariant functor tho
Like, rotman gives the above as a theorem but doesn't talk about direct products in the 1st slot
Because if it worked with direct product, then direct product would satisfy the universal property of the direct sum
is rotman good
Well you could run the proof of uniqueness of universals
Use this isomorphism
to get maps going both ways
And you would get an isomorphism between the direct sum and direct product
There's a theorem by Yoneda (not the Yoneda lemma) which says that there is a universal morphism from x to G iff Hom(y, -) = Hom(x,G-) for some y
Where the y is in the domain category of G
I see
hi sorry to interject but is this the same as saying G is "generated" by those two matrices
Do you happen to know an example where iso doesn't hold for the coproduct case
Yes, generated in the sense of algebras
Probably just take vector spaces since you can argue by dimension
You could maybe assume that that bijection holds and get a condition on the dimension
Hmm
hi wew lads
and dimension of product and sum are different for infinite
yes
Assuming that your notion of generating is the correct one

But I mean in the case whwre both are products i.e.
Hom(\prod Ai,B) and \prod Hom(Ai,B)
oh shit oh fuck he's back
Sure
run
Then the right side is countable if the indexing set is countable
But countably infinite product of Q will have uncountable dimension
So the first thing should be uncountable
what is the correct one then tho
Wait why would the right be countable then, isn't it also a countably infinite product of Q
Smallest subalgebraic structure containing those elements
Right is countable
left is not
I'm asking why
i just imagine that G is the set of all matrices that can be reached by multiplying those two, and whatever they generate in turn, as long as it's closed under the operation
wait
This is definitely not true
bruh moment
Lmao
yeah that's right
epicness
Multiplying and adding
it's a group
It says subalgebra
his prof is a crank
subalgebraic structure
Oh...
very this
So do direct products preserve quotients
Or have you moved on
The argument seems legit
algebra doesnt imply algebra over a field in this class
he's 2 weeks into group theory Shin 
just an algebraic structure
I.c.
Bruh
Universal algebra moment
Well i'm still thinking about it but I want a counterexample to contra hom functor preserving products
still couldn't define most of these damn terms
Ye I think too
Why would u not provide a counterexample rotmans. Does it require choice or smth
the way I think about generating groups is G is generated by a, b then G consists of all elements of the form a^nb^m for n, m integers (subject to some relations
)
this isn't the "formal" way but you know what I do not care
Non constructive proof of counterexample by Yoneda 
And b^na^m too for nonabelian groups
very true
U don't need explicit relations yoy just assume everything is in simplest form
Generated groups = all finite products of elements and inverses in generating set
I very much hope a concrete counterexample exists
If there is one, idt one of the modules can be free
in this example then G is just four elements right
why is that?
It shouldn't work for free modules either
By the yoneda argument again lol
Oh chrew
But I feel like it would be much harder to find a concrete counterexample
perhaps
Maybe uhh, if ur ring doesn't have ibn?

Idk any rings like that
I saw a paper.on arxiv that said that if contra hom functor preserves all products then the base ring is 0
In zfc
That makes sense yeah
no, it's 8 I think
the matrix with just one -1 is order 4 and the other is order 2
and both their subgroups are disjoint 
By Yoneda 
Bruh

It's N^(N^N)
Because the direct product of Q with itself |N| times is already Q^N^N
Wait
What the fuck am I saying
Both sides have a direct product of Q with itself N times
idk what that last bit means but im gonna assume i should check order of each element from now on for shit like this
No direct product of Q definitely isn't countable dimension though
Oh yea I agree
But both sides have that factor
But if you're like, doing Hom with the base field idt that increases the cardinality
Ah true
checking their order is a good place to start, the only problem is when you get something like a^3 = b or something like that, that could interfere with the order
or like ab = ba, weird nonsense
I think that holds for both contra and covariant hom
alternatively just compute all 8 combinations and show they're all distinct explicity
It does

Dual is larger
Ye for infinite dimension
Contravariant hom functor can suck my dick
Dual is power set dimensional
I suspected as such moldi
But I didn't know how to show it
Ok so that's a counterexample
Albeit a very unsatiafying one
Damn this is so dumb I can't believe I'm struggling to count dimensions
It's not even dimension it's cardinality

what's the problem?
It's done lol
He wanted an explicit counterexample for contravariant hom preserve product
Ye
And we were struggling to count the dimensions in the counterexample I have for like 15 minutes

Cuz rotman said it turns sum into product but no further discussion
I still have no intuition for why this fails but ig I'll come back to what u said about universality a bit later
Just learn Yoneda smh 
Oh actually this can also be proved using yoneda lemma
Rather than the small theorem he proved that I was using so far
Well you gotta use both 
But with both it's actually just an equation and you are done
Does what u said about it saying that product will have universal property of coproduct require those
Well the equation is
Product of Hom(A_i, B) ≈ Hom(Product of A_i, B) ≈ Hom(Sum of A_i, B)
And yoneda lemma says that Hom(X, -) ≈ Hom(Y, -) implies X ≈ Y
so easy
Require what
Oh ye I straight used yoneda lemma here nothing else actually
Along with the assumption that this holds for both
Of course I'm assuming that the isomorphism you have is natural in B
There's no way you can describe an isomorphism here that works for everything but isn't natural lol
Like informally speaking
Maybe if they were vector spaces because choosing bases breaks naturality
But you can even do that for modules
Yea I think it would have to be natural
Ok I see, that's really nice
Yoneda lemma is incredible

Doing my topology hw and spamming yoneda
For simple stuff
Hope they don't mind 😌
Lmao
you ever just forget that matrix multiplication isnt commutative 
Oddly enough this was never proved in our classes
Oh if you don't.mind expanding a bit on why yoneda implies that. Like from the formal statement
Huh
no because that's like the most prominent example of a non commutative ring lol like you can construct a very large class of nice non commutative rings from it
It comes from the fact that X mapping to Hom(X, -) is a fully faithful functor
rudeness...
All fully faithful functors reflect isomorphisms (if the image is an isomorphism so is that preimage)

Wait so where does yoneda come in
And to prove that it is fully faithful you need to identify what maps from Hom(X, -) to Hom(Y, -) look like
Yoneda does it slightly more generally
Classifies maps from Hom(X, -) to any F
Those are exactly the elements of FX
Ahh I see
So take Hom(Y, -) = F you get Hom(Y, X)

And if you retrace the bijection everything works out
I c
when you said this did you consider both left and right multiplying matrices...

does anyone get this
does the suffering ever stop
im at 8 elements of G already only using the first matrix
ok something's gone awry
it's definitely order 4
and 2
yeah
should be 16 unless the matrices so happen to commute
i found one pair that commutes so far
im just going through and doing every combination 
is it a^4 and b^2 perchance
Bruh what are you trying to do
find all the elements in G
but also idk if this is specific enough bc a*a^2 is not the same as a^2 *a
unless im overthinking it
actually the second matrix squared is in the centre of Z(GL_2(R)) so yeah it makes sense some should commute
no
this is never the case
because groups are associative
Think about it geometrically
One matrix is reflection of the plane along x=-y
and the other is a rotation ccwise yeah
The other is clockwise rotation by 90
clockwise 
it's counter clockwise but yeah same thing
I would claim that you have reflections along the 2 axes, the 2 diagonals, and rotations by multiples of 90°
That should be all
Isn't this exactly D_4
Yes
probably yes
This is it
bc there's a question about D_4 on this homework as well 
Nice
i was trying to do it numerically and i got more matrices tho that's what im confused
For D_4 here's a cheat code
like i saw the connection early on but ignored it
Take any reflection call it s
up up down down left right left right b a
did i do it
Take a 90° rotation call it r
Then your set will be exactly {r, r², r³, 1, sr, sr², sr³, s}
Because you will be able to prove that
r^4 being the identity tho
r⁴ is 1
s² is 1
And rsrs is 1
i mean yeah i can see all this but then multiplying those two matrices from before in different ways gives more shit
unless actually wait
It can't check your multi
no yeah it def does
wdym
it definitely doesn't
So the subalgebra generated by them must be contained in D_4
By closure properties of D_4 itself
you're fucking up your matrix multiplication I hate to say it
think about the transformations, you cannot rotate by 90 more than 4 times before ending back up where you started, and reflecting twice gives you fuck all (the identity)

I fucking hate these exercises btw can I just interject for a second
why force students to do 16 matrix multiplications (8 if they notice r^2 is in the centre of GL_2(R))
yeah i dont like this professor at this point lol
maybe ignorance wouldve been more bliss
It might help to just think of how these transformations behave in the x and y axes
yeah doing it like that makes perfect sense
Ignore all else and it becomes a counting problem
im just gonna redo my multiplications i guess
All that these 2 things can do is permute the half axes
In a way that once you know what happens to the positive x axis you know what happens to the negative x axis
So they just map positive x axis to 1 of 4 choices and positive y to 1 of remaining 2
They and none of their compositions can do anything wacky other than these 8 things
Now just check that you can get all 8 however you want
yeah and then map them back into matricies 

this is why dummit and foote is the way.
some of the best exercises i have seen in any math text
ok if a is $\begin{bmatrix} 0 & -1 \ 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix}$
nitezba
calculate a^2 real smooth like
it's just -1's on the diagonal

matricies that are scalar multiples of the identity commute with fucking everything
literally EVERYTHING
this violates associativity on top of that
a^3 is $\begin{pmatrix} 0 & -1 \ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}$ and I can tell you that for sure without even doing matrix multiplication
Wew Lads Tbh
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
cringe pmatrix
lmfao
i need a break
gonna go hide in a cave for a little while, might fuck around and fall in love with some shadows idk
i promise im not always this fucking braindead
yeah sure, and I'm not braindead either 
we're all braindead other than moldi
(and det)

I've started Knapp and the NT at the start has completely lost me
modulo stuff?
no
euclidean algo?
like weird divisor stuff
yeah
euclidean algo is fine
just
all the proofs are losing me
i just skipped the last few theorems in the section
mood
I'm sure i won't need them... 
famous last words
Guys where does this highlighted implication come from?
whats confusing me is that the rationals under addition arent finite
If [Q:H]=n then the group Q/H has n elements, so if x is any element of the group you can see that the subgroup generated by x must have order dividing n, in other words nx=0 in this group. so picking any element r of Q we see that rn belongs to H
lol this is a cute formulation
what i wrote? LOl
no the problem
it is just a field has no nontrivial ideal
but said in terms of groups
because N is normal Q/N is a group
the elements are cosets
[Q:N]=n means there are n cosets
so Q/N is a group of order n
i already knew the index of a subgroup is a group
why did we have to show it was normal first
otherwise Q/N isn't a group
but didnt we assume that [Q:N] = n?
that's the number of cosets
and the def of index in this case would be Q/N ?
cosets don't require N to be normal
so the first highlighted portion
is basically saying
wait
i honestly dont know why they do Q/N
like how did that even come up and why does that matter
_ _
something wacky happens because this is finite
is this a formula?
i dont get why we make the jump from being normal to that statement
Q/N has as its underlying set the cosets of N in Q, so (provided it exists) it has cardinality [Q:N]
it's a standard result of quotient groups
we havent even went over quotient groups smh
so now that Q/N is a group of order n
the elements of Q/N are qN
but then qN+qN+...+qN n times must be N
hence nq is in N
then nQ is in N
but nQ is Q
the end
such a wholesome ending
this is true because q is an arbitrary rational number btw
yes
fuck man
if you haven't done quotient groups yet idk why you're looking at this result
maybe there's an obtuse way to formalise it without quotient groups?
I could go through the steps of iteribus' proof in very high detail if you want
okay so let me ask a few questions lol
if H is normal to G then |G/N| = [N:H] ?
H normal in G then |G/H| = [G:H]
definition of a quotient group
actually should be q+N
it should
they're cosets
because H is normal the left cosets are equal to the right cosets
that's why normal subgroups are defined like they are
how is qN + qN .... = N
I'll let you take this one iteribus 
everything raised to the order of the group is identity
it follows from "the order of the element divides the order of the group"
identity in Q/N is N = (q+N)+...+(q+N) n times = nq+N
thats the identity?
(the group operation on G/N is (g+N)+(g'+N) = (g+g')+N btw, and e+N = N so N is the identity)
Has someone got Dummit and Foote pdf with bookmarks?
how are those equal bruh
man im so done with this
i literally read the cosets and lagrange chapter
i took notes
this is nothing like what the book has
nQ is equal to Q because if you multiply every fraction by n you still just get every fraction
yeah
ok then everything that is in Q is in nQ
alternatively, show that Q -> nQ, a/b -> na/b is a group isomorphism (since we don't care about the field structure here)
infinite group isos are problematic
nah just check da axiomz
actually you can just show it's a straight up bijection from Q to itself, not even isomorphic it's just equal
Z is isomorphic to nZ
bro
i cant pass this class
im not made for it
literally none of this makes sense to me besides definitions
true, you'll have to consider the identity map Q -> nQ, a/b -> na/nb ig 
wait what's wrong with a/b->na/b?
an infinite group can be isomorphic to one of its own proper subgroups
shows the sets are isomorphic but not equal as sets
very important distinction between the two
What you think
drop the "and the elements are" and just write "consider"
done and done
also change every N to H lol
they add up to identity which is H
exploiting the fact that every element raised to the power of the group is the identity
the same q
no
if they were different we would've written them q_1, q_2, etc
it's literally x+x+x+x+... = nx just with a +H after it
that's why we can go from nq in H to nQ in H
yes
yes
so for any q in Q, nq is in N
so nQ is in N
"if every element of a set is contained in another, that set is a subset" basically
yeah i think i get it
kinda of a bummer i didnt know how quotient groups worked
but the hw is due fri
if you're expected to do this without quotient groups I will eat my own shoe
lol
dude my prof is a troll
did i tell u the class median for the midterm was 10/30
so everyone basically failed
maybe that should've been a wakeup call for him
our foundation is so weak
im still lost in this class
like im playing catch up
the whole quarter
shame
just wait till analysis 
anyway fun fact this generalises to any infinite abelian group
friend of mine got a 22 on the final
this my last math class lol
crimge
crigne
this was an optional cs elective bro
major mistake
i wake up at 6am and still cant get all my work done
that's not very sigma of you
my other classes are killer lol
literally just groups just the funny groups lolooolol
just like my organic chemistry once
I never took organic chemistry again
also you might consider just going through exercises on dummit
they're usually not very difficult
dummit?
what book you using
im using the gallian book rn
it makes more sense to me
contemporary abstract algebra
last semester the averages on my analysis exams were never above a 60%
this exercise is lifted directly from dummit and foote's text. now, there is no real context for this problem in the book outside of the statement, but it still might be worth looking over.
ay me too lol :)
i've got a bit of a silly question: my homework problem is "characterize those n such that the only idempotents of Z_n are 0 and 1"
without my putting any thought into it, am i crazy for coming to the answer that n=p^k works for all primes p?
i tried running a few examples and the first ring with nontrivial idempotents was Z_6 (a=3), followed by Z_10 (a=5) and Z_12 (a=4), which makes me think i have the right idea
no wait i think i got it
nvm
i want a^2 congruent to a mod n
oh my god do i need to do the subset both ways bullshit for 2a
I'm just concerned about the zero divisors
so n | a^2-a -> n | a(a-1)
@delicate orchid you're awake hi do you have any bleach
since a and a-1 are relatively prime the only way a can exist is when n has two relatively prime divisors
Exactly the same as for the matrices
i know it's isomorphic to D_8 yeah
princess
i realized that much already i mean like specifically the "smallest subalgebra" part
I knew you’d get the zased ref
like im assuming that needs proof right
By definition the subgroup generated by a set is the smallest subgroup that contains that set
No proof should be required
yselkhfasdljfh my prof is a horsecock man idk
he took a point off a proof in my last hw bc i didnt do a "claim + proof structure"
Just write this and cite “Wew lads tbh” he’ll know what’s up
submitting this jpeg instead
Alternatively you could consider a larger algebra containing those elements and then show it has extra bonus ones you don’t need
Because by definition, the subgroup generated by elements is a SUBGROUP
What do it mean for a group to act on another by automorphisms?
do i do the wew lads and be lazy or do i do both ways to be safe
t-minus two hours remain 
“The wew lads way”
Underestimating me again are we
Say there exists a subgroup H <= G that contains all elements of a set X and H is a proper subset of <X>. Then there exists some element h in <X> such that h is not in H, but H must be closed under multiplication for arbitrary products of elements in X, and because h is in <X> h is equal to such a product so it must be in H - contradiction, so H = <X>
I think this is correct but I can hardly be bothered to check

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welcome to the club
Thanks Nitezba
Appreciate your vote of optimism
Maybe I am not made for this cutthroat industry
1/1/18 EDIT: Shuzo Matsuoka is a retired Japanese professional tennis player who does motivational speeches like this as a career and is a well known meme in the Japanese internets. HE IS NOT A JAPANESE FISHERMAN WHO ALWAYS FARMS ASIATIC CLAMS IN -10 DEGREE CELSIUS WEATHER AS SOCIAL MEDIA IS SUGGESTING. Sorry to burst some motivational bubbles b...
,ti
The current time for nitezba is 11:09 PM (EST) on Wed, 09/02/2022.
my hw is due midnight and im still pushing you can do it
Yes you can!
YES YOU CAN
you knonw you're in college when that video stops being funny and just becomes actually helpful
Good luck on your homeworks too
"prove that the field of quotients of a field F is isomporphic to F" what
Mine too is due in less 50 minutes
imma be real with you guys i don't know where to begin
good luck lol
Lol mine’s due in an hour and 1 day
Thanks
Best of luck to everyone here
Well if you are talking about field of fractions of a field F then just consider the map from f: F to Frac(F) where f(a) = a/1
You have got this 👍
ok surjectivity's proving a little tricky to word out but i think this isn't too bad
thanks for the tip :)
can someone explain why this mapping is a ring isomorphism over multiplication
because ima getting that we need that $(r_1r_2)bn+(s_1s_2)am = r_1r_2(bn)^2+s_1s_2(am)^2$ but idk how to show that
JustKeepRunning
also what does it mean by showing that this map is "well-defined"
"this map is well-defined" is a common sloppy way of saying "the definition actually manages to define a map".
Not really. The definition pretends that (r,s) is an element of R/(m) × R/(n), but actually the elements of R/(m) × R/(n) are pairs of congruence classes.
And by writing (r,s) and then using r and s in an expression where they need to be elements of the ring, the definition effectively says "whatever, just pick a member from each congruence class at random".
In order for that to work, we need to be sure that the result points at the same congruence class in R/(mn) no matter which random picks you make.
wait but isn't it just like
because its (integer * m + r) * bn + (integer * n + r) * am = r * bn + s * am regardless of wut the "integers" are
Yes, and that's the "one can check" being alluded to.
ok thx so much
do you get my other question about the isomorphism
idk like why its not working out
in this definition, rho composed with tau is its own inverse right?
Hmm, good question that I don't have an answer for right away...
i know it's the dihedral group but i realized that ive been doing transposition wrong this whole time so now im overthinking things 
what is "it" referring to here?
rho tau reverses rho tau
no

Actually anything with a tau in it is its own inverse.
wait
oh yea i think u are right
it's late and im overthinking everything, just needed some other eyes on it
yea for these types of things u can just draw it out with like a square
and label the vertices 1,2,3,4
and just try the two operations
yeah that's what ive been doing
idk if there's a faster way (maybe using rs = sr^{-1}) but this usually how i do it
It's generally true about dihedral groups that all the reflections have order 2.
tropo can u confirm that the only element here whose inverse isnt itself is rho, since its inverse is rho^3
by order you just mean that if i do the same reflection twice i just get back to itself right
Yes.
was that @ both things
ik this much is true
this is a very good explaination.
it may help to notice that you can formulate the identity for the multiplicative equality as an equality of inner products...
i just realized how dumb my homework is
then you can minimize notational clutter, and the result follows rather nicely.
arent ii)and iii) pretty much asking for almost the same thing
since 5 of the 8 elements are of order 2
showing their order to be 2 should be just the same as showing they are their own inverse 
Ah, I got it. We have am + bm = 1 = (am+bn)² = (am)²+(bn)² (the cross terms vanish), and therefore am - (am)² = (bn)² - bn. Since this common difference is a multiple of both m and n, and since they have no common factor it must be a multiple of mn. Thus am = (am)² and bn = (bn)² modulo mn.
