#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 664 of 407
I mean also you can compute the size of AB
But it requires knowing the intersection’s size
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Oh
Ahhh

Dealing with products of subsets
Reminds me of S^|G|
Banger problem btw
For subgroups this would be done by Lagrange 
okay so if we look at the set of all products GxG, how many of those elements do you need to get a projection to the group via the product map
if that is something I can find and it is less than my lower bound then I am done
okay how many representatives can there be for a single element in my product
oh that's what's happening
lol
I think this is the critical idea
there can be at most the smaller subset many instances of any given element in the product
wait that's not enough
but I know the right way to think about this now
bleh this is annoying
Is it true that for any finite extension L/k, we can find E/L/k such that E/k is galois?
how to map O(n) into SO(n+1) injectively
like take A and map it to
A 0
0 1/det(A) ?
is there a catch because I think this is too silly for a problem
no, but you can do it for separable extensions
I think it works
We do have the assumption it is separable! Do you mind explaining why?
if the extension is separable, then it is generated by a single element
take the minimal poly
and take its splitting field
oh wait this is not orthogonal
I see. It's because of the Primitive Element Theorem (forgot about this). Thank you!
A 0
0 sign of determinant ?
wait that's the same map
no that wouldn't be S
det(A) is 1 or -1
oof
yeah this works I think
yes
this is what I somehow forgot
yeah I missed that too for a second
Hi, I am trying to figure out this problem: let f(x) = x^4 - 4x^2 - 1 ∈ Q[X] and determine the
splitting field. Could I just go ahead and calculate all the roots?
Yes
sure, I just thought there might be some smart things I should notice 
There are plenty of smart things you can do with finding roots too 
The way I would do this would be to find the possible values of x^2 ie treat this as a quadratic in x^2, and one root comes out to be positive real and the other is negative real. This gives a degree 2 extension, and then you adjoin the square roots of both of those roots, and you can argue that each square root you adjoin has to give you a degree 2 extension so in all you have a degree 8 extension. The last part is a bit tricky because you have to argue that each extension is proper but you can do some nice stuff there.
@desert dome if you need a hint
Thank you!
I have a field k of char =p >0 and suppose a \in p such that a has a pth root b in k. then b, 2b,... , (p-1)b are also pth roots of a right?
yea i think so, and more generally should work for any a \in k?
I think so because 1,…,p-1 live inside the prime field and those are perfect. Translated to not Hurb language it just says they have p-th roots
Oh wait
I read this wrong lol
No, kb will not be pth roots of a, because the p-th power on the elements k from 0 through p-1 is a bijection on that set of elements
So like, k^p = 1 iff k = 1
Then (kb)^p = k^p•a
k is integer and the whole field 
Whatever
Lol
I'm trying to make 'sense' of these definitions...
If anyone has any insight why they make sense? Just a quick line/idea/intuition that might save me some thinking would be appreciated 😅
Reminds me of the definition of the trace and determinant of a matrix via the eigenvalues
sum of eigen is tr
product of eigen is det
Right. (now that leaves me wondering as well 'norm', not det)
The determinant is a norm on the general linears
I think
Yeahhhh it probably satisfies the triangle inequality 
That I was not aware of, will have a look.
Sorry, absolute value of the determinant might be a norm
So now I guess I have to convince myself the images of alpha in the embeddings correspond to the eigenvalues in some way
When we say f : X -> Y has a right inverse, do we mean that for all y in Y, there exists x in X such that f * f_r y = y?
uhhh
Or do we mean that there is at least one element for which this right inverse function exists?
f_r is the right inverse of f there
yes
Yur
But say X = {x_1,x_2} and Y = {y_1,y_2} and f maps x_1 |-> y_1 and x_2 |-> y_1, then f_r could map y_1 to x_1 or x_2, so we have two right inverses
But f is not surjective
You don’t have a right inverse there
I didn't say that it does
I'm not sure about this definition. In the first place the usage of quantifiers theres looks odd to me. You havent said what f_r is, and haven't used x.
I am saying we have f_r1 and f_r2
Consider making a choice to map y_1 to either x_i, then consider the image of the other x_j with j not equal to i
There just this theorem in my book that states that every function has at least one right inverse,
But it does not have to be unique
$$(\exists g)fg = id_Y$$
But I thought we needed for a function to be surjective for a right inverse
Shuri2060
I think you need surjecivity for a right inverse yeah
No.
You posted a counter example for a non-surjective function
g does not have to hit X everywhere for f o g to be defined right?
For it to be well defined I’m pretty sure it does
I think not but I am not 100% sure
I’m going to google it
But I dont see whats wrong with a non-surjective g there
The concept of composition doesn't break
only if f is surjective, that I agree
Okay, then what's wrong with my example?
But g need not
I’ve literally explained it
Could u write it explicitly in numbers. I found it hard to read
Consider mapping y_1 back to x_1 then consider the image of x_2 under ff_r1
It’s not mapped back to x_2
It’s mapped first to y_1 and then back to x_1
So the composition is not the identity
By symmetry this is also true of the image of x_1 under ff_r2
We require for all y in Y
f(g(y)) = y
I agree there could be multiple right inverses
=======
For example f maps from integers to evens.
f(2n) = 2n
f(2n+1) = 2n
g then needs to maps from evens to integers.
g(2n) = 2n + 1
h(2n) = 2n
Both are right inverses
oops
I really don’t see how either of those are right inverses
Ah ok
Yeah I see it now
I am confused now
So every function does have at least one right inverse
But not every function is surjective
So how can that be?
Surjective functions have a right inverse
That's not what this says
You can make any function surjective by restricting codomain
thats what it means i believe
No, we're not looking at restrictions of the codomain
Then its clearly wrong lol
Why?
A non-surjective does not have a right inverse
what's right inverse of a constant function?
Unless you say the domain of the right inverse is the range of f?
And so we only care about id being id on the range
this talks only about the image
I hate set theory so much 
if f is constant, then so is f \circ g for any g
and constant functions are in general not the identity
So the statement is wrong?
It depends on the defn of right inverse
One second
the typical one --- yes, it would be wrong, technically
although it doesnt take much to amend that statement
A function $R: T(V) \to V$ is called a right inverse of $T$ if $T[R(y)] = y$ for all $y$ in $T(V)$. That is if $TR = I_{T(V)}$, where $I_{T(V)}$ is the identity transformation on $T(V)$.
n/c
T(V), what is this set?
If you are talking about sets then it is true that surjective is equivalent to right invertible which is equivalent to right cancellable
The image of T on V
What else were you typing?
Then indeed, this defn is different from the typical one
Because you essentially restrict the codomain of T
and make it surjective
The right cancellability is not true for rings but I realised you are talking about invertibility not cancellability
Yeah usually right inverse is defined from the codomain not the image
Okay I see
The typical definition has for f : X -> Y, a right inverse must be a function g : Y -> X and fg = id_Y
But that is not the case here.
The modulus of det of a matrix is a norm on GL right? (if GL over number field)
The above definition of norm corresponds to the determinant? This is surely not necessarily non-negative
Yeah hence why I quickly amended my statement to “abs value of the determinant” 
Although I think that it’s just completely wrong now
the field norm is not a norm
at least not a vector space norm
I don't really have any intuition for trace and norm beyond that they allow proving sometimes that certain extensions are proper 
Det could probably help
@rustic crown
i'm in a lecture rn >.<
so am i lul
I am as well
English? 
you use the norm to extend complete valuations uniquely, right?
i mean they are maps from the extension field into the base field with nice properties i guess
norm is a hom of multiplicative groups, trace of additive groups
this was the original Q btw. Just wanted to make sense of this
so it makes sense to use them to extend stuff from the base field to the field extension
i think proving that the definition of norm/trace given in this image follows from the linear algebra definiton is a bit involved
The linear map I am investigating is multiplication by alpha right?
Hunting for eigen:
Given a in L,
Solve ab = Lb for L in K and b in L
Then
(a - L)b = 0
^ this is wrong right? Need to treat it as vector space, not field
actually if you take a primitive element a and basis {1, a, ..., a^{n-1}} then you can write down the matrix of the linear transformation quite easily
then you can write down the minimal polynomial and read off the trace and determinant and connect them with coefficients of the minimal polynomial, which is given by galois conjugates
and then vieta gives you the result
then the hard part is dealing with the case when a is not primitive
but then you consider the tower of fields L/K(a)/K
and show that the trace/norm of L/K is the composition of the one of L/K(a) and K(a)/K
one of those things is easy, the other hard
this is also how you compute trace and norm in practice
I will try, thanks
so yeah, if you want to write this down start with a in L and consider the cases a in K and L = K(a) and write down the matrix of the multiplication by a map
in the first case (a in K) multiplication by a is just diag(a)
and in the second case you can write down the matrix in terms of the coefficients of the minimal polynomial of a
if you choose the basis {1, a, ..., a^{n-1}}
shortcut
is it supposed to be $\mathbb{Z}/a_i\mathbb{Z}$?
shortcut
Yes
is this ftofgmopid 
bruh I can't believe I understood that abbreviation
I see two ways to do this, but I get stuck on both of them because I don't see any obvious algebraic relationship between $\mathfrak p$ and $\mathfrak q$. First is by supposing $R_{\mathfrak q}$ is reduced, so $f^n\neq 0$ for all $f\in R_{\mathfrak q}, n\in\mathbb N$. Through the inclusion map $R_{\mathfrak q}\to R_{\mathfrak p}$, I think we can conclude that those same elements are nonzero in $R_{\mathfrak p}$, but then there are elements $a/b\in R_{\mathfrak p}, a\in R, b\in (R\setminus \mathfrak p)\cap \mathfrak q$ that could still be a nilpotent.
The other method, trying to do it directly, $f=a/b\in R_{\mathfrak p}$ such that $f^n=0$, runs into the same problem where $b\notin \mathfrak p$, but $b$ could be in $\mathfrak q$. Is there some additional structure I need to realize to solve this? I don't see any way using the nilradical definition may help, but maybe that's the right way to go
cgodfrey
There is an obvious set theoretic relationship between p and q 
Did you use that I can't tell
q supset p, I sort of use that implicitly that $(R\setminus\mathfrak q)\subset (R\setminus\mathfrak p)$
wait that's a supset
cgodfrey
I see
So you want to show that a localisation of a reduced ring at a prime is reduced
Maybe use the fact that nilradical is the intersection of all primes, and the correspondence between the primes in R and the primes in a localisation of R
I dont' think there's any assumptions on R, just that it's noetherian
If they have a trivial intersection in R, their images should also have trivial intersection
Here I took R = R_q
Wait
You have to show the other direction
Interesting
oh wait
Yes this is fine
I am showing contrapositive
R_q is reduced implies R_p is too
Then use this reasoning
Also there is an #algebraic-geometry channel now 
F
I'll read on that correspondence of prime ideals in localization
Proposition 3.11 in Atiyah Macdonald
just to confirm, if you're taking R = R_q, is (R_q)_p = R_p? At least, localization at the image of p in R_q?
Yes, localisation at the image of T under localisation at S is the same as localisation at T
Same proof as quotienting the quotient by I by the image of J is the same as quotienting by J
Modulo some containment conditions
I think I subset J and S subset T
okay, thanks! Algebraic geometry is hard when you never took a course on commutative algebra lol
is the characteristic of a ring related to topological characteristic
because i can't exactly see the relationship
I don't think it is 
what are k_i
Alison40
k_n is the number of cells of dimension n
n-cells are images of [0,1]^n right
yeah
this doesn't make sense if there's infinitely many does it
uhh
Ye this is only for finite cell complexes
i put the infinity to generalise to any dimension
i mean
You can define it using homologies
infinitely many cells
Then it generalises
for example whats the Oyler char of R^2?
To some degree
Same as that of I^2
why
hmm
but not every topological spce is homotopy equivalent to an image of some finite n-complex is it
how do you define wheeler char for those then
Then you use this definition
Replace each k_i with rank H_i
Which is defined as long as each rank H_i is finite
what if is infinite
what if they're not
Whomst've been studying infinite rank homologies
Lol it is not always defined
idk what homologies are really so 
this is so sad. you hate to see this kind of thing

i kinda have idea of what homologies are
but idk well yet
ik its related to sequences of modules s.t. image contained in next kernel
homology is study of homo, of course 😌
algebraic topology sounds very based
🏳️🌈
you sound very based

It is a measure of how far such a sequence is from being exact
oh yea
Actually it’s a measure of how far a sequence is from being a good boy
kernel/image at each stage
It’s about the kernels and then the cokernels of the kernels which is the same as the kernels of the cokernels (the image)

Yeh those are the image and coimage respectively
But the 1st iso says those are the same
Via a very natural map
There’s an induced map between image and cokernels
And that one is an iso
up to canonical iso
up to iso is not needed here
I suppose so yeah
image is anything that satisfies uni prop
same for coimage
You can just say they are equal
You can make the same object satisfy both universal properties
Maybe because we don't say that any 2 images are equal 
Ye idk it just seems stupid to me to have to say that 2 things are isomorphic when they are only defined up to isomorphism
Bitch
what about homology but with nonabelian groups
Do not ask such questions
You stray too far from the light
✝️
In general tho you can’t define it
Because the image need not be normal
There actually is stuff there 
Yeah that’s why I said my shit at first
Weibel does some things on it
i know there is
But yeah you need this
Oh are you talking about group cohomology?
that's why i asked
no
Grp is a homological category
Okay yeah
This is in the simplicial methods chapter
It’s not nice
Yeah I was about to say
For nonabelian homology stuff you usually have to go to simplicial stuff
For eg rings
Right
You can define andré-Quillen homology
what is simplicial stuff
And you do it by taking simplicial resolutions and then tensoring with, or homming into stuff
And then you can take homology as modules
Simplicial in the sense of simplicial objects
idk what are those
They’re functors from the simplex category
You can think of it as like
A sequence of elements indexed by n
With these maps going forward and backwards
why are those functors important
Which satisfy some equations mimicking the inclusion of n-simplified into n+1-simplicies
ah okey
So here’s why they might make sense to be “chain complexes”
Let me just link a clerk rant from 4 months ago 
Dold-Kan actually says simplicial objects in A where A is an abelian group
oh i heard of dold-kan
Are equivalent to chain complexes in A which are concentrated in nonnegative degree
So you could think of simplicial objects in any category as sorta hinting at that
You can also do homotopy on these things because of the simplicial identities blah blah
concentrated?
Simplicial sets for example I think are a model of infinity categories
It just means for all negative degrees, the objects are 0
This describes the universal property of the simplex category
also why are the inclusions backwards
isn't n-simplex subset n+1-simplex
Yeah
So the maps are about those inclusions
Including an n-simplex as a face
But there’s also degeneracy maps
basically whenever you have a monoid like thing you have a simplicial object, and monoid like things arise as soon as you have a universal property, and these simplicial objects can be used to construct resolutions that give cohomology theories
i don't get why contravariant
n+1 simplices are subsetted by n simplices
and n+1>n
shouldn't it be covariant?
It just be like that
You get maps going both directions
Because you can project from an n+1 simplex onto one of the edges
In the simplex category the face maps go from the higher degree to lower degree
Because rather than inclusions
They are face assignments
hmm
And when you contravariantly map this to say Top
You realise those face maps as inclusions
Hence contravariant
I did this shit a year ago for a homological algebra class so I forgor some of this stuff
💀
why are you using emojis on a serious topic
Cuz I forgor 💀
This is because the objects in the simplex cat are formal
Not actual top spaces
hmm so
So you can't really include them
i mean wasnt simplex cat just category of finite ordinals
same
It is finite ordinals
I mean the numbers themselves are formal
Each number is supposed to be thought of as a simplex
but it is just a point
Yes
anyway
just spent an entire algebra lecture proving the most mundane statements 
this is supposed to be my fun class this semester
what's a simple example of a contravariant functor from simplex cat to Top
file a complaint
Tell your prof that I said he is bad

Any simplicial complex carla
sue them
You can model them as a simplicial object in Top
hmm how
surely he'll cower in fear of the great moldilocks of the math server
actually yk what's funny, one of my old professors is in here, but has never sent a message
There’s a nice paper on some of the basics plus Dold-Kan by Akhil Matthew
If you want to look into this stuff
You can make any CW complex into a simplicial set
i want
Just google “Akhil Matthew Dold-Kan”
but like
ping them 
In a way that you can reconstruct the homotopy type of the original
there's only 1 n-ordinal in simplicial cat
time to do some more knapp
Geometric realization so true
do you want to relearn it together 
all the number theory is doing my head in 
maybe it's time to review the basics then, Alison
have you tried Weil's Basic Number Theory?
i haven't done NT before 
exactly
i wanted to do aa 
I'm not at a computer to sail across the ocean rn anyway
you poor poor thing
ok I'm just going to skim it
I'm sure not every single proposition there is incredibly important
Does anyone have a simple example of a finitely generated group with a subgroup that is NOT finitely generated?
The example my prof gave in class is kinda 💀
probably something in the free group on 2 elements
That is the example he gave

Is there nothing simpler? I don't think I would have come up with that myself
how is the free group on 2 elements not a simple example
hm fair enough
I don't think there are examples with abelian groups
idk I just would have never come up with it
so free group on 2 elements is the next best thing
free group on x elements is the universal groups generated by x elements
you can probably take the subgroup generated by ab,aab,aaab,aaaab, etc
so its a pretty natural example
uuh
yeah not exactly those generators
?
if you contain ab and aab you have a and b
the free group on countably many elements is a subgroup of the free group on 2 elements
hint: think of parentheses
for the free monoid on 2 elements this does work
dont give up
haha
exactly
i think of the a's
as separators
the bs in middle tell the character
so u get free group on countable generators
🍾
and you can even define a concatenation operation x | y = x * (aa)^-1 * y
i dont understand that
haha
let's say abba
shouldnt concat be just abbbbaabbaabba
sum of characters maybe
all operations are closed
yep
natural number addition
but if you don't
it's weirder
it's associative
not commutative
has the identity aa
oh wait the inverses make this weird
theres no inverses in general
oh
I'll represent a^-1 as z and b^-1 as d
so like
hm
the inverse of aba under addition would be adz
wait
no
because the identity is aa
it's ada
not adz
aba zz ada = aa
ada zz aba = aa
nice it's a group
i think
what about an asymmetric one
like abaabba
abaabba zz addzzda = aa
addzzda zz abaabba = aa
I'm pretty sure it's a group
Let $X = {a,b,c}$ and $\mathcal{P}(X) = {\emptyset, {a}, {b},{c},{a,b},{a,c},{b,c},X}.$ $\mathcal{P}(X)$ together with operations $A + B = (A\setminus B)\cup(B\setminus A)$ and $A\cdot B = A\cap B$ define a commutative ring.
Show that there are precisely two subrings of $\mathcal{P}(X)$ that contain ${a}$, namely ${\emptyset,{a},{b,c},X}$ and the entire ring $\mathcal{P}(X)$.
sam
Show that if a subring contains {a} then it has to conatin {b,c} and if it has any other element then it generates the whole ring
yeah there are few cases to check
I dont see any faster method
only 2 cases to check actually I guess
what happens when theres {b} or {a,b}
other cases are symmetrical
also there was a sidenote to the question that read "Don't forget to show that the sets are ideal." with no further specification
cant figure out what they mean by that
maybe they meant to say that the sets are rings? or subrings?
Yeah hmm actually idk what the sidenote means
sorry if this is a stupid question but
are polynomial fields possible (excluding the trivial case of 0 indeterminates)
a polynomial ring that is a field
if it has x it also needs to have 1/x
K(x) is the smallest field containing K and x and its basically p(x)/q(x) where p and q=/=0 polyonomials in K
hm
i mentioned this


what's the difference between a polynomial field and power series field
is it just that a power series field can have infinite terms
Neither are fields
But a power series ring is just formal power series
You just have infinitely many terms yeah
And you add them term by term and product is given by convolution stuff
Having some trouble with another basic proof. Let a and b be associates in some integral domain. Show that if a is irreducible then so is b.
Think I shouldn't be struggling so much with this..
You ought to be able to just take a decomposition for one
And transfer it to the other by multiplying by a unit
In other words, prove the contrapositive: If b is reducible, then so is a.
can someone give me a hint for this problem
Suppose $S$ is a multiplicative set and $I$ is an ideal of $R$ such that $I\cap S = \phi$. Show that $I$ is contained in a prime ideal $P$ such that $P\cap S = \phi$.
JustKeepRunning
Chmonkey
ok lol
heads
Often times you have a collection of ideals
And you can show maximal elements are prime
In fact you can describe this very very generally, there’s something on the stacks project about it
But you could try to consider collections of ideals here and show maximal@ones are prime
That won’t finish it, but there’s pretty standard ways to finish from there
Idk how, but I found varnothing first, and so I’ve always used that
Lmao

sorry for interrupting but this is one of my hw questions for my alg class and ???
not asking for help just ???????'ing
Let $a$ and $b$ be associated in some integral domain. This gives $a = bc$ for some invertible $c$. Assume that $a$ is reducible, so that $a = xy$, where $x, y$ are non-invertible.
$$xy = bc$$
$$b = c^{-1}xy$$
From this point stackexchange tells me $(c^{-1}x)$ is non-invertible? (which would mean that b is reducible, woho) But why is it?
sam
and I think \emptyset is nicer :D
If it was invertible, so is x
Usually properties of elements are preserved under multiplication by units
Right
Go try to prove it
:)
You could do it manually
Or…
The set of non invertible units is the union of all proper ideals (you only have to look at maximal ones even)
Because you’re a unit iff you’re in no proper ideals
So you can use absorptive properties of ideals to see the product is also in a proper ideal
how tf
i am not capping
how do you even approach this
rotman, introduction to abstract algebra, chapter 1 section 1
is it like
pedantic ambiguity of "two different ways"
his eminence moldilocks surely knows the answer 
Maybe for (iii), it's something trivial like 0 = 0^3 + 0^3 = 2^3 + (-2)^3
My eminence has short circuited upon seeing this question
bruh
That is most likely it lol
Once you allow negative numbers it becomes false
i emailed because it's horseshit but it's mostly just funny
Might as well allow complex numbers while we are at it
(Once I was running late for work and had to call a cab. The one that arrived had a cab license numbered 1-1729 proudly displayed in front of the passenger seat, but the driver was woefully unaware of its mathematical significance).
Then it is trivial
"hardy was a crank" - ryc
There is a funny book called
Mathematics made difficult
One of the jokes goes roughly as follows
A prime number is a number who’s only factors are 1 and itself
Many high school mathematics teachers incorrectly assume that 7 is a prime number
Clearly 7 has 4 factors
1, 7, -1, -7
groethendiek prime
Are you not counting i
The keen student should note that then -1 is the only prime number

And then it goes on and continues this for another few pages doing stuff like
If we want to be pedantic, -1 has plenty more factors than that -- for example -pi and 1/pi.
My answer would be 9 = 1³+2³ = 2³+1³.
Clearly what is meant by such a statement that is that up to units a the only factors of a prime number are 1 and p. However if this is the case, the then the text should state this. The text should say something like the following: Needless to say, we only consider factors unique up to units.
This is the most based solution
at that point you have to ask which element of the equivalence class do you use
Oh boy…
So there’s a natural isomorphism
But like as actual objects they aren’t equal if you build them up as pairs
So its “associative in any way we care”
yeah thats what i wrote
same goes for the tensor product 
stay tuned for more fun tensor product facts
Yup
But it isn’t strictly associative
You have to qualify it with “up to isomorphism”
And it ends up being natural in 3-components
And blah blah blah
Don’t worry about that, just say “associative up to isomorphism”
👍
The first part of this
doesn't have anything to do with P being a Sylow subgroup right?
that's just a property of normal subgroups in general?
nvm it isn't
damn
yes, normality is not transitive
yea
Say n_p = number of Sylow p-subgroups of G
n_p = 1 => P, the Sylow p-subgroup of G, is normal in G
but does the converse hold?
it does right?
yes the converse holds, every sylow p group is conjugate to each other
Is there a name for this result?
I couldn't find a derivation on the net
Any book that has a proof?
Thanks!
The proof is not at all Elementary though 😂
😂
wait what is U
Is someone willing to explain to me what the algebraic closure of a finite field is?
not really different than an algebraic closure of any other kind of field
Are inverses in groups unique? If we have element g∈G then would g^-1 be unique to g?
Sorry if this is a simple question just double checking my knowledge
Good question
What do the elements look like
Think about algebraic extensions of finite fields
Once you think of one example you can extrapolate to figure out what algebraic closure looks like
try to prove it
show what you come up with
So then it is true? Hm I’ll have to think about it
I will neither confirm nor deny
might also help as a hint to think about if a left inverse is equal to a right inverse too
Okay just did some multiplication tables it seems to be true
Idk any examples of groups that dont have unique inverses
I think we can use contradiction and suppose that there are two inverses then use the associative law to deduce they’re equal and thus they’re unique?
also it really comes down to fact that ab=ac implies b=c from cancellation rules
Yeah that’s what I thought
very useful trick you should always keep in mind
Why do this as contradiction :)
You could just take two inverses and then use this to show they’re equal
No contradiction needed
Hello tocyem
Thanks for the help
Swagger
I'm a little confused. If $T \in \mathcal{L}(V,W)$ is a 1-1 function, then $T(x) = 0 \implies x = 0$. The proof of this is simple, so $T(x) = 0$ and so $T^{-1}Tx = T^{-1}0$ implies that $x = T^{-1}0$. And $T^{-1}0 = T^{-1}(0 + 0)$ so $T^{-1}(0) = 0$. Therefore, $x = 0$. However looking at the example $(x,y,z) \stackrel{T}\mapsto (x-1,y-1,z+1)$, we don't have that $T(0) = 0$, yet $T$ is still 1-1?
n/c
Hey there. It's because the stated result only holds for linear maps, and the example you give is not linear.
Oh I guess you're right T wasn't mentioned in L(V,W). I must have hallucinated... thanks anyway
Yeah I know
I'm looking at the ring of invariants of the polynomial ring C[x,y] under the group of order 4 generated by (x,y) \mapsto (-y,x). The only ones I'm finding are x^2*y^2 and x^2+y^2 but I'm pretty sure I am missing another one. Does anyone see it? or is anyone confident I'm not missing one?
(That is: Is C[x,y]^G = C[x^2+y^2, x^2*y^2] ? )
oooh it's like a matrix meme
[The motivation is I'm trying to develop some intuition for surface singularities generated by cyclic quotients. And the intuition I do have says there should be a singularity, but if the answer to my question is yes, then the fixed point of G does not become singular in the quotient]
[But I'm guessing there is a thing involving the number i that I'm not seeing]
ah, xy and (x-y) are both multiplied by -1, so their product xy(x^2-y^2) is also invariant
is the reason we use <= for subgroup because subgroup defines a partial order?
so the notation makes sense in that regard?
yeah I suppose
Moldilocks1337 ✓
Moldi say it ain't so
I ain't saying so 

Moldilocks1337 ✓
😌
What is U(8)
What does it mean
I know it’s all the coprimes to 8
But like I want to check if it’s cyclic
It's the multiplicative group of units in Z/8Z -- in other words {1,3,5,7} under multiplication modulo 8.
Since the group has order 4, it is cyclic iff you can find an element of order 4. Checking all of them won't take long ...
consider what happens when you choose a number not coprime to 8
Idk what the first part of his sentence means tbh
It's the multiplicative group of units in Z/8Z
consider the function from the polynomial ring to itself given by f(x+1) -> f(x)
Just like
You can turn an expression
Making one of them reducible
And translate that
And get one for the other one
You might have to assume A is an integral domain
that's essentially what you do yeah, but idk I feel like you should show that the translation preserves irreducibility
Yeah
I mean this is where you Lowkey might need integral domain
I think I wrote my proof using that
mm
yeah I can see if failing if x is a non-zero divisor but x+1 is a zero divisor
Wtf lmao
beat me to it
What happened to catfan1336?
doesn't this need that H is normal in G?
not just that H is a subgroup of G?
Say P_H is a Sylow p-subgroup of H. I have by Sylow 2 that P intersect H is a subgroup of P_H
I think
so then I need the other direction of inclusion
and that's where I got stuck
cause I need that P intersect H is normal
for it to be a unique Sylow p-subgroup also
for P\cap H to be a normal subgroup of H, no
Normal p-subgroup is unique
nice problem
Show that P\capH is a Sylow-p subgroup of H
yea that's where I'm stuck
I showed this
or well I realized it
cause it's known fact
it is?
lemme try to parse that
ok so F < H clearly, how does F < P imply F = P cap H
doesn't F < P only then show F < P cap H
usually you can consider |PH|
as to normality we just want P\cap H to be normal in H
so conjugate by any element in H and see what happens
you can't tho
cause H isn't normal
so I don't know if that cardinality argument can be made?
you can
P is normal
in fact you don't need normal here
|PH|=|P||H|/|P\capH|
so |P\capH|=|P||H|/|PH|
|PH|=|P||H|/|P\capH|
I thought this only held if both were normal?
if not then this problem would have been easier 💀
one normal is enough for PH to be a subgroup
but the order formula works for any groups
I think this is in dummit 3.2
basically if A is normal in G and B is any subgroup
A\cap B is normal in B
then aba'b'=aa'a'^(-1)ba'b' is in AB
so it is a subgroup
hmm also this is directly second iso thm
I'm kind of going in circles
You only even need one of them to be a subgroup of the normalizer of the other for it to be a subgroup
$k^{\oplus n}=\underbrace{k\oplus k\cdots\oplus k}_{\text{$n$ times}}$
wait so like wut does that mean
i am a bit confused what k represents here
is k a basis?
k is a field
oh i see ok thx
also is anyone applying to virginia reu (or any other program through the mathprogram.org application)
because basically i had a teacher who wrote a rec for another program through mathprograms.org and they uploaded a generic letter and now for the virginia reu program it also has that letter uploaded
and even when i press the "x" button when i refresh the check mark comes back, meaning it'll be sent
can someone explain to me what this means?
if you need more context lmk
im confused on what is unique exactly
So (1 2 3) can be written as (1 2) (2 3)
But it can also be written as (1 2) (2 3) (1 3) (1 3)
Cause those last two permutations cancel
mhm
And 2 and 4 (the lengths of those chains of transpositions)
Are even numbers
And that theorem says that (1 2 3) can NEVER be written as an odd number of those transpositions
oh so for that cycle it will never have an odd number of permutations basically?
alright
Ok so now I got a question
This seems obvious but there may be a dumb exception
If every subset S of P has a maximal element of S in S
Must P have a maximal element of P in P?
it must right? Cause a set is a subset of itself
zorn's lemma?
My class defined a right coset of H with respect to b as the set of all elements in G which when you multiply by inverse of b on the right, it is in H
But online I see that it is just multiplying on the right by b instead of inverse of b. Is there a reason for this difference?
honestly i've never seen a right coset being defined like that
any chain of P is a subset so it has an upper bound (by your assumption)
it is
damn my professor making it confusing then :((
Anyways, it's still basically the same thing since inverse of b is also in G right?
It is? #5 
so for any hb in Hb, multiply on the right by b^(-1) you get h in H
every non empty subset is still a poset
so treat as an ascending chain
this is definition pushing this is not Zorn's
it has ϕ (p) generators
Euler phi function
ϕ(p)
lol
uh
i dont think this has anything to do with lagrange tho
the order of order(h) | order(g)
to be a subgroup
thats what it says
but every element generates a cyclic subgroup
and the order of that subgroup is the order of the element
so anyways what can the order of the cyclic subgroup be?
how are you getting cyclic subgroups from this
all i said was that a group has prime order
take any element g
