#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 663 of 407
But if you’ve seen the concept of an associated prime
An associated prime of A/I is called a prime divisor of I
And you can see that this is exactly equal to (I:a) for some a not in I
There’s also things about the products of these ideals and stuff which become useful, I kind of view them as a like, compact way to write stuff which also makes them computationally efficient
If you also extend away from just ideals and define it for modules, if (A,m) is a local ring the socle of M is the module (0:m)_M
Which is the elements of M which are annihilated by m
This matters for eg defining Gorenstein rings
So-cull
Like I’m
Umm
If you know the word “focal”
Just replace the f sound with an s
oh okay
Overall though, they’re kind of niche
the anihilator of a module is called a socle
Not quite
that looks like anhillator though
That sounds so cool.
It’s specifically the stuff killed by the maximal ideal
Altho if everything else is invertible…
It’s supposed to be different
oh lol
i didnt notice little m is maximal ideal
also slightly off topic
but do you know any resources for drawing / representing modules/rings in general
or is it one of those things i pick up along the way
The annihilator is an ideal
Undergraduate commutative algebra has some pictures, I think the first page has a visualization of a module as a bundle over the ring
But for me
I don’t really visualize the stuff
yeah thats a cool conceptualization of it
i realized that in diff top
Rings have become geometric to me, but I don’t really run off of visual intuitions
So I really don’t, no
im wishing i had visualization but i probably should ask for it in this case
in my alg nt class we are talking about p-adics alot
and my intuition is very bad for these things
we kinda quickly ran through the construction of Q_p
and then he mentions the closure of Q_p and then the completion
Yeah idk, I think you can try to visualize the p-adics specifically
i have no clue what these objects look like to start with
But I don’t run spatial intuition for algebraic things
I have never tried to visualize them and don’t care to and don’t know how I would
im really shaky foundationally with this stuff
my prof mentioned these things called character groups and he kinda wanted us to visualize what they are
but i felt burnout by definitions
ig this goes back to having to struggle with understanding to finally get something after rereading
Yeah, idk, I am content with viewing these as algebraic objects and just like, sets of stuff with operations
I have to prove A-algebra A[x] is flat. Afaik this means two equal things. The first is that tensor products preserve exact sequences(phrased weirdly). The second is that f:B->C injective linear A-mod homomorphism implies f’:B tensor A[x] -> C tensor A[x] is injective.
This means im trying to show that f’(b tensor g)=f(b) tensor g 0 implies b tensor g is 0. for b in B, g in A[x].
But I thought that a tensor b = 0 implies a is 0 or b is 0. At same time I have the feeling that Im only believing this because I am not writing the tensor product as the proper formal sum that it is
Also made a mistake, everything here is an A-algebra
nvm
I just need to use two facts that A[x] is cnt inf direct sum of A -algebras
and that if A=(A_i) is flat as A-module iff every A_i is flat as A-module
i do want to show the direct way though
A[x] is not a direct sum of A-algebras
For that matter, direct sums of algebras are not a thing, unless you mean direct sum as A-modules
Which should work yeah
What you said about a tensor b = 0 is not true, for example, 2 tensor 2 in Z/4Z tensor Z/4Z
And else, not every element of a tensor product is of the form a tensor b
Just that elements of that form span the tensor product
One way to do this is to show that A[x] tensor B is isomorphic to B[x]
And this should be an isomorphism of functors
And taking polynomial rings does take injections to injections
Direct sum of modules should be easier though since the underlying module of the tensor product of algebras is the tensor product of underlying modules of the algebras
And injectivity only depends on the underlying module
holy mackrel thank you
I should work on showing A[x] tensor B is isomorphic to B[x]
oh shit
there is a canonical iso from Hom(M tensor N,P) to Hom(M,Hom(N,P))
if I let P be A and N be A[x]
nah nvm idk where im getting at yet
at this point im curious what universal property is for polynomial rings
It is the free pointed ring on any given ring
ie there is a forgetful functor from the category of pointed rings (pairs (R, r) where r is an element of R, which we call the basepoint of this pointed ring) which has morphisms as the homomorphisms that map basepoint to basepoint to the category of rings
The polynomial ring functor is left adjoint to this forgetful if you view it as R maps to (R[x], x)
You can also view it as the free commutative R-algebra on the singleton
atm im trying to think of example of why direct sums of algebras arent a thing . I would just assume that the multiplication defined over the original R-algebra works component wise
maybe you are saying the inf sum isnt well defined?
Yeah if you have infinitely many algebras, then the direct sum under pointwise multiplication won't have an identity
The identity in the case finite direct product is (1,...,1)
No such element in the infinite direct sum of the underlying modules
The coproduct of R-algebras is tensor product over R, rather than direct sum
oh wow
that is fucking cool
when people talk about infinite direct sum do you need to take limits?
I'm not sure what you mean
in category theory why arent infinite direct sums or products different objects with their own universal property? why do product and coproduct have to be compatible with infinite versions of their construction? im sorry but it is sort of hard for me to phrase.
They have their own universal properties
Product of a collection {A_i} is an object A with projections p_i: A → A_i such that whenever you have some B with f_i: B → A_i for all i, there is a unique f' such that p_i f' = f_i for all i
Coproduct is the dual of this
In R-mod, the product is the direct product and the coproduct is the direct sum
I'm not sure if this was your question
Yea sort of. I guess I was wondering why there arent two definitions, one for finite collections and another for infinite, but i guess its for convenience for the most part to have one compatible definition
Okay, so my prof is working on proving this in a lecture and I am a bit hesitant. Why are we allowed to assume that J is a principal ideal?
F[x] is a PID for any field F
It's a Euclidean domain with Euclidean function given by degree
What does Euclidean domain/function mean?
It's a ring with a function that works like absolute value for ℤ or degree for polynomials (because it is degree for polynomials lol)
gonna try and re-prove this, seems fun
The important property is that for any pair a, b, you can write a = bq + r
And the remainder r should be smaller than b
This smallness is given by the Euclidean function
ie euc function of r is smaller than euc function on b
Anyway if you need a hint for this
||take the least degree element of J||
Wew I was waiting for you to come online and be devastated by all the universal property yeah that was happening
But you never came 
sorry moldi I was probably... busy...
Try proving the converse is true too!
If F[x] is a PID, then F is a field
Where we assume F is integral
I feel like the converse is easier
I.e. commutative with identity and no zero divisors
It's actually quite harder imo
F[x] is no longer assumed to be euclidean
Only principal
Do we need this
hmm good point
I just wanted to point it out
Same thing with assuming commutative and has 1, all implicit gy F[x] being a PID
Basically all that you have to prove is that F has all inverses
There's 2 proofs of this I know. A quick and clever proof and a more hands-on proof
Or that it has no non trivial ideals 
True
this proof is way harder than I thought it was gonna be I'm ngl 
Quick and clever: ||consider the evaluation map f -> f(0), use 1st iso and maximality of <x> (equivalent to primality) to conclude F is a field||
Want a hint?
I know that I need to take the minimum degree polynomial, and then use the fact that every coefficient has an inverse to simplify it down into some nice form that collapses the entire ideal
Hint
Note that if F isn't a field degree isn't necessarily a euclidean function anymore
So you can't assume division with remainder holds
For the converse that is
Wait wew which part r u doing
You would know if you knew how to read shin 
Ah ok my b
I would not say either is easy
After all, there are no obvious universal properties here
I didn't say easy, I said easier
consider the variety generated by the ideal (p_1, \cdots, p_n)
this is clearly generated by something something direct sum of the varieties generated by the ideals (p_i) 
Sir this is the shitposting channel why are you taking me seriously 
Wew you're really close
I feel like I'm missing just one puzzle piece
the problem is there might be other polynomials of the same degree with weird coefficients
Why are you assuming a priori all ideals are finitely generated
oh I mean
Do they actually use the normal subgroup notation for ideals
good point but I think this still holds
I've never seen that before
Yes moldi
Hurb
But that's pretty based
You can show F[x] is a Euclidean domain
I do because I'll take any excuse to write "trianglelefteq"
Try assuming you have an element in the ideal that's not a multiple of the minimum degree poly and see what goes wrong
yeah that's what I've been trying to do in my head for 5 mins 
I'll keep thinking though
Also you will then see that any other poly of the same degree is an associate
In the ideal thantis
ok lemme consider an example of what's throwing me off
I'm thinking of something like
(2x-1, x-2)
Yea, the key point here is that the explicit generators you take might not actually generate the ideal principally
yeah so the ideal of polynomials contains the differences of all the polynomials as well, right ok
so if there's two "minimal degree" polynomials, we can multiply them by the inverse of the leading coefficient to get two minimum degree polynomials with leading coefficient 1
so the difference will be a lower degree
contradiction! 🚨⚠️⚠️⚠️⚠️
Well, a lower degree or 0
yeah and if it's degree 0 it's just the whole ring
if it's 0 you're good, but you've shown they're associates
Nono
It just means those two polynomials differed by a unit
I meant the 0 polynomial
oh ok yes
So either way, you get that if there's a unique minimal degree monic polynomial, or equivalently unique minimal degree polynomial up to units
Now you just need to show it generates the ideal
you could iteratively generate the higher dimensional p_is by multiplying the minimal degree by some x^k for some k and some unit a_0, and then adding on the minimal degree times x^{k-1} and some unit a_1, and so on
it's got a kind of Fourier transformation flavour to it 
You're being too constructive about this
I mean, that might work idk
I'm just saying there's an easier way
well if we're able to form all the original (p_1, p_2, ...)s out of the minimal degree m then we get (m) = (p_1, p_2, ...)
seems like the most obvious way to me
Well yes, but then to prove the full claim you'll still have to prove every ideal is finitely generated
yeah I've realised my method won't work even for finitely generated ideal
if m is the minimum degree you could have something like ax^{m+1}+bx^{m-1} and there might not be a way to construct this as you can't multiply by x^{-1} to get the lower coefficients to line up
That's also true. Well, obviously that couldn't happen if you prove the claim but a priori you don't know that
So, up until now you haven't really used the Euclidean properties of the degree
I'd refer back to moldi's hint
probably because I have absolutely no experience with euclidean domains 
The key point with euclidean domains is that there is division in remainder
although thinking about it
Which works exactly as in the integers
you can write the higher degree polynomials as a quotient and a remainder
and the remainder will be a nice low degree, lower than the minimal though?
cause if it's lower than the minimal then it has to be zero
NOW YOU'RE COOKING
Exactly, the division algorithm promises you a remainder that is either.0.or.lower than the divisor
oh so it's guaranteed to be lower than the divisor ok
oh wait yeah obviously
that's the definition isn't it
Yes
ah ok so the remainder is 0 so all the other polynomials must be a multiple of the minimal degree one
hence the ideals are the same
wow that was WAY harder than I expected 
This also works if you're not considering finitely generated ideals, because the natural numbers are well-ordered
The good thing is this is basically how you prove most things about euclidean domains
Degree consideration and division with remainder
I can very easily see how this generalises to the proof "Euclidean domain => PID"
So we are currently constructing a field containing Q which has the root of x^2-2. However, my professor made an expansion mistake (a+bx)^2=/= a^2+2abx+x^2, and the rest of the proof kind of rides on that. I was wondering if someone can help me figure out how to do this correctly, because I am having a hard time seeing it.
That's basically what you did. Nothing special about polynomials really
Well, eventually
Can you show the rest of the proof
Are you just trying to find what polynomial satisfies p^2=2 in the quotient?
Yes
He uses the fact that x^2 is congruent to 2 mod(x^2-2), which then means we are just trying to see when a^2+2abx is congeuent to 0 mod(x^2-2).
But of course, this won't work since properly expanding (a+bx) gives b^2x^2 at the end. So really we should be looking at when (a^2+2abx)=(2-2b^2)mod(x^2-2)
Which is different
Well but isn't that it then? the polynomial g(x)=x satisfies x^2=2
-_-, yeah... that's it
Idk why your prof wanted to like, explicitly show that like that. Generally, when you quotient by an irreducible polynomial, x will become a root of it
well mod the ideal
Related question, if I quotient by an irreducible poly that has multiple roots in some extension, I know that this is isomorphic to a simple extension by one of the roots. A priori, x doesn't 'become' any specific root right? Like, all the extensions are isomorphic to this quotient, so I can just choose which root I wanna treat x as.
In that sense, it's still an indeterminate
is this true: Let I be an ideal in F[x]. If f(x) is an irreducible polynomial in I, then I = <f(x)> ?
F[x] is a pid so it is generated by some polynomial, say g(x). Then f(x) = a(x)g(x) for some a(x) in F[x]
so we must have a(x) in F right
Well, there are 2 options here
Either a is a unit, in which case f and g are associates so <f>=I, or g is a unit, in which case I=F[x]
If you require that I be a proper ideal then what you said is 100% correct though
since a in F i think it must be a unit
because its a field
but if we had some ring then it wouldnt always be a unit
f being irreducible just tells you either a or g are units
Which in F[x] is the same as being in F
But it could be that I=F[x], in which case f can't generate it as irreducibles are non-units, so we must have that g is a unit
so either g is a unit or not a unit. If g is a unit then I = F[x]. Otherwise f(x) = ag(x) for some nonzero a in F which means that I = <f(x)>
Exactly
thanks!
Np!
Bump. Am I right here? It feels weird because in the actual simple extensions there is an actual element that satisfies some identity that says it's a specific root, but in the quotient there isn't necessarily? I don't think
Basically you can't canonically embed the quotient into the larger field from whence the roots came is what i'm asking
Let's say you have an irreducible polynomial $P\in\mathbb{Q}[X]$.
You have $\mathrm{deg}(P)$ embeddings from $\mathbb{Q}[X]/P$ to $\mathbb{C}$, one for each root of $P$ in $\mathbb{C}$.
So yes, there isn't a canonical embedding from the quotient to $\mathbb{C}$.
Actually, the point of Galois theory is precisely to describe this ambiguity.
Adrien
I see. Yea that's what I figured after a bit of thought. Still weird to think about. Taking Galois theory next sem so I guess i'll see that
Thanks!
Yes these are quite subtle questions
Earlier in this course I proved that the only automorphism of Q[sqrt 2] is the one sending sqrt 2 to - sqrt 2. I now see why that's the case
Besides the identity*
I would say this is not true but I don't know how to prove it, I need to think about it
I think it's not true i.e. in the example Q[x]/x^2-2
x is distinctly sqrt 2
Well, x and -x
Yeah, you can't distinguish sqrt(2) and -sqrt(2)
Generally if you quotient by an even degree polynomial you're gonna get conjugate roots
But canonically x isn't + or - any of them
Right
All of them isn't necessarily true
I think the good viewpoint of this is considering embeddings
Because Q[X]/P doesn't depend of anything
On the other hand, if you wanna talk about "the roots of P", you need to choose a field in which P has roots
ie an embedding
I'm not sure about that
Well, depends what you call conjugate roots
Do you know about normal extensions ?
Not yet
Ok so, let's stay in the case of Q (or any perfect field if you wish)
Let's pick K an extension of Q
We say K is a normal extension of Q if every embedding of K into C has exactly the same image
It's equivalent to ask that for every polynomial P in K[X], if P has a root then P splits in K
I see. Yes that makes sense
(since we are working over Q, normal extension are exactly the Galois extension)
So these are extensions which behave well
In K is a finite extension of Q, then it happens that there exists a polynomial P in Q[X] such that K is the smallest field in C containing every roots of P in C
Basically, take a polynomial, add every roots of the polynomial and you get a Galois extension
(you probably need to assume that the polynomial is irreducible in Q[X])
So basically every number field is the splitting field of some polynomial?
Or of some irreducible polynomial at least
It isn’t a splitting field I think
Q(cbrt(2)) is a number field that's not the splitting field of x^3-2
A splitting field would always be Galois
So is this not true? Or am I misinterpreting
Oh sorry
I think adrien waa talking about normal extensions specifically
I misinterpreted
Finite Galois extensions (over a perfect field) are exactly the splitting fields yes
And the Galois group tells you how much you can swap roots without messing things up
Yes
It's quite complex tbh
It's also a geometric theory
But that's for later 
It's related to covers/fundamental group
In the context of Riemann surfaces, the analogy between the Galois group and covers become concrete
But I don't know the details
John explained it to me once a while ago
I can probably find the convo if you want
Lol ok
Two quick questions for clarity: how would you describe the cyclic subgroup <1/2> in R* and the cyclic groups <1/2> in R
Multiples versus powers (including negative powers) of 1/2
<1/2> = {1/2^n such that n is an integer} for R* and <1/2> = {n/2 such that n is an integer} respectively
Ah okay, thank you
That’s what I said wtf!
yes but I said it better 
You said it worse
nuh uh

explicit constructions are always "swagger"
yeah cause I put it all into this statement
Get kobenaenae’d

I got another banger
wait a minuite is that fermats last fucking theorem 
trivial homomorphism 
They won’t be actually trivial, but it’s solutions to that equation which we know
For when is x in (2)[(p)+(q)] x in Z
What about x in Z_p @-@

Are there any resources that teach basic number theory but from algebraic perspective?
Or like some intro to algebraic number theory books?
Nothing too hard though
Is P_2 abelian?
What is P_2?
Under which operation?
symmetric difference?
That sounds like a good guess.
yep btw order of P_2 will be 4, hence every group of order 4 is abelian. If P_2 is group then it will abelian.
BL is right that all groups of order 4 are abelian, so in that sense it settles your question. But you really shouldn't be asking the question without first being sure what the group you're asking about is.
Well I know it could be (identity, a, b, (a,b))
still operation is not clear.
That's why I'm asking cuz I'm unsure of the operation
Whether it's addition or multiplication
I can show you guys the whole thing, I may be reading this entire thing wrong
what does chapter 3 exercise C say
How does addition of subsets of a size-2 set work???
Okay, symmetric difference. It's rather uncommon to notate that with a +, but let's roll with it.
Symmetric difference is definitely a commutative operation (which should be clear from its definition).
Therefore every group where the group operation is symmetric difference is abelian.
Boolean rings
You are asking about the additive group of the prototypical boolean ring
Okay yeah, so it's not unprecedented to write it with a +.
I was working on this last week and did the whole pset except for 1.6(b), tried writing some stuff out like setting cos(nt)sin(nt) = a sin(nt) + b cos(nt) + c to see if we can get closure but I was not sure how to proceed
from Artin btw
The definition is written a bit sloppily, but I think the intention is that S can contain integer combinations of the trig functions with different n, so the base set is really {1, sin t, cos t, sin 2t, cos 2t, sin 3t, cos 3t, ...}.
That weakens the condition, but I still have no clue where to go from there lol 
Have you looked up a set of trigonometric product formulas?
I mean they usually involve higher powers or products of sin/cos right
Just google and see.
ahh I see the ones you mean
There are some pesky factors of 1/2 in the relevant formulas, which mean that the set of integer combinations is not closed under multiplication. However making a completely foolproof argument out of that takes a bit more footwork than the problem setter might have realized ...
yeah cause it looks pretty unintuitive right now at least 😢
oop cropped out = sign but top row and bottom row should be equal by assumption
kinda looks like some fourier analysis shit but idk much about that lol
I might be able to get some intuition for how to show that such an equality is impossible by actually trying the case we kinda ruled out cause it probably was worded weirdly, and seeing how to argue that too it is impossible
I think the easiest is to pick a single example and argue that for example sin²(t) is not in the set.
Which would be enough to establish non-closure.
That could be based on the convenient property that $\int_0^{2\pi} f(t),dt = 0$ for all of the base functions \emph{other than} $1$.
wait what is the relevance of sin²(t)
Troposphere
sin²(t) is the product of sin(t) with sin(t).
wait I'm buggin
lmao
if you think of me as a bumbling idiot then you have the perfect image lol 👍
they really handin out math degrees to just anyone these days

boutta adjoin myself to <
, rope>

I just joking 😉
tbh my head still whizzing from it
did you figure it out
no lul
use troposphere's trick
what can the integral of some Z-linear combo of those functions over 0 to 2pi be
only the term that was originally constant
right, so the integral is always an integer times 2pi
what is \int_0^2pi sin^2(x) dx
yup
lol
that's a good angle
yup it's a cool observation
"what's the relevance of sin^2(x)" in this context will go on my list of idiotic things I've said that replay in my brain before I sleep, along with "Italy is in northern Europe" 💀

take my degree away someone pls

weil asked if there can be infinitely many finite groups of fixed order @chilly ocean
yeah I'm just being irrational, I shouldn't speak that poorly of myself
thanks for being a homie ❤️
hard to stop thinking like that sometimes though
it's not all so serious and we can laugh at silly mistakes and know they are of no consequence to our real worth as people
as long as it's in jest, that's okay
moments of weakness make it tough doe
nah it wasn't but you cracked me out of that thinking pattern <3 ty
:petthecat:
Funny question
The question sounds like a contradiction though/malformed question
So is S for part b supposed to be S:={sum_i z_ix_i where z_i is an integer and x_i is 1,sin it, cos it }?
wdym
the answer is no
Well yea
But the question if posed as if there is an answer other than no
It isnt a bad question to ask though, makes you think about fundementals
speaking of
I mean it's pretty easy to realize that there can only be finitely many as there can only be finitely many multiplication tables
what are first examples of non concrete categories
you could come up with a stupid bound
there are at most |G| choices for each entry in the multiplication table
the way i interpret it is how many possible functions from f:A x A -> A, which corresponds to tables in general
when you restrict with group structure then it becomes less
sure, that's why it's a stupid bound
but i mean if we are being pedantic there are infinite
but it still tells you that there can be only finitely many
up to isomorphism there are finite
lol
i wish there was initiative to make math words shorter
ive always hated morphism ending
schemes
actually?
i have no clue of general definition
i only know maybe what affine schemes are
or only a specific type
an easier example is the homotopy cat of topological spaces
but proving that a category cannot be concretized is probably very hard lol
yeah
im assuming that
i dont really know where i would start either
its probably super logic based
you need to show that there cannot be a faithful functor U: C ----> Set
yeah
idk the objects of homotopy category either, i remember thinking its just homotopies and topological spaces but then my prof said its more complicated
it's more or less that
because idk where to fit in the continuous maps either
not homotopies of top spaces
but homotopy classes of maps between top spaces
some people call this the naive homotopy cat
I am struggling to show the second condition for the subgroup closure
I showed the identity was in the group, that was chill
and then after that I have absolutely no idea how the hint helps
I think the hint is for determining the size of the subgroup
ok yea I got this
I mean the p-sylow subgroup of Sym(p^2) would be p^(p +1) right?
Yeah
so I think the hint is more about describing the operations that such phi in the group do
But then I'm lost about that lol
You have to show that H has size p^(p+1)
nice
I've seen proofs that use properties of field extensions (show $K(a,b)$ finite). My idea, though:\
Let $s$ be the field extension map. Take $f, g \in K[x]$ with $(sf)(a) = (sg)(b) = 0$.\
Claim: $(s(gf))(a+b) = ((sg)(sf))(a+b) = 0$.\
We have
$$(sf)(a + b) \equiv 0\pmod b$$
$$(sg)(kb) = s(k)(sg)(b) = 0$$\
Hence $(s(gf))(a+b) = ((sg)(sf))(a+b) = 0$.
Shuri2060
I feel this idea works, although the usage of 'mod' is a bit sketchy? 🤔
If I write down the general form of the polynomials, it's clear (sf)(a+b) will turn into a polynomial in b (linear combination of powers of b). And then by linearity (sgf)(a+b) will be 0
f and g are in K[x]. s maps from K to L (and induces a map from K[x] to L[x]). So technically I'm looking at f and g in L[x] which are s(f) and s(g)
I wanted to go with this argument but wondering if there's a more concise/elegant way to put it
I'm not 100% it works ig
Ohhhh wait I see, I guess not
No wait yh, it should be 😵
When you expand powers of (a+b) using binomial expansion
You collect all the powers of a (and the constant) together
Yeah
That will make 0. Everything that's left is a multiple of b
what about the constant term of f
That gets collected with the powers of a
yeah looks suspicious imo
I'll write it out in full
Let $f(x) = \sum^m_{i=0}k_ix^i$.\
Then $f(a+b) = \sum^m_{i=0}k_i(a+b)^i$.
$f(a) = \sum^m_{i=0}k_ia^i = 0$.
Then $f(a+b) = f(a+b) - f(a) = \sum^m_{i=0}k_i((a+b)^i - a^i)$.
how about you try an example
Shuri2060
(x^2 - 2)(x^2 -3) for x = sqrt(2) + sqrt(3)
then your claim is ?
this is zero?
i mean the overall claim

yeah, that is not true
so ((x^2 -3)^2 - 2) for x = sqrt(2) + sqrt(3) ?
indeed

the construction is more complicated than what you are trying
what goes wrong then 🤔
This shows f(a + b) is a multiple of b
but then g(kb) =/= kg(b) is my problem I think
ah.
there is a constant term for one
there are a^kb^n-k terms
for showing that the sum and product are algebraic, trying to actually construct the polynomials for them is absurdely tiresome, like don't even try for your own sake
yh ok, didn't realise
you're better off using a different argument
there is a way to construct them actually, but for the love of god, don't do it to yourself
Thanks everyone 😅
do you want a hint for the actual argument?
oh ok
well do you want to know how you would construct it?
I'm not giving a proof of why it works tho
the polynomial?
yeah
I'd be interested 😄
I'll give it for the rationals here, but this should be applicable to any field unless I misunderstood sth really badly
Thank you
the funky property is bilinearity
The circled x is tensor product or?
ye
the general idea isnt that bad
you want to construct a matrix with eigenvalue alpha + beta
and use the connection with the minimal/characteristic polynomial
loozoo
i don't understand how $x=x^{sm}x^{tp^n}$ implies $x^{sm}\in H$ and $x^{tp^n}\in K$
loozoo
to me the argument seems to hinge on the fact that either $x\in H$ or $x\in K$
loozoo
since we can show that $x^{sm}\notin K$ by definition of $K$, and similarly so for $x^{tp^n}$ that $x^{tp^n}\notin H$
loozoo
By the corollary, for any y in G
ohhh right
urgh typo
that clears things up
missing s, but yes.
If I in J in R and I, J are ideals of R. Then JI is an ideal of R/I.
Then I believe you have something like this? One of the isomorphism thms?
Revising/rediscovering stuff from a while back
do you mean J/I? because JI is an ideal of R, which is very different from R/I
I think I meant what I wrote (which may be wrong)
what you're doing kinda seems like the third iso theorem
the ideal generated by that
ok... uh what I meant by JI is
so the set of
{i_1j_1 + ... + i_nj_n | i_r in I, j_r in J}
Ok, backtracking
I meant JI
But what I meant by that was
{jI : j in J} which is an ideal of R/I
no, I meant jI
D:
Maybe I do mean that (probably remembered the quotient ring wrong, lemme check)
Ah yes.
I've written everywhere R/I = {rI : r in R}
Undoing this mistake, I will probably end up with {j + I} my ideal...
Thanks for clearing that up at least, brb 😄
So the idea of J/I := {j + I : j in J} is well defined?
J is an ideal, not a ring. But we take the quotient in the same way
And uh... I guess J is like a 'subideal' of I?
yea, but people would prefer the word "R-submodule"
How do modules (I remember them as vector spaces, but for rings) and ideals relate?
Right... so ideals of a ring R are precisely the R-submodules of the R-module R
submodule is an abelian subgroup and it should be closed under the 'scalar' multiplication
submodule vs module
subspace vs vector space
same analogy?
Ok, ima have a big think. Thanks
and recall that ideals are also subgroups which "absorb" the multiplication by 'scalars' from R
the category of Rings isn't the best one out there, but the category of R-modules is much well behaved 
Is the 'ideal quotient' (I : J) := {r in R : rJ sub I} for any I, J ideals of R related to any of this
Seems not, but asking in case.
quotient of a ring by an ideal is effectively setting all the members of that ideal equal to 0
right?
yes basically
this is the reason that any ideal must always contain 0
and also the reason why saying an ideal is closed under subtraction implies that it must also be closed under addition (because it must contain additive inverses)
however note that if being closed under addition is not sufficient, because $0 + (-a) = -a$
JustKeepRunning
i haven't seen much of commutative alg, to be able to use this definition beyond just the immediate consequences, so ig it's not related to this general stuff unless you're talking a lot about ideal products.
did honorable yellow get darker? 
or is it my night light 
Dehydrated honorable
#changelog changes 👀
Me tryna prove 3rd isomorphism thm for myself >.< 
There's this set in a set in a set in a set
Is third the one that says (G/H)/(N/H) = G/N?

cus idk
Keep the arrows as they are and apply yoneda 🙈
The commutative diagram for the 3rd iso, or as I like to call it: The commutative diagram for the 1st iso
or as i like to call: universal property of quotients
Weird, I just call it Discussion's Greatest Moment
I mean this
It's right, right?
THIS
yea looks right...
just add a / between R/I and J/I
aaaaaaaa
yes ty
Lines from R/I -> R/J or S -> R/J uhhh
There should be a natural homomorphism right?
Oh is this the correspondence theorem
det
well you can always use the isomorphisms to get those arrows, no need to write the extra letters and make life more complicated >.<
Well why I'm doing all this ---
idk, just convincing myself R/(maximal ideal) === field

And then I remembered there was a lot of things I forgot
relatable 🙈
In particular if S is the field, it will have a proper non-trivial ideal which is the kernel of the map from S to T (If I in J in R are proper)
usually it's phrased using the correspondence theorem, but really all these 3-4 theorems are just the same thing >.<
like ideal of R containing I are in bijection with ideals of R/I
so
R/I is a field <=> 2 ideals in R/I <=> 2 ideals in R containing I <=> I maximal
👌 Thanks

I was reading this earlier and went ❓❓❓ 😂
https://i.imgur.com/l7BSKZw.png
It’s so true
One day I will be able to remember the difference between [a] and just adjoining a
Today is not that day
What do you mean by that 
What is [a]
Do you mean like ℚ[✓2] vs ℚ[x]?
One is abuse of notation, while one is the polynomial ring 
Sometimes abuse of notation, sometimes adjoining in a subring

The check mark for square root 
I mean more
Q[sqrt 2] vs Q(sqrt 2)
Although I think these are the same
Q[2^1/3] and Q(2^1/3)
The first means smallest ring generated by these elements, and the second one is the smallest field
Just that if the element you are adjoining to a field is algebraic over that field, then both are isomorphic
but Q[x] and Q(x) are not isomorphic
Yes
Got it
Well yeah it’s gotta have all the inverses to be a field
Yeah, assuming that it contains Q[x] 
I am having major dumb moment
How do I show Aut(D_8) = D_8
I have shown the first part
I have shown also that D_8 is normal in D_16
where do I go from there
my prof gave a hint which makes no sense
What was the hint
The fact that D_8 is isomorphic to a normal subgroup N of D_{16} means you can get a homomorphism D_{16}/N --> Aut(N)=Aut(D_8), which you can show is injective. I described how this works during lectures on Wednesday.
but like
idk what to do with that
since D_16 /N has index 2
which isn't what we want?
yea
which is {e, r^4}
cause then you get index 8 which is the size of D_8
cause I can show D_8 = D_16 / C_2
I think
Yeah but then the proof doesn’t follow
well my thought was
let D_16 act on D_8
you get a homomorphism from D_16 to Aut(D_8) right?
yea cause every group action defines a homomorphism
Ok then if we can find the kernel of this homomorphism we can use first iso
And I think the kernel will be iso to C_2 just from an indexing argument
Yes
I believe so
and I'm also right that my prof's hint doesn't really make sense?
that would be the 2nd time this week a prof of mine confused me with a hint 
Although I think you already have that the homomorphism is surjective from the fact that D_8 is a subgroup
And yeah
It was kinda odd
But it led you to thinking about D16 acting on D8
yea
I only thought about that because inner automorphisms are just conjugations
and group actions define conjugation actions iirc
or well
conjugation is a group action
Gonna add group actions to “list of things I need to revise over the summer” 
this class is moving so fast
week 1 of class
week 2
week 3
and now we're on week 4
it's crazy, I feel so out of my wheelhouse
Jesus that is fast
I'm just lucky that I don't need this class for quals like the other students in the class (since I'm an undergrad)
yea and the HWs are brutal
https://faculty.math.illinois.edu/~rezk/500-sp22/ps-03-500-sp22.pdf
is this link accessible to you
I'm just like 💀
every week
Oh the last one looks fun
it was nice
Equivalence class type beat
I can imagine
or at least for me it was, I'm sure i can trim it in a bit
8 was cute
9-11 kinda tedious but good practice
now to finish 6 and 7 (got stuck in a similar spot for 7 but I think I can solve it in a similar way)
6 and 7 do look very similar
they are
I think here they mightve meant D_16 / C(N)
with C(N) the centralizer of N
that makes much more sense
cause i was struggling to see how you get a homomorphism from D_16/N to Aut(N) otherwise lol
you can dew it 
AA 1?

500 = grad level
how can it be I if you start by "reviewing" groups
Abstract Algebra 1: Review of Abelian Categories
week 1 was a review of group theory and all the isomorphism theorems which I supposedly learned in undergrad algebra
however I only learned first iso theorem in undergrad 
Oh so you had an AA class in undergrad okay
(it's because they're all the first iso theorem)
makes more sense
oof
I'm happy my other two classes are easy
but my research is going much slower than I want
why are you taking grad classes?
why not
^
fair enough
research in undergrad, sounds pretty dope 👌
ya
we get to do that third year i think
it's algos research, not math research
hopefully in the future I do more math research
but algorithms are fun
yeah algorithms are cool
and I'm TAing two courses which takes up a good amount of time but I'm honestly super happy to sink time into that because I love it
but thank god number theory is a snooze fest so far
bruh what
still pretty cool
math department has enough grad students that they can afford to make that restriction
fair enough
CS department has much higher demand since they want a much lower student : TA ratio
Math TAs really only grade, rarely teach
same honestly our TAs only really supervise exercises sessions and grade
but some take the effort to try and deepen understanding
yea for discrete math I help in an exercise session and hold office hours
and then for algos I hold office hours and grade
ya I'm the annoying TA who does stuff the socratic method
cause it's more fun for me that way than just regurgitating the steps
I don't wanna interrupt this conversation so i'll make a thread, but does anyone have a simple, fun proof directly involving field axioms? I proved (-a)(-b)=ab and I wanna have other exercises similar to this
gimme a sec i might have a few
Ok I'm having trouble showing this
what would be a map from D_16 to D_8?
I'm having trouble visualizing this
r -> r^2
yeah
so the kernel is clearly order 2
I literally already wrote this earlier 😭
I essentially have to show that the tensor product of V with V is equal to the direct sum of S^2 and wedge^2. I know this is easy when F contains 1/2 because then we can use a variant of the proof that every function has an even and odd component. But the problem is that all we know about F is that it is not characteristic 2
V also doesn’t have to be finite dimensional
throwback sundays
Can you use the direct sum of eigenspaces is the original vector space?
Does that hold for infinite dimensional V?
but in characteristic 2 there is only one eigenvalue ?
No our field is any field not characteristic 2
so it contains 1/2 then ?
I dont think so, there are fields not characteristic 2 that dont contain 1/2 right?
My argument currently relies on 1/2 being in the field
is 2=0 in your field ?
No
then by the field axioms, 2 has an inverse
But is 2 even in the field?
2=1+1
What about the field of 4 elements that are 0,1,x and x+1
I thought field with char 2 was just the field with 2 elements?
well you just provided a counter-example
characteristic is the number of times you add 1 to itself to make 0
for any prime p and any exponent e>=1 there is a unique field of size p^e, with characteristic p
so that's infinitely many fields of characteristic p
not even going into the infinite ones
don't do an exercise without knowing what all the words mean oO
pls someone give me funny simple algebra exercise
Prove or disprove the existence of a perfect cuboid
idk whats a cuboid
It was a joke lol
this doesnt sound like algebra
open up atiyah macdonald to a random page and prove the first exercise/theorem you see
i dont have this book
sad
Prove Z/nZ is cyclic
prove that if 1-ab is a unit in a noncommutative ring, then so is 1-ba
Prove all groups of order <60 are solvable
oh i think i remember proving that long ago
that sounds very difficult
Ok you need to be more specific then
I've given you something too easy and too hard so I'm not sure what you're looking for
Isn't it a non trivial fact that epimorphisms of groups are surjective
Prove the fact 

seems unnecessary to restrict to finite groups
isnt this trivial for infinite
yes
also
what they mean by nonvacuous
nonempty
thats also unnecessary?
its from jacobson so the language is weird
is the product AB well defined if B is empty
but sure it doesnt make much difference
A isnt necessarily proper so the inequality would hold for A = G, B = empty set
oh yeah cardinality of empty set is 0 lol
either way
not a very interesting case
ik
but i can only do trivial stuff
okay i have idea
Let |G|=n
if |A|=n trivial
suppose it holds for |A|=k+1
let new A s.t. |A|=k
If AB is the set of pairwise products, then it will be empty if either set of empty
and |B|>n-k
carla if |A|+|B|>|G| what does that imply about one of |A| or |B|?
ik what it implies i thought about that too
hmm
i think my idea wont work
okay here's a question
suppose we have 2 elements a \neq b and we want to look at aA and bA
what's the most that aA and bA can intersect?
you can assume that a is the identity if you want
I suppose it suffices to prove for the case |A|+|B|=|G|+1
I mean sure
i dont know
if |A|=|G|/2 then can have full intersection
or can it
just allows you to focus on the fact that it only depends on when A and B have at most one element in common, dunno haven't caught up to what you've done yet
yea
for example G = Z2xZ2, A=Z2x0 and a, b the elements of A
I can't understand this hint 
it's not a hint
no, I was kind of just seeing if thinking about that would help
oh lol ok
I don't know the answer to this question
I guess the tone of my first thing was hint like
but I am thinking about this question rn
For a pretty comprehensive hint ||Consider the set A_g = {ga^(-1) : a in A} for some fixed g in G||
okay so if I consider the number of pairs that we are multiplying together, I get a pretty large number. If we assume as mero said that |A|+|B|=|G|+1, then is there a nice lower bound on the number of pairs |A||B|? Maybe this is not the direction to go in but I will try it
if you optimize x(a-x) you get a-2x=0 which gives you a=2x or x=a/2 as your minimum, so the worst case scenario here in terms of numbers of pairs is the case where |B|=|G|/2+1 and |A|=|G|/2 (approximately, odd and even make this approach a little annoying)
I feel like this is pigeonhole applied to the function b -> ab over all a in A, b in B
That’s my first instinct for this at least
I mean that's kinda what I'm trying




