#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 662 of 407
Yeah that's what i mean
Wait actually I was imagining Z_2
Ig the logic is reducing mod 2 means you don't need to worry about the fact we have polynomials in the image of x lol
ok nice lol
but probably would work w/o reducing mod 2 anyway

not sure how that last part works
different number of irreducibles on both sides?
like if f = b_1b_2
multiply both sides by a_1(y)a_2(y)
we get a_1a_2 * f = b'_1*b'_2 irreducibles
you're right
your example is right but incomplete
@lavish nexus showed Z_3 is cyclic
but show that all subgroups of it are trivial or the whole group
Yeah I’m kinda stuck
which you can do by looking at the subgroup generated by 0
and then the subgroup generated by 1
and then the subgroup generated by 2
and then you're done
Wouldn’t ]{0,1}.be a subgroup
does 2|3
No
ok then it is not a subgroup
Ahh ok
another reason is that it is not closed under the group operation. like 1+1 isn't in {0,1}
Thanks
What does this notation mean ?
I know what it would mean without the square root of 2
h is a polynomial in x with coefficients in Q(\sqrt 2). or are you asking what Q(\sqrt 2) is?
So the polynomials look like a•√2 + b•√2•x + c•√2•x^2 ... ?
the coefficients are in Q(sqrt(2))
so they can be anything in Q
and any linear combination of 1 and sqrt(2)
(which includes everything in Q)
How are you getting 2? 
i circled them @maiden ocean
is it because of the uniqueness theory?
I dont understand what the numbers you circled mean
they have the same gcd
What is that supposed to imply?
it tells us how many subgroups of order 8 G has
since 3 divides 9 that would just count as 1 right?
since they give the same subgroup
The gcd tells you the order of the subgroup
Yes
But if they have the same gcd then they correspond to the same subgroup 
Or rather like
so is the answer for these type of problems is always 1 or 0?
Remember the subgroup actually generated by 9 is more complicated than 3 because 9 doesnt divide 24
Yeah
i mean thats what the problem asks 
Oh I misread and thought you meant (f), sorry
(e) is a little bit of a trick question because cyclic groups are abelian, so all their subgroups are normal
so its really just asking you to name the number of subgroups of G
wait is this under addition?
Yes
aren't they the same
Yes
oh
Maybe that wording was bad
I meant that you cant just look at multiples of 9 until you hit 24
oh sure
so

for my case would it just be the subgroup: list i have?
for the normal subgroups
Yes provided it is correct
Oh well your list does not account for duplicates. If i have a cyclic group G of order n then i have one unique subgroup of G for every divisor of n. 24 is divided by 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24
im missing 1 also right?
Im not really sure what your list means exactly
Uh, 9 doesnt divide 24? neither does 10
oh yeah
i basically have the numbers that werent coprime
so in reality the number of normal subgroups would just be the number of divisors of 24?
Yeah
Or rather theres one unique subgroup of a cyclic group for every divisor of its order
Since a cyclic group is abelian, those are all normal
so this only applies for cyclic
Yeah
In general the subgroups of a group might be quite complex, you can have multiple of the same order
But if a group is finite the order of the subgroup must divide the order of the larger group (lagranges theorem)
Those aren't subsets of ℤ
like Z_2 = {0,1}
oh, mb
in what sense does it make sense to even take that union oof
How is this any different from N then ?
Those aren't subsets of ℕ either 
Are you using Z_n to mean Z/nZ or smth else
Zn as in class of Z mod n
yeah
Weird to take a union of groups
but then they definitely don't sit inside ℤ
Well Zn isn't a subset of Z though
But then this highly depends on what you mean by union
I mean set union
Is this disjoint union
If we do disjoint union we treat it as everything is formally disjoint
Lol
aren't coproducts of groups just direct sums tho if im not being silly
Ye
This isn't really helping 
Yes
But like how do I multiply things from the two separate camps?
That's why I was saying it's weird to take a union of groups 
Can you post the entire context for this?
sure
It might be better to give more context
wait a sec
Maybe with more context it’ll be obvious what it is
Lol

I have to determine if given operation (let's say a * b) defines operation on set S =
such that (S, *) is group

So they have given you a specific operation?
yeah
Or are you to come@up with one?
If it's a true or false problem then it could be literally anything though lmao
Okay, it’s probably supposed be the disjoint union then
What’s the given operation?
Yeah that’s the disjoint union
It’s an element from any of those sets
But we keep them all distinct
So like an element looks like [n]_m for some n, some m
And we view [n]_m as an element of Z_m
I think I get it
It’s a way to get a set that is the “union” of two sets which aren’t a subset of the same set
You just like artificially make it
There is probably a way to translate this page into your native language
But this should give you an idea of what it is
ok, thanks
me writing a proof that the free groups over two sets of the same cardinality must be isomorphic
https://tenor.com/view/spongebob-the-essay-hilarious-haha-gif-3565665
Just define a map and its inverse omegalol 4head
there are a LOT of arrows
there are at least three (3)
Pick a bijection
oh yeah I've managed it
yeah see that's the bit I'm still struggling with 
I just drew a diagram and followed the arrows and then wrote it all as compositions
seems to work 
It suffices to check to see if it’s the identity on generators
But a generator x would map to another one y in the other one
And you defined the map the other way to send y back to x
So the composition fixed all the generators
So it’s identity
yeah I can see that it's obviously true
but it's proving it via the universal property that's hard
I don’t think so?
for you, maybe
You know from the universal property where the generators go
And that’s all you need to keep track of
I mean okay there’s some truth to what you’re saying there in “for you, maybe”
But I’m just saying this because I think you’re over complicating it probably
And I just say that because I did that a lot too
oh I absolutely am
So when i say “it’s easy” I really just mean there’s a way to simplicity it so that it becomes really simple
I have to go through everything super explicitly and in detail to convince myself that it's right
Right so let’s try it out really quickly
And I’ll try to illustrate how you could do it totally rigorously
But still really simply
and this is why i never get anything done
like for instance, I know that a group homomorphism is uniquely determined by the image of the generators
but I have no clue how that applies in a universal property situation where it has to be to an arbitrary group
Right so
If you have a set S do you believe F(S) is generated by the singleton words on S?
It’s kinda defined so that’s true
yeah that's kind of the definition
Okay so now suppose you had two isomorphic sets S and T
Or like same cardianlity lol
So you have a bijection f:S -> T
yup
So you can define a map call it say, g:S -> F(T)
Sending s to the word f(s)
As a singleton word
yeah that makes sense, it's just the composition of f with the inclusion map from T into F(T)
Yee
So now this induces a map g’:F(S) -> F(T)
And the commuting triangle says
g’(s) = f(s)
Where these are now both considered as singleton words
Sorry, f(s) is a singleton word
s is a singleton word
ok yeah, and the triangle commutes because it satisfies the universal product right?
sorry, I meant property not product
We have a function h:T -> F(S) sending t to f^-1(t) as a singleton word
This induces a map h’:F(T) -> F(S) with h’(t) = f^-1(t)
Same thing as before
ah and simarly this introduces another map
yes, this is sounding a lot like what I did just with fewer arrows 
we see that h’•g’(s) = h’(f(s)) = f^-1(f(s)) = s
compose the two and you get the identity map
yeah that's pretty much what I did
So you could do this with a few more arrows without using explicit elements
You have to use uniqueness
that's what I did
Of the map in the universal property
But I think it’s fine to use explicit constructions when you have them
I didn't realise I could get away with looking at specific elements 
It’s nice to be able to do both, but you kind of need to know when you pick your battles
especially since we haven't technically shown that the free group is generated by the singleton words
it obviously is (proof by "Look at it")
Well this follows like
By construction I feel idk hahaha
When you show the free group exists
I think you should show it’s generated by singleton words
You’re kinda missing the point without that lmfao
Actually the universal property shows it too 
The uniqueness bit
Implies it
If they didn’t generate, there’s have to be some way to get non-unique maps because the map won’t be determined by the singletons
But like whatever this is a stupid stupid way to look at it
maybe we did actually, I just don't think we called them singleton words
Yeah I didn’t know what to call them lol
I think we just used a generating set
Lol
But anyway yeh
Arguing via universal property is good but
If you know what the maps do to elements
You should try to use that
This will become so important to prove things with the tensor product
I probably will once I get more comfortable with the universal property as a concept - it's very good practice
Yeah I mean you should try to get used to using both
Really what’s going on is
The free group thing is a functor
From sets to groups
And for any functor, an invertible map gets sent to an invertible map
You could try to show that
Show that if you have a map of sets S -> T
It induces a map F(S) -> F(T)
We kinda did that
yeah that sounds like what we did, and then also proved that if S -> T is bijective so is F(S) -> F(T)
And then show if you have a composition S -> T -> U
You get both this diagram
F(S) -> F(T) -> F(U)
That’s like doing the composition of the maps that are induced
But also you have a direct path
F(S) -> F(U)
By looking at the composition S -> U
And the map that induces
You wanna show that those end up being the same
This
And this
oh so the functor preserves composition basically
That’s exactly what it is yeah
nice
And uhhh
From this compose with composition thing
It ends up being derivable that the identity S -> S
Gets sent to the identity F(S) -> F(S)
But actually you can show that explicitly
But from here you can see why an invertible map S -> T
Gets sent to an invertible map F(S) -> F(T)
Yeah?
yup
The inverse is given by the induced map from the inverse T -> S
yeah exactly
Also the preserving composition bit
Requires the uniqueness
So you’ve actually pretty much already done this
Oh well actually there’s two ways lol
You can do it element wise
who would've thought not looking at specific elements would lead to something more general 🤪
That’s like my proof of the fact you were doing
I manually showed that the inverse maps induced inverse maps on the free groups
But if you follow it, you see I really will have proved the composition thing
You could alternatively do it abstractly using arrows and diagrams like you did
I like the arrows
just follow the arrows they will never lead you astray 
So true
unless you draw one backwards and don't notice for an hour 
Oof
Ok so suppose we have
P = |1 1|
|0 1|
We have that B = PAP^-1 and C = PBP^-1 and A = PCP^-1. We also have A^2 = B^2 = C^2 = -I and AB = C. This is promising. However I'm not sure how to show this action by conjugation is well defined. Furthermore this set of {+-A, +-B, +-C} is almost the quaternion subgroup group, except you're missing +-I so I don't think I can use normality here to show this action is well defined. So I'm stuck.
P doesn't commute and neither does A so I can't get closure like that
did you figure this out?
figure what out?
the question? @proud bear
no
gave up and started working at some other problem
I'm not entirely sure why you're looking at relations between elements of the set - it doesn't have to be a group it just has to be closed under conjugation by elements in G'
^
for any M in G', MAM^-1 has to +-A, +-B or +-C. if it is +-I, then you can multiply on the left by M^-1 and the right by M to get that A=+-I
well I was hoping to use the relations to see closure

I want something more elegant tho
seems to be 42 elements actually that is quite a lot 
i think you actually can use normality to show the action is well defined. when you conjugate elements of {+-A, +-B, +-C} by elements of G', you'll get some element of {+-I, +-A, +- B, +-C} (because {+-A, +-B, +-C} is a subset of the quaternion subgroup which you said was normal in G'). MXM^-1 does not equal +-I for any X in {+-A, +-B, +-C} (if it did that would imply that X= +-I, which can't happen). so {+-A, +-B, +-C} is closed under conjugation
48
oh yeah that's what 6*8 is
have I mentioned how much I fucking hate 6 times 8?
it's like 7 times 8 if it was even more nonsensical and annoying
same goes for 6 times 7
we're in abstract algebra please call them elements of ideals in Z thanks
it makes me sound less stupid 
also check pins in this channel for another "wew lads times tables" moment
Lmfao
idk man
7 * 8 is more annoying
a controversial statement
I feel like your opinion is more controversial
feels like it should be deg(f)! or something like that
η permutes the roots
and there are deg(f) roots
yeah this is wrong
set F = F'
and let η = identity map
then the number of extensions of η is the size of the galois group
the size of the galois group doesnt agree with the degree of the polynomial in general
Also if f is not irreducible like f = g*h both irreducible then it should be deg(g)!*deg(h)! right?
no you cant write down a formula involving just the degree
Is dummit and foote a decent abstract algebra book
yes
Yes
it's very good
Thanks 
What are these notes from?
hey guys
for this problem
to show that I was a non-maximal ideal I used the counterexample as the ideal generated by I and (1,0,1,0,...). My mentor asked me bonus question, which is whether this ideal is maximal
i am pretty sure the answer is no and i think the proof involves smth with the axiom of choice, but i am not too sure about the details
It shouldn’t be
no I read I wrong
Consider the following
Oh hmmmm
Okay what about this one then
Add in this vector
(0,0,0,1,0,0,0,1,0,0,0,1,…)
Then you shouldn’t be able to get the identity element (1,1,…) inside of that ideal
Because you basically have to fill in the k-th spot over all k which are 2 mod 4
hm i don't think i understand
how does this prove that the new ideal is nonmaximal
I created a proper ideal containing it
The same way you took your ideal plus the element (1,0,1,0,…) to show it wasn’t maximal
how do u know that this type of element isn't in the ideal generated though
Well it’s almost the same argument you’d use to show that the ideal generated by I and (1,0,1,0,…) is a proper ideal
Write out the finite sum, and you’ll see that in order to sum to (1,1,…) you’d need to produce something which has infinitely many 1s inside of the k-th spots for k = 2 mod 4
All you can use are
(1,0,1,0,…)
Which doesn’t touch the spots where k = 0,2 mod 4
The element
(0,0,0,1,0,0,0,1,…)
Which doesn’t touch the spots where k = 2 mod 4
And then a finite number of elements in I, but each of those only has finite many non-zero entires
And we’d them to sum to something with infinitely many non-zero entries

to show that we can never generate a maximal ideal
Just do it inductively
You could do it so like you add in
(0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,…)
So like just kinda cutting in half
Then you have an issue for k = 4 mod 8
Then go again and it’s for k = 8 mod 16
Blah blah blah
Just take the idea I used and just keep going further and further
ok thx so much

So true brofibration
Hey guys, I am trying to determine for which coefficients the polynomial
$$
f = x^2 + ay^2 + 2by + c
$$
is irreducible in $\mathbb{C}[x,y]$. I was wondering if I'm on the right track...
What I've tried doing so far is using Gauss' Lemma: We have a UFD $\mathbb{C}[y]$, its fraction field $\mathbb{C}(y)$, and the rings $\mathbb{C}(y)[x]$ and $\mathbb{C}[y][x] = \mathbb{C}[x,y]$. The lemma tells us that if $f$ is reducible in $\mathbb{C}(y)[x]$, then $f$ is reducible in $\mathbb{C}[x,y]$. We can see from our polynomial that $f$ is a difference of squares in $\mathbb{C}(y)[x]$, hence $ay^2 + 2by + c$ must be a perfect square.
vov&sons
from there I was just gonna complete the square and solve for when the term outside the square is zero...
can someone explain to me why my sol for this problem is incorrect
my professor said its because i assumed that all chains are countable (that they can be indexed by a subset of the natural numbers), which is not always true
i understand this but now idk how to repair my proof (or if its even repariable)
You do exactly the same thing but with arbitrary chains
You just have to change how your index it
Just say you have a chain {I_alpha}_alpha in A an arbitrary chain with I_alpha < I_beta for all alpha < beta
why does this work and not my proof
isn't it basically the same thing
the example he gave me for which it didnt work was a polynomial ring with infinitely many variables
It’s because you could have uncountable chains
And your proof is indexing using the natural numbers
If you just changed it to be an arbitrary indexing set this works
The idea works totally fine, it’s just that as written you couldn’t apply Zorn’s lemma because Zorn’s lemma requires you to show even uncountable chains have an upper bound
also, make sure that your indexing set is actually a set (this isnt a problem here, but you will probably use zorn a lot later)
Well that’s implicit in the definition of a chain right?
yes
how do i make sure of this
is it ok if I just write let the indexing be {I_k} in A such that for all \alpha, \beta, I_{\alpha} < I_{\beta} iff \alpha < \beta
in this case your indexing set is a subset of a power set of a set, so youre okay
Brofib what are you talking about
Zorn’s if you’re applying it to sets
You’d never have an issue with the indexing set not being a set
You have to show every totally ordered subset has an upper bound
So you can always index it with a set
If you’re trying to do global choice level of Zorn’s it becomes an issue sure
alright here's a fake "proof"
Look at the poset (this is where it fails ig) of all sets. Every chain has an upper bound (union). So there's a maximal element.
Yeah but that’s not about the indexing set
The issue is you’re trying to apply Zorn’s to something that isn’t a set
If you’re trying to use global Zorn’s then you have to handle class sized chains
Okay
You made it sound like you have to provide an argument for why you only have to handle set-sized chains
When using Zorn’s lemma
yeah I worded it incorrectly
Yeah
Sorry for the confusing stuff we were writing
Don’t worry about that, basically what Brofib ration is saying is that to apply Zorn’s you need a partially ordered SET
So you can’t use Zorn’s on the class of all sets
That’s like a partially ordered class
But in this case your poset is the set of ideals of a ring which is obviously a set
protip
8 does not divide 36
this would have been good for me to realize
when trying to find 2-Sylow subgroups of S3 x S3
💀

,w factorize 4999


,w factorize 123456789011

Good approximation for 8

Abstractest of algebra
are finite fields algebraically closed?
no
if a_1,...,a_q are all the elements of the finite field, then (x-a_1)...(x-a_q)+1 has no roots
ah
@next obsidian u didn't record the talk right?
I did not
sad
ya, bad timezone 
Imagine not staying up till 3 am just to watch

had to wake up early for class, otherwise I would have 
Imagine attending class over

This is the shit the pepe slots are being used for 
this is eevee
prove it
What did you talk about ? In a few sentences, don't bother
basically showed us their chmonkey plushie collection
did you know 30,000,000 plus or minus 1 are both prime
🙈 
,w factor (3*10^7)^2 - 1
Hey y'all, not too sure where to put this. Since Galois theory has quite a bit of abstract algebra involved, I figured this was good enough. Anyways, I am having a really hard time figuring out how to approach this and I can really use some help.
have you proven that S_n acts on F[x1, ..., xn]?
what do you mean by acts?
oh in the sense of a group action.
what we need here is that tau(sigma(f)) = (tau * sigma)(f)
pick some arbitrary tau in S_n and just see what would happen when you act it on those two expressions (that sum and product i mean)
Galois theory is abstract algebra though 
How would I do that on a general polynomial f?
that's the thing, you don't need to actually know anything about f. just compare what happens to the expressions before and after the acting by tau
(recall that a polynomial g in F[x1, ..., xn] is called symmetric if and only if tau(g) = g for every tau in S_n)
Well, it seems like what we are trying to get to is that tau of the product of sigma f is equal to the product of tau*sigma f.
yep, that would be the first nice thing to expect. do you see why this is the case?
so abstracting out what you said. we want to show that
tau(g * h) = tau(g) * tau(h)
for arbitrary g, h in F[x1, ..., xn]
I'm having a hard time putting it into words, but I do believe I understand why this is, yeah.
okie, so let's now worry about manipulating the product of tau*sigma f
we want to show that, the product expression in the problem is symmetric
so this should turn out to be product of sigma f
if you're unsure at any point of time, try out an example!
pick some value of n, say n = 3 and pick some specific f
Well, it sounds like what we are gathering is that tau*sigma_i is itself a permutation, and we want to show that no permutation is deleted by composing tau.
putting it into a statement, we need to show that for permutation alpha and beta
tau * alpha = tau * beta <=> alpha = beta
(but we've skipped a step btw...
we should make sure that tau(sigma(f)) = (tau * sigma)(f))
Well that one honestly isn't too hard
yep!
Actually isn't the group operation of Sn function composition?
I am not sure why we need to do that extra step
yea but recall that f here is something in F[x1, ..., xn]
it's not something in {1, 2, ..., n} that we can directly appeal to the definition of function composition
sigma(f) is defined in a different way.... by permuting indeterminates in f
Well, it kinda is right? because {1,2,...,n} has an easy bijection to the variables {x1,...,xn}
it sure is... (there is a thing called universal property of polynomial rings, and with that it's exactly that!)
(but ignore that for now)
Respectfully ignored
so do you see what exactly happens when we apply tau to
sigma_1(f) * .... * sigma_N(f)?
(N here is n!)
(sorry about my sentences, i often change what i'm trying to say in the middle >.<)
Ummm, well tau is acting on the whole structure, but that's the same as tau acting on each sigma_i(f) individually.
Because really you are just acting on n! different objects
yep, so by composing tau with {sigma_1, ..., sigma_n!} we just permute these... no permutation will be deleted, and no two will collide and become a single permutation
Oh duh! tau^-1* tau*alpha=tau^-1* tau* beta
Got to love not thinking about the basics of group theory xp
Okay, so here's my stab at a proof. Let $f\in F[x_1,\dots,x_n]$ and $\sigma \in S_n$. Now apply a permutation $\tau$ onto the product and sum of $\sigma\star f$, this is equivalent to acting on each $\sigma\star f$ individually. Since $\tau\circ \sigma_1=\tau\circ \sigma_2 \Rightarrow \sigma_1=\sigma_2$, for every $\sigma\in S_n$, $\tau\circ \sigma$ is a unique permutation. So the product and sum collects every permutation of f.
dackid
rest is commutativity under multiplication 
And that comes naturally since F[x_1,...,x_n] is a field
(it's not a field, but sure is a commutative ring!)
yea exactly >.<
we'd need the rational functions for that
Okay cool! That wasn't nearly as bad as I thought!
I am going to have another question soon, because the next one looks a bit tough to grasp
If you want, feel free to take a look at it while I finish number 7
Oh, this is easy!
Since C collects all non-identity permutations of B, BC is the product of all permutations of B, which we just proved is symmetric
for (b) A/B(BC)=AC is a product of symmetric polynomials, which is symmetric
And since AC and BC can be represented as elementary symmetric polynomials, then so do AC/BC

just one tiiinnyyy error
A/B isn't a symmetric polynomial
it's a symmetric rational function
you are right, it is a symmetric rational function
And the product of symmetric rational functions is of course symmetric.
This one looked wayy scarier than it actually was
do any of you understand what that sum is? I am a bit confused on it
Maybe $x_1^2x_2 + x_2^2x_3 + x_3^2x_1 + x_1^2x_3 + x_2^2x_1$ ?
If you are indeed reading about symmetric polynomials
Adrien
I have a confusion related to characters. how can one deduce this?
I thought a character is by definition the trace of the representative matrix
i.e. tr(pi). why tr e(pi(H))?
abstract algebra
It’s your job to finish what he started
what are some algebraically closed fields other than C?
field of algebraic numbers (over Q)
{0}
oh...
Algebraic closure of any field 
wait
my answer is a meme
i know
What's the characteristic of the 0 field?
it's not a field
1
based
b-but 1 = 0!! it's a field!!!
you mean F_un?
france detected ⚠️ france detected 🚨
Fun Things are Fun >.<
Big disagree
watch K-On! lol
I'm going to agree actually
_ _
no a weeb anime for degenerates


🪚
so
det is actually a primary schooler (I ardly knew 'er)
Having seen det irl
That just seems weird
wow abstract alg meet up and I wasn't invited

I see how it is
F
no
No
nope
nvm
no finite field is algebraically closed

its countable
{0}
...except for that one
I'm looking for test cases for linearity of the arithmetic derivative
Stop moving goalposts
here
D_K(z) is the arithmetic derivative
for l(p) = 1/p, it has the property D(p) = 1 for prime p
prime p referring to a prime in the base UFD
it's defined all multiplicatively... why would one expect it to be linear? 
it's linear over C[X] 
in which it acts as a normal derivative over polynomials
which is why I'm investigating whether it's linear for polynomial rings over other algebraically closed fields
so you define l(x-a) = 1/(x-a)?
yes
wait so D(x^n) = x^n * 1/x = x^(n-1)
no
we probably count primes with multiplicity then
n*x^(n-1)
like the normal derivative
if you define l(p) = 1 then L_K(z) is a prime factor counter
with multiplicity right?
like L(p^2) = 2?

lol issokie >.<
right, so for alg closed field k, the thing for k[x] would be the normal derivative
yes
assuming again l(x-a) = 1/(x-a)
yeah
i mean you can just say l(p) = 1/p
because if k isn't algebraically closed, then not all irreducibles will be linear polynomials
wait actually i need to think abt that one
it definitely is over C[X]
D(x^2 + 1) = 1 as well then 
yep
the proof is same actually
yea looks like it
just one thing tho
your definition is a bit weird
l is a function from the set of primes in the UFD to its fraction field
not to K
oh wait
so yea
yeah
det
yeah
it does
but D(x^2+1) = 1

btw one more thing... it will work for K only if you choose your primes to be monic linear
yes
2x is also a prime in C[x]

-1 is going to be a unit unless char = 2 (where it's just 1)
It's the non negative generator of the kernel of the characteristic map 😌
wait
Characteristic map for a ring R is the unique map ℤ → R
so like C, Z, Q[X,Y] etc have characteristic infinity?
you'd think so but we say they have char 0
makes sense
mainly due to moldi's definition
which is why moldi's defition is better 
but cmon who thinks about it like that 
Yes that is moldi's definition
I came up with it myself
I will cite you
like I will put a screenshot of that discord post if I need to cite what a characteristic is
yeah I saw the words "unique map"
iso theorem 😳
Z is initial in the category of rings 
Universal property of ℤ 
I'm lost in a sea of words
maybe I'll understand it all in a year's time
just read riehl then everything will make sense
actually i probably will depending on how fast i go through pugh analysis
Imagine reading Riehl instead of the OG mac lane 
All the words we said amount to "for any ring R, there exists a unique map ℤ → R"
Cat theory
tbh the reason i preferred riehl was because its shorter lol
It skips so much 
also im always a bit conflicted about reading old things
like maybe there were new developments that should definitely be mentioned
i guess most of the time it doesnt matter
but it still bugs me
Riehl is like mac lane but rearranged and shortened with added examples
i do feel like she could have put abelian categories in there
Written so well though
but other than that i think the content is good
Real men read badly written books 
i also think that riehl is like the second ever book i really worked through
real men write their own books and then read them
usually i dont find the time to properly and carefully read everything
and just look for the things i need
Same
I've got a pdf of knapp basic algebra
Mac lane took my first time 
there are way too many interesting books to read each of them completely and carefully
i think it introduces linalg independently
you already finished mac lane?
im still on the kan extensions chapter in riehl
but rn i gotta prepare for exams
and kan extensions arent exactly needed there
Still have to finish Kan extensions lol
I have read till the coend formula for Kan extensions
Riehl doesn't even do ends and coends does it
after i finish riehl i planned to skim through mac lane and look at things that werent in riehl and that might be useful
no she doesnt
Does Riehl have horizontal composition of natural transformations?
yes ofc
would it be more useful to look at alg topology or general cat theory (meow) after algebra
depends on what you want to do
Does it compose nat trans with only functors or does it horizontally compose any 2
Because I couldn't find it when I went through it lul
its on page 45
both seem like very interesting fields of maths
foundations and topology
I see
if you havent seen a lot of maths yet then i doubt category theory will make much sense or even be useful
Have you seen point set topology though?
topology is pretty basic though, doesnt need many requirements
point set that is
like munkres
well the basics yes
Basics are
you need to be comfortable with continuous maps, product spaces, quotient spaces, compactness, connectedness, etc
ok
I'll go through pugh, the two knapp books, rudin 2, then probably I'll check out some more general topology
i mean on the other hand you could literally just dive in and everytime somethings comes up you havent seen you look that up somewhere and try to understand it
top down as opposed to bottom up
I'd suggest point set topology then cat theory then alg top
i heard scholze learned AG that way before he heard of linear algebra lel
hm
But cat thy can be done any time
yeah
i have a plan
pugh, knapp 1, complex analysis, knapp 2, point set, cat theory, logic/model theory, alg top
probably
in the summer I'll probably do like 2 at the same time
interleave
as i discussed above, depending on how thorough you plan to be in working through this, that might take some years
i have plenty of time
ok then nice
besides I'm gonna have to revise it all in university anyway
I wish I had started in my previous life 🤧
i was actually really interested in numbers in kindergarten but when i went to school that kind of faded away. Only in uni i rediscovered my interest for maths
I LOVE NUMBERS! 
NT 
They should make nom theory 2 with less numbers
modular arithmetic moment
number theory in F_2 
😄
can someone explain how this shows that $\text{char} \mathbb{Q} = 0$?
JustKeepRunning
this looks like a typo
is this your issue? or what is?
(there should be an equals sign before the minus iota)
no i mean like why do you need the homomorphism and everything
can't you just note that adding 1 repeatedly will never get you to 0 in Q
I am lost at one part
why
I don't get that
ah
(and other units in UFDs other than the natural numbers)
this seems too easy lmao
(the identity comes from the fact that prime subgroups have trivial intersection)
hey guys for the set $\overline{E} = \frac{\mathbb{F}_2[x]}{(x^2+x+1)}$ i am tyring to prove that $\overline{E}^{\times}$ is isomorphic to a cyclic group of order 3
JustKeepRunning
a solution i found online is below
can someone explain why x(x+1)=1 and (x+1)(x+1)=x
because i thought x(x+1)=xx+x=x+x=0 and (x+1)(x+1)=xx+2x+1=3x+1=x+1,$ but thats not what it says in the solution
is there such thing as "intervertible" or did this guy mean invertible
This is supposed to be invertible
ok just double checking, ya never know
Hey guys, if I have a polynomial $f = ax^2 + by^2 + cxy + dx + ey$, is it possible to somehow "force" the $x^2$ term to have a nonzero coefficient?
vov&sons
using an affine transformation
I'm trying to transform this polynomial to the polynomial $x^2 + by^2 + ey$ using affine transformations, but this requires me to cancel out the $a$ coefficient
vov&sons
my prof said that this is possible, but I'm just super confused on how one can guarantee a nonzero coeff for x^2 at ALL times
i think you can use a rotation?
can you elaborate?
oh wait no thats for xy
If b != 0, then interchange x and y. If a=b=0, then hopefully c!=0. In that case switch coordinates to u=x+y, v=x-y, and then u² and v² will both have nonzero coefficients.
right, but what if a=b=c=0?
oh maybe if a=b=c=0, then we don't have a conic section anymore so we don't really care about that case
I should have mentioned the whole purpose of this is to find all reducible conic sections in C[x,y]
Yes, in the a=b=c=0 case you can't get it to the form you wanted, because with x^2+by^2+ey there's a straight line (namely the y-axis) whose image is [0,infty) whereas there is no such straight line for dx+ey+f.
weird question, but would Algebraic Graph Theory be under Abstract Algebra? if not, then what field of mathematics would it be defined under?
#discrete-math or #combinatorial-structures perhaps
Riehl wants to construct the orbit category associated to a group G. She says "its objects are subgroups H of G, which we identify with the left G-set G/H of left cosets of H." I don't understand the G-set stuff here. On one hand, the category is supposed to have subrgoups as objects but on the other hand it seems like the objects are sets G/H
I don't really know what this means sorry
so H is isomorphic to G/H?
oh okay I see lmao, thank you so much! 
I'm trying to show that $\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$ is not a flat $\mathbb{Z}/36\mathbb{Z}$-module. In fact I'm not even entirely sure if this is the case. Any hints as to how I can go about doing this?
Kraft Macaroni
Try to exploit the torsion
I think it is generally true that modules with torsion can't be flat
||consider the map R → R which is multiplication by a non zero divisor annihilating the given module||
So I've shown that this action is well defined but I'm not sure how to show that it describes a surjective homomorphism. I know that G' acting on X does give a homomorphism but showing that it is surjective I'm not sure how to do
Wait this doesn't work here because 2 is a zero divisor
torsion doesn't make sense for this
Consider multiplication by 2: Z/18-> Z/36, as a map of Z/36-modules. When tensored by Z/2 it stops being injective
%\DeclareMathOperator{\ch}{ch}
For a field extension $L | K$ and $α$ in $L$, we can generalise the trace $Tr_{L|K}$ and norm $N_{L|K}$ of $α$ to the characteristic polynomial $p_{ch}(α)$ again by defining it to be that of the K-linear multiplication map. $p_{ch}(α)$ is in fact $p(X)^{ [L:K(α)] }$ where $p$ is the minimal polynomial of $α$.
Does the result of transitivity of trace and norm for field extensions $E | L | K$ generalise to the characteristic polynomial?
Raghuram
@barren sierra so if we label {+-A} as 1, {+-B} as 2 and {+-C} as 3 then the matrix P you found here gets mapped to (1 2 3). If you can find some other matrix Q such that B=QAQ^-1 and A=QBQ^-1 then this will get mapped to (1 2) (C=QCQ^-1 because AB=C). Then since every element of Sym(X)=S_3 is a product of (1 2 3) and (1 2), phi is surjective. For example (1 3 2)=(1 2 3)(1 2 3) so P^2 is mapped to (1 3 2) by phi and (1 3)=(1 2 3)(1 2) so PQ is mapped to (1 3)
Please tell me if I should take this to #advanced-number-theory or somewhere else.
@proud bear ok that makes sense.
What is the point of ideal quotients
I would not mind a geometric interpretation but I want an algebraic one, along with some places its used in
Wdym by ideal quotients
\newcommand*{\chp}[1]{p^C_{#1}}
Call the characteristic polynomial $p^C$ actually. For $α$ in $L$, we get $\chp{E|L}(α) = (X - α)^n$ where $n = [E : L]$, and $\chp{E|K}(α) = p_{\min}(α)^n$, which suggests $(X - α)$ is getting mapped to $p_{\min}(α)$, or irreducible polynomials over $L$ get mapped to the irreducible polynomial over $K$ they divide.
… which I guess I can prove.
Raghuram
for ideals a,b in ring R, (a:b):={r in R| rb subset of a






