#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 661 of 407
Type theory probably
Only mniip and clerk would know
Oh it is called Lawvere
Yeah I think he did some type theory
And other category stuff
But that doesn't look like the other category stuff
It's something in categorical logic for sure lmao
ah I recognise this yes yes it is the diagram constructing the trivial abelian grape from just the empty set and abelian varieties

Can anyone please suggest some good playlists on group theory
I quite like this one https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IP7nW_hKB7I&list=PLi01XoE8jYoi3SgnnGorR_XOW3IcK-TP6
Thanks wew lads
https://youtube.com/playlist?list=PLwV-9DG53NDxU337smpTwm6sef4x-SCLv
this is also a playlist I like
rubrix cube
roobick cub
no that's not a rubicks cube, that's a category
stop doing catgegory theory
shouldn't have taught me 

the entire maths server when they see a triangle with a G and a H in the corners: 
me when shape
what's the example of a family of finite groups whose direct product has an element of infinite order?
me when I see D_3 and I go "Omg first iso theorem"
Z/nZ product over n probably
take (1,1,...)
if you're taking Z/nZ product with itself n times
he's right Z_n will do
Moldilocks ✓
Same idea 
Wew Lads Tbh
lol
yeah I'm direct summing them come at me
yes lol
Every element has finitely many non zero entries
ah yeah ok maybe I just wanted to use the fancy symbo lthen?!?!
the initial object of ....
Observe
anyway my idea is:
C_2 is generated by one element of order 2, C_3 is generated by one of order 3, so on
these are all coprime, take this product then you get (1, 1, 1, 1, ...) which can never be the identity
you think I have the FOGGIEST idea what "product over n" means

btw the product of countable groups is the direct sum right? and not the direct product?

You are asking if product is product?


🐱 theorists, I swear
which one then?
anyway moldi what does product over n mean
this
ah I see
why does it say sum then 
Because that is the coproduct
Also this is the abelian case which I don't think you mentioned
There is no direct sum of non abelian groups
Only free product 
That universal property is the universal property of the coproduct
Moldilocks can i ask for your current degree? 
MSc first year 
ohhhh I reversed the arrows
WTF
I know right

wow way to make me feel (deservedly) like a hack fraud 
moldi should be banned from the server
I legit thought you were a PhD student at minimum moldi
Have I become what I hate
me too

dude has a great sense of understanding math
if you hate people who actually seem to know what's going on, then I might have some bad news
doesn't waste 5hr watching cat videos online
I feel bad that cat talk is weird to me
Have you seen how much time I spend in #cats
I check it more frequently than my DMs
🙈
and wbu ryu i mean may i ask you current degree?
msc-2
You're older than me 
I thought you were like first year at best, given the anime pfp
age probably
Is there another measure of oldness 
waittt MSc students in the US are older than I am I think
ya i'm not that good lol
you have 4 years undergrad right?
of course you did 
I am 22
ah ha I'm younger
ok then same age
wikipedia says that any field is a local ring, which makes sense because the only maximal ideal is (0). But it also says a local ring satisfies $1\neq 0$ and the sum of any non-units in $R$ is a non-unit. But in the field $\mathbb Q$, for example, wouldn't $-2 + 3 = 1$ violate that condition?
21 
Nice, better learn all that category theory in the next year
ok so you have an excuse, not me
Where are you from?
considering my group theory course is currently being taught by a cat theorist, maybe
you mean country?
yep
cgodfrey
India
same😁
ya IK
-2 and 3 are both units in Q
-2 and 3 are units, every element other than 0 is a unit in a field
and 0+0 = 0
copy my hw but make it subtle 
college?
listen here just because you didn't misspell field twice doesn't mean
(felid and feild in case you were wondering)
WB?
damn
no just ig
first guess should be UP not WB
yeah all those western fakers
No you are from WB😂


hope so because you are here so,
that makes 0.01% probably
IISER?
no
IITs
IIT 
uh oh
what about you? what degree
CMI
Post graduated😁
oh preparing for entrance?
yep
cool
Could someone help me with the following problem
I need to show the polynomial $x^4 - x^2 + 1$ is in the ideal $(x^2 + y^2 - 1, xy-1)$
Phil With Flex Tape
Whoops, menat to post this in #algebraic-geometry, apologies
what ring is this over
what why
this is abstract alg
I should read Ideals, Varieties and Algorithms again
Funny enough, that book is sitting right next to me
Indeed it was your problem which reminded me of that
It's unspecified, so I figure it's R[x,y]
The hint for the problem was "multiply the second equation by xy + 1
what were the equations
$x^2 + y^2 - 1, xy-1$
Phil With Flex Tape
In that case, just note that $x^2(x^2+y^2-1) - (xy+1)(xy-1) = x^4-x^2+1$
JustKeepRunning
oh well thanks @prisma shuttle
sage can do it 
good to know!
in general if u are given this type of question
just subtract (or equivalently add because everything has an additive inverse) and multiply by elements of the ring repeatedly
until u can produce the desired polynomial
I am not sure how useful that is unless you have some "progress measure" in place
It's the first time I've done this sort of problem so
Universal property, or just keep an example in mind (ring of power series, p-adics etc)
It's defined by how it projects into smaller things
If you haven't already seen it, there is an algorithm for it in the book (unless I am misremembering). You can use sage to implement it and relieve yourself of hand calculation.
So the structure maps for the power series are the "projections" that quotient higher order terms. The projective limit is just a way to glue together all the data of the polynomials in a way that this works out
@final oasis
Well thanks all
I don't know if this is actually true but I think of projective limits as kind of like removing zero divisors from a sequence of rings and giving you an integral domain
I was looking p-adic case in particular
Definitely not in general because if you take projective limit of a constant diagram you'd get back that same ring so nothing happens in that case
I'm willing to reclaim that with a disclaimer "without trivial cases" or "edge cases" or something 
@molten viper
Should the projective limit satisfy some commuting diagram property
A little hack for this
When you mod out by xy - 1
This is actually saying y = x^-1
So when you look at x^4 - x^2 + 1 and x^2 + y^2 - 1, just pretend y = 1/x
That should help you see how it’s in the ideal
In this case
Just multiply by x^2
And you end up with x^4 - 1 + x^2
If you replace y with 1/x
And multiplied x^2 + y^2 - 1 with x^2
Lmfao
What the hell
Maybe this is like
Polynomials over C
Except you allow any sort of positive rational exponent?
That sounds right to me
Yeah yeah yeah
Then nothings irreducible
these papers are like impossible
That seems right
they don't explain anything
at least none of their notation
Channel your inner Chmonkey
how do u tell
Cuz u can just keep dividing the exponent by 2
x^b = (x^b/2)^2
That’s my intuit at least
Maybe there’s an issue with like x^2 + 1
But I dunno
Maybe this isn’t what it is

Maybe this has some info you are looking for
(x+i)(x-i) 🙈
so fundamental theorem of algebra would reduce this to showing that x^r - a aren't irred. as ajy element of C[X; Q+] will be in C[X^r] for some r.
which we can just factor once more... by difference of squares?
Yes google it, there is a universal property
It's also called inverse limit
But either should give you results
Oh god Hurb
The EXPONENTS are in Q^+
Not the friggin coefficients

Yeh yeh yeh yeh smart det


lol i didn't know the notation, you were the one who explained it just now >.<
okie that's probably not a complete proof. we would need to show that those aren't units. but we can define the degree like usual which shows that pretty easily.
guys what the steps we need to prove when we have to show that a subset is a subgroup
it's closed under all operations
which means it should contain the identity, is closed under inverses and products of elements.
hmmm
did my professor do all three steps here ?
so when you are asked these type of questions i should just grab two arbritary elements always right?
that proof is still incomplete
bruhhh my professor posted these solutions for midterm review LOL
so the criterion they're using is that if H is a non-empty subset of G such that for every a, b in H we have ab^{-1} in H then H is a subgroup.
non-empty is important, but no one cares lol.
hmm okay
so basically each element has an inverse?
this is called the subgroup criterion?
yea, everything in G has an inverse by the group axioms. but if we start with an element of H, we would somehow need to say that inverse is not only an element of G, but also it lies in H.
i guess they're just saying non empty is obvious there
which is reasonable on that example
I feel like their way of proving it is weird
i feel like that proof is too simple
just do ab and show ab*ab=aabb=1 cause it commutes
he did do that
he did a bunch of inverse junk
idk why
well you only prove that it's closed under *
but inverse is obvious ig?
cause ever element is inverse of itself there >.<
ye was wondering where the inverse part would be
so what is the goal for these type of problems?
to show that it's a subgroup
like do i start by getting 2 random elements?

it shows the inverse because it's squaring (ab) itself
and then run it through the function to see if it works for any elements?
just check the 3 properties any way you want. it's not like one is wayyyy too much work than the other. they are all pretty much the same thing.
yeah you'll just be checking axioms i guess
at the end of the day the proof is so easy the prof left out some step cause it's not too serious lol all discussion at this point is way overthinking haha
take arbitrary elements, use given properties
It's one of the rare algebra discussions i can participate in
i enjoyed it.
so

do i check for the 3 axioms
or no
or do i do what he did
and just do algebra until i get 1
?
I mean if you get that kinda task ig it's more safe to check all 3 axioms especially when it just got introduced but that's kinda on you to assess what your prof wants you to do
nope 
why would it
see it's either 3 step or 2 step. no big difference
the easiest way to show a set is non-empty is by handing over an element of it... and identity is going to be easiest one to hand over
now either you check a*b and a^{-1} separately or just do both in a single shot by checking a*b^{-1}
pew
okay so if i would to do it the 3 step way
a^2 = B^2 = 1
closure: a^2 x b^2 = 1 right?
call that subset H
(i) 1^2 = 1 so 1 in H
(ii) if a, b in H, then a^2 = b^2 = 1, so (ab)^2 = a^2b^2 = 1, which means ab in H
(iii) if a in H, then (a^-1)^2 = (a^2)^-1 = 1 which means a^-1 in H
showing that identity of G also lies in H
after you restrict the operations of G to H, these are then showing that H forms a group on its own
a group needs to have a 1
you go into the jungle, find the 1, and show to me that it lies in H

oh okay so basically we grab a 1 from G and show that it works in the H world using the given function
yea 
yep
(technically, closure under *. because all the three are closure under some operation >.<)
identity is a 0-ary operation, it's just a function 1 --> G
inverse is a unary or 1-ary operation. i : G --> G
and product is a binary or 2-ary operation * : G x G --> G
isnt (i) actually showing its nonempty?
yep, it's also doing that 


If polynomial f has an even sum of coefficients, does it tell you anything else about it's properties ?
Divisibility or something like that
Thanks a lot
sorta related for fun, if the sum of coefficients is odd and the constant term is odd, then f has no integer roots, might be fun to try to prove that
My majors isn't mathematics, so coming up with proofs isn't really my idea of fun 
.<
whats your major
we will never know
how do you know if a group is isomorphic
find an isomorphism
like how would i know if something is not isomorphic
for example my prof said D4 isnt isomorphic
not isomorphic to...?
"isomorphic" is a property of a pair of groups
not of a single group
oh
well
the claim was that all groups of order 8 are isomorphic
but thats false
but idk why
you can pick your favourite groups of order 8 and show that if there's an isomorphism between them we get a contradiction
for example, C8 has an element of order 8 in it, D4 doesn't, so they can't be isomorphic
idk how to create my own groups of order 8
you can always take the cyclic group of order n
There many nice properties of isomorphism. You could start checking order of groups, order of elements a.e. if G contains an element of order n but not H then G and H can't be isomorphic and etc
so are u saying if group G has an element with order 4
and Group H doesnt have any element with order 4 they cant be isomoprhic?
yes
yes because isomorphism preservers orders
you can think of isomorphism as relabelling the group elements but not really changing anything
oh okay
they act the same but can be of different elements
like each element in both groups behave the same right?
since the order of everything is basically the same
yes, you have the 'same' group with elements named differently
when you mean by cyclic group of order 8 its basically a group with 8 elements that are constructed by one element right?
cyclic groups C_n, symmetric groups S_n, dihedral groups D_n at a minimum imo
A_n is?
along with their orders and generators
the group of even permutations
klein 4 group and various other specific ones that you see pop up can't hurt either
and Z is the modulo groups right?
isn't A5 the smallest nonabelian simple group
I wrote this whole thing up and it would be a shame not to post it
no it's just the group of integers under addition
it's a nice infinite group if you ever need one
absolutely not
Another good one is Q/Z, it's an example of an infinite torsion group under addition
or there was a theorem
truly horrifying
No, consider C_2 and C_3, both abelian, but different cardinalities
all finite abelian groups are products of cyclic groups, that might be it
Can someone tell me what this question even means? It seems to me that $$id\otimes\phi$$ is ill-defined as $$L\otimes M$$ contains finite sums of tensors but the $$\phi$$ is only defined for singleton tensors
alyosha
you extend it linearly
so $\sum_i \ell_i \otimes m_i$ is mapped to $\sum_i \ell_i \otimes \phi(m_i)$
Phil
@gusty halo that's what i thought that probably means but i wasn't sure because in that case isn't this question trivial?
yes pretty much
Not entirely right? How do you know that this is well defined?
@hidden haven could i do this to prove it is well defined? I wasnt sure because this “proof” uses the fact that phi is a homomorphism before i have proven it is an actual map
I was wondering if i could do that
you've given that phi is a homomorphism right?
@delicate orchid i am supposed to show it is a homomorphism
but i first proved the properties of homomorphism and then use those properties to show that the map is well defined
oh wait sorry
those phi is in fact id tensor phi
i wrote it wrong
You're applying phi to tensors
Oh
Yeah you can't do this lol
Use the universal property of tensors
"use the universal property" is basically just code for "I sentence you to death"

for well definedness I'd just show that if x' \otimes y' = x \otimes y then their images are the same 
But that is not easy
Tensors are extremely hard to work with
Maybe it's easy in this case idk

@hidden haven wait so you don't know how to do it either?
Usually you can't get far with tensors without using their universal property
no moldi will know 
I do
Use universal property
Lol
I can kind of see how the universal property would work here
basically just shove the whole problem into LxM -> LxN
Yep
Then the universal map L × N to L ⊗ N
Here's something I wrote about this a while ago 
This is what we get from the universal property. When you have some construction defined by a universal property, and it can be proven to exist for all objects (for every module M, M ⊗ N exists) then there is a canonical way to turn it into a functor. There are 2 kinds of universal properties:
(universal construction for M) is the initial map: M → (some functor applied to universal object)
(universal construction for M) is the terminal map: (some functor applied to universal object) → M
"Tensor with N" can be viewed as a construction of the first type. It is the object M ⊗ N along with a map M → Hom(N, M ⊗ N) that is initial among maps M → Hom(N, P). Here the "some functor" is Hom(N, -). You might not have seen the universal property stated in this form before, but you can think about what this universal map is (don't spend too much time on it though). This is a more categorical way of stating universal properties, and from this it's not even clear that tensoring is symmetric, but this tells you about the induced functor.
Given a map
M → P
You have a diagram
M → P
↓ ↓
Hom(N, M ⊗ N) Hom(N, P ⊗ N)
Notice the composite map from M to Hom(N, P ⊗ N). The universal property above says the the left vertical map is initial among such maps, so there exists a unique map M ⊗ N → P ⊗ N such that when you apply Hom(N, -) to it, it completes the above square in a commutative way. We define this to be the image of the original map under - ⊗ N. You could check that this is exactly the map you described. This is the general construction of a left adjoint to a given functor (Hom(N, -) in this case), assuming it exists. If we chose a universal property of the second kind, we'd have a right adjoint to a given functor by a dual construction.
yeah so you just have to show id × \phi a homomorphism from L × M -> L × N and then map it back by composing it with the universal map?
Might be helpful for general understanding because this is a very common construction
Didn't get that
You have a map L × M to L ⊗ N
By composing the previous 2 maps
Use the universal property to induce a factoring through L ⊗ M
good lord 
This is really useful to know
it's how we construct functors from universal properties, like the free group functor from the universal property of free groups etc
i guess otherwise you'd have to look at the construction of the tensorproduct to check things
and you dont want that
I dunno I think I kinda want that 
The question is about how L ⊗ - is a functor
have you seen that definition
yes
wew lad
And if you know the general construction this is trivial
Wew have you tried working with quotients like proving that the standard generators and relations representation of D_n gives a group isomorphic to the symmetry group of polygons?
That is an ugly proof and relies very highly on the group being finite
not via quotients
I imagine it's nice using the universal product of the free group though
How else do you work with generators and relations
Generators and relations = quotient of free group
I sick them in the langle rangle 

I know that they are quotients of the free group
but I learnt that literally 3 days ago
Well my point is that even this is very hard to prove. The only proof I know is by constructing a homomorphism from the presentation to the concrete group using universal properties of free and quotient groups, prove that it is surjective, then use finiteness hacks and count cardinalities
And in general it's hard to even answer whether < generators | relations > gives a trivial group
Like how do you know whether 2 elements here are distinct?
additional exercise: show that the id tensor phi defined here is the same as id tensor phi as an element of Hom(L, L) tensor Hom(M, N)
also is well definedness even an issue in above
It's really difficult symbolically, and the easiest way is to use the univ prop of quotients
isnt it part of the construction/definition of tensor product that defining maps on pure tensors works
yeah I know it's hard to get properties from presentations in general if you're doing it directly
so you do it once and then never worry again
This is a special case of that so I assume you wouldn't be allowed to do this
i mean well definedness of the map L x M into L tensor N
Like if you have proven that tensoring is a bifunctor
Then you wouldn't be doing this exercise
well, you observe the map is bilinear
Yes
and then you are done
That's what I gave as a hint
Because the solution they gave was "define phi by extending it linearly, and it is a homomorphism because it's extended linearly"
If I understood it correctly
They didn't mention going to the product
ah ok but
i dunno wouldnt you show this in a more general way
kinda weird exercise overall
this is still nice
Should ask them to directly show that it's a bifunctor 
Why exactly is it that Q under addition is not isomorphic to Q_+ under multiplication?
cant i do like 2^x as my homomorphism
You can't half everything
Under multi
2 doesn't have a sqrt
But every element has a half
i see so 2^x needs irrational solutions
Yes
i tried, it seems neither group has torsion
i dont think there is an "exact" reason
additive group has torsion group {0} and multiplicative {\pm 1}

or am i brainfart
ℚ_+ 
@hidden haven Thank you! I just found the commutative diagram
Only considering positive things here
i am indeed brainfart
or rather i dont read
i eject myself from this conversation again
lol

i am go learn about multifunctors
i don't see any algebraic difference between these two groups
Is there anything to learn about multifunctors
past the definition
i dont know, i didnt know what a bifunctor is until you just mentioned it
What do you mean by algebraic difference
i mean i did, but i didnt know the word 
Oh
Lol
Just a functor from a product of 2 categories 
The problem posits they aren't isomorphic but I can't see why
I have you 2 reasons
Every element of ℚ can be halved
But you can't halve every element of ℚ_+
i am check nlab for examples of multifunctors 
Because halving under multiplication means taking a sqrt
ahhhhh that's kinda what I was thinking but expressed way better

oh i see, so what we're saying is there is this equation 2x=q, and for every q under addition we can find a rational solution, but every q under multiplication this isn't the case
Yep
I was thinking there was something weird with 2^-1+2^-1 = 1 which means there's some nonsense that might be happening, was this along the right lines?
sorry
can anyone tell me why euclidean domain
Seems legit
just why
no comprendo
hmmmm
i guess what im having trouble understanding is the what the norm function has to do with anything
aka euclidean function
We want to be able to write things as quotient*divisor + remainder
And we want remainder to be smaller than divisor in some sense
Think of natural numbers or polynomials
The norm is a size function that makes this happen
Then you can run the Euclidean algorithm to find GCDs etc
ok i'll let this simmer 🧑🍳
Which is useful in nom theory and polynomial study which is much of ring/field theory
We want this so that the Euclidean algorithm terminates
jeez how long did it take to get this knowledgeable
Technically my entire life 
lol I feel that
I barely know anything compared to these people 💀
Damn this channel is being really nice to me today 
the knowledge is in us all along
ok so I was thinking about the polynomial ring, and to even be able to use the Euclidean algorithm, there has to be some notion of ordering, so intuitively this is what the norm is; a method of ordering the ring
to a degree yes, the analogy kind of breaks down for complex numbers
oh ok
seriously when did you start learning abstract algebra?
but that intuition is exact for Z
2nd time moldi has been asked something to this effect today 
It was a joke 
UG 1st year is when I learned linear alg and some group theory
Kinda works still, but yeah I'd say it's better to think of it as assigning a size to each element rather than ordering maybe
I really have some catching up to do 
ahh yes, then it makes more sense in C if its size rather than ordering
What norm are you thinking of for ℂ btw?
The standard norm doesn't actually work since these ring theory norms are only natural numbers 
You can use the trivial norm here I think which just gives everything a 0
Or maybe it was that 0 has norm 0, everything else has norm 1
But this works slightly differently from magnitude since it's just about factoring
Wait we don't even assign a norm to 0 do we
I don't rember 💀
im lost
i think the norm of 0 is just defined to be 0 in every case
thats what i have in the defn
Lol what I'm saying is that this dividend norm is different from the standard magnitude
I think we do, it just has to be 0
Interesting
the trivial metric generates a norm where everything is 0 so I assume that's the one you're referring to
Because when we talk about degrees of polynomials, we either define deg 0 = -∞ or undefined
For the additivity of degree to work out
No lol
This is norm for Euclidean domain
Not analysis stuff
how have I covered euclidean domains but never even heard of this wtf
the assessor in my abstract algebra exam told me i will never become a mathematician if i keep making careless mistakes because i forgot to exclude 0 from the definition of euclidean function
Might have been called Euclidean function
Bruh
i actually noticed later too
because of a suggestive question i guess
anyways, this is how i remember
through pain
oh ok I have seen this function before
I just don't think we ever named it anything
like I've seen multiple examples of it but never the general case if that makes sense
cool to know it's a thing
Kinda stuck in seeing how #3 applies to #4
3 tells us that $|\mathcal{C}| = [S_n : A_n C_{S_n}(\sigma)] * [A_n : Cl_{A_n}(\sigma)]$
Spamakin🎷
and we know $|Cl_{A_n}(\sigma)| = [A_n : C_{A_n}(\sigma)]$ by orbit-stabilizer
Spamakin🎷
but idk where to go from there
I've seen a proof for this that doesn't use problem 3
however since I am kinda on the struggle bus in this course
I would like to figure out the intended solution
ok I'm back
and I'm feeling a bit confident
I'm going to show that for groups with finite order, multiplication in <a> is done by addition mod n.
let's say I have i and j
if I say that $(i + j) \mod n = k$, I want to prove from this that $a^i a^j = a^k$
♡ChubbyMuffins♡
according to the divison algorithm, in the equation (i + j) mod n = k, a = (i + j), b = n, q is unknown and r = k
therefore (i + j) = qn + k
$a^ia^j = a^{i + j}$
♡ChubbyMuffins♡
and $a^{i + j} = a^{qn + k}$
♡ChubbyMuffins♡
$a^{qn + k} = (a^n)^q a^k = e^q a^k = a^k$
♡ChubbyMuffins♡
therefore, a^i a^j = a^k
does this work as a valid proof?
and for groups with infinite order, since $a^ia^j = a^{i + j}$ you can just figure out from there that multiplication in <a> is simply done by normal addition
♡ChubbyMuffins♡
😭 pls guys judge my proof
looks good to me
Can anyone help with this?
thanks 🙂
😰 what book is that?
but like I want to know how to use that for this problem
my HW lol
damn
tbf this is a grad level algebra course so you'll get here soon enough
this works right? if $\sigma$ commutes with an odd permutation, then $A_nC_{S_n}(\sigma)$ is a subgroup that strictly contains $A_n$ because $C_{S_n}(\sigma)$ contains an element not in $A_n$. the only subgroup containing $A_n$ is $S_n$ so $k=\lvert S_n:A_nC_{S_n}(\sigma)\rvert=1$, meaning $\mathcal C$ is the union of one conjugacy class of $A_n$. that conjugacy class contains $\sigma$, so it is $\mathrm{Cl}_{A_n}(\sigma)$.
if $\sigma$ does not commute with any odd permutation, then $C_{S_n}(\sigma)\subseteq A_n$ so $A_nC_{S_n}(\sigma)=A_n$. thus $k=2$ meaning that $\mathcal C$ is not also a conjugacy class of $A_n$
Hmmm
I think that makes sense but I'll have to look at that again later
Also I'm working on this
and I think I can take this for granted but
How do I show that a permutation commutes with the elements of it's cycle decomposition
(it's part of the hint)
I'm trying to prove it myself and I'm not quite sure
oh wait I'm dumb NVM
the elements of the decomposition are disjoint

wait no that doesn't make sense
or does it? idk
@subtle ivy Are you around?
I'm confused about a part of this preliminary proof of Zorn's Lemma: https://i.uguu.se/qhdYVcVo.png . In particular I'm confused about showing that for a non-empty linearly ordered subset of D, the supremum of that set is in D.
I'll ask there, thank you.
Hi just checking that my understanding of transitive group actions is correct. Let G be a group, of order 4, and suppose that G acts transitively on the set E={a,b,c,d}. My understanding is that implies that for any x,y in E, there is a group element g so that gx = y. Surely then this would imply that if ga=a, then gx=x for all x in E
Does that make sense? The argument is that there are only four elements, and we must have g_i with g_1a=a, g_2a=b, g_3a=c, g_4a=d, thus only g_1 can be the identity, and since |G|=4, then g_1 must be the identity
Yes
i need sum quik dumb help :P
here algebra is just some set closed over some operation, not over a field or anything, just an algebraic structure
my claim is wrong tho bc the smallest "subalgebra" w those properties is {1} and idk what property Q\ {0} might have that {1} doesnt 
Q \ {0} contains Z \ {0} 
quoi
what if you say (Q \ {0}, *) is the smallest subalgebra containing Q \ {0}? 
i cant cheese it that hard
fr tho any ideas?
like what property of Q sans 0 would separate it from {1}
cuz no addition
this should do...?
non-zero rationals are quotients of two non-zero integers.
you would need to specify infinitely many elements, finite won't do
i was thinking that could cheese it too lol
well you can say containing primes and -1 (and closed under multiplication, inverses)?
okok i'll brb
(Q \ {0}, *) as an abelian group is isomorphic to (Z/2Z) ⊕ (infinite direct sum of Zs)
so it has infinite rank, specifying finitely many elements won't be enough to get the whole thing
i mean just adding "smallest with mmore than one element" feels like cheese
or that
we can try adding another closure statement?
this is very early in the course we havent technically defined isomorphisms so i cant use that
like what lol

i learned manifolds today too 
i still haven't 
crumpled up pieces of paper glued together 
15 minutes left 
fuck it
im cheesing it
another bad way is by saying smallest subalgebra A of R such that A u {0} is a field >.<
i would love to but he hasnt defined fields 
like it's week two dawg teach me something
i mean just add to your claim in the end that "such that A u {0} is also closed under +"
but i'm sure that they just want you to say some sort of containment of Z \ {0}
i chose to cheese with "more than one element"
fits easily wiht a proof i had inn mind
dumb onne
they say a "set of numbers"
but proof nonetheless
instead of containing "a few numbers"
wait that won't do the job
consider the set {2^n | n in Z}
inverse of 2^{n} is 2^{-n}
welp
@pastel cliff
i told you na, just finitely many elements won't do the job

pick a prime that doesn't appear in any of those finitely many elements, that prime would never belong to your A

this was probably the way to go
yea >.<
i just didnt get how it was a "property" 
Futurama theorem example on wolfram lol
well the question was smallest something which contains a "set of numbers" and satisfies "certain properties"
yeah i was fixatinng on the properties part
assuming i fix the hypothesis did the proof look ok?
#abstract-chill
pretty much becomes chill with moldi and wew lads around
i speak only facts
?
Is it true that the existence of root-finding algorithms implies uncomputable numbers are transcendental over the field of computable reals? I am pretty sure since if we have an uncomputable number and suppose it is the root of some computable polynomial, then you can just find it with the algorithm (contradiction)
I think that is a really cool fact
@rustic crown hi gonna bother u more 
Like how nuts is it that not only are we only ever playing around with a countable subfield of the reals in any particular example, but also that without invoking some kind of universality (like saying ok we're talking about ALL reals now) or just specifically setting something as uncomputable by hypothesis, you can't even reach uncomputable reals. Not even algebraically via any computable reals, even theoretically
Wait so I knew about this uncomputable stuff for a few months already and thought it was cool and made this connection with transcendental extensions but after some more googling I just learned about un-definable reals...
my soul is crushed
and not only do definables strictly contain the computables, they're countable and also a subfield, so are undefinables transcendental over the definables?
I am not familiar so I can't put 2 and 2 together in terms of whether being a root of a definable polynomial would mean you can define a dedekind cut in logic or not
Oh god and you can keep getting stricter and stricter field extensions via using different models for definability, still all with countable base fields and probably transcendental 
I'd be interesting in playing with this later but I have to learn the definition of a computable number, and I'm about to go to sleep lol
me too 😭 gn fam
i wanna rewrite this kinda proof but instead using the Z\0 statement but im having some trouble translating it
notice that elements of Q \ {0} are precisely quotients of Z\{0}
A contains Z \ {0}, so if a, b in Z\{0} are arbitrary, by the closure properties, we know A must contain 1/b and consequently a/b.
This shows that Q \ {0} is contained in A
oh wait can i just say "since the desired set A is closed, and must have multiplicative inverses for all elements, and contain Z\ {0}, the set must contain all rationals"
i was typing as u sent
so i just finished typinng lol
but same idea i think?
yep
for the other direction use that Q \ {0} is a subalgebra of (R, *) satisfying the required properties. (as A is smallest, it must be contained in Q \ {0})
🙈
actually i thin i can...?
oh word
thank you det <3
im convinced the eevee-motes exist solely for det to communicate


MOLDI AWAKENS
The current time for nitezba is 01:37 AM (EST) on Thu, 03/02/2022.
god i LOVE being a dual degree, EVERYONE should do a dual degree
Back in my day, dual wasn't invented yet
moldy moldi
didn't we have a dual for math and cs? 
yes
stats 
i'll see yall on the other side 
Chmonkey
catfan1337
Interesting
In what context can subalgebras of R not have 0?
And need you to additionally specify that they are multiplicatively closed?
Algebraic structure 
in Z_n, is every maximal ideal generated by prime element p such that p divide n?
Yes, by the correspondence theorem
yeah, similar for prime ideal right
Yes
Could y'all give me some advice on how to show a polynomial is in a specific ideal (just a moment while I type it out)
I wish to show $p = f(x^2 - 4) + g(y^2 - 1)$ is in the ideal
$(2x^2 - 3y^2 - 11, x^2 - y^2 - 3)$
Phil With Flex Tape
do you mean for the f and g to be there
yes I do
are f and g also polynomials?
or is it a product
Oh so all you mean is to show x^2-4 and y^2 - 1 are in the ideal then
Equivalently
Fair
consider g = -1 and f =1
and f = 2, g = -3
something funny might occur
The goal is showing 2 ideals are equal, and idk if using specific polynomials would help me
p being in the ideal $(x^2 - 4,y^2 - 1)$
Phil With Flex Tape
what I'm saying is that if you use those specific polynomials you'll get the two generating polynomials of the other ideal
also what polynomial ring is this in?
Q[x,y]
Q
nice, so all these are also units
yeah you're way above my head with that one
And the problem I'm having is idk how precisely to show p can be written in terms of those generating polynomials
Wew Lads Tbh
I've gtg now but hopefully this helps
prove that the set of algebraic numbers is countable
i'm not looking for a full solution, but a hint perhaps
try to write them as the union of countable sets
hmm
oh bruh
is this like: group polynomials by sum |a_i| if a_i are the coefficients
for each possible sum of absolute values, you have a finite number of polynomials
and you will hit each polynomial at some point
all polynomials x^n have the sum 1
you can add the degree to your sum i think
oh yes that does it
gg
wait what am i saying
yeah ok that works bc if we want sum |a_i| + degree = n then degree ≤ n and thus there are finitely many a_i too
gonna have to add this disclaimer to literally everything i ask in here aren't i
Just use good notation bro
forwarding this message to my prof, surely he'll respond to His Eminence, Moldilocks
tell them that everyone on the math server agrees
surely he'll cower in fear of His Excellency, Lochverstärker
Are outer automorphisms over G just representatives of the equivalence classes Aut(G)/Inn(G)? If so does that make every inner automorphism an outer automorphism since they represent one of those classes?
Outer automorphisms are automorphisms that are not the inner automorphisms
Or so I have always assumed 
Yeah according to wikipedia the outer automorphism group refers to that
So am I right?
In mathematics, the outer automorphism group of a group, G, is the quotient, Aut(G) / Inn(G), where Aut(G) is the automorphism group of G and Inn(G) is the subgroup consisting of inner automorphisms.
An automorphism of a group which is not inner is called an outer automorphism.
On the wikipedia page for outer aut group
So the outer automorphism group doesn't consist of outer automorphisms, it consists of sets of outer automorphisms.
But the inner automorphism group consists of inner automorphisms?

Yes
Hey folks, how do I prove this simple result? Let G and H be finite groups. If G x H is cyclic then every subgroup of G x H is of the form A x B for some subgroups A and B of G and H, respectively.
Of course, G and H would both be cyclic in this case.
Should I proceed by counting the number of subgroups of the form A x B and show that it is equal to the number of divisors of |G|•|H|?
Oh, I got it. Let d(n) be the number of divisors for n. Then the number of subgroups of the form A x B is d(|G|)•d(|H) = d(|G|•|H|), since |G| and |H| are relatively prime. Since G x H is cyclic, it has d(|G|•|H|) subgroups.
Any other way to go about this?
Any constructive way in particular. Given a subgroup of G x H, how do we find such an A and B?
What does subring of (R, +, •) generated by some number, for example √2, look like ?
I supppse powers of sqrt2 and sums of those powers
thanks
I'm confused about Sylow subgroups
suppose |G| = 60
actually uh lemme pick a better number
ok
suppose |G| = 180
180 = 2^2 * 45 and 2 does not divide 45
180 = 3^2 * 20 and 3 does not divide 20
does this mean there's a Sylow subgroup of order 4 and a Sylow subgroup of order 9?
Yes
ok cool
but clearly Syl_2(G) != Syl_2(G)
got it
so we don't really care about the set of all sylow subgroups
just the set of all sylow subgroups for some specific prime
Yeah thats what Syl_p(G) is. Set of sylow subgroups of order p^am
Hi, I'm a bit stuck on this question: it says Let O(3,1) Be the Lorentz group. Show that O(3) is a subgroup of O(3,1).
Do I have to just take a matrix in O(3) and show that it preserves the minkowski inner product?
i.e. $\Lambda^{T} \eta \Lambda^{T}=\eta$
Elena002001
where \lambda is some O(3) matrix
<@&286206848099549185>
We have an embedding of O(3) in O(3,1) and we know it'll be closed under multiplication / have inverses etc so that ought to be sufficient
fortunately this should be quick from the definition
yeah i thought this would be the general idea to answering this question - just apply subgroup properties to it
but it turns out that its not the answer
Same as that of the reals
Dimensions multiply when you tensor
Product of any 2 infinite cardinals is their max
the following diagram is the answer to a homework problem, which was to `show $\bZ^n$ is not a quotient of $\bZ[x]$ for $n > 2$'. my tutor went through the answer today, but I don't follow it fully. the argument is by contradiction: suppose there is a surjective ring homomorphism $\varphi\colon \bZ[x] \twoheadrightarrow \bZ^n$. then the following diagram (below) can be made to commute. the image of the horizontal arrows is $\bZ_2^n$, but $\bZ_2 [x] / \langle x^2-x \rangle}$ has 4 elements, so the other route has image of cardinality at most 4. this is a contradiction if $n>2$.
∧res
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
diagram:
I guess my question is really: why must the diagram be able to commute? (a priori, before we know this setup isn't possible)
Let me begin by saying
That is a very weird way of solving this when you can just say that Z^n has idempotent elements while the other ring doesn't
But the diagram commutes by repeated application of this
Or I guess you could view it as a single application
The claim is that the kernel of the composite at the top contains the ideal (2, x^2 - x)
And this follows from the structure of Z_2^n
Everything is idempotent and 2 is 0
doesn't rly answer the question but e.g. my solution was just you can explicitly see what the image of the composition of the surjective ring homomorphisms would be
as in, $\sum a_i X^i \mapsto \sum_i \phi_i(a_i) \phi(x)^i = a_0 + \phi(x) \sum_i \phi_i(a_i)$ and there are only 4 options after reducing mod 2
well that also just shows that the kernel is as moldi says
Wasn't the question about why the diagram commutes 
potato
Oh you are saying that your response doesn't answer it? 







