#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 660 of 407
If $a^3$ is algebraic over $\mathbb{Q}$ then $a$ is algebraic over $\mathbb{Q}$? Where $a \in \mathbb{R}$
BLツ
You can construct a polynomial that it satisfies
Its true false question that’s why
If one can satisfy but if there is one a for that it is not true then it will be false so how to proceed
Okay😅
Is there any element from reals which is not algebraic over any subfield of Real number
any element alpha is algebraic over Q(alpha) 
yea, Q(pi) is a transcendental extension (of Q), but still is a subfield of R
Ok or is there any element which is not algebraic over $\mathbb{Q}[i]$?
BLツ
yee, pi
Haha
Okay thank you
$a \in \mathbb{R}$ could be algebraic over $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{2}] but may not be algebraic over \mathbb{Q}, how to find such element?
Lol
det
Yep
that's one of the simplest tool for understanding extensions
so if F/k is an extension, then alpha in F is algebraic over k if and only if [k(alpha):k] is finite
Its gone from my head
and this also behaves nicely with a tower of extensions
if k --> F --> E is a tower then [E:k] = [E:F][F:k]
if alpha was algebraic over Q(sqrt(2)) then [Q(sqrt(2), alpha):Q(sqrt(2))] is finite
since [Q(sqrt(2)):Q] is finite
[Q(alpha):Q] should also be!
Cool
BLツ
For some n
if a^3 satisfies a polynomial f(x), then we get that f(a^3) = 0, this means that a satisfies g(x) = f(x^3)
well, a^3 algebraic over Q, doesn't mean it actually lies in Q. that polynomial may not even have coefficients in Q because of that
Got it
Could you describe little more
f( a^3) =0 this is clear then?
um so let's take an example
a^3 algebraic over Q means it satisfies some polynomial f(x)
say it was x^5 + x + 1
so we must have that (a^3)^5 + (a^3) + 1 = 0
which is a^15 + a^3 + 1 = 0
so a satisfies the polynomial x^15 + x^3 + 1
Now we get polynomial in a^3 got it
“The first problem sheet is just an easy refresher on group theory”
The problem sheet:
I am so fucked 
by second you mean (c)? 
It's a standard theorem about universal properties
it's a good thing to try and prove
The most important and often forgotten part of universal properties 😌
it took an hour of intensive thought to understand a single diagram 
Is it because the homomorphism defined by the universal property is unique? So if we have two quotients that result in the same group H they must be isomorphic?
That makes two of us 
Assume you have a group N and 2 universal pairs (Q,q) and (Q',q')
And you have to show an isomorphism between these
Don't use any elements
Only the universal property
Yeah I gathered that doing it element wise is a fools errand
Well I mean you have to do some set theory, but don't do any beyond what is required in the universal property itself
But this should be a good hint about how to start
I’m guessing it’s some combination of functions in both their diagrams that result in an isomorphism between the two
You have to apply to universal property to something, and there are 2 universal properties here (one for each pair) and very few things that you can apply this universal property to
Ye just draw both pairs in the same diagram
Instead of 2 separate diagrams
Then it should be clearer where you can start 
See that’s what I was thinking but there’s no arrows going out of H and none going into G so I don’t see how that helps me too much
H is any group 
Don't draw H in your diagrams
The universal property works for any H

Wait shit the unique homomorphism doesn’t have to be injective my idea doesn’t work 
Do not think of isomorphisms as bijective homomorphisms
Isomorphisms are homomorphisms with inverses
Yeah I can see how $\overline{\phi}_q$ could be an inverse to $\overline{\phi}_r$ if they’re themselves bijective but I don’t see how it holds if they’re not
Wew Lads Tbh
I wish I could latex the diagrams I have 
Use the universal property to prove that their compositions are identity 
Alright I’ll go and think about it for a bit
Can’t believe I just used the words “trivial endomorphism” unironically... what have I become? 
I’m pretty sure I’ve done it though
Ty for your help moldi I wouldn’t have even gotten started without you pointing out that H is an arbitrary group rather than
idk whatever I thought it was 
I guess I thought it was kind of like a for all statement? Like Q is a quotient if it holds for all subgroups? So I couldn’t pick an arbitrary one? I see that’s wrong now though
I have said "trivially this is the trivial group" multiple times in some of my homeworks
Which just sounds so fucking dumb lol
“Obviously this is the trivial group, you fool, you moron” is a good replacement imo
i think i've once read something along the lines of "even the most inexperienced reader can see that ..."
given two proper subgroups G and H of a larger group, is there a term for their combination, i.e. the group composed of gh and hg for all g in G and h in H?
in general GH = {gh | g\in G and h\in H} may not be a subgroup, but if GH=HG then it's a subgroup
I did that and got points taken off
My prof said: "don't use "obviously" or "trivially" when you don't even know what you're talking about"
if one of them is a normal subgroup then GH=HG= G V H where last one denotes the join of G and H which is a group generated by the set G U H
G ∨ H being the general name 😌
Can I ask something ?
Let's say you have a polynomial f.
What would be the properties of the polynomial so that f(2) = f(0) ?
x-2 divides f(x) - f(0) 
tfw sniped
Thanks

what is this product called?
Join
not really a product
In a poset, a join of a set of elements is their sup and and the meet is their inf
Smallest subgroup containing both, that's what sup would mean
so subgroups are poset under inclusion
Yes

when i say "this is an algebra" what do u guys interpret algebra to mean
moldi you already know this problem lol

or maybe not
my prof defines an algebra as any set S closed under at least one k-ary operation
of course i think it means an object in the eilenberg moore category of some given monad 
certain people have led me to believe this is missing something or just straight up no what is usually meant
There are many different kinds of algebras in math 
sometimes they Lie to you
What you know is an algebraic structure. Then there are algebras over rings/fields. What Phil said is an algebra over a monad, and what the sticker talks about is the closely related algebra over an endofunctor
There’s also the notion of "an algebra" or "an algebraic structure" in universal algebra
Which just is a structure over a language without relation symbols
when you say "over" something you mean like an added structure on something like Z\Z2
That's the thing nitezba knows 
Is Z\Z2 a fancy way of saying 2Z+1?
Usually it's like the thing that it's over provides some way of acting on the algebra in some way
It's not a formal thing as far as I know
Like vector space over ℝ or over ℂ
Means that you are allowing scalar multiplication by ℝ or ℂ
But ℝ or ℂ need not sit inside the vector space for this to happen
There‘s also an algebra of sets from measure theory

I think you can treat that as a special case of an algebra over ℤ/2ℤ or something like that 
i think imma just roll with it for now
we spent the entire lecture today just playing with "aLgEbRaiC StRucTuReS"
Usually people don’t just say "Let X be an algebra" without any context, so I wouldn’t worry about it
dude made us cut up a square and spin it 👶
wait im like so confused. so there is a unique ring homomorphism from Z to any ring, but arent here multiple ring homomorphisms from Z to Z^2 given by projection?
Did you really throwaway 196882 accounts 
yes.... one for each question i get wrong 😦
one for each of the hoes 💯
The projections are from Z^2 to Z
Well time for another one 
hello r/numberphile I have more diagram questions 
moldi you scoundrel is this a valid thing to do
can I just smash diagrams together like this
who says you cant 
it really is time for another account
moldi is about to 
I can feel it in my bones 

Wtf is this

What is H lol
What is phi
any group you so please
deez nuts?
and it's just another universal property meme so phi is the product of the projection homomorph with the memer
Oh so you are saying that pi_1 is the quotient by G_2 map
You don't get phi from phi_1 and phi_2 like that
yeah I thought that might cause a problem
oh well, I feel like I'm on the right track kinda anyway
Combining 2 maps out of a product group
this whole universal product memery is so hard to use
actually no it's easy to use it's hard to prove that something satisfies it
Once you get used to it you will never look back 😌
Yeah proving that something satisfies a universal property can be annoying
That's how you realise that set theory is annoying
Lmao
oh for gods sake I had the dashed arrow the wrong way around 
it's fucking trivial with the arrow the other way around, since G1xG2 is homomorphic to a subgroup of H you can just map G1 (or G2) into whatever that homomorphic preimage is like you would if you were mapping it back into G1xG2
Yes 😌
😌
devastating kek
I should go back and revise my answer to the first iso one because it is currently a complete mess
votes
The council will decide your emotions
abelian diagrams
ENOUGH with the abelian stuffs
no one asks about non abelian diagrams 
not paying attention is the norm for me

yeah please moldi, ping everyone
do it

#abstract-chill

We don't have the permission lol 
uh oh what did you just do
did you know I actually have admin perms
🙈
yes i did know it
give
never
I have Chmonkey perms
if i prove that the set of all positive integers P is the smallest subalgebraic structure of (R, +) that contains 1 and is closed under addition, can i say that the naturals (P u 0) must inherently have those properties as well
ik it's somewhat obvious i just dont wanna have to rewrite my justification so much
you just need to check closure of P u {0} right?
that can be done by taking a few cases
i hope that makes sense actually
0 + 0 is there
0 + a = a is there for any a in P
a + b in P for a, b, in P by closure of P
yeah you need to make sure the sets still closed, cause introducing some element could introduce some wackyness
ok lemme type something unnecessarily verbose up rq
closure of P under addition is done before
idk if subseteq is the right symbol there or if i should just use epsilon for \in
this prof is dummy picky about proofs
"this also suffices to show that 0 is an identity element of the set" 
looks good, but you didnt show that N is the smallest such set yet
this is a very unconventional definition of algebra
probably pf by contradiction for this ig
is this actually valid 
I suggested that we should have more math stickers
nice
It was very quickly rejected
oof
why
Shitty mods ngl 
mfw most mods arent honorable apparently

how many years do you need to spend here to obtain that title anyway
You don't need years you just need to get noticed apparently
just be loud enough ,it is what I did I suppose
Like we nominate someone and no one knows them because they hang out in just 1 channel and then they don't get in
Guess who I'm talking about 
im never gonna get it when i spend most of my time here shitposting in chill or asking dumb shit in advanced

currently i'm hanging out in #groups-rings-fields#cats and #latex-help 
i dont visit discussion and chill enough to have an accurate guess
i feel like most of the meta talk around the server happens there
like saketh 
its a figure on the cover of the best analysis book
I don't either
Nominations are mostly out of advanced
(what's the book?)
amann & escher
I'll give you a hint, 4 letters, space, 1 letter 
for undergrad analysis I really like the one I use which has a name that I will remember if I think about it hard enough
Abbott there we go
beans
but I think the problem almost all real analysis courses/texts I've learned from have is the Hartshorne problem. They in no way prepared me for any of the times/ways I would actually use analysis in my life.
thats the neat part
you just dont do any analysis later on
no but srs amann & escher is p good
I will give it a go next time I teach the course. But I think I'm teaching complex before I teach real again.
been a while since i used them though, since these days im doing nothing but category and topology and a bit of model theory
Homielogical algebruh when 
no homo
Slow lol it's kinda boring but we also learning
Today I studied homie alg with saketh and clerk
On call
It was very nice 😌
i was trying yesterday but at some point noticed i dont really know what to do with this stuff
We were just gonna read the proof of the monadicity theorem
and then i just looked at the examples
Clerk stopped us
Made us figure it out
While giving us some hints when we were being slow
Took 2 hours but I now understand this theorem really well 
i saw the proof of monadicity already in riehl, but it was a different version than what was presented in the thesis
Yeah that's a more refined version
i skipped it in the thesis anyway 
but no joke i was actually having trouble even reading the things
Oh yeah clerk doesn't use string diagrams for 2 categories 
im a bit more comfortable now with string diagrams for monads at least, but still very shaky in basically everything else involving these
We were using it and he wasn't familiar with them, he's used them for monoidal categories only or something
Saketh and I cannot do cat theory without string diagrams 
Clerk would say that the counit of the adjunction is UF → 1 and we'd have to draw a string diagram to make sure that's right 
i feel like it would be pretty nice if you could write and read them fluently
I have become fluent
bruh
at what cost tho
I can draw them instantly pretty much
Lmao
I think it's a fair cost
They contain all the information of commutative diagrams and algebraic expressions anyway
that reminds me today i wanted to start the chapter in riehl on kan extensions after i finished the monads stuff 2 days ago
havent even started yet 
Hell I proved a that a collection of maps is a chain homotopy using string diagrams a few days ago
how does that work
That involves adding maps
We just added 2 string diagrams lmao
And abused distributivity
Like take 2 string diagrams and just put a + in between
And now you can put this inside a larger string diagram
And distributivity memes
It works out 
Somehow tho clerk could solve problems faster with commutative diagrams than we could with strings 
ha
so maybe its not worth it after all
Lol it wasn't because of the notation
although i recall even clerk saying a while ago that string diagrams are useful
He was able to do cat theory faster
yeah ok, i guess he has a lot more experience
But he'd say an equation and we could instantly tell whether it was true or false 😌
Found a mistake in his equations because the string diagram broke 😌
And also was able to see what fixes the equation 😌
so did you just read marsdens note on string diagrams and then just tried using them until it clicks or how did you go about getting proficient
Is Marsden the arxiv paper
I read that, struggled a lot, figured out my own formal system 😌
Which I have also explained to det and saketh
.
Det is not fluent though he hasn't used them much
i wish to learn the secret moldi techniques
Take the logic approach
Define an atomic string diagram
Define rules to put them together
but arent they domain specific?
Then prove theorems on manipulation from a couple basic manipulation rules
like the ones for monads work differently than the ones for adjunctions
at least it feels like it
i see
There are some manipulation rules which work regardless
but dont i need to know what objects im working with
Natural transformations 
Yes

Let me know if you want me to write something up 
well its not like i'd refuse that
Lol based
even if i figure out my own system
Let me try to do it this week 
nice
Maybe someone should give a talk on string diagrams 
Lux 
He's the one who told me about them
Also Nobody, probably
And mniip knows about them too
Because he's asked before if there's a version for additive cats
ok I think I'm right but I just want to check, this is just "A group homomorphism is uniquely determined by the image of the generators" right?
Yes
no flippin way...
moldi i also need sanity check 
Say we have finitely generated $k$-algebras $R_1 \subset R_1'$ and $R_2 \subset R_2'$ with $R_1[a_1, \dots, a_n] = R_1'$ and $R_2[b_1, \dots, b_m] = R_2'$.
Then $$R_1'\otimes_k R_2' \cong (R_1\otimes_k R_2)[a_1\otimes 1, \dots, a_n \otimes 1, 1 \otimes b_1, \dots, 1 \otimes b_m] \text{.}$$
Lochverstärker
Don't you need some sort of flatness for this
Otherwise R_1 ⊗ R_2 might not inject into the larger tensor?
on Wiki it is being stated that since the Lorentz group is semisimple,all its representations are completely reducible. can someone elaborate on this please? I thought only unitary reps are reducible
(sorry for interrupting)
this is sad
That's the definition of semisimple 
but also probably correct
Completely reducible = direct sum of irreps
and semi simple = all reps are completely reducible
but why?
how to prove Lorentz is semi simple then?
I know on Lie algebra level
why is it true on Lie group level?
I don't even know what the Lorentz group is 
idk how this can be true
finite dim reps are not unitary
so how can they be completely reducible?
Might be by maschke's theorem if it's a finite group and you're looking at reps over ℂ or something similar
yes but it's a lie group,so not finite
oh right F
Doesn't maschke have a converse that says that semisimple implies that the group is finite along other things 
Ye
I only know its algebra is semisimple and reps completely reducible
how to conclude group reps rae reducible?
Maybe it's 0 dimensional 
Rip, I am out of ideas
damn now i know you're a hardcore (pure) mathematician 
You wrote \otimes_k, in which case everything is flat
as long as k was a field here
so in this case it works?
Probably?
I'm not too sure, but tensor products over fields tend to work intuitively
especially if you embed things into big old overfield stuff
you can like do it all internally
well ok thanks
i will think about it again tmrw or something or just trust it works 
heya! I'm trying to prove/disprove that if $T$ is a semisimple operator on $V$, then so is $f(T)$ for any polynomial $f\in F[x]$, but I had no luck. Any ideas?
iruneachteam
please request a new nickname
What is x?
My book uses this notation that I've never seen before:
$\mathbb{F}_2[x]/I$
please request a new nickname
What does the $\mathbb{F}_2$ mean here?
yeah ok that one I recognise
that's the finite field with 2 elements
it's isomorphic to Z/2Z if you know what that is
$F_2$ or $F_2/I$?
just F2
ok
$\mathbb{F}_2[x]$ is then the polynomial ring with coefficients in F_2 as you'd expect
Wew Lads Tbh
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
can someone explain the purple part
why isn't that just an equality
i thought that was the definition of the product of two rings
you define $AB = \sum_{\text{finite}} a_ib_i$ here since $x_i+J \in I_1/J$ and $y_i+J\in I_2/J$ so it reduces to $(I_1/J)(I_2/J)$
wait so i am right in that it should be equality instead of a contains?
wait why
because that's an element not an set of elements of that form
oh shoot you're write
right
but if u take all such elements in that form and make a set it should be equality right
🙈
yes
10ⁿ ≡ 0 (mod 10) 
10-adics 
Let a,b be algebraic in a field extension F/k . I'm trying to show that [k(a,b),k]=mn where m=[k(a),k] and n=[k(b),k] with m and n relatively prime.
By considering the tower of extensions k in k(a) in k(a,b) and k in k(b) in k(a,b) and as a,b are algebraic so their degrees are finite we know the degrees are multiplicative so
[K(a,b):k]=[k(a,b),k(a)][k(a),k]
And
[K(a,b):k]=[k(a,b),k(b)][k(b),k]
I feel like I basically need to conclude that [k(a,b),k(a)]=[k(b),k] and I think it comes from [k(b),k] and [k(a),k] being relatively prime
Because you can decompose [k(a,b),k] in the two ways you showed, it is a multiple of m and n, so it would be at the least their lcm, which as you noted, by being relatively prime is mn
So you just need to bound it by mn now
But you can do that by looking at it as [k(a,b):k(a)][k(a):k]
Or swap k(a) with k(b), doesn’t matter
Thank you
Whoops, I misspoke on the original one a bit, but I think you got the idea lol
I edited it so it’s right
You’d have too many roots to that
Look at what happens if you did
(a,1)^p
And (1,a)^p
Those will end up being the identity
Giving you > p solutions to that equation
Oh ok 👍 ty
Where is this from
idk probably CGL
i really like the options 0 and 1 
why tho
it's meth not math
🙈
👻
Automorphism between vector spaces --- both vector spaces have to have the same set V and same field F, right? (Not just V)
a vector space is comprised of the set, field and two operations
so yea all of them are the same for autos
Ah, we need the operations to be preserved as well
in general existence of an arbitrarily large thing doesnt imply existence of an infinite thing
afaik finite groups have finite irreducible representations
not irreducible ones
let $\rho(g,g')=\rho_{c}(g) \rho_0(g')$. Assume $\rho_c,\rho_0$ are completely reducible. How can we conclude that $\rho$ is completely reducible?
ProphetX
for context:
can someone help me with this problem
for the nonmaximal ideal part
idk i considered adding something like (1, 0, 1, 0, \cdots) into the set (because it has a non-finite number 1s) but idt it forms an ideal anymore
D just means all the a_i are in Z/2z
M_n is the subset of D for which one of the a_i is equal to 0
how about you just post the full exercise
well if you add that sequence you would naturally consider the ideal generated by the previous ideal and the new sequence
then you definitely get an ideal
i said i am taking the ideal generated by this
so obviously its an ideal
wdym
its the smallest ideal that contains I and the element (1,0,1,0,...)
the question is then whether thats still a proper ideal
and im guessing it is because we do everything pointwise
it is becuase (0, 1, 0, 1,\cdots) is not in it
i dont think you can get (1,1,1,1,...) in it
or this yes
How can I show that the polynomial x^3+x^2+-2x+1 in Q[x] is irreducible?
Perhaps the rational root theorem?
note that this polynomial is primitive, and then use gauss's lemma
that's how I'd do it
and then you can use the fact that the leading coefficient isn't 0 for any finite field Z/nZ and you can reduce it even further by looking it in Z/2Z[X] - I think
and then just check that the cases x = 0 and x = 1 aren't roots
Thank you guys
they're listing every cyclic group generated by every element <n>
they don't have to list <-n> because it generates the same cylcic group as <n>
I sort of phrased that funny I am referring to n and -n as the generators of the group and <n> and <-n> as the groups generated by those elements, in case it wasn't clear
wait they way u said, it doesnt even require the theorem to show Z's only subgroups are nZ
well we know these are subgroups but hypothetically we could imagine there might be more complicated ones somehow
the theorem assures us this is not possible, this is it
ooo ok ok makes sense
cool
thamks 
you're welcome 😎
is it inaccurate to say that every automorphism is an inner automorphism iff the center of the group G is trivial?
Yes this is inaccurate. Example: S6 has trivial centre but nontrivial outer automorphisms
ah
this just says that /mu(G) is the smallest sum of trivial intersections of cores for the subgroups of a group right?
Supposed F/K is a finite field extension of characteristic p>0 such that a^p in K for all a in F. I want to show that there is a set of elements {a_i} of F such that {(a_{i}^{j_i}: 0\leq j_i \leq p-1} is a k-basis for F
I was given the hint to consider F=k(a) for a not in k. I know that a is a root of x^p- a^p and since F is characteristic p by the binomial formula x^p-a^p=(x-a)^p. Then it follows this is the minimal polynomial of a. ( The details of this are fuzzy but I believe it).
But idk how this leads into me getting a k-basis
The point is that if the powers 1, a, a^2,…,a^p-1 were linearly dependent over K then a satisfies a polynomial of degree <=p-1 which is impossible. To extend this to a basis just do the same trick but for F/K(a) to get {1,…b^p-1} that are linearly independent over K(a) using this you can show that the powers of a and b are linearly independent over K. Just keep repeating this until you get a basis
i'm working through this problem about reflections in R^n, and i worked through part of the solution with a friend, but i don't know where to go from here. i'm just lost idk here's the problem:
Snodlop
here's my solution thus far:
Snodlop
there's slightly more dithering after this point, but nothing concrete or conclusive
first homework, kinda stuck on where to go:
went to office hours, my professor said something about how a, a^2, a^3, and a^4 work, and how you have to show that for any b, {a, a^2, a^3, a^4} and {b, b^2, b^3, b^4} are disjoint, but i honestly have no idea where he got those from, so any help would be appreciated
if a^5=e, then (a^2)^5=(a^5)^2=e^2=e
similarly for the other powers of a
how do we know that a^2 is a nonidentity element?
2 and 5 are coprime
if a^2=e, then a^4=e^2=e, so a^5=a^4a=a
ty!
i'd like to drop my ping on this one, i'm still quite lost <@&286206848099549185>
you may solve this problem entirely without invoking the identity of the inner product involving cosine. in fact i would recommend you not choose a basis at all.
to get started, you may notice that inner product of x and v-hat can be distributed through the definition of v-hat to obtain a familiar formula (should you have seen the corresponding definition of a reflection). you may then easily verify that this definition of t(x) is indeed an orthogonal transformation (it is clearly linear) and then recall that a reflection is an orthogonal transformation which fixes some (non-trivial) subspace, and in fact is uniquely determined by this subspace.
much of this depends precisely on your definition of reflection/rotation, however that should be a nice start.
I'd suggest instead of choosing v itself as a basis vector, choose the normalizeation of v as the first basis vector, and extend it to an orthonormal basis. Since the basis is orthonormal, the inner product is the ordinary dot product on components, so you can write v=(a,0,...,0) for some a and start computing explicitly. For example, you get vhat=(2/a,0,...,0).
As Shortcut says, you definitely don't want to bring the cosine formulation into it, but simply choosing a good basis sounds like the right thing to do.
I am confused about a step in the proof here : https://i.uguu.se/wbhuerPc.png . This is a preliminary lemma for proving Zorn's Lemma. I am confused about the second to last line: "or alpha <= beta for some beta in B, in which case c <= a." I have no idea how they got this.
you've swapped it: their conclusion is if there is beta >= alpha, then alpha<=c
Oh, I made a typo, sorry. I still don't see why it's true though.
Here is what I think is a counterexample: take B to be an interval of the real numbers. Take C to be an open interval of the real numbers contained in B. Take c = sup C. Take a to be in B, with c < a < beta. So a <= c is not true in this case.
this follows immediately from transitivity of the ordering, no?
since c is defined to be the sup of B, and there is beta >=alpha, then beta<=c by definition, and your result follows.
No, c is the sup of C, not B.
And C is just some subset of B.
So my understanding is that there can be beta's that are not in C. My counterexample used such a beta.
i see
Do you think this is a mistake? I found a semi-mistake a few pages earlier
i am cautious. one moment
i suspect formulating a counterexample with this many hypotheses is a waste of time, however.
Hmm you are probably right.
well i am not quite sure about the logic presented, but noting that $C\subset B$, each $c'\in C$ is comparable to each $a\in A$. so if some $a$ were not an upper bound of $C$ (failing by $c'$), then we must have $a\leq c'\leq c$. and if it were, clearly $c\leq a$.
shortcut
does this seem plausible?
in short, c is comparable to any upper bound by definition, and comparable to any extant case by transitivity.
Thinking 🙂 One moment
Right, c is comparable to any upper bound by the definition of least upper bound. For any a that isn't an upper bound of C, we have a <= c.
And if we have an a that is an upper bound of c, we have c <= a.
So indeed by your reasoning, c is in B.
So basically, this author is proving the right thing, but his argument in the book doesn't make sense to us, is that right?
Something similar happened a few pages ago, he had a nice diagram that showed something, but he left out a crucial fact that was necessary to make his argument work.
yes i would think the author mangled things a little. in many cases like these, however, it is quite easy to get lost in the specifics while on the right path.
I see. So I think moving forward in this book I should be prepared to create arguments to replace his, is that a good strategy?
especially with such a widely used result like Zorn's lemma, it is most often more productive to spend time trying to prove the result the author intends, rather than debunking the argument given.
depending on your stomach and the text, it is frequently worth it to try to prove things yourself regardless.
ofc!
https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/691989/non-unitary-finite-dimensional-representations-of-the-lorentz-group in case you're interested there is a mathematically precise answer 
why can't x+x=0 in a field with three elements F={0, 1, x}? i've forgotten
I think it has to do with the fact that 1+1=x
so (1+1)+x = 1+(1+x)=0
but 1+x=0 so that would mean 1=0?
addition forms a group, try to write out the addition table
x+x=0 we can factor out x*(1+1)=0 and since x !=0 we can divide it out to get 1+1=0
that gives us problems trying to fill in x+1 since 0,1,x have already been used in the same row/column and that breaks our group
yeah, that works
alternatively, every field F where 1+1=0 has the subfield {0,1}, which means 2 divides |F|
I want to show X^3 - X - t is irreducible over C(t). any suggestion? 
suppose it is reducible, then it has a linear factor, so it has a root r. Then r^3 = r+t. maybe we can do something with a third root of unity w^3 = 1 idk
thinking basically we can make the other 2 roots from one root or something like that, I feel like I've seen something similar before but for finite fields but they were like X^p-X-a over F_p but things cancelled a little nicer cause it's characteristic p
any root r of X^p-X-a will then make r+n for n in F_p also a root, feels closely related, maybe we can get the same thing to work in your case by taking r+w
We should just pin an answer on how to show a cubic is irreducible
I think it’s been asked 3 times in 2 days haha
I guess this one is kinda especially weird since it involves C(t)
I think you can use Gauss’s lemma and then rational root still?
I have defined a map f from Z/n X Z/m to Z/gcd(m,n) in the natural way such that f(x,y)=xy in Z/gcd(m,n). How do i show this map is well-defined?
Write out what it means for (x,y) = (x’,y’)
Then show that this means they map to the same thing
No worries
Thank you!
How to check normal subgroup for class equations?
Suppose we have class equation 1+3+4+4 then how we check that which subgroup is normal of some order?
use that normal subgroups are made up of conjugacy classes
I don't think you can use class equation stuff to really even prove that a subgroup is normal
just that it isn't because it couldn't be a union of conjugacy classes
So is there any way to check which order subgroup is normal by class equation?
I didn’t get
so if an element x is in N, then gxg' will all be in N, so it definitely reduces the number of options for the cardinality ofN
it has to divide |G| and also must be sums of these class equation things.
so like in your example the group has order 12
subgroups definitely contains the identity.
it's not hard to see that only possible non-trivial normal subgroup
could be because of 1 + 3
Okay
you can use this way to give a not very long brute force proof of A5 and A6 are simple
1+12+12+15+20 so there is no possibility for normal?
We need to add identity in conjugate class and then we need to check that number divided order of group or not?
yea something like that
you can also use stuff about A5
like non-trivial normal subgroups can't contain a 3 cycle
Yes got it

One more question, is there no other possibility number of element in order conjugate class?
Here 13, 16, 21 does not divide 60 so there is no chance of normal
Like all possible pair with 1
Not just pairs
Yeah got it
Yep


So this is the question I'm working on and this is the part from the previous problem set that gives me a hint
So this in theory would give me that the action is well defined
IF
the order of GL(2, 3) was 24
since 24 = 2^3 * 3
and I could use Sylow's theorem
however couple issues
the order of GL(2, 3) is 48
and X doesn't have +- the identity (but I think I can get around that since for an action of G acting on X, X doesn't have to be a group so I don't need the identity)
however 48 = 2^3 * 6 and 2 | 6 so I can't use Sylow right?
so then I am stuck
but I feel this may be the right track
so how do I fix that idea?
because Q = {+-I, +-A, +-B, +-C} is the only group of order 8 in SL(2, 3)
and so it's normal by Sylow's Theorem
which gives me closure under conjugation if G' = SL(2, 3)
but G' = GL(2, 3) so this doesn't work
quick question
if a^n = e, does that always mean a^n = a^0?
like the order of a is n
oh wait let me comprehend that
yeah I'm still kinda clueless 😂
can you elaborate?
example. In Z_8 we have 2^6 = 0
mhm
I haven't really covered rings that much, but is it a ring?
Isn't it just the group of integers mod 8?
closed under addition
idk
ok sure same point
then I'll write it additively
2*8 = 0 mod 8
but 8 is not the order of 2
4 is
I see
We don’t have an “order” for rings
Because multiplication isn’t a group
What’s theorem 4.1
oh yea 💀
Like idk what part you’re confused about, you started from a^k = e
And you also know e = a^0
so is e always a^0?
It’s a•a^-1
I got it 😄
It’s the same reason x^0 = 1 in R
that's all I was confused about 😂
For any x
tysm
Swag
ok wait can I get clarification about Sylow's theorem?
so say |G| = p^k * m
where p does not divide m
Ok
There isn’t “only”
ok
there can be multiple
it really sounded like my prof was talking about it like that
But the p-sylow is of order p^k
oh
Wel they’re all isomorphic
ok
Because they’re all conjugate
oh
ok so I can't use Sylow
but
the quaterion group is Q = {+-I, +-A, +-B, +-C}
and this is normal in GL(2, 3)
which is almost good enough
for showing this action by conjugation is well defined
but not quite since X =/= Q
ok I'm back
so I'm trying to prove this here
idk if this would be valid but this is what I would do:
assume a = e, the order of e is 1 (since it's the identity itself), and the order of the trivial subgroup is also 1 since it only has 1 element
therefore |e| = |<e>|
😎
would this be a good proof?

😢
that's where I'm kind of stuck
I've been looking at this problem for a while and I still don't have much of an idea, I tried looking at this theorem for insight but I'm still lost
any ideas?
Doesn’t…
Theorem 4.1 literally prove it?
|a| = n there
And |<a>| = n because they listed every element
The theorem says
<a> = {e,a,…,a^n-1}
That equals sign isn’t gonna start lying to you randomly
why is that the case? Why can't <a> be {e, a, ...a^k}? Why does the order have to be the same finite number as the order of the element?
like I get what you're saying that every element is listed in the image, but what if the last element wasn't a^(n - 1)?
If k > n then the order is larger
If k < n then it’s smaller
Read the proof until you convince yourself of why it’s true and you’ll see what happens if it ended at k
AGHHHHHHHHHHHHHH
I still don't understand
so wait
let me break this down, so since a^k is not a^n, k < n
why the hell do I struggle on such simple problems 💀
you basically have to convince yourself of two things: that there are not more than those n elements and that there are not less
the first follows from the order of a being n, since a^n = e and thus a^{n+k} = a^n*a^k = e*a^k = a^k, so you can reduce exponents to be smaller than n
for the second assumed that a^i = a^j for i, j different, say i < j, then you can multiply by (a^i)^{-1} and get a^{i-j} = e but i-j is a positive integer smaller than n, contradicting the order assumption
(this should be basically the proof in your source)
yeah that's the proof for theorem 4.1
but
I'm supposed to use theorem 4.1 to help me with this problem
and that's where I'm stuck
as chmonkey said, the theorem does this by listing every element in <a>
so to prove this all I need to do is say |a| = n, and <a> = {e, a, a^2 ..., a^(n - 1} and since the final element is n - 1 and the order of a itself is n, they are equal
right?
I kind of feel unfulfilled with this, I just have a feeling like there's more to show
anything "more" would be a (partial) re-do of the proof of theorem 4.1
🤦♂️ oh 💀
I read theorem 4.1 over and over again for 30 minutes but I still didn't figure this out
i'd say take a break
yeah 😂
thanks a lot
😄
I'll read over theorem 4.1 tomorrow honestly but I really appreciate it Loch, Chmonkey, and Moldilocks 🙂
How to find?
I is not prime ideal so R/I is not integral domain, next how to find number of units?
det
use this isomorphism to find the units. definitely multiples of x aren't units. what about the rest?
I'm not 100% seeing the isomorphism between F_3[x]/(x-1)^2 and F_3[x]/x^2 - is it because they both just have 1 root?
nah, it's because of the shift of x and x-1
yea 
there are 9 element so how to get other except 1 and 2
sorry for my late
oh it's fine dw
one simple thing you can prove is that a unit + nilpotent is also a unit (in a commutative ring)
and because of this a+bx are all units when a is not 0.
yep!
yeah it's definitely char 3 cause 3 is prime 🥴 I think
char of Z_9 is 9, wbu R/I
char of Z/9Z is 9 
yeap
well R/I is the quotient of a char 3 field
not field
sorry
polynomial ring over a char 3 field
i.e. a ring of char 3
same thing really
so here char of R/I is neither 3 nor 9?
it's 3 >.<
it has to be 3 or 1
1+1+1 is 0 mod 3
by this🤔
yes...?
so it's either char 3 or char 1 as the char of the quotient has to divide the character of the ring
I think
here R/I is not field because I is not maximal
correct me if I'm wrong on that det
it doesn't matter
what
I said field instead of ring big deal no one cares 🤣
rip😂
the character of ANY quotient of ANY ring has to divide the character of that ring
as I've said
three times now
now i get it
3 is prime... so it's either char 1 or char 3, it's not char 1 cause then it'll be the trivial ring
so it has to be char 3 
yes yes clear now
nice 
or 2
you probably don't even need it to be a quotient lol
alternatively just keep adding 1 to itself 
R --> S is enough?
didn't get
Z --> R --> S
kernel of first map is (char R)Z and of the composition is (char S)Z
since kernel of composition is bigger, char S divides char R
okie
something something homomorphism something something f(1+1+1) = f(0)
catfan is right actually I've thought about it for a solid 40 seconds
it could also be char 2 if it's a general quotient of a char 3 ring
another proof could be this: if char R = 0, then nothing to prove, else
1 + 1 + ... +1 (char R times) = 0 then additive order of 1 in S has to divide char R
I was thinking right
take R with char n and S an ideal of R, then in R/S we know that the sum n(1+S) = n+S = 0+S, so the characteristic of the quotient must be n or lower
but I couldn't see how to prove that it divides n
oh wait
yes I can 
S is an additive subgroup of R so the order of the subgroup must divide the order of the group
wait can it be 2?
I just wanted you to repeat the char divising thing for the fourth time

should've stuck with my intuition ig
in other news chat I just unironically used cayley's theorem for the first time in my life
sorry moldi you uhh must've misclicked there friend! 😅 I believe you meant to go here: #category-theory 😁 thanks for being understanding 😅
ah of course 😅 I am very sorry for interrupting the conversation 😄
i want yoneda rant in #groups-rings-fields 🙈
when the ARROW is... injective?!
hueh-whaaaatt??
holy shit 
but how does one use Yoneda to prove anything
oh I kind of get it
How about G/N = (G/H)/(N/H)
Maps out of G/N are the same as maps out of G that have N in the kernel
which are the same as the maps out of G/H with N/H in their kernel
which are the same as the maps out of (G/H)/(N/H)
So Hom(G/N, -) is naturally isomorphic to Hom((G/H)/(N/H), -)
are you sure about the third line moldi?

Same exact proof works for localisations of localisations
And many other similar constructions
Also this is not just for groups
I always thought localisation at J of a localisation of I is just a localisation of some combination of I and J
or is this the proof that there actually is an isomorphism
You localise at S then at the image of T, that is the same as the localisation directly at T
There you use the fact that maps out of S^-1 R are the same as maps out of R that map everything in S to a unit
And the same reasoning finishes the proof

oh so from this we can say G/N and (G/H)/(N/H) isomorphic(different category)?
Yes, but idk what you mean by different category
Yoneda tells you that if Hom(A, -) and Hom(B, -) are isomorphic functors, then A and B are isomorphic objects
first is the category of (G, f) with ker f containing N and second is (G/H, f) s.t. ker contains N/H so the categories are different?
No both are objects of the category of groups
oh that's the cat we are taking
But at the intermediate stages we are going through another category
lol i thought moldi going full cat and looking at group as groupoids on 1 object 
Using the adjuction that we get from the universal property of quotients

nice, thanks
