#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 659 of 407

I think so
But you can also do it from tensor powers
I forget the specific relation
Just go to Wikipedia haha
wikipedia is saur unhelpful its like 20 billion pages long
I think the basis I gave you is right tho
Oky so
I think you just quotient by the simple tensors containing a repeat element
UGH wait never mind its not its just in terms of the simple tensors
Yeah
Ok
i guess ill just do this manually
And you could try to do it by quotient it by x (x) y + y (x) x but this only works in char ≠ 2
Do you have a copy of Aluffi?
It’s in Aluffi
So we let Lambda^n(M) be nth tensor power of M quotiented out by tensors that repeat
Yeah
We define the presheaf U -> Lambda^n(M(U))
I think that’s right
many such cases
And so for this
I believe the size is actually r choose n
So in particular the r-th wedge product is dim 1
That’s a really important construction for diff geo and AG
I see
Yeah kempf does that
That has a really good reason too, the determinant is related to this
But there’s this formul
For free modules M and N
You get to decompose the n-th wedge products of M (+) N
As a convolution of the wedge products of M and N
So it’s like
(+)_0^n wedge^k M (x) wedge^n-k N
But when n is the rank of M (+) N
Something remarkable happens where these are all 0 except when k = rk M
Then n - k = rk N
So the det(M (+) N) = det M (x) det N
This ends up coming up a lot more than you’d think lol
I see
i skimmed and saw it used in reference to the sheaves of differentials stuff next chapter
so i assume ill be seeing it pretty soon
saur yummy
madlibs
wait
How do u actually see that x otimes y = y otimes x in the 2nd exterior power
actually
instead of answering that
let me not be dumb and try something
Yeah]
And show you can mod out just by the x (x) y = y (x) x relations
Oh
Take their sum
Then it’s
(x + y) (x) (y + x) = 0
So the two were equal
Or uh

Chmonkey
gabe moment

Uhhhh
Is (x) the same as wedge here?
Yeah
Yeah
Well its just normal tensor but like we're quotienting
We should I’ve switched to wedge
into the wedge product
I know
Ultramothematics
Okay okay
Oh
I was right!
Okay take their difference
Then factor out a -1 lol
You end up with their difference ebeing
Ultramothematics

what I find weird is how exponentiation is repeated multiplication (for the integers) yet exponentiation is the connection between addition and multiplication, as demonstrated by the fact that e^(x+y)=e^x*e^y
is there something more interesting at play here?
the fact that exponentiation is the "third" operation in the sequence of addition, multiplication, and exponentiation (again, for integers), but how it connects the first two
So I have a presentation
a = (1 2)
b = (1 2 3 4)
and my idea is now I want to show that all elements in S_4 can be written as a combination of 4 elements in some order
of which there are 4! orders
obvious 2 of those elements are going to be a and b
but what about the other 2
how can I determine that
If I have a set of generators for an ideal of a polynomial ring of a field, the gcd of this set generates the ideal.
This is true?
Anyone got any idea with my question?
I have the set and relations <x, y | x^2, y^4, (xy)^3, (yx)^3>
What do you mean "written as a combination of 4 elements in some order"
So like
(abcd)?
I want to show that this set with these relations have 24 elements
24 = 4!
so intuitively maybe
I can show that every word in the group can be written as the product of 4 chosen elements in some order
there are 4! orders, done
I just need those words
playing with the relations hasn't led to anything fruitful
What generators of S_4 are you choosing?
x = (1 2) y = (1 2 3 4)
Okay so you want to show uniqueness I guess
ie that every order corresponds to a different permutation
yea
And what are your 4 words?
I don't think this approach is that promising tbh
the other 2
¯_(ツ)_/¯
hm
ok then what approach could work?
because idk of any other approach
I'm using that approach since it worked for another problem
tho that was for Q_8
a much simpler group
this has many more elements
for Q_8 I was able to show that every element took the form a^i b^j where 0 <= i < 4 and 0 <= j < 2 and a -> i and b -> j
so 8 elements
for my presentation
wdym
Transpositions
Well you just need to show you can generate all transpositions using those 2 elements
And then you're done
ohhhh
hm ok
wait no that gives me surjectivity
not injectivity
I have surjectivity
What do you mean you need injectivity
Spamakin🎷
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
last line is wrong
You never actually show surjectivity there
should read $| F(S) / N \leq 4!|$
Spamakin🎷
wait but I did show surjectivity
Oh okay so you already know from previous stuff that they generate
yea
Okay
that's the trivial part of the proof

I need injectivity which is the pain in the ass part
I see now
How sure are you that is actually is injective?
I don't yet
I have to show it though
that's the problem
Well I mean I know that I can because this presentation characterizes the whole group right?
So it's more of a hope that you have enough relations yet.
I agree that they are relations.
I should probably add both (ab)^3 and (ba)^3
I thought you already had those.
Hm, so ab = (2 3 4) and therefore b^-1(ab)b = (1 2 3), so bbbabba is a transposition. But can we prove from your relations alone that (bbbabba)^2=e?
I don't think there's anything in your relations to disallow arbitrarily long unreducible words
really
Yeah, for example bbbabbbabbba...bbba
That one does reduce because bbba = (ab)^-1.
Oh okay, how about using bba instead?
That looks more likely to be a problem, yes.
The brute-force solution would be to select one canonical word for each of the 24 known elements, and write down a relation for each entry in the group operation table, stating that xy=z for such-and-such particular words.
Not quite what I'm describing.
But we could declare that abb is the "canonical word" for (1 3 2 4).
And furthermore bbabb is the canonical word for (3 4).
And bbabbb is the canonical word for (1 2 4)
Since (3 4)(1 2 3 4) = (1 2 4) we know that abbbbabb=bbabbb or equivalently abbbbabb(bbabbb)' = e i.e. abbbab'a'b'b'b' = e (where the prime means ^-1)
sorry for the late reply, but why does this happen?
There'd be one such relation for each of the 576 possible compositions.
hm ok that just seems really impractical lol
cause there would be like what, 12 relations?
more?
576, though some of them would end up being trivial.
oh yea 24^2
Yeah, it is more useful as an existence proof that you can always find enough relations in the finite case.
But it is at least constructive.
prof wants an explicit set of relations
but hm
tho I could just describe it
I think that'll be a last resort
Okay here's an idea
So assuming your word starts with an a, you can (sort of) divide a word up into blocks of ab's abb's, and abbb's
Anyway if you can just show how to reduce products of these blocks you'll have more reasonable relations
An interesting relation is abbabb=bbabba
Which tells you that in a reduced word you shouldn't have two abb blocks in a row
lol
but yea there's like no good pattern I can see
it's just
"lol do these computations go fuck yourself"
it's fun not these problems IMO
Spamakin which words do you want to represent the whole group?
Maybe knowing that would help
What do you mean?
Like there should be 4! words in a and b which represent the group
isn't that part of what I'm supposed to deduce from this?
Not necessarily
You can go about it the other way
Okay let's try to list out words
I guess a place to start is just combinations of a and b
not sure of a quick way to enumerate that
(), a, b, b^2, b^3 obviously
can someone explain why the purple part is true
i thought integral domain only implied that one of them was 0 not both
so like
assume for now that they aren't constant
if either of them had a constant term, then the product couldn't be x^n
I guess here's the easier way to say it
if the product of f(x) and g(x) in an integral domain is a monomial like x^n
then f(x) and g(x) would have to look like x^n-k and x^k
Okay forget what I said here, I'll just prove it easier lol
we know one of the constant terms is 0, WLOG a(x)-bar's constant term is 0
Assume b(x)-bar's constant term is non-zero
we can write b(x)-bar = xf(x) + b where b is non-zero (xf(x) represents the higher order terms)
and a(x)-bar = a^nx^n + ... + a_ix^i where a_i is non-zero and i > 0 (I'm just saying that the i is the lowest degree term)
when you multiply out a(x)-bar and b(x)-bar
you will end up with, in the lowest degree, a_ibx^i + higher degree terms
but you want this to actually be equal to x^n
so this is impossible since this isn't a homogeneous polynomial
why does this matter
I complicated that even more lmfao
look at the bottom and top degree stuff
but whatever

if u understood, mission accomplished
How does Cayley's Theorem apply to this
or does it not at all
it seems like it would
Cayley's says that the quaternion group of order 8 is a subgroup of S8
well I'm talking about the first part
But no, that won't really apply here
yea
One thing I have realized is that because this minimal group is non trivial
that there can be no subgroups that have trivial intersection
oh maybe does it have something to do with transitive actions?
I have shown this
idk but H is necessarily cyclic of prime order
H or M?
you mean M right?
if you mean M, then M is also normal right but idk if that helps
oh wait
I misread the problem so that expalins a lot
but also it's still true that M is cyclic of prime order
and no, it does not mean M is normal
Hm I thought there was something about groups of prime order being normal
Obviously misremembering
what does that even mean
normality is a property of a subgroup
it isn't inherent to a group
this is not true
Yea
easy counterexamples exist in S_n
Ok but M is cyclic and prime order
and the conjugacy classes of symmetric groups are really easy to classify
yeah
I mean technically prime => cyclic haha
Everyone still says cyclic of prime order tho
I mean you can write M as the intersection of all proper subgroups
yeah idk
Yea that's as far as I got
can someone check my work
does this work? if we have an injection of G into S_{n-1} then G acts on some set of size n-1 where the intersection of all the stabilizers is 1. there must be at least one element with trivial stabilizer because otherwise M<=the intersection of all the stabilizers. but then the orbit of that element would have size n.
Looks good to me
Describe all the distinct powers of α. How many are there? Note carefully the connection with addition of integers modulo s. Can someone help explain this?
They want you to say how many of the numbers alpha^n are distinct
Like if alpha = 2 and you’re doing stuff mod 4
there’s only 2
Well I guess 3
2^0,2^1,2^2 = 0
Cuz once you go past that, 2^k = 0
Maybe you’re in a group tho and then it’ll be a little different because you’ll just get stuck in a loop
α is the cycle of length s, say α = (α1α2 …αs).
A permutation
And this is just a single cycle?
Mhm
Ggggggggg
I mean it’s easy to describe what the order is buuuut
It’s a bit more annoying to describe what the powers are
I mean I guess I would say like
If you think of this as a function
You can like inductively describe it
so like alpha^1 sends alpha_i to alpha_i+1
Then alpha^n sends uhhh
alpha_i to ummm
alpha^(n-1)_i+1 I think?
No this isn’t right

Yeah idk this sucks
Like
Was alpha a particular permutation?
Or literally just an arbitrary cycle
I'm unsure, just some cycle given
Like
Is the cycle written down explicitly
Like is it (16392) or something
Or is it a generic cycle of length n
Yes yes
Oh
Yes
Okay uhhh
Yeah idk it’s not too clear what the problem wants from you, at least to me
Sorry
There will be s distinct ones
And alpha^n = alpha^n+ks for any integer k
But beyond that i don’t really know what it wants
A very basic question, the module generated by an element $x\in M$ is $Rx = { r\cdot x | r\in R }$ and also it is the smallest submodule of $M$ containing $x$. But if $R$ does not contain $1$ then how can $Rx$ contain $x$? like the first definition is wrong if $R$ is not unitial ring?
Modules over a non-unital ring omegalol
I don’t know if modules are defined over non-unital rings

I think I saw modules over nonunital rings in the context of banach algebras once
what about rings then?
In that case the first definition is indeed wrong and should be replaced with Rx+Zx where Z refers to the integers
oh then Rx+xR+Zx for general case right, (I hate the book)
I assumed we were talking about left modules here
Are you talking about bimodules or something?
no rings but that will work for modules
Ah yes a 2 sided ideal is indeed an (R,R) bimodule
And yeah you need Zx+Rx+xR+RxR terms in a general bimodule as well
What book are you reading btw?
introduction to rings and modules by C. Musili (reluctantly reading)
also nice pfp, Reisz was it? from H Dxd?
Ok just took a look at this and he does indeed define exactly what you want for left modules in chapter 5. He doesn’t do bimodules in the book i think
actually I've seen the definition Rx in a different book so I got kinda confused because the author didn't assume R to be unitial or even commutative
May I ask a question here?
Sure
I can't seem to find an approach to this one. Even the forward direction.
It makes sense to me, and considering a few examples makes it much clearer, but what is actually happening here?
If G is cyclic and m is the order of G, then clearly, we only need to consider values of n less than m.
Here is a hint: Let g be the generator for G. Show that the only elements with order n look like g^{km/n} where k is less than n. (Infact you can even say k is coprime to n but that is unnecessary for this direction). The converse is genuinely tricky I would be surprised if no hint was given
(Also note that if there is any element of order n, n has to divide m, so km/n makes sense)
you can write $|G|=p_1^{k_1}p_2^{k_2}\cdots p_n^{k_n}$ then decompose G into direct products of syllow pi groups
The book has not even covered direct products yet.
That is the next section. I don't mind coming back to this problem, but is there an elementary way to approach it?
I have none
Did you understand how the forward direction works atleast?
this works for fwd dir @inner needle
And thanks for this. Puts into perspective what was really happening.
Yes, I'm just going work it out myself.
@inner needle sidenote: that statement is also true even if G is not assumed to be abelian
Yes, I did see this fact online. That's really cool, to be honest.
But I'm assuming the proof for that gets even harder.
Oh damn, I didn’t see that abelian part
not really
Well, maybe difficult to approach in an elementary way?
But that comes, much, much later. I have no idea about them or even the definitions they use.
ok wait i think I have something
using number theory you can show that for d < n the sum of number of elements with order d is < n
so that forces one element with order n
making it cyclic
I don't get it, what is n here?
n is the order of |G|
Oh, right. In the problem, n is used for something else.
idea is you show that there aren't enough element which can have order < n. so one element has to have order n
Right! If I can prove that fact, the result does follow.
Here is an easier way to do it for abelian groups: first prove that given two elements of orders p and q, you can get an element of order lcm(p,q) then assume that the maximum order element is some d that divides m. If every other elements order divides d, we get a contradiction else use the thing i said above to get an element of order even larger than d which is again a contradiction
This is the hard proof i was referring to earlier, you first show that atmost phi(n) elements have order n and then use that fact that m= summ (phi(n)) for n|m
Where phi is euler’s totient formula
I think you should just classify finite abelian groups and then it follows from that pretty easily 🙂
True
I can’t produce a proof off the top of my head not using the classification, sad champ
Sometimes when you gain power you forget how to use it
What is the contradiction to? The fact that d divides m?
shows there are more than m elements satisfying x^m=1
But isn't d just m?
m = lcm(p, q)
There are two contradictions. The first one is the case where the orders of all elements divide d, the contradiction there is that all m elements will satisfy x^d=1 which is wrong
No m is the size of the group
So we are assuming d|m and d < m?
The second contradiction is that given an element x whose order ,t, does not divide d and y whose order is d, you can create an element whose order is lcm(d,t) which is strictly greater than d, which contradicts the fact that d is the maximal order
d|m will always happen since the order of an element will divide the size of the group
Yeah I assumed d<m though
Oh right. So we are assuming d < m for contradiction
Yep
Right! This is cool
Okay, I think I get it. I'll just write this proof down.
Wait, where have we used the fact that G is abelian?
The lemma that i didn’t prove about finding an element of order lcm(p,q)
That uses the fact that the group is abelian
The getting an element of order lcm(p, q)?
Yeah, now that you remind me, I've already proved this.
Nice
Okay, I think it all works out. The converse is rather tricky though, I would not have come up with such a proof myself.
I don't think I've proved this though.
Seems similar to Lagrange theorem, which I've not done yet. But I'll try proving that regardless.
The size of a subgroup divides the size of the whole group and you can just look at the subgroup given by {1,x,x^2..,x^{d-1}}
Yeah, I've not proved this yet.
Lagrange’s theorem?
Yup
Oh you should definitely see lagrange’s theorem at least before doing any exercises
This book is very weirdly structured then
There is no way you could have possibly proved this exercise
Yes.
@gritty sparrow It's just one question xD
I don't think you can use that to judge the whole book, mistakes happen
Fair enough
The rest of the problems are all reasonable, approachable with what has already been covered
It's just this one which I simply couldn't do
I think I understand why now
My favourite of the bunch was finding an equivalent criteria for <x^r> being a subset of <x^s> where the group is G = <x> of order n.
Turns out <x^r> = <x^k> where k = gcd(r, n). Also, k is the smallest positive power of x which lies in <x^r>.
Hi
I am trying to prove this problem using Artin's theorem learned in class. But I felt so weird about the proof. Did I understand this theorem wrong or Artin's theorem is just so much stronger than what I'm trying to prove? Thank you!
I worked everything out. Thanks a ton, that was a fantastic proof. @gritty sparrow
Did we use the fact that d divides m, though?
I can't see where we used that, and if we didn't use it, we didn't use Lagrange's theorem.
Your second last line is wrong
yeah thats what i have suspected, i don't know how to continue after the third to last line
det
@minor badger >.<
Quoting Aluffi's Chapter 0: \
one can define a field whose underlying group is $Z/pZ \times Z/pZ$, while the product ring is very far from being a field (why?).
Thomas
product of two rings can never be an integral domain!
(1, 0) * (0, 1) = (0, 0)
so it has zero divisors
well it doesn't have inverses >.<
you can only find inverse of (a, b) when both a and b are non-zero
Haha yes I was only thinking on a surface level after you pointed that out
(also love the Eevee 🧡)
(sorry, a slight error. assuming both are non-zero rings >.<)
The zero ring is generally not considered an ingegral domain 
right, but it will still be a terminal ring, so 0 x R = R
that looks so bad to my eyes >.<
Oh yeah true
complete reducibility theorem relies on unitarity
is there any generalization?
i.e. finite dimensional representations of a Lie group being direct sum of irreducibles, if the rep isn't unitary
I think the usual theorem for finite groups generalizes in a straightforward way to compact groups
That is, you can always choose an inner product that makes the representation unitary
yes
but I am interested in non-compact groups(physics)
Lorentz/Poincare
they admit finite dimensional non-unitary reps
Then I'm pretty sure complete reducibility isn't true in general
But maybe under some assumptions 
so for the unitary reps of the poincare/lorentz satisfy complete reducibility
but non-unitary reps not? 
omg i see it now, thanks ❤️
So I'm struggle with what I should be taking notes for in this class
So we just did the proof that alternating groups are simple
I normally don't write proofs but since the lecture covered the whole proof (and that took a large chunk of time) I did
should I be doing that for all proofs in this course and furthermore should I be expected to just be able to reproduce these results?
I'd recommend going to your teacher's office hours and discussing this with them
taking notes is a good habit i'd say >.<
but yea that proof at first might seem pretty arbitrary and complicated. but eventually you'll notice what was the key ingredient that went into the proof. Also there are a couple of ways to prove it, my favorite one uses that A5 and A6 are simple and then later uses n = 6 case to prove it for any n > 6.
so technically with this proof, the hardest part is actually proving the simplicity of A5 and A6 which is a finite problem, so we don't really need to worry that much. (in the worst case, we could run a computer and ask it do solve it for us)
it usually takes me a couple of iterations of anything to really understand what went into the proof.
What class is this for? O.O
Well this is more in general
I write theorems and stuff
But rarely the proofs
I read over the proofs and such, just never write them out
If the prof is faithfully following a book or is giving class notes, then it's probably fine to skip on taking notes, but i usually find it nice to have notes around so i can look at the clever ideas involved. >.<
If x = -x for every x in a Field, does it have to be trivial?
nope
urgh.
it's possible -1=1, in other words 1+1=0, AKA characteristic 2
I don't know what your notation 1, i mod 2 means
sorry 😅
the field with 2 elements, like regular mod 2 arithmetic is a field with characteristic 2 though
if i is the sqrt(-1), then it's not going to give you a field
(1+i)^2 = 0 but 1+i isn't 0
there is no "the trivial field"
{0, 1} <-- I meant this
it's the prime field of characteristic 2
but there are fields with characteristic 2 that aren't F_2
there's F_{2^k} for all k>=1 and F_2(X) as some examples
Modern algebra
Hmmm
So my thought process was this
If we have a vector space V over F
and V is a field
I believe the scalar multiplication function can be projected into a field homomorphism from F to V?
. : F x V -> V
We then define what I think is the homomorphism
f: F -> V
f(x) = x.1
sure, what's the vector 1? looks suspicious
V is a field.
ok sure
Cool. 👍
I believe this is a field homomorphism
Which would mean it has to be injective.
If so, then suppose V is the field {0, 1}. F must be {0, 1}. I was checking if this is true, and got to x = -x in F.
I don't understand why you're bringing a vector space into this if you just care about fields
Well it's a thought exercise. I'm doing Galois Theory --- so Field Extensions naturally create a vector space.
Then I thought about the reverse process, if we had field V over F
sure, I know that but I think I'm missing what your original question is
uhhh
I guess it would be
'We have vector space V over F. Suppose V is the field {0, 1}. Prove/disprove F must be {0, 1}.'
yea your reasoning is correct
This is the only bit I'm not 100% on rn
but pretty sure it has to be from the properties of vector space
😅 wondering if I was missing something obvious
it has to be by closure, you know s in F and v in V makes sv in V, so we can write sv=u and then s=u*v^-1 so s is in V

we should probably make the distinction of the action of F on V vs the multiplication in V
s.1 = uv^-1 is in V
yeah s in F implies s in V so F is a subset of V
V has no proper subfields so F=V
wait isn't s * v a shorthand for m_s(v) where m_s is the function you get by currying F x V --> V
yeah you're right
I think Merosity's argument works up to isomorphism. Because every field F must contain {0, 1}.
Or am I misreading
well what you said earlier s.1=s sort of seals the deal
s on the left is in F while s on the right is in V
i'm a little confused
I don't think I agree/follow (how this seals the deal)
For starters, v has to be 1
s.1 = u is in V
===
An aside - all I have so far is
(a+a).1 = a.1 + a.1 = a.(1+1) = a.0 = 0
(a+a)((a+a)'.1) = ((a+a)(a+a)')1 = 1.1 = 1
therefore a+a=0 (the dash indicates multiplicative inverse which cannot exist for a+a)
So I am suspicious of my previous argument
=====
(a.1)(b.1) = ???
(ab).1 = a.(b.1) = ???
I guess this isn't necessarily true if V is a field (the 2 being equal), which is how f would fail to be a homomorpism
bro
Just call it multiplication by s
sorry lol i'm very sleepy right now
UGCT parts of the brain taking over while you drift off 🙈
so what i feel for that is V/F is a vector space, but this vector space structure doesn't exactly know what the multiplication on V looks like.
we probably can make (a.1) * (b.1) and (ab).1 different elements
- is the multiplication on V and . is the action of F on V
Do we have a 'common' example where the 2 are different
I'm guessing not
since we usually use stuff like R, C, etc
Positive reals with exponentiation stuff 🙈
vector addition is multiplication
scalar multiplication is multiplication by exp(scalar)
magic 🙈
I think this works though I might have stated it wrong
Should be r.v = v^r
so
(a.1) * (b.1) = (a+b).1 \neq (ab).1 in general
oh this works lol
So its R+ over R.
Yes
what's the multiplication in R+?
r*v = v^r
not commutative ?
not commutative 
Why do we want that
Uhhh we wanted V over F where V is a field
I didn't read the chat I just saw det mention currying so I was here to make fun of that
Oh I see
maybe the vector space axioms get us stuck in the case of F_2 here
we need to look beyond to find counterexamples is my guess
like uhh, what's it saying if it were true, every algebra over a field is just the field itself?
Have ℚ act on itself but on the vector space version define the multiplication to be as if the positives are negatives and vice versa 🙈
I mean the multiplication of the vector space plays no role in any of this it seems
Wait does it
I didn't even bother reading the equations
What are . and * again 
Actually don't bother lol

i think we can answer the question if we can find an abelian group such that you could define two non-isomorphic field structures on it.
Is this non-trivial lol? surprised.
finite fields won't work i think
like ideally you would just say that the field structures and vector space structures are compatible with each other
okie i think i might have an answer
f : Q(sqrt(2)) --> Q(sqrt(3))
this is Q-linear and sends sqrt(2) to sqrt(3)
say its inverse function is f'
F = Q(sqrt(2)) and V = Q(sqrt(3))
V is also a field
now we want to pretend that V is the abelian group Q(sqrt(2)) and define the vector space structure.
so define a . v = f(a * f'(v))
I'm too sleepy to confirm if this forms a vector space or not, it feels it does so i'll stop at that
(a.1) = f(a * f'(1)) = f(a * 1) = f(a)
so (a.1) * (b.1) = f(a) * f(b)
but (ab).1 = f(ab)
i chose f to not preserve multiplication by taking non-iso fields for instance a = b = sqrt(2) then ab = 2 so f(ab) = 2 and f(a) * f(b) = 3
That sounds right
He's doing both
I take notes on concepts and examples and such
Hmmm so there indeed is no field homomorphism from F to V.
2 = 1 + 1 = f(1) + f(1) = f(2) = f(rt2 rt2) = f(rt2)^2
So I have gotten a hint for this
I need to show that if G acts on any set of size n - 1, then the action cannot be faithful
But then this means that all the stabilizers of said action must be non-trivial
So does this amount to just using the fact that stabilizers are subgroups of G?
ok yea that's all it is
OK then my question is
how tf am I supposed to read that question and think about group actions
💀
how is that supposed to come to mind
embedding into S_{n-1} is equivalent to a faithful action on a set of size n-1
any map into S_n gives you a group action on a set of size n
if you know how the correspondence of acting on set of size n gives you a map to S_n, you can reverse that process
I think this is probably well known, but not to me. If I take k to be a finite field (F_p if you want to be super specific) then G=Aut(k(t)/k) is a finite group isomorophic to PGL_2(k). What is the fixed field of G in k(t)?
(by usual theorems it must have the form k(f(t)) for some rational funciton f(t)
(and f(t) has to have degree (q+1) * q * (q-1) )
If there's a non-abelian group involved always think about group actions no matter what else is happening.
If your group isn't acting on something, is it even really a group?
Actually, I think the answer to my question is something like f(t) = (t^(q^3)-t)/(t^(q^2)-t)^q
Which is not quite right, but I think the idea is you want one zero at every element that is in P^1(GF(q^3)) that isn't in P^1(GF(q)) and then you want to balance that out with a bunch of poles at elements of P^1(GF(q^2)) that aren't in P^1(GF(q))
(and hope the combinatorics works out)
Ok I thought I had it but I don't. How can I show that all the stabilizers are nontrivial? I know since we have a set G of size n acting on a set X of size n - 1 that for all x in X we must have that there are g_1 =/= g_2 in G where g_1 * x = y and g_2* x = y
can I do something like
g_1 * x = g_2 * x
let g_1^{-1} act on both sides
and get g_1^{-1} g_2 * x = x?
is that valid?
yea I think that works
Can someone help with part b? Since the proofs are basically the same, lets suppose I want to show n/d divides n'
I really don't know how the gcd of indices relates to the index of the intersection of subgroups
because it's not necessarily true that the order of H intersection K is gcd(m, n)
we have [G : H cap K] = [G : H][H : H cap K]
so [G : H cap K] = m * n'
and I guess similarly = n * m'
yea idk where to go from there
A Lie group is a smooth manifold with a group operation that’s smooth, aka M x M -> M the product is smooth as is the inversion map M -> M
Oh, wow.
A ring is an algebraic structure with 2 operations, addition and multiplication. Multiplication and addition distribute as they would for the integers
Oh, so like a group + distributive laws?
The addition forms an abelian group, so it has inverses, an identity (we call 0), and it’s commutative
Yeah
The multiplication only has to be associative plus distribute
Oh, rings are all abelian?
What are rings useful for compared to groups and why are they called rings?
However: most sources also require the multiplication to have an identity denoted 1
But not inverses, so Z is a ring
But like, 2 doesn’t have a multiplicative inverse
Yeah the addition is
Ah, cool.
Rings model a lot of things, commutative rings underly all of algebraic geometry
Wow, this is so fascinating. I can't wait until my abstract algebra class coverts them.
You can define modules, it’s like a vector space over a ring, they’re very useful
They show up in algebraic number theory
Right, I can see that.
And say, continuous functions into R form a ring
I'm in linear algebra as well right now and it's pretty interesting.
Since you can add them and multiply just on the output
So vector spaces over F can be seen as being over rings?
Yeah
Because both R and C are rings?
A field is a special ring
Yup
A field is a ring with multiplicative identities
Also the multiplication has to commute
I forgot to mention but rings don’t need multiplication to commute
Thing of matrices
Those form a ring, but MN ≠ NM
Oh, really?!?!
Yeah
Oh, cool. it's just a special case.
Yeh
But, there are no multiplicative inverses in general, right?
Right
At least for vector fields.
But in groups there must be inverses.
I mean I know what a vector field is in like, manifolds
But vector fields exist.
Well vector spaces have inverses
In Calc III, for instance.
I mean vectors in vector spaces.
I mean they have inverses
v1 * v2 = 1?
Well sure
Yeah, for addition...
There’s no multiplication lol
More like there is no mult
So there couldn’t be a multiplicative inverse
true, true
in general you can't multiply vectors
What else is there in abstract algebra?
but in some cases you can
What is a fuscian group?
Or 3-spaces.
yea
That’s disingenuous to say
You aren’t using their structure as a vector space there
As a vector space you can’t
Other than rings, groups, modules, and fields it’s mainly just what are called “algebras” from my experience
Yeah
I mean there’s Lie algebras too
And you can get other weird stuff, but those are way more niche
Which are a vector space with an additional vector multiplication rule
if you want an intro to Lie Groups and such
Semi groups, monoids, etc
Naive Lie Theory is a great text
Wow, algebra is very interesting.
Thanks!
it's and intro to Lie Theory with only linear algebra and calc as a prereq
It’s all just magmas 
I will check it out. (literally 😉)
Yeah there’s tens of subfields I’ve heard of and probably a hundred I haven’t
Really fantastic area of maths
*abelian rings
what
How many?!?!
Off of the top of my head
Galois theory, algebraic topology, algebraic geometry, Representation theory are the big boys that aren’t just studying a specific object like “group theory” or “ring theory” does
Wow.
For example, representation theory studies groups via vector spaces
Galois theory studies fields via groups
Alg geom alone is an entire undergrad course 
I've been trying to find a main field to enter.
Like, analysis, algebra, geometry, topology, number theory, foundations, etc.
Or theoretical computer science.
etc.
Ah there’s a funny thing there
The first 5 things there basically become the same thing after a while 
What do you mean?
Algebraic number theory is a thing, I’ve already mentioned algebraic geo and algebraic topology
Right.
And number theory is applied ring theory 
I'm in an algebraic topology course right now.
:o
Wait as an undergrad?
Yes.
It's a 400-level.
It's just an intro course.
Lucky 
Math is one heck of a drug.
Maybe I don't even want to double major, if I can just keep taking more math courses endlessly. 👀
I prefer LSD but group theory is good too
Pure Math
oh
Why?
wait then wdym double major
I'm really ahead in math.
ah
I'm running out of courses.
So to spread it out I was going to double major with either phil or cs.
yea I'm staying in math and doing the same thing (tho I'm doing alot of theoretical CS courses on the side)
you could take grad classes
I have 12 in my course planner ,haha/.
however my grad abstract alg HW is murdering me rn
My first is next semester.
But the problem is that I can only take up to 2 or 3 per semester, I think.
If I take more graduate courses than undergraduate courses I will lose financial aid.
Hence the double major as filler.
At first, yeah.
could just take lighter semesters
I guess I could just do 5 courses each.
But I like to grind.
5 
Yes.
I’m doing 2 courses a term this year 
I'm taking 6/7 this semester.
I'm doing 3 and dying (tho I have other stuff outside of courses)
I'm taking four math courses right now.
One CS, one art history, one fake class for learning assistants and I'm a learning assistant.
Only three?
fake class for learning assistants
I’m post grad I’ve got a thesis to do 
like a TA training seminar?
although last year I was undergrad and only did 3 per term
same thing
Yeah.
lol pay attention to that
That.
I've had enough shit LAs
ah lol
and it's not good for students
I'm an LA for two courses
hence why I'm only doing 3 courses
Ah.
Then it does make sense.
Maybe I'll just do the math major and take a bunch of independent studies credits.
OH
I can learn graduate-level stuff from those.
As undergrad credits 😎
@barren sierra: Would it make more sense to graduate early?
If I just do a math major, I can do the accelerated M.S. program and leave with a B.S. and M.S. in Mathematics by the end of my junior year.
I have no idea lol
Could anyone help take a look at this one 
I don't understand that argument fully.
Yeah I agree it is not very accurate. It should be |Aut(E/F)| = [E:F] instead
for the first one, say E/F is galois with galois group G having size n.
then it's easy to see that F is a subfield of E^G, because by definition the galois group will fix elements of F pointwise.
It's not completely obvious why F = E^G
that where we need Artin's theorem as you call it
Then I can't apply Artin's theorem in either direction?
because in G = Aut(E/F), E^G might be more than F? but in that case, does it mean there is only one thing in Aut(E/F), the identity map
you probably have to use it somewhere
I guess I can apply for the second case
we still need to see how the galois hypothesis is entering the picture
emmm I see. For general Aut(E/F), the fixed field might not be F
but it is true for galois extension
yep, and it's one of the equivalent definitions for galois extensions
so what def are you using?
galois extension is separable and normal
(like ideally i would use the primitive element theorem without thinking, are we allowed to use it or is that a no?)
I don't recall we learned this theorem 
oh it says any finite separable extension is actually simple
so it's much easier to think about the automorphisms groups as we only need to worry about 1 element
no I didn't learn that...
anyway, the second part should be more or less direct from Artin's theorem. i'll have to think a little for the first one if we're not allowed to use that.

Thanks! that's very helpful. I'll think about the first case more
say G = Aut(E/F) then like we just said F is a subfield of E^G
so we have a tower F --> E^G --> E
taking degrees [E:F] = [E:E^G] * [E^G : F]
by the theorem and hypothesis, [E:F] = [E:E^G] = |G|
so [E^G:F] = 1, showing E^G = F.
the theorem also says E/E^G = E/F is galois
Reposting this again
stuck on 1b
ngl no idea what to do
I did this for 1a but I can't think of anything similar
my only thought with the divides relation is that I need to show some sort of thing with cosets
something like [A : C] = [A : B][B : C]
and then I can work from there
but playing with that hasn't gotten me anywhere
yep, that's true i think
so you'd get [G : H n K] = mn'=nm'
divide by d and use that (m/d, n/d) = 1
(m/d) * n' = (n/d) * m'
let me know if you need some help in proving this. a simple hint would be to define the map A/C --> A/B by sending aC to aB.
since the groups may not be normal, these are just sets and set functions. show it is well defined, surjective and analyse the fiber over each aB, show it's bijective to B/C.
no I have already shown that
I just didn't know how to use that >_>
oh >.<
and I already got that but the m and n' together made me thing it was the wrong track >__>
OH from here is it just
(n / d) divides both sides so (n / d) must divide n'?
and then vice versa?
yep!
draw some diagrams >.< like a helpful one here would be
det
it makes it easier to see all the details at a glance >.<

yea I just never divided both sides by d
which in hindsight
is obvious to do
but I never did it >_>
What is Automorphism of $\mathbb{F}_{p^n}$?
Yes
ok
can anyone tell me why the first sentence of this proof is true? Its been a while since ive done field extensions, why does every element take this form? I thought you expressed everything in the field in terms of a basis 1, z, z^2 etc









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