#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 658 of 407
it's just a nice element lol, if it's surjective then 1 is in the image. show that this would mean that n isn't divisible by p
conversely show if n isn't divisible by p then the map is onto
another way to think would be to produce an inverse map. it's clear that multiplication by n should have inverse which is division by n.
we can't introduce factors of p in the denominators, so n shouldn't be divisible by p.
im so confused
the way i learned it
was to say let this be an element in the codomain
and then say there must be something in the domain that maps to it
right
so if there is a/b (with b not divisible by p) which maps to 1, then we would have that na/b = 1
which means na = b
can n be divisible by p for this to happen?
yep
lol if the map is surjective, then you can take preimage of 1 which is in the codomain. Say this preimage was a/b in Z_(p)
by the definition of Z_(p) you may assume that b isn't divisible by p
yeah
use this to show then n isn't divisible by p
same
it gets better once you're used to it, but still not immune >.<
I asked about this particular exercise before, and I was wondering if this argument is valid now that I finally wrote out the proof
i still dont know how to formally say this
stare at this equation and notice what could go wrong if n was actually divisible by p...
.<
whyyy
if n was divisible by p, then so would be n*a
now na = b, so they can't be both divisible by p and not divisible by p
take some rest maybe >.< and think about it slowly when your head clears up
Is good
You think "We argue similarly for the columns" will fly?
does the previous exercise prove both left and right cancellation?
or does that also have "we argue similarly" 
Then you add a line to the previous statement for right cancellativity
(btw i think you shouldn't use <=> in problem 27... like the very first step, you don't know if the backward implication is true, that's what you're trying to prove in the first place)
go from bottom up, starting on the left half, then top down on the right half.
b = eb = (a^-1a)b = ... = c

For exercise 28?
one line 
27
They are saying you can remove implications entirely
Start with b and you have a sequence of equalities going to c
Why do I need b=...=c? Isn't it just asking to prove ac=bc -> b=c?
ab = ac → b = ... = c is what c² is proving
It's not important lol
Another way to phrase the argument
Ohhhhhh, oh oh, okay I see
How to approach?
is that true? what if G was cyclic of order 49 and H was a subgroup of order = index = 7
Answer is false
wait then i just gave away the answer >.<
Pranked
hehe
Det got got
?
??
How to count total number of maps which satisfies this
24 >.<
48
lol reflections as well >.<


Please tell the approch
6 ways to choose the top face, 4 rotations of that, 2 ways for the orientation/reflection
this is like applying orbit stabilizer theorem from group theory, but it's intuitive enough to not say this name
Thank you so much.
hey guys
in this article: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Krull's_theorem
at the end of the variants section can someone explain the application of zorn's lemma
and why the fact that the identity is not in it matters
idk i thought zorn's lemma was like related to posets but idk wut posets they are talking about here
its the set of all proper ideals under inclusion
you would need to show that every non-empty chain has an upper bound
one idea usually is to take unions of elements in the chain, so union of all proper ideals in that chain
so does showing that the identity is not in the intersection show it has an upper bound
by the ring R itself
it shows it is still proper
does this count as an upper bound
union?
the union of a collection of sets contains any set in the union and as it is still proper it is an upper bound
quick sanity check, for an ideal $I$, $I\subset\sqrt{I}$, right?
cgodfrey
yes
quick sanity check, the voices are not real, right?
they can be thought of equivalence classes on the reals but they're not real numbers themselves😌
r^1 = r moment
Is it already make abstract algebra chill pm
$\pm$
Wew Lads Tbh
and yes moldi I'm free from exams at long last we must celebrate by computing more character tables
Moldi when is your exam session
do you mean D12 or do you mean D24
sem just started 
Do you mean D6 or D12
Do you mean D3 or D6
Haha I have the last laugh 
D1.5 
hmmmm
D1.5 = halfenions
ok since D1.5 is obviously a proper subgroup of D3 it must be abelian, and as we all know all abelian group are real modules (think about it but not too much) so we can define D1.5 = <a, b : a^1.5 = b^2 = 1, bab = a^1>
it's too easy sometimes
D3 is abelian?
Yeah
no but it's the smallest non-abelian group
halvelian
thus any groups smaller than it must be abelian, including proper subgroups
So true
It must be true, it has 3 elements and 3 is prime
yes
Guys I’m still kinda stuck on this I think I got the invective part right?
For part b
I still don’t know how to to surjective
n = 1 is trivially surjective
it's an isomorphism whenever n is not divisible by p.
Because then you can define an inverse: a/b-> a/(nb)
hmmm
can anyone give me an example of a Noetherian module with a submodule that isn't Noetherian?
There isn't one
a submodule S of N S ⊂ N ⊂ M is a submodule of M as well so S is f.g => N is noetherian
can you give me a concrete example
if its possible
i think i see it
but not sure
n=1
@hidden haven i was just asking because my homework asks me to prove this statement, with A, B, and C being R-modules and R being a noetherian ring. I am not sure where I should use the fact that R is a Noetherian ring. It seems to me that this statement can be proven even if R is not a noetherian ring?
Yes R need not be noetherian
@hidden haven Thank you!
i would have 3a/b right ? @runic hemlock
yeah
where does the p take play in all of this
a/b goes to 3a/b
yeah
you can define a different homomorphism, a/b goes to a/3b
the second homomorphism is well defined because if b is odd then 3b is also odd
and it's an inverse to the first homomorphism
how tho?
yeah i get its the inverse
but how does p have anything to do with this and how is is a/b mapped to a/3b?
It's legal to define new functions, the police wont come to your house if you do it
lol
no one's stopping me from defining a new function f so that f(a/b)=a/3b
I just need to check that a/3b is in the group Z_(2), which is true
for example, if n=p=3, the inverse to varphi maps c/d to c/(3d) but c/(3d) is not always an element of Z_(3)
yeah
but if c/d=1/1, then 1/1 would map to 1/3, which is not an element of Z_(3)
How does one prove that if $f \in S_n$, $f$ composed with itself $k$ times is just the identity permutation?
beeswax
I'm not sure where to start
k is a positive integer
This was the exercise
This just follows because S_n is a finite group
Every element has to have finite order or the group is infinite
Use the pigeonhole principle to show that f^k = f^k’ for distinct k,k’ then divide
Is that combinatorics?
Well the principle is combinatoric in nature but it's very simple. Consider the set
{f,f^2,f^3,....,f^n!, f^(n!+1)}
Then this set has (a priori) more elements than S_n, but S_n is closed under composition, so this is a subset of it, therefore there are some two elements f^k, f^k' that are in fact equal like chmonkey said (We can't product a set bigger than S_n using an element from S_n with the action of composition).
This is the pigeonhole principle, if you have n pigeons and n-1 holes, some hole must have at least 2 pigeons in it
hmmm
Yeah, I don't think I'm seeing how we can deduce that it ends up being the identity
You have f^k=f^k' right
Suppose WLOG k>k'
They can't be equal because we assumed the k, k' are different
Now multiply both sides by f^(-k')
What do you get
Or compose ig
That's just composijg the inverse of f with itself k' times
ok so I am lost as to how free =/= faithful
(G is acting on X btw)
is the stabilizer of x = {e} for all x in X
and the kernel of an action is the intersection of all stabilizers
then how are those not the same thing
Faithful means that no element acts trivially on the entire set
Free means that no element acts trivially on any element
Free is stronger
Because you are no longer considering the permutation (12) of S_3
because it acts trivially on 3
oh so all free actions are faithful
Yes
💀
at least to me it is
I agree
One thing that many intro books don't mention about free actions is that it is free in the sense of free group, free module etc
In the sense that if you give me a set S I can give you a free group generated by S, and similarly if you give me a group G and set S, I can give you a free action of G related to S
S_n acts faithfully on [n] but not freely
I think the best example of free actions is G acting on itself via multiplication
And IIRC all finite free actions are in some sense kind of like that?
The underlying set of the action is {(g,s) | g in G, s in S}
And G acts by just multiplying the first entry
And the given definition of free action is equivalent to saying that the action you have is isomorphic to an action of this form
Free actions are important
In AG for example when you act on schemes or something, if you quotient by the action and it isn’t free what you get is bad
You have to go to a stack usually
When it’s free I think you often get a scheme, and at worst it’s an algebraic space?
V(F1F2) = V(F1) U V(F2), and because F1F2 is in I(V), V < V(F1F2)
So V = V\cap V(F1F2) = V\cap (V(F1) U V(F2))
Then you just distribute
I see I forgot the last part
ty
Is there anything special about group representations that are also lie algebra representations? or is this just something that happens with representations of matrices?
oooooo ok that makes sense but yea I didn't see that in the lecture videos or the text
does "describe" mean find some canonical group that the stabilizer is isomorphic to?
so probably some other permutation group?
for 5(iii)
this problem seems tedious as all hell
Also suppose G acts on X and there is only one orbit, is that orbit the whole set X?
it is right? since orbits are eq classes over X
I think they want you to find the actual elements of S3 that are in the subgroup. This is automatically a permutation group as it is a subgroup of S3, also all the subgroups of S3 have names
yes that is the case
cool
ah ok
still tedious

I wonder if I can have Sagemath do this for me
dummit and foote is full of tedious group theory exercises lol
just cause D&F has them doesn't mean my prof had to assign them
true, but it is worth it to get your hands dirty at least a little bit.
can anyone give me an example of a Z module that is neither free, nor finitely generated, nor a direct product or sum of a finitely generated Z-module with a free Z-module?
Q
@thorn delta thank you! I understand that Q is not free and not finitely generated, but how do i show that it is also not a direct product or sum of a finitely generated Z-module with a free Z-module?
oh uhh, i kind of understood you incorrectly on that part. Im not sure 
ok no worries thanks anyway!
I think I have a proof: assume that R + Z^{d}=Q as a Z module, then tensoring both sider with Q we get (R tensor Q) +(Q^{d}=Q. (Q tensor Q is just Q and Z^{d} tensor Q is just Q^{d}). So split into cases: if d=0 is impossible as then we would have R=Q which can't happen as R is finitely generated. So d>0. Now d=1 as otherwise the dimension of lhs is too big. So we must have that d=1 and R tensor Q=0. Now we have that Q=Z+R hence this now says that Q is a finitely generated Z module but we now that isn't possible, hence we are done
edited to remove the flatness argument that was unnecessary
what is R supposed to be?
some finitely generated Z module
can this be done without tensors at all?
probably yes, I'm just lazy
i haven't learnt what they are yet and it seems that the problem should be possible without then
oh ok
it looks like your initial assumption is that Q is the sum of a finitely generated Z module and a free module of finite rank?
d is not necessarily finite
okay okay
it can be any indexing set
Okay I have an argument without tensors: assume that Q=R+Z^{d}. let {e_i} denote the image of the standard basis of Z^{d} in Q. say d>1we know that no nonzero Z linear combination of say e_1 and e_2 can be zero in R+Z^{d} but in Q any two non zero rationals has a nonzero linear combination which is 0. hence d>1 is impossible, therefore d=1 or 0, but then Q is finitely generated which is again impossible
If you just want to show Q isn’t isomorphic to a free + finitely generated apply the structure theorem to the finitely generated part
Either the fg is free in which case Q is free, which we were assuming we know is impossible
Else Q has torsion, clearly false
nice argument
can someone explain why the purple part is true
i understand intuitvely why its true but how does it "follow from Proposition 2"
Lmfao wut
This is silly
Forget proposition 2, in general if I is an ideal of R you can look at the ideal I generates in R[x]
It’ll be equal to the polynomials where all the coefficients are in I
Then you can define a map R[x] -> (R/I)[x] which sends a polynomial a_0 + … + a_nx^n to (a_0 + I) + … + (a_n + I)x^n
The kernel is exactly the polynomials where every coefficient is in I, which is the same thing as IR[x] which is usually denoted as I[x]
Would the following be a valid start to a proof? Given two sets A and B, let X, Y be subsets of A. let f be a function A onto B. I want to prove/disprove if X is a subset of Y, then f(X) is a subset of f(Y). My thought would be a proof by contradiction. So, assume for a contradiction, X is subset of Y, then f(X) is not a subset of f(Y). This would occur when there is some element in X that maps to B, while there is no element in Y that maps to that element in B. Thus we have a contradiction?
Not a clue, but to show a contradiction, you construct an explicit counterexample.
I mean you could certainly prove this by contradiction…
But I think it’s just way easier to do it directly
Also you don’t require f to be onto, this holds for any f
Also the end of your proof is really murky. You don’t explain why this is a contradiction
Also this isn’t really true. You don’t need an explicit counterexample, you need one to show something isn’t true via counterexample. You just need to derive a contradiction to do a proof by contradiction
That is true, mb. However, I personally find it hard to be convinced by this proof at a glance as the quantifiers are not explicit (I would have to check carefully that we do not have a vacuous truth in there we've taken to be false or something)
Yeah I mean the end is just… not clear at all like
You would have to say something like “but this can’t be true since anything in X is in Y”
But yeah it’s just not written clearly
Also it says some things which don’t make sense, like an element in X that maps to B, but if you just adjust it it sorta makes sense
They’re just using the definition of f(X) not being a subset of f(Y)
The thing is, I think it is impossible to prove this general statement via contradiction
Because there clearly IS some f for which this would be true
No you can
They’re proving that X < Y implies f(X) < f(Y) via contradiction
Ah ok.
If this weren’t true you have some X < Y, and f:A -> B such that f(X) isn’t a subset of f(Y)
I work really badly with words
Also this shouldn’t be in this channel anyway, it should be in #proofs-and-logic or something
true
Thanks for the advice. I think I resort to contradiction because it feels like a very consistent method of proving things. It's a contradiction because every element of P must also be an element of Q. Thus, every element in the range of f(p) must also be in range of f(q).
Last thing
'So, assume for a contradiction, X is subset of Y, then f(X) is not a subset of f(Y)'
Surely this is not the opposite statement
noted. thank you
This is
To prove P => Q by contradiction
You start with P and not Q
Then derive a contradiction
This is not P and not Q
No
The statement is
If X < Y, then f(X) < f(Y)
Not P would be X is not a subset of Y
sorry I meant:
This isn't (P and not Q)
This sounds like (P => not Q)
No
You started with P (X < Y) and not W (f(X) is not a subset of f(Y))
From here you are able to derive the contradiction that X is not a subset of Y
Or you can contradict f(X) is not a subset of f(Y)
WTS: If X subset of Y, then f(X) subset of f(y). Proof by Contradiction: Assume for a contradiction, if X subset of Y, then f(X) not subset of f(Y). Continue until contradiction found
You really should be doing this proof via contraposition if you didn’t want to do a direct one but whatever, you can phrase that as contradiction
It won’t be if X subset of Y
That is now showing not P => not Q
You assume you have an example of sets X,Y; X < Y, but f(X) is not a subset of f(Y)
My point is the phrasing
'So, assume for a contradiction, X is subset of Y, then f(X) is not a subset of f(Y)'
as opposed to
'So, assume for a contradiction, X is subset of Y, and f(X) is not a subset of f(Y)'
Oh
These 2 are surely different things. We want the 2nd and not the 1st
sorry is this to me or @coral shale ?
I just adjusted this so that it actually is a proof by contradiction
It was at you
You’re right Shuri, if you took what was written literally the quantifiers are wrong
I just adjusted it as I read it so it would be a valid proof
I didn’t realize that’s what you were getting at, my bad
no np. I'm kinda drowning in words here. Just bad with them lol
No it’s alright, you were technically correct
The point here is what you wrote is
If X < Y, then f(X) is not a subset of f(Y)
This is P => not Q
Because you said “if”
To prove by contradiction you assume P and not Q
So it should be written, assume there exists X < Y such that f(X) is not a subset of f(Y)
So the if is the mistake?
From there you derive your contradiction
Yes
You’re now trying to prove something entirely different
Ok great. Next, you also recommended that it would be better to prove it directly?
Yes
Take something in f(X)
It’s of the form f(x) for some x in X
But X < Y so x in Y
So f(x) in f(Y)
There’s absolutely no reason to not do a direct proof
Thanks, that's far more succinct. Appreciate it
Speaking of proof by contradiction, I have a proof check question on an exercise I was working on earlier'
Would this be valid?
Basically, I was trying to argue that we know #S_n = n!, which is a finite number. But, if there's no positive k value which makes f^k = I, then there'd be infinite permutations, but that contradicts the finite permutations for S_n, since S_n is a group w.r.t. composition and f is in S_n. thus, there must exist some positive integer k such that f^k=I.
ik, but im not convinced that there would be infinitely many permutations
by this argument
We haven't introduced subgroups yet 
We've only pretty much went through the def'n of a group and permutation/diheral groups
is there a non-shit computation way to do this
or am I just stuck doing
for some x in D_8
for all g in D_8
g x g^-1
please tell me no
obviously if x and y are in the same conjugacy class then I'm done with 2 elements but like
fuuuuuuuck me
it just seems like a problem that doesn't teach me anything
You have to classify conjugacy classes of S_n that split in A_n
And that’s built on classifying them in S_n
So for n = 4 it’s just easier to compute them lol
Start by identifying the center, that will give you some conjugacy classes and also an upper bound on the size of any conjugacy class by orbit stabilizer
what are the good ways to determine if a polynomial is irreducible? I usually just use Eisenstein criterion, but it doesnt work for the polynomial I am considering
there's no way to determine it for sure using any sort of algorithm
there's a lot of techniques you can try though, it depends a lot on what ring / field you're over and the degree
For example, I am thinking x^3 - 3x^2 - 3x - 1 over Q
Rational root theorem should work
It suffices to show it doesn't have any roots in Q
because if it factored it either goes as a linear and a quadratic
or as three linears
either way it would imply the existence of a root in Q
and then yeah you can use the rational root theorem as Moldi said
if it was degree 4, once you show there's no root it could only factor as two quadratics
so you could try to set up a general system of quadratics
and just bash out all the numbers and show it won't work or something like that
i understand this proof completely other than how we know for a fact that there's 2 numbers $a,b \in H$ that multiply to $x$
ALIAS
They can be the same thing
i.e. we're saying that given any two (not necessarily distinct) elements of H, their product is also in H, but these two elements could even just be e and e (for example, in the case of the cyclic group with three elements, H is just {e})
oh, so we know there's some other solutions in H that give us e, and we know e*e = e
is that right?
We don't need any 'other' solutions besides e (in fact, for closure alone, I guess you don't even need any elements to be in H)
perhaps i'm misunderstanding you
But essentially this is just how you show closure - you need to show that if a and b are in H, then so is ab (in fact we don't even need to know that there are any such elements at all, for example we would similarly argue that the empty set is a subset of {0,2} because for all x in the empty set, x is in {0,2})
You could flip how you view this as well
The image of any group homomorphism is a subgroup, and if G is abelian then the map x -> x^2 is a group homomorphism
Since (xy)^2 = x^2y^2
This is useful because it lets you compute say, the number of squares in a finite field via the first isomorphism theorem
Good point
can someone explain the purple part
why is that a homogenous ideal
cuz isn't z^5 of deg 5 but the other terms are of degree 2
right, but z^5 is still a homogeneous element
what's bad is something like <x^2 +y>
Homogenous ideal doesnt imply that all the elements of your ideal have the same degree (this isnt possible actually, because if f in I has degree n then xf has degree n+1)
It just means that homogenous polynomials in I generate your ideal, so that we can write any f in I as the sum of f_i in I homogenous
This is the same thing as saying that the homogeneous components of elements of I are in I
"this notation is bad, I shall use this better notation" proceeds to use bad notation exclusively
That's my prof rn lol
Given a module M, is it true that every proper finite subset of the generating set of M generates a submodule of M?
any subset of M will generate a submodule of M
do you want the submodule also to be proper?
ok thank you! aren't submodules defined to be always proper?
I like the terminology 'stable'
what if your generating set has redundancies?

@rustic crown what about redundancies? isn't the generating set allowed to have redundancies
yea but in that case you won't get a proper submodule right
say M which is generated by {x, y, x+y} and the submodule generated by {x, y}
if there is at least one finite generating set then you can look at the one with minimal cardinality. that would satisfy probably what you're looking for >.<
ooooh i see what you are saying
thank you for alerting me to that
@rustic crown also is it true that any module has a generating set that is either finite or infinite?
well any set is either finite or it's infinite
the module itself
okok thank you!
hey guys for this statement
can someone explain what is the difference between (I) and (I,x)
don't they yield the same thing, namely I[x]
just the set of polynomials with coefficients in I
I[x] need not include x
like consider Z[x] and I = 2Z
(I) = I[x] will be polynomial where all coefficients are even
I haven't seen the definition I[x] before, so if you define it as what you've done above then yep
and (I, x) contains x which a polynomial having an odd coefficient
$D_{2n}$ for the transformations of a regular $n$-gon and $Gx$ for the orbit of $G$ acting on $x$
Spamakin🎷
By standard I mean across disciplines, not just when talking about groups
But G_x and Gx are easily confused when handwritten
the correct notation is x^G

g acting on x is x^g then you have (x^g)^h = x^(gh) and everything is nice 
yes, the stab stays G_x
Why can't we stab x
i can live with that
For suppose we stab x. Then we all act as the identity for x. In other words, we are x. And we would be stabbing ourselves. That would hurt!
Hi, got a quick question. We say an element r of a ring is irreducible if r is nonzero and r=ab implies "EXACTLY" one of them is a unit.
What about prime numbers? Do we say p is a prime if p | ab implies p implies p divides "exactly" one of them or is it possibility that it can divide both of them?
it can divide both
an equivalent definition to the one you gave for irreducible replaces the "exactly" by the condition that r is also not a unit
and the usual definitions i know of these terms dont use "exactly one"
the reason for this is because units can always be rewritten by multiplying with more units but that isnt useful
exactly, my definition is not the best in terms of the rigour but i thought it would fit my question better
Thanks, that's perfectly sensible. Just like with usual prime numbers
from the wikipedia page on the quotient group
is it true that it is unknown whether the normality of N is necessary to define the operation on G/N?
can't find any sources on this
Yes it is, you can talk about a quotient grouo G/N if and only if N is normal subgroup
this is true - but doesn't this only imply that the normality of N in G is sufficient to show that the operation is indeed well-defined in G/N?
There are several reasons actually, my favorite intuition behind quotient groups is the one contrsuction with equivalence classes. Check out Hungerford's algebra, Theorem 1.5 for details
Answer (1 of 4): The important, primary concept is a surjective group homomorphism, and then the concept of a normal subgroup comes out of that.
Suppose you had a surjective group homomorphism from G to H; this is the situation in which we call H a “quotient” of G.
How could we entirely summari...
Also there are some good answers
'It remains to be shown' is used here in an instructive way, not to mean 'this hasn't been shown'
They just mean they haven't yet shown it to be true in the article
for whatever reason I'm not understanding how we do the second part of this
for the first part we use eisensteins criteria, so we want a prime number that divides the non leading coefficients, namely $3$. then see that $3$ does not divide $1$ and $3^2=9$ does not divide the constant $a_0$
Dpao
For the second part, I think it involves using that given $p(\theta)=0$, we have $\mathbb{Q}(\theta)\cong \frac{Q[x]}{p(x)}$
Dpao
actually maybe we say that $p(x)$ irred. means rel. prime to $x+1$. Then use that a univariate polynomial ring over a field is a euclidean domain, so there exists polynomials $a(x),b(x)\in Q[x]$ s.t. $a(x)(x+1)+b(x)(x^3+9x+6)=1$
Dpao
is this on the right track?
yes, i think so
so a(x)(x+1)=1 mod (x^3+9x+6)
so you can reformulate your equation above to $(1+\theta)(a\theta^2+b\theta+c) = 1$
Phil
yes this
ok great
This is from Dummit & Foote. I'm having a hard time understanding how we know this P exists and is a group.
This is the proof that there's a Sylow p-subgroup of any finite group for any p dividing its order
grist bundle
What in the world is Sym^n M(U)?
Or Sym^n of a module in general
google is not being particularly helpful and ive never seen this notation
I'm having problems actually carrying this out
you can multiply it out, reduce via the given relation, and then compare coefficients to obtain a linear system of equations which you can then solve
so you using this notation, if i didnt miscalculate, you should obtain $(a+b)\theta^2 + (-9a+b+c)\theta -6a+c = 1$ which gives you the equations $a+b = 0$ and $-9a+b+c = 0$ and $-6a+c = 1$
Phil
solving for the coefficents and pluggin them back into the generic element $a\theta^2 + b\theta +c \in \mathbb{Q}(\theta)$ then gives you the desired inverse of $1+\theta$
Phil
$1/4\theta^2-1/4 \theta+5/2$
Dpao
I think another way to do it if u do it in Q[x]/p(x) like I did is divide p(x)/(x+1) with remainder to get x^2-x+10 r -4
tyty
what does this notation mean
i assume it means the set of matrices in M_n(R) multiplied on the right by E_{ij}
It’s the symmetric powers, you mod out the n-th tensor power by the relations which make it so that swapping the simple tensors does nothing. So for Sym^2 for example you want x (x) y = y (x) x, it has the universal property of factoring symmetric multi linear maps. It’s almost like the exterior powers, but those are for alternating maps. A related construction is the symmetric algebra, sometimes just called Sym M which turns M into a graded ring via taking the n-th degree to be Sym^n M. when M is a free module on a basis B, this ends up being isomorphic to A[B], a polynomial ring on B so it’s sort of a coordinate free way to express a polynomial ring.
i get how we get P now
Sylow strong.
Sylow strong.

every matrix multiplied by Eij (on right), where i varies
alright thanks
uhh
it totally makes sense
there's a finite number of elements with order 4
it's a combinatorial problem. Write the elements as disjoint products of cycles, then the order is the lcm of the lengths of cycles. Since you only have 4 elements, the only way you could get this is by being a 4-cycle, and the number of these are 4!/4 = 3! = 6
try to justify everything I said!
they commute
no
a 2 cycle has order 2
if the cycles go like
a_1...a_n
then raise it to the k
a_1^k...a_n^k
you need k to be a multiple of the order of each cycle which is just the length
so it's a multiple of them
and then cuz order is the least it's jsut lcm
anyone here really good with abstract linear algebra and can help me out with proofs
Possible smallest value of $n$ such that $S_n$ have subgroup isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_2* \mathbb{Z}_2* \mathbb{Z}_2* \mathbb{Z}_2
BLツ
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How to find?
Z2 means non identity element has order 2
you must find distinct just elements of Sn with order 2 that you can take prod with
is *, the direct product? (free product wouldn't make sense ig?)
we can definitely do it for n = 8, just slowly go down and see if smaller is possible.
I remember proving on this channel that 6 was the best possible for (Z_2)³ 
It was a bit annoying I think
was there some clever idea to show S5 doesn't have it or some type of bash?
right
8 is the largest power of 2 dividing 5!
And saketh identified some other sylow 8 subgroup which didn't look like this
Well yeah because there's an order 4 element
D4 is a subgroup of S4 which itself is a subgoroup of S5
16 would be sylow 2 subgroup of S_7 or lower
Right yes
Same trick should be applicable

Show that the order 4 element belongs to a sylow 2 subgroup
yea it shouldn't be hard to show sylow 2 for S_7 is non-abelian
it will contain D4 as a subgroup
for 8 i think i can find but for 7 why it is not tru?
like we can extend any 2-group to a sylow 2group
Ye this is the part I wasn't sure about
How do that
remember i told a proof of sylow a month ago or something?
Ye
which precisely extended by one step

or you can also directly do with group actions i think
share again 
H be that p-group, P be a sylow p group, act by H on G/P
so there should be a non-trivial fixed point h(gP) = gP for all h
which means hg in gP, so h in gPg' for all h
showing H is a subgruop of a conjugate of P
lemme search it up
.
I've seen a similar proof on conjugates
Nice
I think this type of facility not available for n<8
Or can i say that this subgroup is unique, i mean only one subgroup isomorphic to (Z_2)^4 in S_8?
nah, there are plenty like that
like replace (12) and (34) with (13) and (24)
sylow 2-subgroup of S_8 would have order 2^7 or something
so we don't get uniqueness by sylow
but we do get unique (up to iso) subgroup of order 16 in S_7
No i mean they are isomorphic to D_4, Z_8, Z_4*Z_4 and so on
(not sure i understand >.<)
we're claiming we don't have such facility in S_7, because a subgroup of order 16 will be the sylow subgroup and that can be easily seen to contain D4 so is non-abelian
Someone should make string diagrams for group theory so that we don't have to think while applying sylow
honestly willing to pay $ for someone to help me with my abstract lin alg dm me ;-;
need to get 100%
academic dishonesty is bad 

Btw how to show that D_4 is subgroup of 2SSG in S_6 and S_7
any 2-subgroup lives inside some sylow 2-subgroup
and D4 definitely lives inside S4, and so also inside any S_n for n >= 4
(as D4 acts on a square, making the 4 vertices permute in some ways)
you could also just say that sylow 2 group will contain an element of order 4
because there are elements of order 4 in your finite group
Okay but that can be Z4* Z4 how to classify that that it is D4* Z2
i'll have to think about it, idk all the groups of order 16
but it's not hard to show that it will contain D4 as a normal subgroup by above argument
maybe identify some element of order 2 outside this? (which also commutes with that copy of D4)
yea that should work
Okay i think about it
Okay thank you so much

Hey guys, I need to express the sum of powers $\sum_{n} T_1^4$ in the elementary symmetric polynomials.
Évariste Galois
However, wikipedia says that it is equal to $e_1^4 -4e_1^2e_2 + 4e_1e_3+2e_2^2-4e_2$ but for some reason I cant get the last three
Évariste Galois
hi, does anyone have any good crash course abstract algebra course, and/or help me understand this?
I used that $\sum_n T_1^4 = s_1^4-(a\sum_n T_1^3T_2 + b\sum_n T_1^2T_2^2 + c\sum_n T_1^2T_2T_3 + d\sum_n T_1T_2T_3T_4) \ with \ a = 4, b = 6,c = 12\ and \ d = 24$.
Could someone indicate as to where I might be wrong?
Évariste Galois
Then I used the fact that $\sum_n T_1^3T_2 = \sum_n T_1^2\times\sum_n T_1T_2 - 2\sum_nT_1T_2T_3$
Évariste Galois
I don't really understand what it means here by "unambiguously". Does the order matter with this notation, or is it talking about something entirely different when talking about ambiguity?
different representation for the same cycle.
so like order doesn't matter right?
Perhaps a vague question: why do we define quotient groups/rings using normal subgroups/ideals?
I can see that in both cases we have this sort of GN=NG (resp. RI = IR) 'commutativity' going on.
and we can get equivalence classes because the normal subgroup (resp. ideal) respects the group (resp. ring) operations.
but im not sure if i fully get why they're good choices for quotienting
Because they are exactly the kernels, and the first isomorphism theorem holds
Or a more elementary and maybe less satisfying answer would be that the equivalence classes of those have a natural inherited group (ring) structure
The first isomorphism theorem is what we really want in the first place. It (or a slightly more general version than the one in the sticker) is the defining property of a quotient
would you even have a group if you quotientet by a non-normal subgroup`?
ye operation no well defined 
The not well defined one is good but I find it slightly less satisfying because then it feels like maybe there is some other operation that makes it work 
ye right
very insightful, thanks guys
also love the fact that i didnt realise its a sticker until you mentioned it xd
It’s the best sticker
That’s the 2nd best 
All groups are abelian so I can just quotient by any subgroup I want
so just extending the same idea:
for a homomorphism between two vector spaces V -> W over a field:
- the kernel is a subspace of V
- theres a canonical way to realise any subspace as a kernel of some homomorphism
✓
It should not be legal to ask this kind of question when you've read most of hatcher 
Toki minmaxing
all groups are abelian anyway
Is this some high iq joke that that I don't understand or a dumb one?
I ask because this was said here 5 mins ago 
it's not a joke, it's a fact
aren't all rings commutative anyway 
all commutative rings are commutative
you can never make me say non-commutative rings are nice
matrix rings
no
Matrix rings are swag AF
Representation over a non-commutative ring 
(modules over non-commutative rings are not nice)
In what sense
They form an Abelian category
You have Freyd Mitchell only if you allow modules over non comm rings
And you can't do so much of homie alg if you don't assume Freyd Mitchell
You can but it is bad
Because you can't take elements
You have to do all that members stupidity
You can't do localisations as cleanly I guess
And like anything in commutative algebra lmao
But is abelian category not nice enough

Nope
bruh
I’ve changed my mind
Have you never heard of chain homotopies
no
They are the basis for homological algebra and algebraic topology 
And form non commutative diagrams
Damn if you don't like non commutative then wait till you hear about non associative

It's all a Lie
in ecstasy?
no 'no associative'
we'll need Lie in this sem
F
idk I might change my mind later
Non-closed algebras when
Closed algebra is when you have addition, multiplication, and exponentiation
This is a category theory joke 
Category theory.... more like set theory...
Anyway chat, say you’ve got a non-commutative ring, do the commutative elements form a sub ring?
Been thinking about this one for about 20 seconds
I guess you could describe it as the centre of whatever monoid the elements form under multiplication
Niceee
btw is there a adjoint functor of the forgetful functor of R-mod to abelian groups?
should be tensoring with R
i.e. given an abelian group, what is the most general construction of R module over that group?
its even a monadic adjunction 
Let G be a primitive permutation p-group. How does one show that G must be Z_p acting on p elements?
I have read a little about how one can consider the stabilizer H of a point and if there is a subgroup K (not equal to G) strictly containing H, then G must be imprimitive. This implies that if |G| = p^n, |H| = p^{n-1}. From here I can deduce that the action is on p elements and I can intuitively see in this case that now the stabilizer H must in fact fix all elements, but I don't see it formally.
Ultramothematics
I just realized that deleting that msg means chmonkey probably cant tell that he wasp inged by me specifically now
lol
@next obsidian Ok ill do it directly in case u go looking thru ur inbox for mentions
Yeah
I know

I have to show that the if the original module of sheaves is locally free than so is the symmetric power and its so bad because there slike two layers of sheafification going on
Fucked up
No no no it’s fine
The question is local so I’m pretty sure it should follow from the fact that if M is free so is Sym^n M
At the very least, over a Noetherian base you can test for freeness on stalks so it suffices to look at the presheaf
But I don’t think you even need that
Yeah thats what i was doing
I know its easy if everything is Noetherian because then you're taking Sym^n of free objects
so then thats free
That one is simple tho you just grab bases
Ultramothematics
It doesnt say that
Just assume it
If you ever need it for infinite rank just figure that out some other time
Infinite rank free stuff are way less important
I need this for like exterior power things i think or some shit
like sheaves of differentials
And Sym on them are kind of weirdchamp
at least in this book
Yeah those are all finite rank tho
Like thinking about it
I’m pretty sure M ≈ Sym^n M
If M is infinite rank
They should both be free of the same cardinality
Thats horrific
I mean it comes to down bases things
Like if {x_i} was a basis if you fix an ordering
You get a basis of the form of all of the like n-fold products of them
But because of symmetry you can order it
So you just assert that the indices increase
If the x_i draw from an infinite set I
You have at least I many
By just putting x_i n times
And then the number is a subset of I^n
So it should still be the same size as I
Does that make sense?
Idk if you’ve ever seen the symmetric powers in a diff geo context
But if you’ve seen the exterior power
You saw it for vector spaces and from a basis you combinatorially create a basis for the exterior powers
By like ordering it in increasing, but also that each index is strictly increasing
The story is the same for free modules
I think i see
Wait
Uh
Sym^n should be identifiable with like degree n homogeneous polynomials in A(U) over I
right
Exactly yeah
or is it degree n-1
Degree n
I mtrying to think bc Sym^1 is just A(U) again right
This is why the symmetric algebra is actually a polynomial ring
Nah
That’s Sym^0
Mod out by the relation that lets you swap stuff
Ok sorry
I think i was confusing by indexing with I over M and over A(U) because like free stuff
blah
Lol
But yeah, this should tell you Sym^n M ≈ M
For infinite rank M
I don’t think it’s natural tho lol
Good because there is nothing natural about this :catscream:
Omg no nitro
ok whatever
peter
Peter rabbit
anyway the basis is like {x^n | x in I} right
Not quite
and also 1
Because you can swap stuff
You fix an ordering of I
And enforce that the indices have to go up
So like if your basis was
x_1,x_2,x_3
A basis would be
x_1 (x) x_2, x_1 (x) x_3, x_2 (x) x_3
For Sym^2
is x1, x2, x3 supposed to be I
Oh ok i was thinking about this wrong ugh
Each of these correspond to monomials
If you just multiplies them
If you think of x1,x2,x3
as indeterminate
These are the 3 degree 2 monomials
So its like degree n homogeneous polynomials over A(U) in |I| variables?
Yeah
Ok
But that’s why you say the indices increase
If you’re writing it as like tensors
Since x_1 (x) x_2 = x_2 (x) x_1
In the polynomial way of thinking
It’s just saying that x_1x_2 = x_2x_1
Since your indeterminates commute
mhm
I guess thinking of it this way
T^n M
The n-th tensor power
Is like the degree n homogeneous polynomials in the non-commuting polynomial ring thing
I forgot, there’s a cooler name for it but
Where you do the same shit as usual except the indeterminates don’t commute
ya
and quotienting out by S_n is more or less forcing it to commute
That’s exactly what it is yeah
And I guess a neat thing here is like
Transpositions generate S_n
So we could also just like assert that they commute pairwise
And after stringing those everything commutes
Just an idea that popped into my head
ok so the basis is like
simple n-tensors of indeterminants, and theres one indeterminant for each I
Yeah
Got it!
I wouldn’t say indeterminates tho
They’re just basis elements of M
But also you need to remember that you fix an ordering of I
And say that they have to weakly increase
Otherwise you end up with a basis for the tensor powers
Here’s it symbolically
If {x_i}_i in I is a basis, fix an ordering of I
Ya
IIRC the exterior powers
Has the same basis
Except you need strongly increasing
Since if there’s a repeat the thing is 0
For Sym
I think it’s like
If r is the rank, n is well, n
I think it’s like
r+n-1C n-1
Or something like that
ok anyway the important part is that the Sym^n M(U) are all free over A(U) of the same rank 
yeah
Yup
Plus like
The bases all line up
Since once you assume M is free
As a sheaf
Any basis of M over U pushes down to a basis over all the opens even lower
Like if B is a basis over U, then B_V is a basis over V

Plus Sym^n is a functor
So given a map of sheaves
You can define a map on Sym^n of the sheaves
It suffices to define it on presheaves
And the functorial nature of everything just means everything lines up
Ok thats pretty neat



