#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 666 of 407
what's a good introductory book on representation theory
ok
so this is would be the case for the polynomial ring being a direct product
but when expressed as a direct sum (1,0,…) is the identity
since |Imφ|·|Kerφ| = |G|, then |φ(a)| divides
|a|. Why can you not make this leap? Can you guys help me out with this problem?
so I still think A[x] is isomorphic to bigoplus_infty A as A-algebras
take an example
i know that if |g| is finite then |phi(g)| divides |g|
Do you mean as A modules? There is no direct sum for algebras
do i just show that phi(e)=e?
ive been told this already );
Ah sorry i didn’t see that this was part of an old conversation lol
there exists sets with structure of infinite direct sum of rings
we just give different multiplication structure
Like I understand in general for an A-algebra M, infinite direct sum of M isn’t necessarily an A-algebra
but is it possible to give inf direct sum a multiplication that allows it to be an A-algebra
because in case of A[x] as A-algebra
Yes, polynomial multiplication
the multiplication is weird
Yep the same will work for any A algebra
So is A[x] isomorphic to infty sum A, but with polynomial multiplication?
It isn’t really a well defined question unless you are asking about modules, in that case yes
And then you can define an algebra structure by transporting the multiplication over
im trying to show A[x] flat A-algebra by showing each copy is flat
Lul that won’t work out in this manner
can anyone help with my question?
maybe atiyah macdonald has a typo im wondering
have you worked with matrix rings?
does an element of an algebraic structure being its own inverse imply that it commutes with itself
where's a wild moldi when you need one 
no our professor havent taught us that yet
You’re better off just showing it is flat directly
The question is correct
the hint is the method i was approaching it at
it says use previous problem
but only works if polynomial is A mod
referring specifically to the dihedral group here
Everything always commutes with itself.
for my question, do I have to show that phi(e) = e so that it |phi(g)| divides n?
as in, without checking every pair 
also using A[x] tensor B iso B[x] is sorta cheating
Right, actually forget what i said about not using the direct sum and showing it directly, it can be done both ways in fact
Have you proven that tensor commutes with direct sum?
yea
i was gonna do that approach
but im being told as A algebra A[x] is not infty direct sum
im sort of convinced it is though
And this is all you need for flatness
flat as A module implies flat as A algebra?
By definition
flat as A algebra just means tensor preserves A algebra exact sequence?
No
@tribal moss 👉 👈 only pinging bc ive been thinking abt it on and off all day and i got nothing
It has to preserve A module exact sequences
wait wtf
Exactness doesn’t really make sense for A algebras
Exactness is all about module structure
eg kernels are not A algebras because they aren’t rings
what do kernels have to do with anything
How can you state exactness as algebras
If the kernels aren’t objects in the category
This is why exact sequences of rings don’t make sense
Exact is kernel=image
N->N’ injective implies N tensor R-> N’ tensor R injective?
Not in general
im asking wouldnt this be a definition for exactness of A-algebra R
Yes that works
Or flatness I guess
I think you looked at them too much
but ig kernels not rings for same reason kernels not rings for rings
ngl i might be sleepy
Just send a linky
.
wait wow

i know, kinda cringe
is there a name for condition of kernels and cokernels being objects in a category?
This problem looks like you’re realizing the dihedral group as a subset of matrices
Probably via a group action
pretty much yeah
do i have to check all the pairs of elements of the dihedral group for commutativity or is there a more efficient way
That’s how I would do it
you might want to look up the definition of an abelian/additive category
I think you might be able to do some whacky shit like uhhh
I think things in the same conjugacy class
Should have the same number of things which commute
Namely if like uh
g = fhf^-1
so weird that modules have this property but algebras dont
or maybe not
Is either like fSf^-1 where S is the stuff h commutes with
maybe ring structures are meant to be unpleasant always
FUCK we havent technically learned that
Just prove it omegalol
i might have to just take the L and do it all manually 
Anyway this lets you pick one thing from each conjugacy class
prof is a cock
Monka
making extensive use of my 4 hour grace period 
Yeah I’d just bash it out
but thank you chmonk
Sometimes you just have to
Do some shit
Rather than try to make that shit easier
most of this homework is shit

prof took a point off my last hw for not explicitly stating my claim
so im being obnoxiously rigorous in absolutely everything
thatll show em
does the fact that every element of D_8 commute with itself need justification?
and with the identity
D_8 is not commutative, wym?
yes
im doing the last part of this
like can i just say that if f = g in D_8, the statement is trivially true
as well as if f = identity or g = identity
oh lol, yes
or is it worth actually writing out
yeah imm gonna show the ^2 and ^3 cases
so your question was whether $f\cdot f = f\cdot f$ or not \catthink
Just prove it in any group lol
It’s as easy as
g•g = g•g
g•e = g = e•g
Ok there you go
fair enough 
If H is a subgroup of the dihedral group D_4, and H has the elements {r0,r180,(x-reflection), (y-reflection)}, to prove it's not cyclic, I just need to check that each element of H does not have order 4, right?
So, I guess that begs the question: If I have a subgroup with n elements, to prove it's not cyclic, each element has to not have order n?
yes
what if the group is Z
if an element has order n then it generates a subgroup of order n
nvm you said it has n elements
Would the converse be true? If a subgroup has n elements and at least one element has order n, it's cyclic?
yes
Hmm, seems like a good exercise to prove
This proves both directions
"subgroup of order n" refers to the subgroup's n-elements, right?
yes
can you walk me through this if you can
i actually dont know
so we setting G to s4?
what does S4 even look like
S4 looks like S4
S4 is the group of permutations on a set of 4 elements
thats like 16 things in it right?
!
just trying to make sure if im seeing it right
Oop

It should have 4!=24 elements as ryu said
here, does rho^3 commute with any element that has a tau in it??
i wouldve guessed that rho^3 would commute with rho tau but i dont think it does? unless im dense which is possible
no
otherwise rho^3 will lie in Z(D4)
yea i just expected cuz rho^2 commutes w tau and rho^2tau it might also commute but ig not
those do commute right
this was such a bitch to type 
@next obsidian can u double check this is all of em please
❤️ im like 99% sure it is
why not use generator relation 
.
im being this obnoxious semi-on purpose
has nothing to do with generator relation
also WTF
i wish i was kidding

ignore the fact that i messed something else up 
i asked him to double check and it was that the claim was missing
even though it was literally in the fucking question
does that look like all pairs tho 
Fuck no
I do not want to bash through all that computation

understandable, have a good night mr chmonk
Lmao I would say the same thing I'm sorry
The current time for nitezba is 03:03 AM (EST) on Thu, 10/02/2022.
Like at some point you just gotta accept that you've done your best and leave it up to the prof to either be a good boy or an asshole 😌
i am happy with my decisions i am happy with my decisions i am happy with my decisions
That's the spirit
Report the professor for causing you undue psychological damage
id have to report most of my math department

starting with my analysis prof for not teaching me any topology 
Is there a nice criterion for when permutations commute?
You could try to find one then embed D_8 into S_4
But idk if that helps as much as it might make computation easier to do using a computer
at this point ive turned my brain off and am bashing through computation
I was thinking something something cycles
But I think I only know like sufficient conditions
Not necessary ones
Yeah bht like
Or disjoint cycles
Decompose into disjoint cycles first
Hopefully they don't interfere to make shit commute when it shouldn't 
Yeah I guess it is your problem
Peace
At worst you get like
Product of two products of 2 cycles
Rip
Sussy butt baka
Okay this is so fake tho
Like
It isn’t just about disjointneas
Yes
Cuz anything commutes with itself
Did you see this 
Okay I am 
Good night chm
Lol
Okay I am gonna use my chmonkey sense rn
Either
This problem is solved in full generality
Or it’s insanely hard
And still open

Like no way ppl haven’t asked this question a million times
I feel like the people who have asked this question are profs giving this problem to ug first years before they've defined a group
Who else cares 
Group theory apparently
But they haven’t defined a group?
before you sully me ik this is an ugly way of writing it
But they are working with "algebras"
I KNOw
algebraic structure
A MAGMA?
Structure without relations
at this point literally just say magma
do i need to do subset both ways to prove that G_2 = A where A is the desired set
Are they literally dealing with magmas???
A magma is an example
or can i just say it must be the smallest bc of the generating set
A set is an example
Wtf hahahaha
wait a set??
A set with 5 operations and 2 constants is an example
This course is dick ass poopy butt
guys please i know
Lol it’s doing it in a universal algebra way
it's horsecock
Maybe you signed up for universal algebra
pigshit, if you will
Not abstract algebra
Universal algebra is slightly more specific
it only has one binary operation so it's a magma
i'll send my syllabus later lol
In this case yeah
"By definition the subgroup generated by a set is the smallest subgroup that contains that set"
is this enough proof that it must be the smallest
You want us to read that? 

so, h is of order 4 and g is of order 2?
Will be a lot more readable
Yeah frfrfrfr
oh wait yeah that's trivial
I even do that with maps when there’s too many
Like
Clearly fg = st or some shit
Ain’t nobody got time for •
Based
fair
For f then g…
would parentheses be acceptable to you sir moldi
Haven't done that in an assignment yet because I don't want TAs to cry 
Parantheses for an associative operation?
I read cycles left to right

Because it’s what I did first
You can say
sure
you could do powers
It’ll make it a little less
Cycles should be read in the same order as functions
hngh
also I don't think g and h commute
h^4n^3g^3h^3
Maybe you should say that you are omitting ∘ intentionally
They totally do
I would not take any chances with this prof
fair
I think
so
im doing this merci
ANYWAYS
"By definition the subgroup generated by a set is the smallest subgroup that contains that set" does this suffice as proof
im at my limit so i wanna say yes
and like it makes sense
actually fuck it
prove the definition
this is correct 


i(-b-ai) = a-bi
g(i(a+bi)) = g(-b+ai) = -a+bi
they commute up to sign
oh i dont have to do pairs of commuting elements for this thank god
so they're not commutative
me when applied
g has order 2
h has order 4
fuck this shit

moldi and chmonkey and ryu i love you thank you mucho for shitting on my prof
Any time bro 
Would this be a valid argument, or would I have to do some sort of induction?
This is fine but you should also show that the identity is in the intersection
It's not implied by those 2 statements
Oh, I used a theorem from a book that says if H is a nonempty subset of G, then H is a subgroup if (i) and (ii)
How come I still need to prove the identity is in there?
Then prove that the intersection is non empty
what is a good reference for learning koszul complex
I liked the exposition in Serre’s Local Algebra
ok i'll check it
on the context of commutative algebra, I don't know if that matters but, how can I show that A/<x> ~= A/ Ann(x), where A is a ring?
It appears on Atiyah's book solution from exercise 3.16 about flat algebras
I don’t this this is true?
ops
You should have that <x> ≈ A/Ann(x)
You have a surjevtion given by multiplying x
it was bugging me a lot
And the kernel is exactly the annihilator
yeah, that seems trivial now, thanks!

I don’t quite see why we can say that there is x_i in a such that xi not in pj for all j =/= i
Seems like a strong condition and I don’t quite see how it follows from the induction
Oh wait I see nvm
I misunderstood what the induction was trying to do
Proofs in Atiyah-MacDonald can be quite succinct, perhaps a little too much so as a first book in commutative algebra.
So can somebody tell me how noether's normalisation theorem is like non-trivial?
Like it feels really intuitive that if $k[x_1,\ldots,x_n]$ is a finitely generated entire ring and $x_1,\ldots,x_n$ are algebraically dependent, we can just "take out" the elements which make it algebraically dependent and be left with r elements s.t. $k[x_1,\ldots, x_n]$ is integral over $k[y_1,\ldots,y_r]$
dadaurs
I feel like i'm missing something in the proof because the whole point of the proof is just constructing the right polynomials if x1,...,x_n are still alg. dependent
"we can just take out the elements which make it dependent" is awfully vague and it can fail
for example if R = Z[2x, x]
and you decide to discard x instead of 2x
then R is not integral over Z[2x]
or if R = Z[2x,3x] then you have to be smart and find x inside it
ah right that's what i was failing to understand completely about the proof
thanks for the response
Hello, how to count ring homomorphism from $\mathbb{Z}_m \cross \mathbb{Z}_n \to \mathbb{Z}_p \cross \mathbb{Z}_q$
BLツ
wait $\mathbb{z}$
whatt
Hahaha
🙈
i.e. total number of ring homomorphism
you can count individually if you know how to count from Zm -> Zp
find possible values of f(1) like this but it could be hard some time
does anyone get why this chain is true
idk like why that's true unless ima missing smth obvious
that's true for any ideal
Isn't this always true for an ideal? Like if
I^2 = {i_1j_1+...+i_nj_n: i_i,j_i\in I}
Then clearly this is a subset of I, and you can keep going
since I is closed under multiplication by elements in R and I is in R
I^2 is a linear combination of elements of the form i*j for i,j in I, so their product, not sum
right yea
If $G$ is a finite group and $H$ is a proper subgroup of $G$ such that the cosets $g_iH$ form a partition of $G$, is the map that sends $g_i\to g_j$, $g_j\to g_i$, $g_i^{-1}\to g_j^{-1}$, and $g_j^{-1}\to g_i^{-1}$, where $g_i\neq g_j$ and $g_i,g_j\neq 1$, and leaves the other elements fixed an automorphism?
Croqueta
and you define the map to be an homomorphism (may not be well defined, but that's kinda what I'm asking)
Cosets always form a partition, in which case you need to choose representatives, and depending on your group and the representatives you choose this may not be well-defined
Say if g_i, g_j have coprime orders
This cannot be a homomorphism because the order of the image must divide the order of the original element
Simply because if g is an element of order n, f a homomorphism them
f(g)^n=f(g^n)=f(1)=1
So that
o(f(g))|n
If it's injective then yes, because you can go the other way too, since if f(g)^k=1 then g^k=1
Under what conditions is this a well defined automorphism? (if possible). What if g_i and g_j had the same order or if all elements in G had the same order?
Count how many from Z_m to Z_p, from Z_m to Z_q, from Z_n to Z_p and Z_n to Z_q, and multiply all 4 of these numbers
This is because maps out of a product of 2 abelian groups are in bijection with pairs of maps out of each group and maps into a product are in bijection with pairs of maps into each group
Question: is this question trying to tell me any field homomorphism is 1 to 1?
Yes
Hmm, okay. Then how might I go about that?
Umm, the only one that actually sticks out is 0. I'm not sure what possible values you are looking for.
Think of properties of kernels in general
Lol ok idk how to phrase this without it seeming like a trick question
But ||kernels are always ideals||
Ideally you want to think about some subsets
Oh and don't fields only have the two trivial ideals?
🙈
lol
Ah,that's because if you take any x in I, then x x^-1=1 is in I, which generates the full field
Anyways kernels in field maps are 0 or everything
Ah, and the kernel is an ideal, because if you take any x in I and r if F, then p(xr)=p(x)p(r)=0 since it's a homomorphism
Ideals are defined so that they are exactly the kernels of ring homomorphisms 😌
funny how that works
Okay, final question, why can't phi just be the 0 map then?
1 has to map to 1
oh duh
what is this
ive probably fallen for a trap
but i at least understand the induction sticker
It's called the first isomorphism theorem
You'll probably see it in your group theory course
it's an abstract algebra class 
You'll probably see it in your abstract algebra class if your prof actually gets to abstract algebra 
The theorem is true for sets, groups, rings, modules and many other algebraic structures (all universal algebras)
It's a theorem about quotients
And a generalisation of it is the definition of a quotient in more general contexts
Yes that's it
first iso theorem is beginning of week 9
everything to do with it
then week 13 is first iso theorem for rings??
Nice
@hidden haven curious, whats your level of study/work/whtver rn?
MSc first year
eh?
oh it's cuz we're not gonna talk about rings until then...
In math ofc

right ok (I should know this)
Lol
well ok
damn wth, you know so much more than me
oh i see oops idk wut i was thinking

what would a normal abstract algebra class be doing rn
im gonna have some time this weekend to self study 
First isomorphism theorem for groups 
Normal classes would do general algebraic structures after they've handled specific cases
europe much 
Really get to know homomorphism and normal subgroup stuff I would say?
which then leads to quotient groups
India 
if you can
He hasn't even been taught what a group is yet I think 
lol wut
i know what a group is tho
Oh nice I see
Theres a long road ahead then ig
It's a weird course
how do you internalise stuff you learn? Lots of problems sheets?
reteaching it
Examples and counter-examples.
"lecturing" to myself too
ye tbh same that's the best thing to do
that is a good way also but i dont think i have the chance to do that
i like to just go to classrooms and pretend im giving really chaotic lectures
I feel like I'm learning slowly =.....=
what's the plato quote
I had not read a single book outside of my course work till 1 year ago
Then I read cat theory
And I can learn so much faster
It's really good
Every day I come here
Just to talk about how good cat theory is

I don't have a chance to take it any more... what's a good book? 🤔
Mac lane and Riehl are both standard
Riehl is newer and more examples and easier to read
but has less content
I'll probably go for that then. ty
youre saying learning cat theory will boost other math learning?
Yes but you shouldn't learn it right now
You'll drown if you do cat before learning groups 😂
im just gonna keep this in mind for now yeah
learning category theory before doing any AT or anything like that is so broke
and im gonna bother yall this weekend
i will make something out of this fucking class
one way or another
Nice, I'll make sure to stay offline for the next 3 days 😌
.
lmao
im fighting for my life as it is 
This may be more of an english question than a math one, I don't know. Why are algebraic structures with some generating set called "free" (example: "free groups")?
i think its because you can basically generate "anyting" that is made up of those terms, so its the "freest" it could be
idk this is how i think about it
makes sense
I was thinking maybe that it made reference to the generating set itself, because when you construct the, say free group, at first you are just given a set with no algebraic context, and maybe you would call it "free"
Wolfram says this
But I don't know what it exactly means tbh
Have you seen group presentations before?
I know what they are, but no
Free groups give the simplest presentations or something
its like a generator set
like generators in NT
generators are just the generator set of $\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$
JustKeepRunning
Yeah
Like Z_10 for example is not free because it has the presentation <x, x^10=1>
But if we remove that restriction of x^10 being one and have all powers of x being unique elements, then you get the free group on a single generator
Yeah you get it exactly
Free groups can also be characterized as the set of words you can make out of an alphabet of symbols, with the group axioms applied to them
yes, but in the case of groups you need to define an equivalence relation between the words, no?
Only as it concerns powers and inverses if we're talking about free groups
In the case of monoids is way simpler I suppose
But are the words tuples?
or nah
it seems a little bit weird to me having some random objects like a,b,c and writing abc. Idk
I guess is fine
Thanks to both
can we use lagranges theorem on subgroups of subgroups?
sure why not
ye
Can I use that idea here?
im not sure what the numerator of the lagrange would be in this case
the order of any subgroup in the intersection must divide both the order of H and the order of K as it is a subgroup of both by definition of intersection
and thus must divide the gcd
mm hmm
I think G is needed so the intersection is another subgroup, rather than just a set
so true...
I wanna show the free product of two nontrivial groups A and B has trivial center.
I was thinking if I just took w\in A*B that is reduced it's first letter should be in either A or B (without loss of generality say in B). So w=b_ r w_1 ... w_k for some reduced word b_r from B (assume w is reduced).
Then if I take a\in A nontrivial
Reduce(aw)=ab_r w_1...w_k since a and b_r does not reduce as they are from different groups.
Likewise
reduce(wa)=b_r ... That is it's first letter should be b_r since non of the letters from a could reduce letters from b_r as they are from different groups. Then as the first letters of both are distinct the two strings are not the same.
Hence any element of the free group is not in the center since it would have to commute with every word of A*B.
Am I missing anything?
I feel like your explanation for reduce(wa) could be trimmed down a bit but otherwise that seems right
and the identity is still in the centre, so I wouldn't say "any element is not in the centre"
just that the centre is trivial
Thank you so much :)
actually no on re-reading it your explanation for reduce(wa) is perfect
drop the "the" in front of |H \cap K| it's ... clunky
otherwise yeah that's fine
are you allowed to assume that the intersection of two subgroups is another subgroup btw?
just realised you might not have proven that yet
umm
i mean
its an intersection
so its in both
how would i go about proving its a subgroup then?
lagrange's theorem only applies to subgroups, H \cap K is only guaranteed to be a set
prove it's closed has all da inverses, and the identity
how would i do that lol there is no operator
if a and b are in H and K, is ab in H? is ab in K?
yeah it is
yeah joyes is correct 
if and a and b are in both, then their products must be in both
because both are closed
so its in the intersection
very similar for inverses
if a is in both H and K, then we know that a^-1 is in H and a^-1 is in K by definition of a subgroup
thus a^-1 is in the intersection
it follows very nicely from the definition
its a common thing thats done as u learn more algebraic structures
for closure ab has to be in H because H is a group right?
ye
Hmm, I could use some help on this one.
probably show that any square must be > 0, then 1 is > 0 so -1 isnt
a^2 = (-a)^2 so any nonzero square is > 0
damn writing all the the theorems and corollarys on a piece of paper before doing the hw has been so helpful \
its like a toolbox lol
black box the theorems 
lol
seems 2 work 
until you need to use part of the proof that appears half way in a different proof 
fake liberal media
If A is a finitely generated ideal, and suppose S is a possibly infinite set that generated A, can you always find a finite subset of S that generates A?
Each of the finitely many generators is a linear combination of finitely many elements of S
Why is guaranteed that the linear combination is finite?
Did I just make a linear algebra mistake
There are no infinite linear combinations in algebra lol
You need some metric for that to work
Or topology
Sorry I mean why is a generator necessarily a linear combination of finitely many elements of S
Because the ideal generated by S is exactly the set of linear combinations of S
…………………………..
A is finitely generated, it's by definition

^_^
celeste is a trash game!!
baby rage baby rage cope seethe harder analysispilled tradbased copepilled seether, reddit chungus unwholesome downvoted reported anhilated police, fire department, coast guard, ambulance services, US military, Sudan Millitary, Croatian government have been contacted and your IP is being traced right now.
mad cause bad
add that in somewhere

there's something about the field of algebra over the field of analysis that just attracts the most chaotic behaviour
it's remarkable
Is there a simple relationship between the fundamental group of A in X and the fundamental group of A^c?
That seems not very plausible
Hmm okay :(
i forgot i have to grade homeworks by tonight
Wait by A in X do you mean relative homotopy group
3rd year of undergrad 
please i cant take it anymore im at my limit
simply reverse the arrows and approach your colimit
Yooo

@/mniip

Last time I jokingly said honourables can't be banned in #cats
Mniip showed up instantly
dear god what has he become
And I had never seen him there before that
moldi I have a... question

what should I do in this situation
I'm in chill
Be more chill
I would be perfectly fine with committing that affront to nature
permastudy 
a hot take
doing my best to keep it on till the semester ends but my shitposting instinct gets the better of me
I will post that in chill though
I believe in the dream
✓
stats 
some of the most mindnumbing lectures ive ever had to sit through, and i had to go through fucking rigorous algorithms class
poor jan
he's like the only person in this server who knows advanced stats stuff (that I've met)
Prove that the group of rational numbers Q under addition has no finite
index subgroup other than Q itself. Can you guys help me with this
So its asking me to show that there are no finite cosets that exist right?
not that there arent finite cosets, its that there isnt a group which has a finite number of cosets
have an infinite number of cosets if thats what you mean yes
To reiterate the question its asking me show Q under addition that the subgroups have infinite number of cosets except Q itself?
yes
well thats the problem now isnt it
hmmm perhaps you can pass to the quotient since Q is abelian so every subgroup is normal?
Since H is a normal subgroup of G then G/H?
G/H means all the elements in G but not in H right?
we just covered it so im kinda new to it
yea so cosets form a group
if youve seen modular arithmetic, thats the main example to keep in mind
so all the cosets of H form the quotient group
so lets say |G/H| = n, then any element of Q can be written as an element of G divided by n (consider the image of the number in G/H)
yes
ok so I think you can use this to show every element of Q must be an element of G: consider a in Q, a/n is in Q which implies that n*(a/n) is in G which means a is in G
yea thats a very weird proof if you arent yet used to the ideas
So that is the proof?
yea
I mean if its hw, dont write that esp cuz this skips like 3 steps
how does this show that Q under addition has infinite index subgroup other than Q itself?
and then do this
so G is the group made up of elements of Q and H is a subgroup of G right?
So G is the subgroup of Q
yes
okay lemme try to put this all together
Let G be the subgroup of Q then [Q:G] = n then Assume a is in Q, a/n is an element of Q such that n*(a/n) is in G this implying a is in G
is this correct?
yes
okay so this is the correct answer
gotcha
but im kinda confused on the question
Prove that the group of rational numbers Qunder addition has no finite
index subgroup other than Qitself.
so this answer shows that G is the only group that is finite
its time to read the textbook bro
we started with the assumption G was a subgroup of finite index and showed G=Q, that proves the question
why is the red part true
like why do we have to show the jacobson radical is equal to R
i thought we just had to show it was equal to a nilpotent ideal.
If J = R then in particular, 1 is in J so I^n = 0 @prisma shuttle
oh i see
J is not the Jacobson radical
wait but is it necessary
oh shoot
You want to show it’s equal to R
wait then what is J
Bro
oh i didn't see you misunderstood that
does it have like a special name
oh shoot bruh i got confused
its a special case of something called an "ideal quotient" but i don't think the specifics are super important here
ok thx so much
wait also one more question
do u get why we have that $J'=J+Rx$ for some $x\in R$ as they claim
JustKeepRunning
If it wasn’t
Then you could find something even more minimal
If you required two generators besides J you could just omit one
is it true that every abelian p-group of order p is cyclic?
every group of order a prime p is cyclic 
thanks
for part b i said <a> intersect <b> will have the size of 2 iff p=q is this correct?
since p and q are the same then a^p and b^q will generate the same group and both have trivial group right?
i don't think so. <a> intersect <b> is a subgroup of <a> (and of <b> too), so its size has to divide the size of <a>, and |<a>| is a prime so...
ohh okay
if n > 1 then that extension has order p, not p-1
if n = 1 then that's just Q(zeta_p) / Q which does have order p-1
but for n > 1 and you have something like Q(zeta_(p^2)) / Q(zeta_p) , that extension has degree p
and has galois group Z/pZ
(i use zeta_n to denote a primitive nth root of unity)
since |<a>| is prime and by lagrange |<a>| / |<a> intersect <b> then that means |<a>| can be divided by itself or 1 right?
I thought [Q(zeta_p):Q] = p
and the min poly is x^p-1
it's a Galois extension so shouldn't [Q(zeta_p):Q]=|Gal(Q(zeta_p)/Q)|?
but then I did prove that it is isomorphic to (Z/pZ)*
which has order p-1
this is correct
for n > 1, you do get size p though
yes the min poly would be x^p-zeta^p
yeah the possible sizes of <a> intersect <b> are 1 and p
yeah
i thought when you said 2, you meant that the size of the intersection is 2, not that there were 2 possible sizes
ty
I was proving Gal(Q(/zeta_p^n)/Q) is cyclic for p odd prime and n<=3
Now that I'm done proving it I think it might be true for all n
since Gal(Q(/zeta_p^n)/Q((/zeta_p^n)^(p^n-1))) should be cyclic generated by \phi(/zeta)=/zeta^2 if (2,p)=1
yes it is true for all n
oh wait why didn't I just let this \phi generates the whole Gal(Q(/zeta)/Q)
why did I go through this tortuous argument of first modding by (Z/pZ)* lmao
For any element a in G, where G is a group, and H is a subgroup of G, we define aHa^(-1) = {axa^-1 : x in H}. Prove that, for any a in G, aHa^(-1) is a subgroup of G, and that aHa^(-1) is an isomorphism with H.
I need some help
if anyone could
super lost
prove ah_1a^(-1)(ah_2a^(-1))^(-1) is in H
notice that the inverse of axa^(-1) is just ax^(-1)a^(-1)
take two elements, axa^-1 and aya^-1, and multiply them
see what you get
i started off saying "let x,y be in aHa^-1. then, x,y is in H. So, axa^-1 and aya^-1 is in aHa^-1"
don't i introduce xy in H?
you don't care about H, you're trying to prove aHa^{-1} is a subgroup
you already know H is a subgroup
oh okay
I take it back, I don't think that statement is true at all
you know every element in aHa^(-1) is of the form aha^(-1) for some h in H
so just take axa^(-1) and aya^(-1)
then check their product and inverses are in aHa^(-1)
okay, lemme try that
incidentally this turned out to be the right thing to do because
there exists p for which 2 is not a primitive root
I am now less upset
for the product, i now have axya^-1
remember H is a subgroup
mhm
where is xy in
so what can you say about xy
xy is in H,and also in aHa^-1?
so it's closed under operation
now we try closure under inverses
since H is a subgroup of G, x^-1 is in H as well
hint: ||the inverse of (axa^-1)^-1 is ax^-1a^-1, think about why||
isn't it from what i stated?
we do not give a damn about H
stop looking at elements of H, look at elements of aHa^-1
while it is true x^-1 is in H, this comes at the end of your proof
oh okay
it's more like (axa^-1)^-1 = ax^-1a^-1, therefore because x^-1 is in H as H is a subgroup, (axa^-1)^-1 is in aHa^-1
you can't just write the middle part
oh, i was starting off from the middle
not the best place to start 
and showing the identity is in aHa^-1 shouldn't be too hard
i was told that if we show that it's closed under inverses, we already know there's an identity
alrighty, i now have to show its an isomorphism with H
- injective
- surjective
- morphic part
morphic part
I like it
oops
yeah, that's what my professor likes to call it lol
can we turn aHa^-1 into a function?
it is lol
like: f(x) = axa^-1
its called conjugation
sure, looks like a function to me
okay
give it a try
sorry, i mainly meant just for the f(x) part
btw, instead of proving surjective/injective you can just find an inverse function
which is much easier in this case
mhm, but i wanna show more work since he wants it in like a full proof format
but it'll be like a page long, which isn't much
then write "a function is bijective if and only if it has an inverse"
for injective, i got b=c (using these elements to make life easy)
cuz cancellation law
aba^{-1} = aca^{-1} <=> b = c yup
see this is why I think just finding an inverse function is so much easier
but, consider f(H)
by definition of f, f(H) = aHa^-1, so it's surjective
it would be but we haven't really went through much of that
it's also why I'm taking the long route
fair enough - it's good practice
mhm
do you understand the explanation I gave btw?
yeah
nice, now it's just the morphism part


