#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 667 of 407
write the proof using an inverse for bonus points 
extra credit

Okay one more, then I am off 👉 👈
I started off a proof and am unsure if i was doing it right
Prove that, if H is a subset of a group G, then H is a subgroup of G, iff a*b^-1 is in H for every a,b in H.
I first said "Suppose H is a subgroup of G. Let a,b be in H. Then a*b is in H. Since every element in H has an inverse, then let b in H, so b^-1 is in H. Therefore, a * b^-1 is in H
that's the foreword direction
wants us to do this proof in "one step"
yup
okay cool
the other direction, i am ovethinking it i think
i'm overthinking my overthinking
so the other direction is "Assume $H \subseteq G$ such that $ab^{-1} \in H$ for all $a, b \in H$ then $H \leq G$"
Wew Lads Tbh
step one, use the fact that b is in H to show that e is in H
we can say a=b?
yes we can
bb^-1 = e
does this help with closure under operations? or just to show there's an identity in H?
it helps with both other steps
but the proof i have in my head does this step first, using the fact that e is in H
well if we have a,b in H, then ab = a(b^-1)^-1?
ah yes very true
would that show the inverses?
tbf that is what I've jotted down but I thought you needed to prove identitiy first
and no, that just shows closure
a, b in H => ab in H
there's another substitution you can do for a to get b^-1 in H
a=e
thank you very much for the help
how to show that Q is not complete wrt the 2-adic norm? the hint in the book says to create a cauchy seq that converges to the cube root of 2... but i dont know how to do that
I feel like that's weird to do, idek if cbrt 2 is in the 2-adic integers
because you would have something that works mod 4, but x^3=2 mod 4 has no solutions
No the point is that cbrt 2 isn’t in the 2adic integers and yet there’s still a sequence in the 2adics that converges to it
how do i create such a seq
I have absolutely no idea
😄
if there's a sequence in the 2-adics that converges to it, by completeness, it's in it
They’re trying to show it isnt complete
ok so like not with this one, but with numbers you have to find a solution mod p^n that works for all n and is "compatible" then take that sequence to be your number
no, they're trying to show Q isn't complete, the 2-adic numbers are certainly complete
Oh I see I’m completely blind 
oh wait it's in Q_p not Z_p
2-adic NORM
so mayhaps you need to find cbrt 16 or something
wait no
can't divide by 2
wait yes u can
brain not work at 10 pm
It’s 3am here 
yike
Just the one yike 
yep
yea idk how to do this, instead I would just be like base 2 1, 101, 100101, 1000100101,... converges p-adically but try to show it isn't a rational number
hopefully that'll convince u
im just saying cube root of 2 isnt in Q... so Q isnt complete wrt 2-adic norm if theres some cauchy sequence that converges to cube root of 2... and thats the hint in the book so idk
Can’t you grab a Cauchy sequence converging to any real number?
Just use the decimal expansion
Truncating it at the n-th digit for x_n
Or something like that idfk, what’s rhe 2-adic norm
Nvm

chmonkey sequence
The matrix L is just the block matrix with k^2T on the kth spot on the block diagonal, 0 everywhere else
Let me try to tex that actually
$ \begin{bmatrix}
T & 0 & 0 \
0 & 4T & 0 \
0 & 0 & 9T
\end{bmatrix} $
Emma
Emma
That's $\otimes$
Emma
The Kronecker product multiplies the dimensions
Direct sum adds them
Think about what X\otimes Y looks like
Try looking at the picture of A\otimes B you had before and the picture I posted
Actually writing these matrices out helps a lot with understanding them
Maybe try actually computing some Kronecker products so you get the hang of them
I don't think Kronecker product is that weird, it's the matrix version of the tensor product
Well sure but it's a very standard tool in linear algebra
Oh huh let me see
Not quite
Just have the second one be T
But yeah otherwise that's it
is there unique ring homomorphism from any field to \mathbb{Z}?
unique non-zero, yes
how do u show this
oh well here its obvious right because $\phi(1)$ determines everything
JustKeepRunning
so yea that makes sense
for this problem i've shown that there exists a maximal ideal with respect to the property that it is disjoint with S
but ima not sure how to show this maximal ideal is prime (because while it is well known maximal --> prime, here this is maximal with an extra condition so it might not be true)
hint: what should be kernel of the homomorphism
Do it by contradiction: assume there are x and y such that x and y are not in P but xy is. Then P+xR contains x, and because this strictly contains P there is a in S \int P+xR, a=p+rx, so ay=py+rxy similarily a’=q+ty. we see that aa’is in P \int S but that was supposed to be empty.
got it kernal should be Filed.
never be just identity
no I meant kernel is either {0} of whole F
if field is finite then it would be problem?
for infinite field if kernal is {e} then R/ker is field, so is it possible?
if ker is {e} then it is one-one so this is not the case
wait why if ay is in P then a is in P?
P is prime and y is not in P so ay in P implies a in P
i thought justkeeprunning wanted to show that P was prime
ah shit I confused myself in the notation
do the same thing for P+Ry and multiply the two a's
that fixes things I believe
Do I gain insight viewing C as R[x]/<x^2+1>?
Yes
For example this lets you compute C (x)_R C
Just explicitly, you can write this as
C (x)_R R[x]/(x^2 + 1) = C[x]/(x^2 + 1)
This is just by general properties of the tensor product
From here:
C[x]/(x^2+1) = C[x]/((x-i)(x+i)) = C[x]/(x + i) x C[x]/(x - i) = C x C
Where the second equality is using the Chinese remainder theorem
another nice thing is, it tells you that there's an automorphism of C swapping i and -i. And the algebra alone can't distinguish between the two.
Hello Chmonkey 
What year are you in det?
third year of ug
I see. Best of luck next year
arigato 🧡
Idk what the landscape for masters are, but I assume it’s competitive
Neat
did you read Lagrange theorem?
so what are the possible order of element in group of order 33?
yep
1,3,11,33
are the possible orders
i need help on part c bro @dusty sapphire
i know how to do a and b
33=3*11 right so pick p=3 and q=11 then use part b
wait par is this your alt 
lol😂😂
ah lmao
i guess hes just as lost as me
a fellow brotha
anyways how do i do c
wait i literally said
all the possible orders of the elements
why is it guranteed that 3 is one of them tho?
There is one theorem state that, G has subgroup of order prime p if p divide order of G.
so subgroup of G has order 3 and 11 right
one more theorem, group of prime order is cyclic i.e. there exists a element of which have order same as order of group.
so subgroup of order 3 and 11 are cyclic right
no order is prime
so now what you get from this?
a group is cyclic if it generated by single element
yes
what are the generator of G?
under addition right
yes
alright then what's order of 1 and 2 in Z_3 under addition
yes
and what is the order of group Z_3?
so what you get from this
thats a law?
so all elements of a prime cyclic group
have the order of the group
?
yes that's what i said, in every cyclic group there is element which have order equal to order of group and that element are generator of the group
so in your group of order 33 you get subgroup of order 3 right
yes
since subgroup is also group and order is prime so what you get from this?
that its also cyclic
okay let me confirm
ok
before i write this down lol
We know that the possible orders of the subgroups are 1,3,11 ,13, from lagranges theorem.
so since there is a subgroup of order 3 which is odd implies that it is cyclic.
In every cyclic group there must be an element which has an order equal to the order of the group
this is by Cauchy's theorem
yes
the order 3 thing?
yes
if p is prime and p divide order of group then there is subgroup of order p.
similarly you can say there is element of order p
yeah
if you read this theorem that's good otherwise you need to approach it differently
i dont think we learned cauchy
all we learned was that
order of subgroup divides group
and elements order divides group
then i think you need to approach it differently
hmm okay
or you can show that there is subgroup of order 3 then it is good
then it is clear
you can use this
ohh since i proved its a subgrou
its cyclic
also right
so can i just say its cyclic as well
and say this
use this
yes
you can use this but still you need to show that there is subgroup of order 3 because in the part a, this is necessary condition not sufficient
look
this is possible order are 1,3,11 and 33 but this is not say that always exist this order subgroup
this say that if exist then order of subgroup will be from this
how do i know
if im positive it exists
so lagrange only shows possible subgroup orders?
yes
damn bruh
Do you also think algebra classes get kinds boring after groups? Rings are fun too but I can't motivate myself to start studying Modules
If you are not allowed to use cauchy's theorem you can do this. First, if G is cyclic, then there are phi(33)=20 elements of order 33. There is one element of order 1 (the identity) so the 12 remaining elements have orders 11 and 3. If there is no element of order 3 then the rest all have order 11. (It's kind of hard to explain this part do hopefully it makes sense). Let a be one of the elements of order 11, then <a> is a subgroup of order 11. Every non identity element of <a> has order 11 so 10 of the 12 elements of order 11 are in the subgroup <a>. If b is one of the 2 elements of order 11 not in <a>, then <b> is also a subgroup of order 11 whose intersection with <a> is 1. This means the 10 elements of order 11 in <b> are different from those in <a>. But that would mean there are 20 elements of order 11 (10 in <a> and 10 in <b>) which can't happen. Thus there must be an element of order 3. @chilly ocean
You can do something similar for the case where you don't assume G is cyclic
fuck it bro imma do cauchys
so cauchys theorem assumes and odd ordered group is cyclic?
On they did teach me cauchys in discussion
R be ring of function from [0, 1] to Real number, I ={f in R such that f vanish exactly at one point in real number(same for all)} then R/I is field? i.e. I is maximal ideal of R?
sth is off here, if the functions in I all vanish at exactly 1 point only, it's not not even an ideal
I guess that it's probably the set of functions vanishing at some fixed point 0<= r <= 1.
in my case yes, any ideal J containing I that contains a function f that does not vanish at r allows us to choose a function g in I which is 0 at any point where f is not and nonzero wherever f is zero. Then f+g has no zeros and has therefore a multiplicative inverse. Since f+g is also in J this would imply that R=J, which proves maximality.
isn't this showing the inverse of the desired statement though
i thought u want to show that if x,y are in S then xy is in S
also what are q and t here?
and what does \int mean
Yes got it, similar if i take space of continuous function on [0, 1] then it is also same case right
the continuous case seems slightly more tricky at first sight
In first case if i take R’= R/I, R’[X] is PID right
since R/I is a field, yes
Wb this R[X]/I[X] is it PID?
But it will be maximal right if it is vanish at two fixed point then it will not remain maximal ideal
that's just isomorphic to R/I if I understood your writing of the expression correctly
It feels like it should be maximal for the single point case, but proving it becomes harder than in the non continuous case because you can't just construct an arbitrary function that sums to an invertible one
$\frac{R[X]}{I[X] }$ isomorphic to R/I?
BLツ
So there i need different approach
wait hold on, no I don't think it is I was mixing stuff up, it should be isomorphich to (R/I)[X]
I stuck in the $\frac{R}{I}[X]$ is not PID in non continuous case but PID in continuous case so I’m thinking that there is some notation problem
BLツ
maybe a similar approach works but with a lot more analysis involved
right ive got a solution which is different from the solution im given and i just wanted to make sure what i did is correct because this stuff still is somewhat fuzzy in my mind\
Exercise is to show that for a prime ideal p of R, we have $R_p/pR_p \simeq Frac(R/p)$
The solution im given somewhat explicitly constructs an isomorphism between these two but i was wondering if i could consider the exact sequence of R-modules $0\to p \to R \to R/p\to 0$ and then localise at $T=R\setminus p$, using the fact that $T^{-1}$ is exact, ill only have to show that localisation at T of $R/p$ is isomorphic to $Frac(R/p)$ and localisation at T of $p$ is isomorphic to $p R_p$, its these last two statements im not quite sure about, tho they feel natural
dadaurs
I didn't understand that sentence
R is set of all function from [0, 1] to $\mathbb{R}, I={f \in R | f(t)=0 , t \in [0, 1]}, \frac{R}{I}[X]$ is not PID
BLツ
.
I= zero this one?
did you mean (for some t \in [0, 1])
Yes fixed t
no f(t) = 0, t\in [0,1] means f(t)=0 for all t making it identically zero
No no for some fixed t
which is not mentioned there
I need to use \text that’s wh
literally changes the entire question, so not worth skipping
R is set of all function from [0, 1] to $\mathbb{R}, I={f \in R | f(t)=0 , \text{for some} \ t \in [0, 1]}, \frac{R}{I}[X]$ is not PID
BLツ
I think you are not writing the question properly, I is not a ideal here
R/I is not even defined
(like if you mean t is fixed then it is but that's not what the question says)
R is set of all function from [0, 1] to $\mathbb{R}, I={f \in R | f(c)=0 , \ c \in S}, \frac{R}{I}[X]$ is not PID where $\phi \neq S \subset [0,1]$ is singleton
BLツ
Oh wait i also need to show they are isomorphic as rings not only as modules mb
BLツ
What’s different between this two?
um i think the theorem is $R[x]/(I)\cong (R/I)[x]$
JustKeepRunning
now I'm confused
wb this?
same thing, justKeepRunning has better notation tho
okay
then it is PID right
I is maximal in R then is I is also maximal in R[X]?
By I, do you mean I*R[x] in the second case?
because I is no longer an ideal of R[x]
I is this
thats the confusing of (R/I)[X]
Alright leave it i think some notation problem in the question. Thank you so much.
singleton means like isolated points?
A singleton generally means a set with exactly one element.
if you mean a singularity thats like a single point where a function is not complex differentiable
wait so cant you just say R/I is isomorphic to R (reals) since its just point evaluation and a polynomial ring over a field is a PID?
yes i think of it but in answer (R/I)[X] is not PID that's why, for continues function it is PID
oh wait is t not fixed?
just use this one
this is mistake
Im confused on the question
is c fixed or not?
like is it 1 point or potentially multiple points?
because if just 1, then R/I is definitely the real numbers and R/I[x] is a PID
if i have a non-cyclic abelian finite p-group G then the exponent of G is p?
What is the exponent of a group?
the lcm of all the orders of the elements in the group
Not necessarily then
Take Z/p^2Z x Z/pZ
The exponent will be p^2
You can at least say that some element has order equal to the lcm, but this is just because the orders of every element is a power of p
oh i see
In general actually
For any finite abelian group some element will achieve the exponent as its order
This follows from the structure theorem for finite abelian groups
i want to prove that a non-cyclic non generalized quaternionic p-group G has a subgroup of exponent p and order at least p^2
G has a abelian subgroup non cyclic because every p-group such that every abelian group is cyclic is cyclic or generalized quaternionic,
If G = G_1 x ... G_n and we have N is normal in G, must N = N_1 x ... x N_n where N_i is normal in G_i?
That sounds right and I think I can show that by contradiction
But maybe there's some edge case I'm not thinking of
No this isn’t true
{(x,x)} in Z x Z

It's normal since ZxZ is abelian but it's evidently not a product
Ah
What if I add the restriction that the groups are non-abelian and simple lol
Cause that's how I was gonna solve this
Use the correspondence theorem relating normal subgroups containing a subgroup H and those of G/H
I think
(not a dox cause that's his public email)
You need to reduce to the fact that each normal subgroup of G_i is either trivial or the entire group
Actually
I guess
Finite = inducc
Oh true
Maybe these two alone aren’t enough to kill the problem, but it’s a good start
Ok so the book has a hint
but I don't fully understand it
however a couple notes. That G_i really should say K_i
and then that really should be ({e} x ... K_i x ... {e}) cap N
I just don't get how showing ({e} x ... K_i x ... {e}) is a subgroup of N helps
and more importantly I don't get how that's always true
because what if K_i is non-trivial but N is trivial in that coordinate
definition of G_I if needed again from above
oh wait is it because a_i =/= {e}?
Yea idk
I don't know how showing this intersection
Gives me that ({e} x ... x K_i x ... {e}) where K_i is non trivial is a subgroup of N
The i is an existential variable, you have to show that there is some i so this point won’t come up. Specifically, you’re assuming already that there’s an element in N which has a non-trivial i-th component
Once you have this you can mod out by K_i and then by induction you’re finished
N\cap K_i is a normal subgroup of K_i, so now you have that N\cap K_i is non-trivial so is all of K_i
Of course here I’m identifying K_i with the subgroup {1} x … {1} x K_i x {1} x … x {1} of G
Yea I figured it out

Sorry 💀
That’s good
:petthespamakin:
Now one final small part and I gotta type this up
But at least I'm done early
Rather than frantically doing this midnight sunday
can someone help me understand why the ideal $(3,x)$ of $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ is prime?
JustKeepRunning
Z/3Z?
which is an integral domain
There is a morphism f from Spec(Z[x]) to spec(Z)
Induced by natural inclusion map Z—>Z[x]
Then you use a property in fibered product which is spec(k(p) tensor product Z[x]) is homeomorphic to f^-1(p)
So you are just classifying prime ideals q of Z[x] by its image p=f(q) in spec (Z)
depends on p=(0) or (P) where P is a prime number , k(p) is Q or Z/pZ respectively
k(p) tensor product Z[x] is isomorphic to Q[x] or (Z/pZ)[x] respectively and they are pid
For example,there exists a one-to-one correspondence between prime ideals q of Z[x], such that the intersection of q and Z is (3) in Z, and the image of spec(Z/3Z[x])
x is irreducible so (x) is a prime ideal in Z/3Z[x], whose image in spec(Z[x]) is (3,x)
Anyway prime ideals of Z[x] therefore are either (g(x)) where g is irreducible or (p, f(x)) where f is irreducible in Z/pZ[x]
(in an endearing way)
lol
if $R$ is a ring, $A$ an $R$-module, and $I$ an injective $Z$-module, then apparently $\text{Hom}_R(A,\text{Hom}_Z(R,I))$ is naturally isomorphic to $\text{Hom}_Z(A,I)$ but I really don't see this
wren
by the way $Z$ is $\mathbb{Z}$ but I was too lazy to write it out
wren
I can see one way to take an R-module map from A to Hom_Z(R,I) and get a Z-module map from A to I, but in order to go in the reverse direction I find you can get a map from A to Hom_Z(R',I) where R' is the integer multiples of 1 in R, and you can extend each of these to a map from R to I since I is injective, but I see no nice way to do this in general
I'm just very confused
det
\begin{align*}
\operatorname{Hom}_{R}(A, \operatorname{Hom}_{\mathbb{Z}}(R, I)) & \cong
\operatorname{Hom}_{\mathbb{Z}} (R \otimes_{R} A, I) \\
& \cong
\operatorname{Hom}_{\mathbb{Z}}(A, I)
\end{align*}
@.mniip uwu

oh yeah smart, I didn't see that cause I'm not used to doing tensor product that way with 2 different base rings
A \otimes R not R \otimes A I think
R is a R-Z bimodule , not a right R module I think
yea i'm using the (Z,R)-bimodule structure
you're looking at Hom_Z(R, I) so it has to be Z-R, we want the result to become a left R-module
(i'm assuming R is non-commutative, if everything is commutative, then probably all this doesn't matter at all)
R is Z-R A is R-R I is Z-Z?
R is Z-R
A is R-Z = (left R-mod)
I is Z-Z = (left Z-mod)
also the second line here is abusing the notation... technically i mean restriction of A as a left Z-module
so if M is (A,B)-bimod and N is (A, C)-bimod then the set of left-A-linear maps Hom_A(M, N) naturally acquires a (B, C)-bimod structure.
so that should become an R-Z bimodule = left R-mdoule
i'm sure the details work out... it's been a while since i last verified any adjunctions 🙈
If G is isomorphic to H, then is H isomorphic to G?
sure is
Hmm, I guess I asked the wrong question
If I am asked to prove that G is isomorphic to H, is it equivalent to prove H is isomorphic to G?
Wait, it is
Bc if H is isomorphic to G, then G is isomorphic to H
that's same as what you asked in the start 
Yeah, I realized it lol. Sorry.
But one more thing
Im trying to prove $g: \mathbb{Z}_9 \rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_9$ defined by $g(x) = 2x$ is isomorphic, and I'm having a little trouble proving it to be onto. I could just compute the values for all 9 elements in the domain, but is there a way to just find the function's inverse?
beeswax
Bc like x=y/2 wont work
10x ?
and we're modulo 9 
x
🥳
Aha
in general from Z/nZ --> Z/nZ you can find inverse of multiplication by a if and only if a and n are coprime
the reason is exactly this, but like you said 1/2 isn't available to us directly
in particular we were looking for a solution of 2x = 1 (mod 9)
There’s a useful trick here
For a map between two finite sets of the same size, it’s bijective iff it’s injective iff it’s surjective
This follows by the pigeonhole principle
So you only need to show that the map is injective
And this is kinda just some number theory, it follows because 2 is coprime to 9
I mean surjectivity also follows from it being coprime but
It seems like you had already shown it was injective so
You can save yourself some trouble
So, for finite sets, onto implies injective
finite sets of equal size
and injective implies onto
Yes
Isn't it obvious since the identity is an even permutation and so is not contained in the set of all odd permutations?
Or is there more to that?
yes this is very useful its used a lot
like considering the map $x\to ax$ for some element $a$ in the set
JustKeepRunning
They're saying this is the isomorphism between the permutation group n and it's subgroup n-1. But is this bijective? Only elements with n-1 permutations gets mapped to the n-1 permutation subgroup. What about elements with n permutations?
what is the next sentence that starts with "but an isomorphism is ..."
But an isomorphism is not always so trivial
Can someone tell me why I’m getting -6 instead of 2 as the coefficient of s_2^2? I can’t seem to figure out what I’m doing wrong. Any help is appreciated
nvm I got it
@hidden haven you're gonna love this one
my crank professor is now requiring that we do homeworks in groups of 3-4

this fucking professor
The first point is accurate though
@pastel cliff actually submit a complaint
?????????????
i made perfectly sure literally everything was legible to a fucking toddler
this is the only thing i missed
AND IT'S RESTATING THE QUESTION

overly enforcing the structure of proofs.... fucking zringe
he literally disobey's his own rule in that claim 
he started the claim with an alpha
lmfao what is this
this is a prime example of too much attention in the wrong places of a course
unfortunately the claim is what i wrote
that's what i lost a point for
which is still fucking stupid
omfg WHAT
literally everything is correctly and excessively explained
i feel bad for whoever lost points for this
on their algebra hw...
nietzba I'd legit submit a complaint lol
so yeah basically uhhhh


i am LIVID
wtf a reference to hit song Kaczynski claus by wew lads tbh
go tell HIM TO HIS FACE BIATCH! Sort em out
nono the best thing i can do now is get a fucking A in the class and wipe my ass with the final in front of him
let the rage fuel you... an excellent maneuverer
I legit spell maneuverer by typing "man" then spamming vowels and then an r, autocorrect sorts the rest out
what a stupid word
queue
queueing
wednesday
q
let q be a polynomial in D[n]
This reminds me, Clerk was teaching me french so that I can read godement's book 
wtf
is there not a translation?
Clerk translated the first 60 pages but then ditched it
Quimst'd've speak French
baguette
Sheaves simplicial sets spectral sequences homological algebra
⚠️ 🚨 france detected 🚨 ☣️
😵💫
good thing france isnt real
daim sounds nice tbh
did you read the other book you planned reading?
simplicial stuff
Clerk sometimes joins when saketh and I study stuff together and it's 
A little
I am planning to speed run that
moldi go zooooom
I'm speedrunning galois theory atm
I'm writing a pdf on string diagrams 😌
im speedrunning this fucking bleach god im so pissed
oooh daim
me when I see the word "field-representation" 
but topology time 
still haven't read about those 
it's not a representation of a field
you just smash a group into the multiplicative group of a field
Smash as in some sort of smash product or you mean like take homomorphic image?
homomorphic image
Lmao smh
"clang" might've been better than smash tbf
Clang product
I'm sure they're a very useful construction but I cannot remember why 
I don't think clang product is a thing
Oh 😌
Multiplicative group of field is just GL_1 F
So you are doing 1 dimensional rep theory when you do that
Do lie algebras belong here or in #diff-geo-diff-top ? I'd say here, right?
Probably here
I think either is probably fine

lmao okay gotta stop procrastinating
I'm wondering whether there is a specific name to the "non-direct sum" algebra consisting of matrices
[
\begin{pmatrix} A_1 & \ast \ 0 & A_2 \end{pmatrix}
] where $A_i\in L_i$ matrix lie algebras
lux
Is that the extension of L_2 by L_1 kinda thing 
(also, I spent half an hour asking myself whether so(3)⊕so(3) stays (semi-)simple lmao)
I mean we do have a lie-hom to L₁⊕L₂ and the right hand corner is in its kernel
I meant that this would be a non split extension maybe 
Right yeah
The interesting thing about this is that if L₁ and L₂ are perfect, then this often continues to be perfect (as long as you get all matrices by applying col operations to L₁ and taking the span of that)
so eg when L₁=L₂=so(3) this should be perfect, but not simple
What is the reason for group actions to be shortened by f(g,x)=gx ? seems odd to me.
Convenience.
same reason we write ab for group multiplication instead of *(a, b)
Once an action has been fixed, repeating a name for the mapping function over and over would be the least interesting part of formulas, but fairly visually distracting.
All notation is a compromise between "being able to see the forest for trees" and "not being so ambiguous that the point fails to get through".
Guys, I don't see why corollary 1 says that
For V the regular representation we have V = w1 W1 + w2 W2 + ... + wi Wi where wi is the multiplicity and Wi the irreducible representations?
So taking the traces of both sides we have that sum in yellow?
taking the characters evaluated at s
since every irreducible representation is contained then the sum of the characters at s equals the character of the regular representation at s
that's what it means?
Yeah with the correct multiplicities
Every irreducible representation is contained in the regular representation
And corollary 1 says how many
And we know the character of the regular representation
actually @delicate orchid the damn prof actually accepted the "subgroup generated by set" bullshit
remind me of the specifics of this bullshit
which wasnt wrong but i wouldnt have been as enraged if he had taken points off for that as opposed to the other stuff
wait didn't I say this
yes 

i actually understand it i promise (believe me or not this was my first line of reasoning the other night i just dismissed it bc i didnt think i was rigorous enough - i reevaluated my opinion at around 4 in the morning)
idk but I want some 😋
Hi all, I'm starting a course on Galois Theory and I don't quite understand the motivation for separability
so far it just seems to be a 'nice-ness' condition but surely there's something deeper going on here
Honestly… there’s definitely deep stuff going on but I think just treating it as a technical “niceness” condition for the moment is fine
I think you get more out of understanding separability by exploring what happens when you have some inseparability and see how some theorems fail. The examples I can think of are mainly really deep results though
It may also help to look into the seprable degree, very briefly you can measure the degree of the separable part of a field extension in terms of the number of embedding into an algebraic closure which fix the base field
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
In a sense a separable extension has “the right number” of these
There’s also some issue when you start using derivations. A derivation is a generalization of the derivative, and it has the property that d(a^n) = na^n-1
If you have a non-separable extension L\K then there’s an element a in L such that a^p is in K but a is not, and then things become weird because d(a^p) = pa^p-1 = 0
In short, all sorts of things become really screwed up in weird ways but I think it’s hard to really get at why that is until you start doing some advanced stuff. Maybe someone else has better motivation for it
thats a great answer thank you so much! I really appreciate it
Oh there’s one final thing to mention
This requires knowing what the tensor product is but
If you have L a separable extension of k, then for any finite extension K of k you will have that L (x)_k K is a reduced ring
This becomes useful for technical reasons as well, reduced here means that no element is nilpotent
ah cool, im assuming this is an important construction? I see reduced rings are important in alg geometry
Yeah
For a lot of technical reasons again hahaha
It says among other things that this is a (non-irreducible) variety
A lot of these things become important deep into algebraic geometry for a lot of hard commutative algebra that underpins things like smoothness and non-singularity
For example this stuff is (probably) used in the process of showing that for classical varieties that smoothness is equivalent to non-singularity
This statement holds when you’re over a perfect field because over a perfect field every extension is separable and so smoothness becomes equivalent to something being a regular local ring which is what non-singularity means
But if you have an inseparable extension the two notions no longer agree
But this is the sort of stuff that’s contained really deep inside of EGA IV or in the end of a book on commutative algebra like Matsumura
thats so cool, I can't wait to see some proper algebraic geometry is seems so sick
it's quite incredible that separability enables so much
Its pretty remarkable. If you want an even better example of a seemingly innocuous condition enabling so much, you should hear about Noetherian
It’s actually ludicrous how much things change just from having the ascending chain condition
aight so like
I have found how to generate elements of the form (0, b)
that is easy
that's just (0, 1)^b
however I don't have that (1, 0)^a = (a, 0)
so like (1, 0) * (1, 0) = (2, 1)
(1, 0)^4 = (4, 6)
etc
I can't actually nail down a closed form for that second component (since I can just subtract that away as needed if I have a closed form)
it doesn't actually matter, I can black box the problem away
however I would like to find a closed form
you have (0, b) for arbitrary values of b
subtract (0, b) from whatever you get for x(1, 0) to leave you with just (x, 0)
well yea
there we go 
that's what I mean by black boxing the problem away
I was just curious if anyone knew of a closed form
oh like a specific formula
hmm
smells "triangular number-y"
compute up to (1, 0)^10 and then put the 2nd components into the OEIS and see what comes out
$a_0 = a_1 = 1 \
a_{n+2} = a_{n+1}+a_n$ \newline
$b_n = \prod_{i=0}^n a_i$
I think
GM Wew Lads Tbh
I don't think so
the first term is a sum
the only product is going on in the 2nd terms, which is why b is a product
ah wait y_0 y_1 aren't always 0
yea
I knew I missed something
this problem sucks tho
idk I think it's alright
actually this is worse
no I mean like showing it's a group
particularly associativity
it's not hard, just very tedious to write out
oh yeah associativity always sucks
finding generators is whatever
it's literally the same thing but just... again 
this is even easier
cause (1, 0, 0)^a = (a, 0, 0) and (0, 1, 0)^b = (0, b, 0) and (0, 0, 1)^c = (0, 0, c)
and (a, b, c) = (a, 0, 0) (0, b, 0) (0, 0, c)
but just a pain to write out all of the working
at that point just construct an isomorphism to Z^3
hm
well wouldn't defining the obvious isomorphism just reduce to showing all this anyways
yea
cause I need to show it's a group
and the isomorphism is surjective, and injective
so it's the same anyways

fuck surjective and injective just find an inverse
I'm team inverse
I'm team easier
a flip flopper... gross...
See I'm a believer in the fact that problems should teach something and focus on something useful
and like
I do not see a point at this level asking people to prove something forms a group
when the main value of the problem is finding the generators and invarient factor form
I can barely even understand what invarient factor form is
there's a neat algorithm for it if you're given a set of relations for the generators
yea
for p prime?
no like
you write it as Z/n_1 Z x Z / n_2 Z ... x Z / n_m Z x Z^r
ok
so yeah this follows from the structure theorem for abelian groups
and then you write all the ways you can decompose this into Z/pZ for primes p
yea but that form is invariant factor form I thought
and then further decomposition was called elementary decomposition
or I think primary decomposition
hmm
idk it's just names
I shall google it
point is that's the meat of the problem
not
"hi plz show this is associative plz"
cause it's so annoying, especially for that second one
ONLY time I will accept a "associative" proof is proving the tensor product is associative via the universal property
via the universal property
again
more interesting
and more useful I presume (idk what universal property is)
but this is just computation go br
ok so in this example they're looking at G = Z/10Z x Z/12Z x Z/30Z
I don't know how you do the ? step
but this is kinda what I had in my head
I'm sure there's a nice algorithmic way to do it
but with all the primes you just kinda
shuffle around till it works
hmm
I think
ah I see
the n+1th element needs to be a multiple of the nth element
good refresher
In mathematics, the Smith normal form (sometimes abbreviated SNF) is a normal form that can be defined for any matrix (not necessarily square) with entries in a principal ideal domain (PID). The Smith normal form of a matrix is diagonal, and can be obtained from the original matrix by multiplying on the left and right by invertible square matri...
you can use this
which is interesting
🚪 🚶♂️
oh I can definitely see how this applies
how you actually compute it, I'm not sure
but I can see the connection
Where may I ask a question about representation theory, here?
here is fine
I might be looking too deep into the meaning of the word "representation" but is there any interpretation of the singular value decomposition in terms of representation theory?
I feel that the Fourier transform is in the family of unitary representations. Yet the singular value decomposition is also related to unitary tranaformations
Pardon me if this is an ill-defined question
I suppose you could view the singular value decomposition as the "character" of a non-square representation
but I don't know how useful of a concept this is
especially for group representations, where the image of any group element has to be invertible
as for the fourier transform, I have no idea
Hmmm I've never heard of that term 'character' before thank you so much.
what if YOU
wanted to be HAPPY and LEARN
but GOD SAID
i'll stop bitching at some point but that point is an undetermined distance away from now
sick of this guy
me or my prof
I'll leave it up to the fans to decide
understandable have a good day
Hi, I remember in cyclotomic polynomial, there is something like "if prime p divides a^n - 1, p does not divide a" or something like that. Could anyone point me where to look it up or explain why it's true?
You would get that p divides 1
to go even further, write (a^n-1) + a(a^{n-1}) = 1 and pull out their common factor of p and you would have pk = 1 and that's pretty sussy
Isn’t that what the definition of p dividing 1 is
yeah just writing it explicitly
I see
Sorry I'm still confused. Why (a^n-1) + a(a^{n-1}) = 1? and why p divides 1? doesn't that mean p = 1
Reduce mod p
a^n - 1 = 0 mod p
But also a^n = 0 mod p
So you get that -1 = 0 mod p which means p divides -1
Which is the same as p dividing 1


Hi, I am working on this problem. I proved the first half, but had a hard time figuring out the later half. I assume a^m = 1 mod p for contradiction, so a^n - a^m = 0 mod p. Then p | a^m or p | (a^{n-m} - 1). p|a^m is not possible because if so, p|a^n. I dunno how to show p|(a^{n-m} - 1) is not possible and how to use (p,n) = 1. Any hint would be appreciated 
as is tradition
I have done the easy part of this problem
and am stuck on finding the invarient factor form
I need the elements of finite order I guess?
i.e. find G_tors
I got that (1, 0) and (0, 1) generate the whole group but does that necessarily mean that Z^2 is the invariant factor form?
my textbook doesn't talk about how to compute this really for infinite groups
at least I can't find it
and my prof's notes only consider finite groups 
Well you could check if those two generators have finite order or not
Though that wouldn't be enough
have what?
Finite
Then either show that there is no element of finite order
I know that G is isomorphic to G_tors x Z^r
Or find an isomorphism to Z^2
Is pretty easy to show that if x has finite order then it's (0,0)
Yea exactly
Also you would need to show is not isomorphic to Z
Hm true
So,I’m trying to prove this statement and I’m having trouble choosing the x* for the surjective proof. Need some help. Also, is the proof okay so far?
Why choose x*
why not construct it?
injectivity proof looks good tho
(don't forget to show that h o g or is indeed an isomorphism, not just a bijection)
Any advice on how I can construct?
Yeah, I think I'll do it for my last part
use the fact that h is surjective
to determine that there is some x such that h(x) = y
and then go from there
Nice, thank you
In the universal property of products, does it mean that there exists a unique f given a family of fi and pi or that there exists a unique f for each individual fi-pi combination?
pi are fixed, and there is a unique f for each family of f_i
pi are part of what a product is
i'm really stuck on part d, proving the new group law is associative, i've tried writing O as the O' * (O' * O) and just general manipulating but i'm not seeing the trick
well you know what the end result you want for associativity is
so take that
and work backwards
and meet in the middle with what you have currently
guessing game
this isn't me asking for help in disguise
i have in mind a nontrivial non simple group that's its own only homomorphic image
I actually can't think of 2
this is the only one I can think of
so the guessing game is guess the group
Thanks for the suggestion @barren sierra but I’ve been just sitting here playing with symbols for about 4 hours and can’t get it so if you have any other hints I’d be appreciative
What does Inn(G) mean
inner automorphisms of G
Sorry, this doesn’t make sense to me really?
If G is a group, you can just grab like, a product of Z so large that G x Z^alpha isn’t isomorphic to G, and then G is the image of the projection map G x Z^alpha -> G
If you mean that G is such that the image of G under any homomorphism is either G or is trivial, then any simple group satisfies this simply because its image must be G/N for N a normal subgroup, and the only options for N are then G or {e}
So we're all acquainted with the finite dimensional vector space L^2(G) for G a finite group
mns
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Sorry I'm not acquainted with that vector space 
yes but deltas are not the basis tho
mns
where f is any complex valued function on G
Let me correct the notation to $\delta_t(s)$
mns
mns
+1
and it has a basis and an inner product as well as a norm
So, I have some questions
That makes L^2(G) a finite dimensional vector space with basis ${\delta_t(s)}_{s \in G}$
mns
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Lets say we want to prove the inverse fourier transform
We could do all the calculations on the right side but it is tedious
So we want to show the right hand side is linear on L^2(G)
And that's the case if we can write it as linear combination of elements in the base
namely the delta functions
So if we make f(s) = delta_t(s) we must show that delta_t(s) equals the right side
I mean, in fact we already know the right side is linear since everything in there is linear
I have doubts in here. Why can we make this equal? Shouldn't it be $f(s) = \sum_{t \in G} f(t)\delta_t(s)$?
mns
is L² not the square integrable function on open set G?
well I tried scrolling up
I guess? 
why we can make f(s) = delta_t(s)
here
why
we can make f(s) = delta_t(s)
Todd
yes
L^2(G) is linear
I mean, it has linearity property for any function in it
what you wrote just now, isn't it linearity?
yes
Proceed please, sorry
Todd
yep
Todd
this
It is like we're proving for Pdelta_t(s) ?
I am not understanding.. I might be overcomplicating things sorry
yes
yes, so we want to prove the formula for delta
oh
I see
and indeed, for t != s we have 0 on both sides
Todd

