#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 647 of 407
From Z[x], you can get F_p[X] from a quotient, and from F_p[X] you can get any finite field through another quotient in the usual way
Does that answer the question ? 
i know that form F_p[x] we find a irredcuiblle polynomial in that and can easly make field of order p^{order of that polynomial}, how to write F_p[x] form Z[x]?
Consider the maximal ideal generated by the constant polynomial p and quotient
okkk like Z[x]/<p>?
Yes
Thankyou
Hi, I’m working through aluffi’s Algebra: Chapter 0 and I’m stuck on an exercise.
“Prove that R[x] is an integral domain iff R is an integral domain”. I’ve managed to prove it for if R[x] is an integral domain but not the converse. Could someone give me a hint? Thanks. Any help is much appreciated, please ping me if you’re responding. I might take a while to answer any questions though
Think about the leading coefficient
Oh, I see now
Thanks
I have a question on simple groups (groups where the only normal subgroups are the trivial group and the group itself): If G is a finite non-simple group and choose G_1 a non-trivial normal subgroup of G of maximum order. Then the quotient group G/G_1 is simple. How can you proof this? I've worked with contradiction. Suppose G/G_1 is not simple, then there exists a non-trivial normal subgroup, call this one
$nG_1$ with $n \in G, n \neq e_G$
Luka835
I'm not quite sure how to get a contradiction out of this. Is there someone who knows how one can proof this statement? 🙂
consider the preimage under G -> G/G_1
Still using contradiction?
Try to prove that if G' is a normal subgroup of G/G_1, then its preimage under that map is a normal subgroup that contains G_1
I succeeded to prove that if $G'/G_1 \lhd G/G_1$ then $G' \lhd G$
Luka835
But not why $G_1 \subset G'$
Luka835
Any other approaches? Would be appreciated :))
G' doesnt contain G_1
stain is saying that the preimage of G' under the canonical projection contains G_1
Yeah I used another notation: the preimage of G'/G_1 is G', that was easier to work with
i got the fourth option , but i cant understand first 3 options, is there any direct results to do these ?
but the only option true is 3 and 4
Idk if you already got this by now, but G' contains the preimage of 1G_1 (thought of as an element of G'/G_1). And the preimage of 1G_1 is just G_1
@trim grove wait were you able to understand the solution I posted to that problem
What's the most beginner friendly book for intro to abstract algebra? or resource(it doesn't have to be a book)
hopefully self-contained too and makes very little assumptions
which one?
.
i tried very hard , but i can't get that.
which part didn't you get
after fifth line
this part? or the one before
yesss after this part
okk stain , let me try this one more time.
wait. typing stuff up in LaTeX is slow
Thanks a ton @proud bear ,
should be this sorry
- Isn’t true
Unless you aren’t requiring the 1 to be the same in which case wtf
- Follows from 2. if you know that finite fields of every prime power order exist
2 is false tho lmao
Is the condition that q needs to be a power of p?
I thought divisibility was the condition 
yes
Oof
divisibility of the exponent
Boy am I bad with finite fields
yes this is a counter example
Yea thats why i wrote it :P
3 and 4 are both true though
Which im sure chm knew as well. Right chm? ;P
what about 3rd
I just said it’s true haha
is this any direct result
Finite fields have order p^n
So if two fields have orders with gcd > 1 then they are powers of the same prime p
Say p^n and p^m
Both of which are subfields of p^mn
Got it
thankyou @oblique river
I did know 3 and 4, although the reason I knew 3 was a bit off

If I want to seriously get better at mixed characteristic stuff maybe I should first review finite fields
Lol
and i want to leave this topic , Galois gives me nightmare
if F is a field and F[x] polynomial ring, how to start showing that for phi in Aut(F[x]), phi(x) = ax+b, a and b in F with a =/= 0?
i see, if x maps to higher deg, nothing will map to x (as constants map to constant). and if x maps to constant, then all polys map to constant. merci
What is the difference between free generating system and generating system. So G is a free group and S is a generating system of G, so every element of G can be written as a finite expression of elements (and their inverses) of S. But if S is a free generating system then this expression is unique up to simplification of terms like suu^-1t = st, where s is not t^-1. That's all?
I had the same panic moment as you and realized I was thinking about divisors of the exponent of the prime, that is where it comes in. Ok thank god I'm not insane at least we were on the right track xD
I had not came across "generating systems" before. If it is the same as a generating set, then I do think the uniqueness hold. Or rather, if S is a generating set of a group G and it is free of relations, then the group is necessarily free.
yes, I mean generating set
there is a theorem: if G is a free group of rank r, and X is a generating set with order r, then X is a free generating set
that's why I'm asking the difference
hmm so basically that's why we call it a free group? cuz it is free of rrelations?
Yep. Free of relationships like in "Are you free?~ wink wink".
I am sadge
A new year resolution... of length one.
Is that theorem in a book? How did they prove it?
Let $X$ be a set and $G$ be a group acting on $X$. So the isotropy group (also know as stabilizer) of $x\in X$ is defined to be [G_x:=\left{g\in G:: g\cdot x=x\right}.]
What does it means the next statement:
"
The set $\left{G_x::x\in X\right}$ of all isotropy groups is exactly one conjugacy class of subroup of $G$.
"
?
RaD0N
conjugacy class of $x\in X$ is the set $\left{gxg^{-1}:: x\in X\right}$.
RaD0N
RaD0N
Yes, here they are saying that there is a subgroup H such that the set of conjugacy classes of H is exactly the set of all G_x
Equivalently every G_x is a conjugate of every other G_y and every conjugate of a G_x is G_x' for some x'
so, if the action is transitive (any orbit gives the whole $X$), then
[\left{G_x::x\in X\right}=\left{gG_yg^{-1}:: g\in G\right},]
for all the $y\in G$?
RaD0N
yes
Yes that sounds right
no that isn't necessary. that thing could be generated by 1
like in Z, (7, 11) = (1)
yea sure, but you can't say anything certainly.
(2, 1+sqrt(-5)) isn't principal
but that doesn't mean (x, y) in general can't be principal
x = y 
yep
how do I show the multiplicative group $\mathbb{F}^*_q$ is cyclic
bchaotic
find a generator
I dont get it whats F whats q
F just means it's a field
a Field of order q
q is a prime number
so q=p^n?
or prime power
ok
what does a field of order p^n look like
I thought I had an intuition of it but it's wrong
would we take the fractions of $F^*_p[x]$ and quotient it by an irreducible polynomial to get a field of order $p^n$
bchaotic
I am not finding it in general so far it seems to be a number prime to p - 1 that's not the root of x^n = 1 mod p , n less than p
I am thinking maybe some restriction on n
like n | p-1 maybe but I am not sure
original problem here
causalloop
Showing that the multiplicative group $\mathbb{F}^_$ is cyclic , for now q =p a prime ,
so far I have that if $a\in \mathbb{F}^_p$ ,is not a solution for $x^n = 1 $ , if $n | p-1 $ then a generates $\mathbb{F}^*_p$
bchaotic
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
but how can I show that such an a exist that is not the solution a any polynomial x^n = 1 with n dividing p-1
$f : R \to S$, $S = \text{img}(f)$. $A$ is the set of all ideals of $R$ containing $\text{ker}(f)$. $B$ is the set of all ideals of $S$. $g : A \to B$. Show that $g(I) = f(I)$ is a bijection.
Can someone help me do this?
causalloop
uh
i don't know any ring theory yet 
please avoid pinging people randomly for this 
Are you allowed to use the fact that F_q is the collection of the roots of the polynomial x^q-x?
how would you use this
I'm writing on a paper to make sure I'm not saying some bs
this is Fermat's theorem yeah
Ok got it. So we want to find a generator, i.e. an element g such that g^{q-1}=1 where q-1 cannot be replaced by any smaller number
yeah
Any nonzero element in F_q^* is a root of a polynomial in the form x^{p^n-1}-1. Since the number of roots of a polynomial cannot be larger than its degree, so there must be such a generator. Otherwise every non-zero element (there are q-1 of them) is a root of a polynomial of smaller degree.
I am specifically looking at $F_p^*$ p a prime for now
bchaotic
this is what I want, keep in mind p-1 is the order of the multiplicative group of F_p
every non zero element of F_p^n is a solution of this poly
x^n has a most n solution
hmm. Seems what I said was indeed bs
that's alright
What I need is a Theorem,
If G is finite abelian with x^n = e has at most n solution for each n , then G is cyclic. @amber stag
talking to someone, will be distracted for a few min
cringe
wait wut bchaotic
for every n, there exist x such that x^n = e?
wait wut
you just need to show the single generator
you are saying there exist a set of n elements of G for every natural number such that x^n=e
we are trying to prove that one of these elements generates the union of all of these sets
oh no nvm
you said has at most n solutions
i didnt see at most part
Yes. Use the Euler totient function. Suppose there’s an element g of order r, then the subgroup generated by g is exactly the solution set of x^r-1. Especially all elements of order r are there. So the number of elements of order r is phi(r), where phi is the Euler phi function. Add all those numbers up for r and use the theorem, which I forget the name but it’s saying the number n is the sum of phi(r) where r divides n. Then we see there’s an element of order n.
Huh, is r a group element or an integer here?
int right?
But "suppose there's an element r".
An element g of order r
Like let g be an element such that it satisfies g^r= e
Thanks
appreciate the proper use of totient func
thanks I see it
Aight who up happy new year it's time to classify groups of order 2022=2*3*337 in this channel now
how does wolfram know there's only 6?
n2 could be 1, 3, 337, 1011 since that still lets you have n2 = 1 mod 2
n3 could be 1, 337
n337 = 1
how to get some 6 for sure hmm idk
you also know that n2 divides 3*337, and n3 divides 2*337, right?
wait why would n2 necessarily be 1
tru that is another thing, giga pog
and you have some Sylow 3 subgroup, call it Q
then because P is normal, PQ is a subgroup
GIGA POG
so we got that G is the semidirect product of PQ and Z/2Z (the only group of order 2 up to isomorphism)
you could do that, but then you wouldn't have a subgroup of index 2
sorry index
index 2 subgroups are based
oh I see what you did now, yeah since it has order 3*337 just lagrangang that mf it's index 2
mhm
also wait PQ is guaranteed to actually be a subgroup since P and Q are normal and PQ=QP
we only needed one of the two to be normal
ye that too
P is normal, Q might not be
the Sylow 3 subgroup? o yeah since the self congugateness comes from there being only one of them rip
mhm
yeah n3 could be 337 and that would mean Q is not normal
but we know for sure that n337=1, so P is normal
giga gaming
So
Order ------------ Potential # as far as we know
2 1, 3, 337, 1011
3 1, 337
337 1 (normal)
1011 1 (normal)
and quotients of order 6 and 2
well I'm not sure if there's only one subgroup of order 1011, but I do know that it is normal. It's kinda a different story for Sylow vs non Sylow subgroups I think
yeah I put as far as we know this is just from Sylow info
Sylow subgroups are all conjugate, so there being only 1 is equivalent to normal
mhm
you know about semidirect products?
either it's been a long time or no LOL
cause at this point it mostly boils down to classifying all possible semidirect products of PQ and Z/2Z (for all the options that PQ can be)
aight
so first let's talk about all the options for PQ
P is a group of order 337, so it gotta be isomorphic to Z/337Z
Q is a group of order 3, so it gotta be isomorphic to Z/3Z
bc these are groups of prime order
prime moment cyclic yeah
yuh
now we gotta talk about the possible ways of putting P and Q together
ie classifying the possibilities for PQ
does Chinese remainder theorem not just give you Z/1011Z right away or nah wait what
so we could just start naming things if we wanted, but it would be hard to know if we exhausted everything
nope not quite
wait whaa
OH its PQ not P x Q
yup
so some options we can just brainstorm right now for fun (before we start classifying more seriously)
include Z/3Z x Z/337Z
uhhh
hmm I'm struggling to think of anything else
well maybe that's it, let's talk about semidirect products
wolfram thinks there is a second one for some reason
well we'll see
okee
so there's a nice theorem that say that if a group G got two subgroups H,K such that for all h in H, k in K, hk=kh and if HK=G and if H cap K = {e}, then G=H x K
it's just a nice way of looking at some properties of G to recognize it as a direct product
there's a weaker thing where you drop some of those properties, and you don't quite get it to be a direct product, but you limit the possibilities
I think you get that right away from looking at cardinalities if its finite
wdym?
|HK| = |H||K|/|HcapK| I think so just do number theory pog moment if they're finite and of prime order
oh true in our case you get HK=G and H cap K = {e} for free
or something like that
the thing we don't have is that hk=kh
that elements commute
this is the thing that prevents us from deducing that PQ = P x Q
unpog
aw yeah
so we gotta settle for less
so just in general there's a term for the situation we're in
if G got subgroups H,N, and N is normal, and H cap N = {e}, and HN=G, then we say G is the semidirect product of N and H
written as $G= N \rtimes H$
Joseph
there are many possible semidirect products in general
for example, $D_{2\cdot 3}$ and $\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z \times \mathbb Z/3\mathbb Z$ are both semidirect products of $\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z$ and $\mathbb Z/3\mathbb Z$
Joseph
what being used to your own latex macros does to a mf
yeah lol
nice
I think tex bot let's you define macros?
oh cool
I'll have to check it out later
so now we want to figure out how to classify semidirect products, given a subgroup H and a normal subgroup N
the thing to do is to come up with a "external" semidirect product
or maybe that's a thing to do, that's how I think abotu it
uhhh
hmmm maybe I don't know semidirect products well enough to teach em
you can show that semidirect products are in correspondence with homomorphisms $\varphi: H \to \mathrm{Aut}(N)$
Joseph
where the homomorphism says how H conjugates N
wow sounds like a lot of stuff I did that was cool but forgot now lmao
yeah it do be like that
that is cool there is something for this kind of scenario though
mhm
yeah we were lucky with 2022's factorization too
the strategy to keep going for 2022
would be recognize PQ as the semidirect product of P and Q---classify all the homs $\varphi: Z_3 \to \mathrm{Aut}(Z_{337})\cong Z_{336}$
then recognize G as the semidirect product of PQ and $Z_2$ (for each option for $PQ$). Then, for each option we came up with earlier, you gotta classify the homs $\varphi: Z_2 \to \mathrm{Aut} (PQ)$
so there'll be some case work, but it's totally doable
other group cardinalities are bad
something with high powers of primes are in particular harder to classify because you won't be able to guarantee the existence of a normal Sylow subgroup
then you can't pull off all the cool semidirect product stuff
that sounds not good
yeah it's cringe actually
so the semidirect product stuff, does it guarantee or tell you something about what the group of order 2022 has to be? Like would one possibly end up with something like "o yeah we get 6 and only 6 groups like this" like how wolfram did
yup
either way cool to squeeze more info out of this
oh COOL
where did you learn this stuff? class with a particularly good prof or a textbook
my group theory last quarter had a class project where we had to classify tons of different groups with cardinalities under 100
uhh kinda all over the place
RIP
I have a degree and I never heard semidirect products til now lol
lol you're chilling, I didn't get them first pass either
semidirect products were an exercise in Lang, but I don't think Lang is a particularly good book, at least for group theory. I guess I mostly learned them from lectures
noice
dummit and foote talks about em, I haven't read that though
so basically 2022 has not terrible group theoretic properties
yeah it's a real good one when it comes to classification
What goes G \oplus H mean for groups
people write $\oplus$ only for abelian groups, and $G\oplus H \cong G\times H$
Joseph
it's read as "direct sum"
element-wise structure bois
and it's the same as direct product when doing finitely many abelian groups, but it's different form infinitely many
Why the convention of only using \oplus for Abelian groups
it has to do with the "universal property" of direct sums/coproducts
lol it sounds worse than it is
I hate categories
nahhh they're not too bad
it's just about saying that if you have a hom $f: G\to K$ and $g: H\to K$, there's a unique way you can put them together to get a hom $h: G\oplus H \to K$ such that $h$ restricted to $G\oplus {0}$ is $f$ and $h$ restricted to ${0}\oplus K$ is $g$
eck
something like that must be unique? that's cool
Joseph
it's the analogy of disjoint unions for groups
Why not just classify homomorphisms Z/6Z to Aut P and from S_3 to Aut P? I think those should be the only 2 order 6 groups
Because then you don't have to do it in 2 steps in which the second step depends on the first one
it might not be a subgroup
Oh i thought we took closure under operations
the set would be 6 elements for sure
oh sure then it might be bigger
I've taken the convention that HK is just the elements hk
Ideal convention lol
yeah lol
oh by the way
Say I is an ideal
ive seen notation IR before
oh lol
i remember now
it was for hilbert basis theorem maybe?
yeah
let I be an ideal
IR[x] was the notation?
actually have no clue where i saw notation
but i think it might have to do with showing R[x]/I[x] iso R/I [x]
i forgot the proof
R[x] is an R module and you are taking the submodule IR[x]
yes that was it
i think its supposed to be ideal with polynomials with coefficients in I
Yes it turns out to be that
yeah we are given R is noetherian and we want to show R[x] is too
so we create this set A = ideal of R consisting of leading coefficients of polynomials in IR, unioned with 0?
nah nvm
i got to review it
i want to commit to memory because it was simple enough
,w factorize 2022

Well, to celebrate 2022 let’s show a group of order 2022 cannot be simple.
Suppose that it was, then by Sylow’s theorem it would have >= 338 Sylow-337 subgroups, and these intersect trivially leading to at least >= 338*336 elements which is 113,568 elements
So a group of order 2022 has a normal Sylow-337 subgroup, happy 2022 everyone!
Alternatively you could use that none of the numbers which are 1 mod 337 divide 6, other than 1
2022 has been celebrated 🥳
4n + 2
Be quiet

I solved it first
I just helped every person here who has an algebra qual this year

Happy New Year To All 🎉
Definition of irreducible element in integral domain is A non-zero non-unit element in an integral domain is said to be irreducible if it is not a product of two non-units, but what if the given domain is not an integral domain like Z_10, i want to check is 6 irreducible in it or not? any hint?
I'm not sure how to extend irreducibility to non-integral domains but with my best guess, you can write 6=1x6 or 2x3, either case one factor is unit
also 6=8x2

then every element will be irreducible
Wat
They just pointed out otherwise
how to solve this, because i tried to find a isomorphic map with kernal <2x+4>, but get nothing, any hnit?
Well what do elements of this ring look like?
That's a reasonable thing to start with if you have no intuition at all about the structure at hand
something like ploynomial with cofficients forn Z6 +<2x+4> type?
Okay. write down, say, five elements 🙃
x+1, x+2, x+3 ,x ,1
i am bad in solving these quotient rings
0,1,2,3,4,5 lol
looks like 5 will again give 1?
Or rather their equivalence classes in the quotient
in what way?
do you mean 1=5 in the quotient?
hold on
shit we are not in an integral domain
😵💫
but is 1=5?
How would 5 be 1 here? I don't see it
There might be some polynomial which when multiplied by 2x+4 gives a constant
Though it seems not possible because 4 and 2 have the order but I don't have a proof
I can see all the polynomial terms with even coefficients yeeting down to constants
probably follows from 2x+4 being 2(x-1) and we can do the degree argument for monic polynomials
is not there will be x+ a types polynomials?
I can't read that sorry lol
okk i'm thinking as if we divide with 2x+4, then variable part will get handelled by 2x , and constant part by 4, so posabillities of reminders are 0,1 for varaiable part , and 0,1,2,3 for constant part.
no you can't do long division nicely if the polynomial you are dividing by has a non unit leading coefficient
and even then the 0,1,2,3 constant part is wrong
because you won't be able to simultaneously kill both the variable part and the constant part
constant part is out of your control if you are trying to kill as many powers of x as possible
okk i think i'm getting this now
maybe try doing long division with some random examples, this is something you will use a lot lol
should be comfortable with it
Oh I just realized you can do something like 5x^k = 4x^k +x^k = 4+x^k when you have odd coefficients on powers of x
So all the elements will look like a power of x plus a constant I think
No clue how to proceed from there
Hard to believe that it ends up being a field according to the screenshot lmao
answer given is 1,3
Oh lol I thought it was like "Then: all of these are true"
like if i want to solve 3x+1 +<2x+4>?
ok so can i write it like
2x+x+5+2 +<2x+4>
(2x+5)+x+2+<2x+4>
1+x+2
x+3
?
I think the next step would be to show those elements I claimed are a unique way of writing the elements of R or something like that
x^k+a + I = x^t+b + I implies k=t, and a is b mod 6 or something like that
And then you'd be done
Boni 
I think that works, yea. Uniqueness might be a little strong for proving non-finiteness though.
Hi!
Proving uniqueness here would also mean showing that every element can take a given form, which you had explained you can do. But that is perhaps unnecessary.
Wait... it does? How do you get x^2 + x to that form?
Wait no lol rip I meant in a sum
F
Yeah like that just coefficient 1 or 0 on everything except the degree 0 term
My bad
Yea. That sounds right. You had phrased it correctly earlier.
It just feels a little fiddly to me to also show every element has that form.
Yeah
What I had in mind was contradiction. Assume finite order n. Pick n + 1 elements of your form. Show they must be distinct, as you did. That is sufficient. I think.
Right ok
More like contraduction amirite 🥁 💥
I kid
Still how tf would you do that 
Definitely sufficient
No time to respond in more detail, but I think about „modding out 2x+4“ as „adding the equation 2[x]+4=[0], i.e. 2[x]=[2] (where [x] means the coset of x)
So you have [0] up to [5] and then [x] (in combination: [x]+[0]…[5]), multiples [kx] reduce to ([x] if k odd)+[constant rest] or because the even part becomes a constant due to the new equation
CRT would also help but is less informative for you I guess
problem here is that [0] up to [5] need not be distinct
at least not immediately
since not domain
and we have all the powers of x
I don't think those reduce
dw I made the same exact mistake 🫂
Drive safe 
Hello i am trying to understand this proof in Linear algebraic groups by humphrey and i understand evry step exept the last line where he says that (G,G) and G'_u are connected thus G_u is conmected
Can anyone help me please understand how he came to this conclusion?
I know nothing about this but $G_u$ is the complete preimage of $G_u'$ in the quotient by $(G,G)$ and both of these are connected so maybe there's some theorem youve seen previously that allows you to conclude?
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
G_u is the unipotent elememt of a connected solvable algebraic group
this wont help me help you i have zero familiarity with any of this stuff i just tried to relate to the common mistakes i usually make when i dont understand a proof
best to wait for someone qualified
Okay thank you for the help <3
With the information you would usually get from looking at sylow 2-subgroups of groups of order 26, why aren't the reflections {1, s} in D26 normal? They obviously are not since rsr^{-1} = r^2s
What "goes wrong" with Sylow here, since you know n2 must be 1 right (since 13 is prime and no other subgroups of order 2 of D26, not the info from Sylow)?
there can be 13 sylow 2 subgroups
Yes
But in D26 there are not
does this will help?
Wait lmao it's just because there are literally 13 sylow 2 subgroups 💀
sr^ksr^k= 1 yeah
With Sylow theorems it's so easy to tackle, but how can I prove it without Sylow Theorems?
it smells like induction but I don't know how to use induction on this one
If I remember correctly, you use regular permutation representation of G. I saw it somewhere in Dummit and Foote.
Can someone help me understand this problem?
I got stuck on part b.) (I tried using tower theorem)... and I'm not even sure I did part a.) correctly
If $m_{F,\alpha}\in F[X^n]$, then $m_{F, \alpha^n}$ is going to be exactly $m_{F,\alpha}$ with $X^n$ replaced with $X$
'quid
The degree of the field extension $F(a)$ is the degree of the minimal polynomial of $a$ over $F$, and it's easy to see from what I said above that $\deg(m_{F,\alpha})=n\deg(m_{F,\alpha^n})$
@white nymph
'quid
thanks @woven delta
not necessarily
f(x) = x^4 + 1 is irreducible over Q
but its galois group is (Z/2Z)^2
which doesnt have an element of order 4
so in particular it doesnt have a 4-cycle in it
All you can say is that it acts transitively on the roots but that doesn't imply that there is an n-cycle
does tensor distribute over direct product for R-algebras
It is not obvious from the adjunction and I don't wanna check if the isomorphism for the module case respects multiplication 
actually I guess there is no tensor hom adjunction in this case
only tensor diagonal adjunction since tensor is the left adjoint to the diagonal functor C → C x C
is that right?
because I am trying to solve this
first part is done, need to do the L=k^a case
wait is k^a direct product of k or alg closure of k 
it is algebraic closure 
I spent so much time stressing about this problem and the only clue to k^a being the alg closure was that the a is not in the standard math mode font 
Verifying it is works and is basically trivial. It sends (a,b) (x) c to (a (x) c, b (x) c) and this is just obviously multiplicative
Nice very cool
Ye I thought we are just embedding k into it with the diagonal map and then tensoring
But Lang has to use epic notation 
Yeah but when L is an extension of K
You expect L to be a field
And a direct product of rings isn’t ever an integral domain even
I thought that part was separate from the extension part


Anyway this is an interesting problem
Oftentimes you can actually test separability using an explicit basis
I forget what condition you need, it might be a characteristic assumption?
But you look at the trace of the extension
I haven't seen this
You take a basis of L over K
Number it x_1 through x_j
Then multiplication by x_i is a K-linear map on L
So you can write it as a matrix (with entries in K)
Then take the trace
So what you do is look at
det(trace(x_ix_j))
This being 0 or not is independent of choice of basis
Then it’s separable iff this is non-zero
This is in I think section 24 of Matsumura
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
And also in here probably
will take a look
after this assignment

apparently (iii) obviously implies (iv) and I don't see it
I wonder if this lets you show the “suffices to take L = k^a” part
somehow Hom(P,A) (x) E encodes pairs of maps from P to a free module and free module to E I suppose?
Hmm
I showed it by using the fact that all k-modules are flat because it is a field and then for an inseparable E I took k[b] for some inseparable element b and then showed that this tensored with k^a has a nilpotent
and then this embeds into E (x) k^a so that has a nilpotent
I don't see how
Just take the image
You only need to take maps into the image of f to make the diagram commute
The natural map is f (x) e maps to (p maps to f(p)e) btw
I think
Yeah
but does the property given in (iii) restrict to submodules
oh no
E is a fixed module
apparently this is all equivalent to E being flat
over commutative ring A
sorry I didn't bother stating the set up because I thought you were good enough with commalg to deduce that yourself 
I shall lower my expectations of you
Is your ring Noetherian
No
They wouldn’t specify finitely presented them
Can we assume the ring is coherent?

I shall raise my expectations of you again
There is a hint
but it says
(iii) implies (iv) is easy from hypothesis
what kind of hint is this
is this some encrypted hint
Hmmmm
NGL I don’t see it lol
This is in uhhhh
That Atiyah Macdonald alternative
Damn
btw do you wanna see the endsem for this course
it was shit hard
all problems were like this 
I was so depressed when I had only solved 2 problems fully 3 hours in 
thanfully we got 5 hours in the end
Maybe try inducting on the number of generators of P?
iii gives it to you when P is cyclic
So I was trying to do this by first taking an element of Hom(P,E) whose preimage is f (x) e, just a pure tensor
and I still couldn't see it
I will try inducting on generators of P
lol ye
You know that characterizes finitely presented modules?
they spotted that and sent an email
annoying
If this is true for all direvt systems you’re finitely presented
lol
Anyway the proof is a simple application of 5-lemma
Just like all these functorial isos for finitely presented things
Then I stared at the paper for hours
and finally got all 4 parts of 1
and then 2,4,5 all submitted partially 
Lmfao problem 4
That’s just annoying
The separable field tensor product is a field hs to be false right?
yes
Okay
Oh yeh
can't be a field because 4 dim alg
lmao why would I do that
nope
TFW
wait what are you talking about
IIRc it’s literally just an application of CRT
proved what
isn't that just C being alg closed
For 5
1,2,3 were all there
If you own Algebra 1 by Bourbaki it’s in there
Lmfao for 6
lol even saketh found this exam really hard
I got so lucky, I have solved all the exercises in AM ch1,2,3,
ye lmao
so I remembered the solution
Yes
Like take a flat thing that’s not free then an infinite direct sum of it
I gave Q over Z as an example
gives perspective to see a graduate exam when you think your exams are gonna be hard 
2 is just Galois theory gross
yes it is very gross
3 is easy as we said
is infinite direct sum of flat flat
oh tensor commutes with infinite direct sum
damn
how do you find a not free flat thing though
saketh mentioned an example to me after the exam
something like Z[sqrt -5] or some shit
There’s a lot lol, take something projective that isn’t free
but idk why that's flat
Okay but
Idk examples of those either lmao
I gave Q as example, that is neither, but is localisation of Z and localisation of Z will be flat over itself
lol
Over a Noetherian ring take a power series
damn
This requires a different problem tho
how would I even show that such a thing is flat
That’s in there
You know the finitely presented thing
That you proved
You use that
nice
Then you get that infinite products of flat stuff is flat
Oh I guess it’s slightly different but
The proof that the thing commutes with infinite products
For finitely presented is exactly the same
I see
Anyway that alone gives you a flat thing that isn’t free
Ugh
I don’t really know the norm stuff
I have no clue what tensor means there
is that supposed to be just multiplication in those rings
Where does N(x) go
to A
N: A (x) B → A
and this tensor is over smaller ring R
so x (x)_B y makes no sense to me
unless that is the multiplication of A (x) B
but I don't see why that would be lol
ye
We’re looking at a map from
(A (x) B) (x)_B (A (x) B)
Except I suspect that really should be over R
bruh
NGL
nvm 3 to 4 actually was pretty easy 
These obviously compose to f lol
mns
mns
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It doesn’t make sense to write phi^-1(yxy^-1)
phi^-1 is not a function since phi isn’t assumed to have an inverse (okay technically it’s a function on power sets but whatever)
good point
n’ also totally disappeared
But I see
This is because you tried to swap to G’ using phi^-1 which doesn’t exist
Your strategy is pretty close to correct
You want to show that gn’g^-1 is in phi^-1(N’)
This is saying that phi(gn’g^-1) is in N’
From what you’ve written down so far, you should be able to prove that final statement that I wrote
mns
one thing, should I write another n'' when using the fact that N' normal G' such that I can swap them?
No
You can’t just swap the elements like that
Rewrite the first thing in that chain of equalities using x and y like in your original proof
It should then be obvious that this lies in N’ because N’ is normal
You’ve also never defined phi_1
that was the element from the fact that N' is normal with G'
That doesn’t make sense
Unless
Are you trying to use that gN = Ng??
Rather than the fact that gNg^-1 = N?
well yes g'N' = N'g' for all g' in G'
If so, you shouldn’t use phi_1(n’), rather you’d need to declare that phi(g)phi(n’) = n’’ or something like that, for n’’ in N’
why so
Why not directly use that g’N’g’^-1 = N’?
Then you’d get that phi(g)phi(n’)phi(g^-1) is in N’
that would follow directly
Just by noting that phi(g^-1) = phi(g)^-1
Anyway, yeah this is all there is to it
Sure
then I have phi as an epimorphism and N normal with G. I need to show phi(N) normal G'.
Can I show that for any g' in G' and n in N we have phi^{-1}(g'ng'^(-1)) in N? Since now we have an inverse for phi
I believe so, but you want to be careful since you only get an inverse on one side
You also might need to show that the inverse is actually multiplicative
I would avoid using an inverse
Instead just say something to the effect of “there exists x in G such that phi(x) = n” or something to that effect
and y in G such that phi(y) = g'
Yeah
Using one-sided inverses are just a recipe for disaster
It makes things unclear, it’s sort of harder to follow
And sometimes you’re not sure if what you’re doing is kosher
No problem
Also here’s a specific case where things might turn bad
Suppose you have a map f: G -> {e}
Then your “inverse” really is just a choice of where you send e since every element of G maps to e
But there’s no reason to expect f^-1(e•e) = f^-1(e)•f^-1(e)
Since this is also just equal to f^-1(e)
So if this were multiplicative, since f^-1(e) can be anything in G, you’d have that g^2 = g for all G in G, but this is preposterous
(Or I guess just note that f^-1 doesn’t have to send the identity to the identity so it isn’t necessarily a group homomorphism)
indeed
Anyway the point here is just, if you decided to try and use an inverse, you might accidentally try to use that f^-1 is a group homomorphism
But this isn’t true
we must make sure f is an epimorphism first to use f^-1
Yes, but in the case I outline f is an epimorphism
But f^-1 doesn’t have to be a homomorphism
how is f an epimorphism if it doesn't satisfy injectivity?
Epimorphism is surjectivity
oh shit
And monomorphism is injective
isomorphism is the one
Uhhh
I mean an isomorphism (as a result) is just a bijective homomorphism
A priori it’s a homomorphism with a two-sided inverse (which is also a homomorphism)
I see, more pratice to do! grazie
Np
@next obsidian I think this doesn't make sense if you view N as a map from (A (x) B) (x) (A (x) B) because then the N(x) and N(y) on the other side are in A so you are viewing the other side as A (x) A but then is the first thing a free A (x) A module? Because the middle tensor is over B and I feel like that spoils freeness
I asked a couple classmates and they said they interpreted the tensors as just multiplication
So that seems like a safe thing to do lol
But such a bad way to phrase a question 
It seems that it is free with basis (1 (x) 1) (x) (1 (x) e_i)

im trying to prove that gcd(a,m) = 1 iff a is a unit in Z_m
can anyone gimme a pointer pls
bezout
im following a book and that gets mentioned 200 pages from now 
though i do see how that makes it kinda easy
what is the relationship between isometries and metric spaces
my book is going into analysis 
oh really? i just learned what a metric space is yesterday and the definition of an isometry i just came across reminded of it so idk
metric spaces are analysis/topology
isometries are certain kinds of maps between metric spaces
ahhh
i just saw that they both had to do with the idea of "distance" between points so i thought they might be related
Hi I have this problem : Let $n\geq 1$ , show that if the unit group $\frac{\Z}{n\Z}^*$ isn't cyclic, the nth cyclotomic polynomial $\phi_n$ is reducible in $\frac{\Z}{p\Z}[X]$ for all p prime
rayane
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Hi I have this problem : Let $n\geq 1$ , show that if the unit group $\frac{Z}{nZ}^*$ isn't cyclic, the nth cyclotomic polynomial $\phi_n$ is reducible in $\frac{Z}{pZ}[X]$ for all p prime
rayane
I wanted to know if someone has any idea where to start without fielld extensions ? and if not, with field extensions ?
sorry to post on top of rayane's question... but I need to leave the house now. any hints on how to begin this problem?
Just take the derivative?
Also need to show that it splits
If v is a root of that polynomial, then so is v+1
Im reading a book on differential galois theory, im stuck on smth. Let $E\supset F$ be an integral $F$ algebra, and $T=E \otimes_F E$, then the element $d= a \otimes 1 - 1 \otimes a$ is not nilpotent as long as $a\nin F$
Kanga gang enforcer John
The book actually talks about differential field F and differential algebras, but i suspect that information is not necessary for this part
Nvm just realize its an integral domain lmfao
Exposed
Is it always? Tensor of C with itself over R is not a domain
Hausdorff
Prove both inclusions
If you can write 2 as Z linear combination of 4 and 6, you're done. Don't do it with an arbitrary element
Showing that the generators are there is enough
There's a small glitch here but let's overlook that. I meant x = 2c, and x = 2c_1 + 3c_2
LOL 2 = 6 - 4
Okay this was trivial, thanks
I believe it's true that the ideal generated by a_1, ..., a_n is basically the principal ideal generated by their gcd?
In PIDs yes
Because bezout's lemma applies
Not in UFDs and such
Example is the ideal generated by x and y in R[x,y]
This is a proper ideal, but if R is a UFD then the gcd is 1
Ahh perfect
Wut, in a UFD (x,y) = (gcd(x,y))
fg ideals are principal in a UFD for this reason
I think
except I doubt that fg ideal => principal thing
but I thought that gcds always exist in a UFD
maybe the issue is that (a,b) is properly contained in (gcd(a,b))?
hurb
ye I just gave a counterexample lol
this one
what you saying would make every noetherian UFD a PID
is a UFD always Noetherian?
why can't you have a non fg ideal even if you always had (a,b) = (gcd(a,b))?
I don't think a UFD is Noetherian
I think k[x1,x2,...] is probably a counterexample
not in general
But maybe there's something else going on
im saying every noetherian one would be pid

ffs
I may have asked this in the past, but does anyone have a cool visual representation of a finitely generated module over a pid. I am writing a report on it and would like to add a cool image in the beginning.
hey I think its probably impossible to represent due to torsion in general you can try to represent $Z\bigoplus Z/2Z$ I think it would make no sense since it's a math report pt
rayane
put key exemples ? it could be good
make the torsion part into a circle and you just have higher dimensional cylinders 
easy ahah
$V\cong\bigoplus_{i=1}^rK[X]/(di(X))$ and $G{ab}\cong\bigoplusZ^{\bigoplus r}\bigoplus_{i=1}^{k}Z/p_i^{k_i}Z$
rayane
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I can't seem to be able to write latex but the first one shows vector spaces as $K[X]$ modules and the second one classifies abelian groups (add a Z under the +r) you can put this somewhere
rayane
Ah ok, thanks guys !
Hi, guys, i am confused about graded algebra, for example $A=\bigoplus_{i=1}^\infty A^i$, does it mean every element a in A is in $A^0\oplus...\oplus A^n$ for finite n rather than $a\in A^0\oplus ...\oplus A^n\oplus...$?
cuiyuze0728
they're more or less the same thing, assuming you identify that finite direct sum as a submodule of A
elements of an infinite direct sum are already finitely supported
(just one minor point, that big oplus should start indexing at i = 0, by looking at your description later on)
oh yeah, sorry
so there is no situation such that $a= a_0\oplus a_1\oplus...$ for infinite sum, where $a_i\in A^i$
cuiyuze0728
where only finitely many a_i=0
yep
but it doesn't have to start at 0 right ?
one construction of infinite direct sum is given by looking at the infinite direct product and the submodule in which an element is 0 at all except finitely many places in the tuple.
thanks
also this is just a little bit weird to say.
finitely many nonzero
wait that makes it wrong then
an element of the direct sum is non-zero at finitely many places
so situations where infinitely many are non-zero don't happen
thanks
we don't need to specifically say that as a_i are still allowed to be 0, we're just saying finitely many are non-zero. 
yeah yeah I meant since he wrote $\bigoplus_{i=0}^{n}A^i$ when it can be in any finite sum
rayane
Hi, how can I show this ringisomorphism is surjective?
what is R
The subring of that generated by Q, z^2 and z^3 is all of R
And the image of a ring isomorphism is a subring
In this case containing all of those things
So if I get it right, it is obvious that $\text{Im}(\psi) \subset R$, and to show that $R \subset \text{Im}(\psi)$, we only need to show that $\mathbb{Q} \subset \text{Im}(\psi)$ and $z^2,z^3 \in \text{Im}(\psi)$ ?
Luka835
yes
In our algebra course, we didn't really see the notion of a 'ring generated by ...', what notation is often used for this?
R = (a,b,c,...)
That's for ideal though
Oh, right it's an ideal!
just uhhh abuse the notation or smthn
idk [] maybe if not ideal
write it as a polynomial in z^2 and z^3
like these 2 variables
which you'd have to prove
and then write the preimage of this in terms of the preimages of z^2 and z^3
Okay, I see now. Thank you
looking for help/guidance with this problem. in part a.) i showed that p had no roots in F and was thus irred since deg(p) = 2 (i think this is the correct strategy?). part b.) i was not quite sure how to handle. im assuming we want to use characteristic 2 somehow (ie that u = -u), but im not sure how to proceed
Correct me if I’m wrong but can’t you use that if u^2 - t = 0 then u=+-sqrt(t)
So use the fact that in char p, (x + y)^p = x^p + y^p
And yeah
You know if it has a root in K then it splits
But you can just write it as
(x - sqrt(t))^2
Because this is then x^2 - t = x^2 + t
i discarded the option 3rd , because that will give x^4+x =x(x^3+1) , which is factrozation in non units ,
but facing trouble in 1,2,4 , the given polynomial is of unit content, so there is if and only if condition over irreducibility over Q and Z, Now for option 1, this polynomial reduces to x^4+x^3+x^2+x+1 , which is a cyclotomic polynomial and i know that it is irreducible over Q , but here we are doing this over Z2, is this irreducible over Z2 or not? please give me a hint.
sorry for that i edited the question
So one of the 4 is wrong?
you have to find which of these four is/are true, it can be all , or less then four
So have you tried using the rational root theorem for question 2 and 4? That is to show it has no linear root. Then since it is of degree 4 you can see if f(x) is the product of two degree 2 polys
is it worth it to use rational root theorem here?
