#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 648 of 407
If you think that is simpler than doing the rational root theorem then you should try it
by replacing x with x+1 i get x^4+5x^3+10x^2+10x+5
That does look simpler.
but i am doing this whole thing in Z2, does this answer for Q? , i am confused here
In Z2? Then after you substitute x+1 you get x^4+x^3+1
In Z2 it is far simpler to (use the rational root theorem)<—NO NEED. Because if there is no linear root then you have that f(x)= (x^2+ ax+1)(x^2 +bx + 1) with a and b in Z/2Z
And you only have a few options to check
okk , let me try this one more time
Fair enough
but the degree here is grater then 3
just to make sure.... if Z mod pZ isomorphic to K contained in F (field), then F has characteristic p, yes? since 1+1 + ... + 1 (p times) = 0 in K, for a in F we have pa = (1+1+ ... +1) a = 0a = 0. i get tripped up on somewhat trivial things and worry about taking things for granted which are not necessarily true
Yes
There’s a sort of converse to this. Every field contains a prime subfield, which is one of F_p or Q. It contains F_p iff it is char p and contains Q iff it is char 0
yeah im familiar with that. i was unsure if my partial converse stated above was true 🙂
thanks
Thank you , i got it
Is $\equiv_6$ supposed to denote a modulo $6$ relation in general?
I am given $x \equiv_6 y$ iff $x-y = 6k$ where k is in the integers.
Fredrikpiano
i havent seen that notation but it's probably textbook dependent
given the relation specified it makes sense
Also, I showed that this is an equivalence relation, but when finding all the equivalence classes Im unsure if there are $6$ or $11$? I.e do I need to give the sets $[1] = {\dots, -5, 1, 7, 13, \dots }$ or $[1] = {1,7,13, \dots }$ and $[-1] = { -1,-7, \dots }$ separately ?
Fredrikpiano
[-1] = [5]
Since k is in Z it makes sense that there should be 6 equivalence classes no?
yes
ok, thanks
could also use the notation $[1] = {6k+1 | k \in \field{Z} },...$ I guess. But in the book Im using they just list the elements
Fredrikpiano
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in proving that C is field, how do you prove commutativity of addition and simple stuff like thst
is literally writing out just... enough
what is your definition of C
the complexes
yes... but how did you define them
ordered pairs of real numbers (a,b) = a + bi, i having the obv definition
use the fact that addition in R is commutative
ahhh that's what i was weary of
weary? that makes it sound like a bad thing lol
nono i mean like if i just expand (a,b) + (c,d) it's a + bi + c +di, then i thought moving things around would be using the commutativity im trying to prove
but a and c are just reals so
use the commutativity on the ordered pairs side
(a + bi) + (c + di) = (a,b) + (c,d) [by definition of C]
= (a+c, b+d) [by definition of addition of ordered pairs]
= (c+a, d+b) [since addition in R is commutative]
= (c,d) + (a,b)
= (c+di) + (a+bi)
or that too yeah
i mean i think that is the right way to do it
like you said you have to be careful
that you dont use teh commutatitivity youre trying to prove
what i did was that (a,b) + (c,d) =
a + bi + c + di (definition)
= a + c + bi + di (commutativity of reals)
= (a + c) + (b + d)i (associativity of reals - this is the one im unsure about bc of the 'factoring')
= (c + a) + (d + b)i
...
= (c,d) + (a,d)
bi is not real, so why bi + c = c + bi
similarly you used the distributive law for complex numbers, which you probably don't have
wasn't this exactly your point?
that you have to be careful to not use a commutativity law that you havent proven yet
it was indeed, that's what i first had, hence i asked
thanks for clarifications yall
Hello there, I am stuck on part c) of this atm I'm struggling to prove the ring is closed under multiplication. More specifically I think the roots of f(x) cycle round for higher powers but I am not sure how to prove that without directly calculating the roots.
oh my god
this isn't special to this polynomial
by which i mean like
it could be any irreducible degree 4 poly
and this would still be true
np :)
I can't believe I missed that
anyway
swiftly moving on, hope to pretend this exchange never happened goodbye
haha it happens to everyone
yo
so for the reals, multiplication is thought of as repeated addition, clearly a solid relationship between the two operations. however, in abstract algebra, they're treated as completely separate. someone explain pls
im not sure i even agree with your first sentence
how do you interpret e*pi?
how do you add pi to itself e times?
oh that's right
only for integers then
so for reals, is there a connection between addition and multiplication?
because there definitely is in the discrete world but now im thinking maybe not in the continuous world
yes: if n is an integer and r is a real
then n*r = r + r + ... + r
n times
and that's true in any ring
👍
I've never really given this much thought until now. Maybe I did when I was a lot younger and I've since forgotten about the difficulties of interpreting such a statement.
it was meant as a rhetorical question
you can't "add pi to itself e times" because that doesn't really have any actual meaning
the point is that "multiplication is repeated addition" only really makes sense with natural numbers
No, I get that it makes no sense. It was just something I haven't really thought of.
ah okay yeah
I know what you mean like
we are taught that "multiplication is just repeated addition" from such ayoung age
It fails to extend to things like the complex numbers and matrices too.
I wonder if many kids get confused by this when they're introduced to rationals and irrationals.
i'm sure a nonzero number of them because ive seen questions about it in this server
really it starts with square roots
that's when I first remember dealing with non integer stuff
of that sort
like "wtf is a half power, multiplying it 1/2 of a time?"
yeah i think that's the exact same issue
"exponents are repeated multiplication" only works for natural number exponents
exactly
I should prove that G acts primitively
I don’t understand why do we need this pair statement at all
I’ve tried assuming that it doesn’t act primitively, supposed that there are two disjoint blocks B and B^g but nothing leads me to a contradiction
are you sure you have that hypothesis right
because right now it's meaningless
do you maybe mean "for each pair (x,y) and (x',y') of elements in X^2 where x \neq y and x' \neq y' there exists a g such that x' = x^g and y' = y^g"
?
non-primitivity basically means that G moves X around in "blocks"
but the hypothesis is kind of telling you that G moves each element around completely independently
and those are at odds with each other
If X = X1 U X2 where X1 and X2 are disjoint blocks
(assuming the action is imprimitive)
and if x, y are elements in X1
if x^g is in X2 you know that y^g must also be in X2
Yup
but our assumption on the group action basically tells us that we should be able to move x and y around independently from each other
i.e. we should be able to find some g in G such that x^g is in X2 but y^g stays in X1
and that would violate imprimitivity
see if you can make that precise
I mean proving this would be enough
that's the definition of imprimitivity
We’ve defined imprimitivity as blocks being non trivial
yes
Oh okay
X1 and X2 are your nontrivial blocks
Got it
assume the action is imprimitive, therefore X = X1 U X2 where X1 and X2 are nontrivial
and that's where they come from
Thanks!
np
I want to make a non abelian finite group of order 55 , any hint?
do you know about semidirect products?
okk i will try , now i have a hint.
random interesting question I thought of: what is the transcendence degree of the hyperreals over R?
||so far I have trdeg >= aleph_1, so if CH is true we are done since trdeg <= |R|. not sure if we can do any better though||
ok i check the definition of semi direct product , i found out that
55 =5 x 11 , so it will have normal subgroup of order 11, and also there will subgroups of order 5 ( by sylow), and both of them will be cyclic , also they will have only identity common because of order of subgroups , and also product of these two subgroups will form original subgroup , because product will have 55 , so we can say original group is semi direct product of Z_ 5 and Z_11?
yep, so what you have proven is that if you have a group of order 55 then it has to be a semi-direct product of Z5 and Z11.
shouldn't be a non abelian?
direct products are special cases of semidirect products >.<
there is a way to do semi-direct product externally as well!
you take groups H and N and a map H --> Aut(N) and use this data to make a nice group!
so if you can guarantee a non-trivial map H --> Aut(N), then you have a non-abelian semi-drect product 
This looks tough one , but i will try , btw Thankyou 
the idea behind semidirect products is actually super simple.
and what is that idea?
lets look at the internal situation
say G is a group, N is a normal subgroup, H is some other subgroup such that N and H intersect trivially and NH = G
what we know is that any element of G can be written as g = n*h for some n in N and h in H
and this decomposition is unique.
so the question is how do you multiply together n1*h1 and n2*h2
one answer is just put then together
n1 * h1 * n2 * h2
but we want to write it as an element in N times an element in H
that's where we use normality!
n1 * (h1 * n2 * h1^{-1}) * (h1 * h2)
so if you wanted to perform this computation, all you need to know is how h1 conjugates n2, right?
that's why normality is important while driving semi direct product?
so if someone gives you the map H --> Aut(N) which sends h to (conjugation by h) then we have all the data
that's how the construction practically goes
you look at pairs (n, h) and say we have the map phi : H --> Aut(N)
then (n1, h1) * (n2, h2) = (n1 * phi(h1)(n2), h1 * h2)
this is the definition of the multiplication map
all the usual verification are carried out that this indeed forms a group and stuff
there is another way to look at this, and it's like matrix multiplication
so in our case, say we wanted to make a group of order 55
notice that Aut(Z11) =~ Z10 and so it has a subgroup of order 5
it's {1, 3, 4, 5, 9}
in (Z11)*
(all powers of 3)
so we can look at matrices of the form
$G = \left{\begin{bmatrix}a & b\ 0 & 1\end{bmatrix} : a \in {1, 3, 4, 5, 9}\text{ and } b \in \mathbb{Z}_{11}\right}$
latex is so hard
det
(it's sort of like the group of affine transformations)
a corresponds to some scaling and b corresponds to some translation!
btw is there a std notation for this group?
I don't know any or what it's actually called
Which group?
$G= \left{ \m{ a & b \ 0 & 1} : a \equiv 1 (\mod p^2), b \in Z_{p^2}\right}$
some version of this
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Affine_group
In mathematics, the affine group or general affine group of any affine space over a field K is the group of all invertible affine transformations from the space into itself.
It is a Lie group if K is the real or complex field or quaternions.
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where does a live in this?
so a = 1?
no like 1+mp form
oh 1 mod p?
mod p, my bad
i haven't really seen a name for this one
but there is like another group of order p^3 which has a name
yea
ig no one cared because it can be written as a semi-direct product 
they haven't bothered to name the 2nd non-iso group of order p³
true
i tried this and get that only identity , and 2cycle 2cycle 1cycle , satisfies this, but is there any mathematical way, because i solved this with just guess?
if we put j = sigma(i) then we want i <= sigma^2(i) for every i. this probably implies sigma^2 = id
and if sigma^2 = id then sigma^-1 = sigma and for this sigma^-1(j) = sigma(j) which is satisfied
so you might be missing the cycle type(12)(3)(4)(5)
my bad
The notation i know is $AGL_n(K)$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
which is pretty ugly but not much uglier than PGLn i guess

i tried to solve this, first option is wrong , but i have doubt in 2,3,4, for second option should i have to show that C[0,1]/<x> iso to some field?
hey
V,W vector spaces. T : V -> W is an homomorphism. Then T is an isomorphism if T is injective (why we don't need to check surjective?)
That doesn't sound right 
either it's assumed to be surjective or it's talking about T(V) and not whole W
IG they assumed it to be surjective anyway, because you can always replace W by T(V)
ok, so T must be bijective to be an isomorphism..
ye
Yeah, it must be
another thing
We have V_n the vector space of polynomials of degree less than N and F^n the vector space of tuples with n entries (both vector spaces are over F)
We want to show V_n is isomorphic to F^n
The injective part is easy as have two vectors, v,w in V_n with v = ax^(n-1)+bx^(n-2)+...+c and w = ... such that T(v) = T(w). then they both have the same coefficients and we would see that v-w = 0 so v=w
The surjective part is easy as well but I have some problem wording it
I could let (a,b,...,c) be an arbitrary n tuple
Then since F^n is over F, there must be a vector v with coefficients a , b , ... c
How would you do the surjective part?
$(a_0, a_1, \cdots, a_{n-1}) \mapsto a_0+a_1x^2+\cdots + a_{n-1}x^{n-1}$
so you did T^(-1)
but what next?
isn't he proved the surjective part?
for every tuple of type (a_0,a_1.......,a_{n-1})there is a polynomial in V_n?
yes
one and onto homomorphism === isomorhpism
Herstein has this notational issue
Its clarified at the end of that paragraph
Let R be a commutative ring viewed as an R-module over itself, and let M be an R-module. Show that Hom(R, M) is isomorphic to M. Do anyone here have any idea how to do this?
If I understand correctly Hom(R, M) is a module over R, and it inherits addition from M, but I don't know how to identify the elements together.
hmmm
Can you do it if R is a field
I see it but
yeah, then M would be a vector space. so the set of linear transformations from F to a vector space over F would just be F^n, right? The set of linear transformations from F to a vector space over F is isomorphic to the vector space itself.
n dimension of M
Right so
Can you think of an explicit isomorphism
without directly using dimension I mean
pick any element m of M, and then phi(r) = rm?
Yup
aaaaah. i understand now.
i thought about basis vectors in the vector space, but this is how it would be for a general module
okay thanks
uh I still don't understand how should I write the proof for the exercise above
I've already showed phi is an homomorphism
Moreover, for any v,w in W such that phi(v) = phi(w) we must show v = w
oh
another way to prove is to show ker(phi) = (0)
I am looking for all the possible ways to do this exercise tho
What is phi?
oh sorry, I mean $\phi : W \rightarrow V$
mns
Think about the case when F is algebraically closed
what's that?
When all polynomial factor into linear factor
wdym?
How does that simplify things?
I am interested in knowing what you would do after defining S
Prove that TS and ST are both identities on their respective domains
So T is an invertible homomorphism ie isomorphism
I am sorry, I didn't understand what you meant with TS and ST being both identities on their respective domain
T ∘ S = identity homomorphism
why not just show W has dimension n by exhibiting a basis of size n? general stuff takes care of the rest.
general stuff

Det is talking about "V ≅ W iff dim V = dim W"
I mean, I am asking because I don't see how someone would do the proof by showing phi is bijective
What definition of isomorphism do you have?
I see the injective part tho
this condition follows when field is same? or for different fields?
uh phi is a bijective homomorphism
Same field
Can you show phi is surjective ?
Invertible maps are bijective
I can't
So TS and ST being identity → T invertible → T bijective
I mean x^i to e_{i+1} and extend linearly
Very often invertibility is easier to show/phrase than bijectivity arguments
The goal is badly written tho
And also isomorphisms are actually defined as invertible homomorphisms, in the case of vector spaces bijectivity → invertibility but this is not always the case so the invertible definition is better to get used to
You shouldn't say TS = id = ST
Because they are equal to different identity maps
Yep
the only definition of invertibility I know is that the function must be injective and surjective
that's why I am used to show both things
Invertibility means having an inverse
So T is invertible if there is some S such that ST and TS are identities
but in this exercise I was having an hard time showing T is surjective because after taking (a,b,...,c) in F^n I didn't know what to do
(a,b,...,c) 
The preimage of an element of F^n is S applied to that element
Because TS is identity
Here since they’re both finite dimensional, the dimension is everything you need
Yep
Dimension is everything you need even in infinite dimensions if you are trying to show an isomorphism
yeah but I didn't defined S so I was kinda stuck
So TS and ST equal id of domains it means T is invertible and therefore T is bijective
Nope, not for vector spaces
But here you can say T is invertible as a set map to make your life slightly easier lol
Because otherwise you would have to show that S is linear
Because invertible homomorphism means homomorphism that has an inverse homomorphism
But it is enough here that T has an inverse set map, because that alone guarantees bijectivity
hum
Basically I'm saying that here it doesn't matter whether S is linear or not
why?
Linearity of S is enforced by being the inverse of T
I see
Inverse of a linear map is linear automatically
where can this fail then?
And that is exactly why for vector space maps, invertibility = bijectivity
Inverse of a continuous map is not necessarily continuous, so this can fail in metric/topological spaces where we talk about continuous functions (and isomorphisms are continuous functions with continuous inverses)
Or inverse of an order preserving map between partially ordered sets need not be order preserving
So for partial orders too, invertibility is stronger than bijectivity
In those case checking bijectivity is not enough to check if something is an isomorphism

in this problem, im not sure whether the statement is true or false... i.e. i dont understand something going on here/dont know how to begin... and any help would be appreciated.
in this problem i see that im trying to get that all the roots ought to be roots of unity (else the poly would have infinite roots), but im not sure how to begin showing part a.)
Let L be the splitting field of f over F, L’=F(sqrt(m)) you have that
dim(L’/L)dim(L/F)=dim(L’/F)=dim(L’/K)dim(K/F) therefore dim(L’/K)=3dim(L’/L) and dim(L’/L) is either 1 or 2
im having a hard time understanding your notation @terse crystal
in the dim notation, sometimes you have the smaller field on top and sometimes the smaller on bottom and im confused.
?
dim(L’/L)dim(L/F)=dim(L’/F) i dont follow
F is a sub field of L and L is a sub field of L’ then the dimension of L’ over F equals the multiplication of the dimension of L over F and the dimension of L’ over L
the splitting field is a subfield of L'?
Yes by construction
Perhaps u meant L'=L(sqrt(m))
Thanks
why dim(L’/K)=3dim(L’/L) @terse crystal ?
i see now the two towers of field extenstions you made
2 dim(L’/k)=6 dim(L’/L)
so saying dim(L'/K) = 3 or 6 is equivalent to saying that f(x) is either irred in K or factors as two irred cubics?
Let g(x)=f(x^2) since g(a)=0=f(a) therefore f divides g, there exists h such that f(x^2)=f(x)h(x)
Yes
thanks much!
last question i have for now is: if i have field F (not characteristic 2) and K an extension of F of degree 2. how to show that K = F(\sqrt{a}) for some a in F? i know how to show that if K = F(\alpha), the min poly for alpha over F splits in K, but then how to show that alpha = sqrt{a}
Try using the quadratic formula
you choose any x from K\F
alpha won't necessarily be sqrt a
F<=F(x)<=K therefore [F(x):F]|[K:F]=2 therefore K=F(x)
Yeah but x may not be the square root of something in F
to emphasize, i just want to show that K = F(\sqrt{a}) for some a in F. the other stuff i typed may not be relevant
Yes, try looking at the quadratic formula. Basically take a generator and replace it with some quantity that is the square root of something
But still gives the same extension
so youre saying since K = F(alpha), we have alpha^2+a*alpha+b = 0 (for some a and b in F). use quadratic formula here to get something that shows alpha is a sqrt? if so, this is what i tried first and failed.... i can try again
No, alpha won't be a sqrt
?
You replace it with some other generator that is a sqrt
a^2+sa+t=0 then you already said that characteristic is not 2 therefore (a+s/2)^2+t-s^2/4=0
Then let b=a+s/2 then F(a)=F(b)
Where b^2 is from F
Yeah exactly, you're replacing alpha with sqrt of the discriminant of its minimal polynomial
okay so lemme see here... how on earth to know to rewrite a^2+sa+t as (a+s/2)^2+t-s^2/4? also, how do we know that b^2 = (a+s/2)^2 = a^2+as+s^2/4 is in F?
Completing the square
Expand out the (...)²
yeah but is this just a common technique to use in such problems?
these are old exam questions showcasing common techniques/stuff to know... and id need to be able to do these problems quickly/recognize how to approach
It is a technique you use to deal with quadratics a lot
That's how you derive the quadratic formula too
kk
Also the second part is true because that polynomial is 0 when you substitute a, sand so that squared things is t-s²/4 which is in F
Yeah s and t are elements of F
oh, since a^2+sa+t = 0, a^2 + sa = -t so (a+s/2)^2 = a^2+sa+s^2/4 = -t+s^2/4, and since s,t in F, yes?
Ye
Sorry if this has been asked before. I'm learning about finite subgroups $\Gamma$ of rigid plane transformations. There's a proof that says any such subgroup has at least one fixed point. The proof creates a barycenter by taking any point "s" and applying and averaging all the group elements g: $p = \sum_{g'} g'(s)$. It then uses linearity of any rigid motion m to show that $m(p) = 1/n * \sum_{g'} m\ o\ g'$. Letting m be another element of the subgroup, we get that $m\ o\ g'$ is some third element of $\Gamma$, and so the sum just gets reordered - and since vector addition is commutative we get $p$ back. However, how are we guaranteed that $g\ o\ g'$ for $(g,g') \in \Gamma^2$ leads to a unique element in $\Gamma$? In order to "reorder" our sum we'd need a guarantee that we are simply relabeling, no?
yablak
Hmm; i suppose if $g1 * g2 = g1 * g3$, then that must imply that $g2=g3$ otherwise we can't have inverses and nice things like this 🙂
yablak
sorry for the silly question!
yeah, multiplication by an element of the group is a bijection
btw I found this statement on https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tensor_product
isn't it false for the vector space with two elements?
i.e. iso to F_2
because then any sum that equals the nonzero element must contain the nonzero element
yes
nice
dumb question: if there is an element with order = order of the group that element is in, does that mean that the group must be cyclic?
yes
now prove it 😎
uhhhhhhh
that element would be a generator of the group, since its order is the order of the group?
but how can it be the only one
wait a sec i'm dumb
so since the group has 1 generator, it's syclice?
*cyclic
am i right?
basically
the group could have more than one generator
err, well I think maybe I'm misreading what you meant by that
i think they mean that it can be generated by a single element
it has at least one generator?
yeah, a cyclic group is generated by a single element
since the order of that element is equal to the order of the group, all the elements are distinct
so that must be the full group
uhhh merosity wdym?
I just meant g and g^-1 generate the same cyclic group but are not necessarily the same, that's why I said this
I misinterpretted you as saying that it was uniquely generated
some one would like to give me any hint?
show that C[0, 1]/{f in C[0, 1] : f(0) = 0} is a field
Nice exercise
,trying to find that isomorphism
hint: ||consider the map f -> f(0)||
yes it is isomorphism ( pointwise multiplication and addition) , and kernel is {f : C[0,1] : f(0)=0}?
you're right about the kernel, but that map is not an isomorphism
sorry a , surjective map to R?
yes
my bad
so what do you get when you quotient C[0, 1] by its kernel?
and what does that say about the ideal {f: f(0) = 0}
maximal
bingo
Was his namo
can you please guide me for other two parts?
If R/I is integral domain, then what can be said about I
I is prime ideal
okk got it , let take x and x-1 , there product x(x-1) is in given ideal but individually they are not in that ideal , which contradict the definition of prime ideal?
Right
If you learn some algebraic geometry, then #4 is not true in general (over a scheme) that sometimes functions are not determined by their values at points
is this a direct result form algebraic geometry ? can i try this without algebric geometry bcs i don't have any knowledge of AG?
You don’t need AG for this
okkk, then i will try
Are the real numbers mod 1, R/Z, a field?
Non integer rationals are zero divisors so no
R/Z isn't even a ring
multiplication isn't associative
(21/2) * 1/2 = 01/2 = 0
but 2*(1/2 * 1/2) = 2*1/4 = 1/2
is there a more general perspective on this, like if we drop the requirement of a ring homomorphism to send multiplicative identity to multiplicative identity, then having 0 and 1 having the same image ends up losing associativity or something?
Sounds like if I want to represent the circle group using linear algebra, I'd need it to be over the field of complex numbers then?
No
Or hmm
You could take R^2\{0} and let the operation be multiplication (like for the complexes). So the units of C, then mod out by the span of a single vector. But this is as an abelian group, not as a vector space
Actually I think the circle can’t be a vector space really since idk what 0 would be
is it not just SO(2)
what feels wrong about using 2x2 rotation matrices
Idk, something was telling me it isn’t a vector space
But they are I think
Bad intuit
Isn't the circl group too 1 dimensional to be a vector space over ℂ
Seems like it yeah
what you can at least say when dropping that requirement is that if the multiplicative identity is not preserved it becomes a zero divisor but idk about associativity
i mean the circle group is definitely not iso to $\mathbb{C}^n$ for any $n$ so i dont see how it could be a finite dimensional vector space (im not sure how you would argue against infinite dimensional)
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
If it were a complex vector space it would be a >=2 dimensional real vector space but there is no way to define a real scalar action on it because for a non zero vector v in it (the zero vector has to be 1), rv = v^r has to be true for all rational r (this is true for r = 1) so take v to be -1 and r to be 2 and then r has to act like 0
it just looks weird because the multiplication of the circle group is the addition of the vector space
Yeah
another way to rephrase the argument is by saying R/Z as an abelian group has torsion elements, say 1/2. can't be vector space at all.
Why do torsion elements prevent it from being a vector space
Well as a vector space over C that makes sense
But over some finite field
vectors spaces are free and torsion free right?
I don’t fully know what that means 😔
vector spaces are flat so can't have torsion
my brain after doing the grad alg assignments
lol
But what about F_p over itself or am I saying nonsense
Torsion is when non zero element kills it
and fields have inverse so 1 will kill it, which is bad
p is 0 in F_p
Alright this stems from me misunderstanding the word torsion lemme look it up
yeah torsion as an abelian group is any non zero element of Z killing it tho
Right okay
yea right, we probably need to say both 1/2 and 1/3 are torsion elements, so field can't have char 2 or 3 as well
det's original phrasing works for char 0
I got confused with this
bob told me that axler thing has a happy ending
who the heck is bob
oh that bob
yeah he doesn't say det bad
he say linear alg bad if taught with det
so det should not be allowed in intro linear alg classes
Honestly though
what's bad about it tho?
I agree with the viewpoint that it’s weird to use it
read paper
Like
My teacher developed a bunch of intro multi linear algebra and even mentioned what I think was character theory to define the determinant
And then the only real application was as an invariant polynomial and a criteria for inversibility
axler does all the char polynomial stuff without det too
woah
We didn’t even have time to look at the characteristic polynomial lol
I still need to read through that part of the notes
so like does he use smith normal form? 
There was a very nice seminar though a few weeks back about classifying all invariant polynomials
lul no idk
haven't read
wait you can probably do stuff if you assume alg closure and stuff with triangularizability
Axler based
he does define generalized eigenvalues right at the beginning
i remember that's how we proved cayley hamilton in sem1
I properly learned how minimal polynomial of matrix works and how to properly use jordan form while preparing for endsem of alg4 with saketh lol
alg4 had endsem is what surprises me more 
What do you do in alg4
ah yes, makes a lot more sense now xD
galois theory and modules over PID
I see
Jordan form came up when doing modules over PIDs
we proved jordan form by induction in linear algebra 
every lecture was basically induction

(then we met toc 😭)
Toc?
theory of computation
Like complexity classes and stuff?
automata, grammar stuff as well
Yeah okay
I don’t think we have that sadly
Just some really introductory stuff on Turing machines and complexity classes in our ICC course from first sem
in proof theory endsem we had to prove that some system NK(→, \bot) has weak normalisation 
it was so fuckal
more than 10 induction cases

Even the hint for that problem was a page long

Lmao
the problem was just "prove weak normalisation for this"
moldi will you TA model theory?
if they have a TA yes
I will have to study lol

kummini tho 
Are you two in the same school
yes
Ah i see
I taught det cat theory 
what's with stog >.<
It would be healthy to stop posting elephant shit 
i'll have to redo those string diagrams and unit-counit adjunction stuff, got pretty complicated towards the end
I’d argue none except some experience in proof writing
But linear algebra can’t hurt
i'd say knowing some stuff like det and a little elementary number theory would help, as they give some nice examples
Fair enough
Sadge
I used string diagrams in a gal assignment last week lul
Needed the fact that right adjoints preserve limits so included the proof
Try proving that maybe
It was tricky using string diagrams
whats gal?
Graduate algebra course at det and my uni 
This sem was galois theory, category theory, modules
tensor and flatness and projective/injective modules stuff
nicee
I have Galois Theory in about a month. Simultaneously with topology, complex analysis and dynamical systems
Not gonna be a very healthy semester
oh I had the same except diff eqns instead of dynamical systems
I have diff geometry, diff manifold, rings modules and statistical inference this sem

pray
10
i have galois theory, topology and complex analysis as well
starting on monday
might drop the complex analysis, I think it will be too much
Hi, so I’m trying to compute the cyclic index of a dihedral group, my first guess is to see how permutations look like, but I’m having a trouble finding their cyclic decomposition, can anyone help me seeing how they look like or if there is any alternate approach to finding the cyclic index
I’m computing cyclic index for the general Dihedral group, not for some particular case
I know how rotation looks like obviously, but I have no I idea how to find how r^2 looks like for example
what's the cyclic index? 
Or cycle index
oh i haven't seen this definition yet.
for r^k, you can break it into two parts. Say gcd(n, k) = d. Then r^d will be product of d disjoint n/d-cycles. And now we need to take that to the power of k/d. since gcd(n/d, k/d) = 1, they'll remain n/d cycles.
so r^k is product of (n, k) many cycles which of which has order n/(n, k)
(i'm assuming r is the n-cycle (123...n))
there are phi(n/d) many values of k for which (k, n) = d, like we said, each one has d disjoint n/d-cycles
det
need to handle the reflections now...
Yeah
need to take cases tho, for odd n they look like bunch of 2-cycles and a fixed point. but for even n, you either have no-fixed points or two fixed points.
depending on whether reflection is through a pair of sides or through a pair of opposite points
Thanks, that was really helpfull
reading about complexes - it said that any complex num z = r(cos(theta) + i sin(theta))
does this apply to something like z = e^i as well
im trying to think of complexes not of the form a + bi is all
though ig e^i could be manipulated into that form...?
do i need to be super familiar with polynomials to study homomorphisms and quotient rings
there's a chapter on polynomials in my book that i really wanna skip, it goes through the euclidean algo for polynomials, rational root theorem, fundamental thm of algebra (which i have some familiarity with already), and some other stuff
No, polynomials are one of the reasons for studying ring theory
So are usually discussed first
But it is good to have some examples that you can work with
sounds like im skipping the chapter 
e^i = cos(1) + isin(1)
this holds for any complex number, and in fact, you'll most commonly see cos(theta) + isin(theta) written as e^(i theta)
knowing the euclidean algorithm exists is important, knowing the rational root theorem exists is important, knowing the fundamental theorem of algebra exists is important. Being able to compute the euclidean algorithm for polynomials is not important
Hey
fajitas
I also want to question something about defining operations on Hom(U,V)
U,V vector spaces
So, we want to define an operation on Hom(U,V) namely for T,S in Hom(U,V), we have (T+S)(x) = T(x)+S(x). First of all I want to show this operation is well defined.
To do so, should I take T,S,R,Q in Hom(U,V) such that T+S = R+Q and demonstrate that (T+S)(x) = (R+Q)(x) right?
I sense something is wrong here, namely in the T+S = R+Q step
i think you just have to show that T+S is actually an element of Hom(U,V). so just show that it's a linear map
but
uh
so (T+S)(x+y) = (T+S)(x)+(T+S)(y) = T(x)+S(x)+T(y)+S(y) = T(x+y) + S(x+y)
?
well technically you have to say (T+S)(x+y)=T(x+y)+S(x+y)=T(x)+T(y)+S(x)+S(y)=(T+S)(x)+(T+S)(y) but yeah
(T+S)(ax)=T(ax)+S(ax)=a(T(x)+S(x))=a(T+S)(x)
Ok I have some questions
The initial goal was to define addition and scalar multiplication on Hom(U,V) as to make it a vector space
Define addition as (T+S)(x) = T(x)+S(x)
Now we proceed to show this operation is well defined; To do so we need to check linearity of T+S. I.e, (T+S)(x+y) = (T+S)(x)+(T+S)(y). Also (T+S)(ax) = a(T+S)(x). Hence linearity is verified and T+S in Hom(U,V).
Now shouldn't we define scalar multiplication? I.e, for any a in F and T in Hom(U,V) we must have aT in Hom(U,V)
This is the exercise tho
everything youve said is correct
the only thing missing is that i dont think you've said what aT is
i.e.
how do you define (aT)(x)
for x in U
Ok, so define scalar multiplication on Hom(U,V) as for any a in F and T in Hom(U,V): aT(x) = T(ax) (correct?)
you should use parentheses when you write aT(x)
so that it's clear that you're talking about (aT)(x)
and not a * T(x)
Correction: (aT)(x) = T(ax)
you can define (aT)(x) = T(ax), yes
you can also define it as (aT)(x) = a * T(x)
which are the same because T(ax) = a * T(x) since T is a linear map
yes -- is the map x --> T(ax) linear?
i.e., show that (aT)(x+y) = (aT)(x) + (aT)(y)
and (aT)(bx) = b * (aT)(x)
(aT)(x+y) = (aT)(x)+(aT)(y) = T(ax)+T(ay).
Also, (aT)(bx) = T(abx) = bT(ax)
that first line is bad
you need to prove that (aT)(x+y) = (aT)(x) + (aT)(y)
so you can't start witht hat as your first equality
Oh I see (aT)(x+y) = T(a(x+y)) = T(ax+ay) = T(ax)+T(ay)
Interesting, so the exercise is finished?
i mean, this is what it asked you to do
i guess technically to prove it's a v.s. you need to check all the axioms
like associativity and distributive property
but like
that's annoying
imo this is enough
np
Quick question: Let $H$ and $K$ be uncountably infinite subgroups of an uncountably infinite abelian group $G$. Furthermore, assume $H$ and $K$ intersect nontrivially.
Why is it true that $(H+K)/H\cong K/(H\cap K)$?
Note that the $+$ is not a direct sum. Furthermore, the assumptions regarding the intersection of $H$ and $K$ and the cardinality of $H$, $K$, and $G$ may be completely irrelevant
Isaiah
My professor took this as a "simple fact" in lecture, I'm struggling to see it
isnt this just the nth isomorphism theorem for either n = 2 or n = 3?
np
and i just looked it up, i think it's the second one
which doesn't make any assumptions on cardinality
How would y'all recommend preparing for a course in commutative algebra/algebraic number theory?
make sure you remember everything from your algebra class ig
@boreal lion another example is the mod n map
from Z to Z/nZ
then n gets mapped to 0
yes, it does
Perfect, thank you
Are there any nice examples of vector spaces which aren't isomorphic to their double dual? The simplest I know is set of finite sequences in R
anything infinite dimensional
Oh wow yeah i just found that now whilst researching, cheers :)
I'm gonna go over the giant list of potential problems they have for the algebra prelim exam
It covers basically every bit of algebra from undergrad
I recently finished a course on algebraic number theory so I can weigh in a bit on what knowledge we needed. Our course began with a discussion on field extensions because the primary algebraic structure you'll be learning are number fields which are finite extensions of Q. You'll also need to familiarise yourself with ideals as the topic of norms (and norms of ideals) remain a fairly big chunk of the course. Ramification theory also covers a bit of the isomorphism theorems
is the splitting field of f(x) the same as the splitting field of xf(x)?
specifically, why do we say that F_(q) is the splitting field of X^q-X? Isn't this the same as the splitting field of X^(q-1)-1?
Idk how deep my class will go but we're starting with field extensions and some Galois Theory then moving to the algebraic number theory stuff
idk how quickly we'll go through the field extensions and galois theory stuff though
splitting field just means smallest field where it factors completely into linear factors, the extra x is a linear factor that doesn't affect this so it doesn't matter
yeah
x^q - x has derivative -1 in a field of characteristic p, which is convenient for showing it has no repeated roots
although you could just as well use x^(q-1)-1 to show this too
just seems cleaner that way
Thanks! That makes sense
plus it kind of looks nice when talking about the frobenius automorphism, x^q=x fixes elements
x^(q-1)=1 being true only for the multiplicative group
not too serious really, yup, you're welcome
Ahh I did use the frobenius a few months ago, so that adds up 🙂
If p and q are irreducibles in R which is a Euclidean domain,is it true that |R/<pq>|=|R/<p>| |R/<q>| in general?
I think so yeah! R is a commutative ring with 1 so <pq> = <p><q>, and then just use Chinese remainder theorem to get R/(<p><q>) iso R/<p> x R/<q> and boom
It works cause we're in a PID
and the irreducible elements give you maximal ideals, so they're coprime ideals
Otherwise you can't use CRT necessarily
some one please help me with this, i have to find the generator of U(25), but operation is multiply so multipliying a number and then check is very dificult,any hint?
i think its everything coprime to 25
the goal is that you want g^n=e only if n = 25*k for any natural number k and g an element of the units
and you know multiplication operation is a*b - 25*k for a,b in G and k a natural number
not everything, for instance 24 doesn't, 24^2=1
remove the perfect squares and elements with 5th roots
my hint is, you need it to generate (Z/5Z)* at a minimum
otherwise it has no chance of generating (Z/25Z)*
that automatically rules out 3 options
why can you say that
because if x^n=a mod 25 then it must reduce to x^n=a mod 5
4^2
yup since that's 1 mod 5, you have no chance of representing 2 or 3
it helps if you write numbers in base 5 to see this
if you say 4^n = a+5*b mod 25 with a and b both digits picked from {0,1,2,3,4} (with a !=0) then 4^n = a mod 5
why we restricting a and b here?
looks like this way can work for any perfect square type ?like 25,49,..
yeah, or any product really
although you have to use a mixed radix basis to represent it
but like if we were looking for generators of (Z/30Z)* then it has to be a generator for (Z/nZ)* for each of n=2,3,5
I guess that's not the same cause that's CRT
well maybe I should just say that, when doing stuff in Z/nZ you split across powers of primes so that you have the problem in Z/p^kZ then you try to solve it in Z/pZ and then you lift back up with Hensel's lemma to Z/p^kZ and then combine the results to Z/nZ with CRT
that's a decent strategy to break down problems
Thankyou @delicate bloom , for such wonderful explanation.
heh you're welcome
Anyone familiar with RSA?
I was just thinking about Eisenstein integers and RSA using those instead of regular integers just seems better
sorry if it's obvious, I'm just trying to see some worked examples (this is my first abstract proofs class, could you please elaborate)?
What can you say about the group KH
KH <= G?
everything im writing is orders
G = [G:H]*H right
Multiplying by order of K on both sides we have
|G||k| = [G:H]*|H||k|
lol
can do some algebra since these are all numbers
this is silly
Are you sure these aren't reversed?
order of H and index of K?
are you trying to show |G| = [G:K]|K| = [G:H]|H| and so |K| divides |H| because it can't divide [G:H]?
yea I think so (that's what it shows on the zoom recording) but I wasnt in person so maybe they did something on the board but this is what the thing says :/
lemme think if i can find counter example
ok
Z24
taking H to be multiples of 8 and K to be multiples of 6
thats a counter example
Ya I think the situation is reversed
In which case consider xK for x lying in H
H has size 3
No
H has index 8
oh fuck
Not coprime to 4
index yeah
lol
choose H as its cofactor then
uh
H is 3
yeah
H multiples of 3 and K multiples of 6
K has size 4
G/H has size 3
ok
idk why i didnt look for an example first
Then K is a subgroup of H lol
is it?
Example has to be non abelian
wait fuck
Otherwise Lagrange
I think so
i dont thinks so
Apply Lagrange on G/H
yeah it has subgroups with order dividing G/H
so k isnt none of em
oh wai
brih
order 1
is that it?
oh wow lol
Ye if was not in H, it would be partitioned into cosets of K ∩ H
All equal cardinality and their number dividing index H
So H has to be not normal in the counter example
If K not in H then G/H can be partitioned into cosets of K intersect H each of equal order?
what if K intersects one coset more
Cosets always have the same size
yea
The cosets of this as a pair on its own or as a pair inside G are the same
i remember this vaguely though
Intersection of subgroups is always a subgroup
And if you have 2 subgroups, one contained in the other, then that one is a subgroup of the other
this is an exercise in dummit and foote i think
i just did this like a week ago >.<
yeah i think they were switched
why did you delete your question -_-
reposting lol
after I read more of the notes 
i missed like a week of class cause covid and ngl these online recordings of their in-person sessions are not great so im just trying to piece together whatever they covered
Actually I think this is fine
That statement should be true because we have something like Lagrange for G/H
Even if H isn't normal
We can look at the left action of G on G/H (the set of left cosets of H)
And each orbit should have the same size here
And if K is a subgroup of G, then K/(K ∩ H) should have a natural non zero map to G/H
And since all orbits have the same size, any G-subset of G/H should have size dividing index H
But this assumes that you've seen group actions
Have you?
There should be a simpler phrasing though
(assuming this argument works because a couple of these claims are just from intuition lol)
no group actions yet
hm the dummit and foote problem is true because HN has to be a subgroup, since N is normal, and then we have that |HN|=(|H||N|/|K|) and then the index of HN is ([G:N]|K|)/|H|
i think nyway
What’s the question?
H and K are subgroups of G, K is normal, |K| and index H are coprime, prove that K is contained in H
HK is a subgroup, and the index of HK is (|G| |N|)/(|H| |K|)?
where is N is the intersection
use euclids lemma to show K divides the intersection
K=N, K is a subroup of H
just need a little bit hint , S_n is isomorphic to subgroup of A_{n+2} , under what isomorphism?
so there is the usual way to think of S_n as a subgroup of S_{n+2}, only problem being that stuff like (12) are still sent to odd permutations. so how do we fix that given we have two extra letters , n+1, n+2 to play with?
Things seems complicated to me
we need a way to convert an odd permutation in S_n to an even permutation in S_{n+2}, what's one thing you can try?
okk so odd permutation means it will have odd number transposition, so we can add extra (n+1,n+2) to make that even
?
yep!
now just quickly verify that this prescription is indeed a group homomorphism.
okk, so here even permutation is mapped to ?itself

so the map is S_n --> A_{n+2}
given by sending a permutation p to p if it's even else to p * t if it's odd. t is the transposition (n+1, n+2).
got it , but first i have to check is this a isomorphism? ( yes it is, what still have to show)

no not iso, it's definitely not an iso. left side has cardinality n! and right side is (n+2)!/2
you probably meant iso to the image, which is same as saying it's an injective homomorphism.
Got it , and we have to use the fact that subgroup ( which is Sn here) under homomorphism is mapped to subgroup (in phi(A_{n+})?
yep
Thankyou @rustic crown 
is the group generated by ${a_1, a_2, a_3, ..., a_n}$ isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}^n$
what's F_n
?
hi beans
oh you mean the free group?
isn't that going to be infinite, and Z/nZ is a finite group
oops i meant Z^n not Z_n
bob (bean toucher)
sorry det
...right, forgot about that condition-
anyways
thanks det!
but for just free groups, not so much. free groups have no relations between the generators, so the generators don't commute with each other. which means F_n isn't commutative for n >= 2
took me a while to remember how to type like this
Free ( in the context of group) means free from relation
do matrices over finite fields form permutation groups?
You mean are they isomorphic to a permutation group?
Define formal power series $\exp(x),\log(1+x)\in\mathbb{R}[![x]!]$ just like the Maclaurin series of the corresponding real functions: $\exp(x):=\sum_{j=0}^\infty\frac{x^j}{j!}$ and $\log(1+x):=\sum_{j=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^{j+1}x^j}{j}$. Since the constant term of $\log(1+x)$ is zero, the composition $\exp(\log(1+x))$ is a well-defined power series. I am pretty sure that this composition equals $1+x$ as a formal power series (as would be expected). How can this be shown?
gustavn64
I mean, we know that the composition $\exp(\log(1+x))$, when viewed as a composition of real functions, is identically equal to $1+x$. But I'm not sure exactly how to show that composition of functions corresponds to formal composition of power series...
gustavn64
@spice whale Every group is isomorphic to a permutation group, by Cayley's theorem.
oh
I don't understand this proof 😦 can somebody break down the steps or something
Which steps do you not understand?
mainly the algebra
"Informally all we need do to obtain the second equation from the first one is simultaneously o bring the a's across the equal's sign"
This is mainly showin that the center of a group is a subgroup
You have the equation ax = xa
mhm
it shows how to do it formally
here
the "informally" part is just explaining what the goal is
It's just multiplying by the inverse of a
that would give you x = x? wouldn't it? $ax = xa$ multiply inverse of a on both sides $a^{-1}\cdot ax = a^{-1} \cdot xa \implies (a^{-1}\cdot a)x = (a^{-1}\cdot a)x$
ChubbyMuffins
is that assuming commutativity?
I see
It's a^{-1}(ax)a^{-1} = a^{-1}(xa)a^{-1}
this is utterly useless
I see
mhm
multiplied by a^-1 on the left and the right
and got this
do you understand the steps there?
why is there 2 inverse's of a's multiplied on both sides
because thats necessary for the proof
is it because of this theorem?
no?
Do you understand what it mean for H to be a subgroup?
for H to be a subgroup it means that H is closed under some operation G
oh yeah thats the theorem its using
given G contains the element H
thats why the goal is to show that ax = xa implies xa^-1 = a^-1x



