#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 646 of 407
That's the minimal polynomial of b over ℚ
ahh, so it must be of degree 3 then
Yeah, the bigger extension will be degree 3
so [Q(a):Q(b)] = 3 right?
Ok, and to find the minimum polynomial I must find an irreducible monic polynomial in Q(a) such that a^3 is a root right?
wait is it just x^3 - a^3?
Yes
Isn't it reducible?
Better to write b instead of a³ there
That's exactly why it's better to write b there lol
a is not in the coefficient field
Sure
Part a, it might be easy but I am not sure how to answer it rigorously
Should I just find a polynomial that sort of generates i and 3sqrt(2) by plugging in i3sqrt(2)?
and if there is then they are included?
So if icbrt2 is there in the field, so is its cube
From there you can deduce that i is in the field
Once i is in there, you can divide by i and get cbrt2
that's it? so like "(icbrt2)^3 = (-2i) so Q(i) is contained"?
and similarly, "Since i is contained, then icbrt2/i = cbrt2"?
Yeah. That makes sense, thank you!

Let $\rho$ be a representation of a finite group $G$. Say $\rho=\sigma\oplus\tau$ where $\sigma$ and $\tau$ are both irreducible representations of $G$.
If $Z(G)$, the center of $G$, acts non-trivially on $\rho$, does it mean that $Z(G)$ acts non-trivially on both $\sigma$ and $\tau$?
If not, under what conditions would it be valid?
Gromov
Is this equivalent to looking for an irreducible representation whose kernel contains the centre?
If the center is contained in the kernel then its action is trivial which is the opposite of the conditions I offered.
every m that isn't a prime
mildly related but what is the additive inverse of an element in Z_2
also worth mentioning, every finite field has a power of a prime number of elements, but Z/p^n Z is not a field for n>1
take a guess
there are only 2 elements in Z/2Z
yup
😎
ok Z_4
at the very least i think it's a commutative ring right
well actually are all Z_m commutative rings?
Right.
Because their multiplication is derived from the multiplication in Z, which is commutative.
so why isnt it a field
no multiplicative inverses
what's the inverse of 2 in Z_4
yeah ok
don't give away answers let them do it lol
that's what im doing
ohhhhh
in a naive sense every column/row of the table would need to have a 1, which Z_4 does not
gotcha
these might be unrelated but can a field have zero divisors
No, because a zero divisor cannot have a multiplicative inverse.
oh neat
ig that explains why Z_m is only a field if m is prime
bc if it's not prime, then the primes then the factors of m will be zero divisors
hI guys , i need some help in calculating the coordingates and angle
as you can see in the diagramm , i tried to find x2 and y2 . but when i created a code on MATLAB to solve it . it is not giving the desired angle output
the given is L1,l2,l3 ,x3,y3
theta 3 is not given
the main thing is , the input would be the coordinates and output would be the angle of each joint . but to calculate the angle for theta 2 ,i have to know the x2,y2 ,,,,which i do not know ,how to calculate from L1,l2,l3 ,x3,y3
idk if this is the right channel
that picture is unreadable cause it's not high enough resolution and this is definitely not the right channel
where should i post than?
for a metric space, does the symmetric group coincide with the isometry group?
specifically im thinking about group actions on a metric space, and im wondering if "action by isometry" and "action by symmetry" mean the same thing
Acting by isometry is a stronger thing. Normally, a group action is an assignment $G\times X \to X$ which satisfies an associativity and identity axiom. Acting by isometry has these same axioms, but also requires that the mapping $x \mapsto g\cdot x$ is an isometry (not just a bijection/permutation, which is the only thing required by default)
Joseph
Another way of talking about this is that a group action is equivalently given by a homomorphism $G \to \mathrm{Bij}(X)$, where $\mathrm{Bij}(X)$ is the group of bijection/symmetric group on $X$.
Then, an action by isometry is more strongly a homomorphism $G\to \mathrm{Isom}(X)$, a group homomorphism to the isometries of $X$.
Joseph
There are many examples of bijection that are not isometries. For example, $\mathbb R$ is a metric space, and you can have the bijection $f$ that just swaps 0 and 1, nothing else. This is a bijection, but it is not an isometry because $d(-1,0) =1$ but $d(f(-1),f(0))=d(-1,1)=2$.
Joseph
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I see. I think I may be confusing the symmetry group and the symmetric group
Hmm usually they refer to the same thing? Sometimes people use some ambiguous notation. Like when people say “symmetries”, sometimes they mean automorphisms in the appropriate context. Like if we’re talking about metric spaces, we’ll have it be isometries, or if we’re talking about graphs, it might be graph automorphisms. Idk
hmm if we have a square, wouldn't the symmetry group be the dihedral group with 8 elements, but the symmetric group Bij(X) be something that doesn't need to preserve edges?
Yeah, you’re right. It’s just that not everyone uses the term “symmetry group” in a totally consistent way.
p^n actually
I think people do take symmetries of a metric space to be isometries, so maybe in your terminology, action by symmetry is the same as action by isometry? What sort of reference are you using?
I think this is a terminology issue
No, Z_m is not a field if m is a nontrivial prime power. There is a field with p^n elements, but it is not the integers modulo p^n when n>1.
Ye mb
yeah its probably a terminology thing first and foremost, ill ask my instructor. thanks tho :)
wdym
Can anyone recommend a nice representation of a module over a principal ideal domain? Or any idea on how I can make such a representation
I got an F in my graduate abstract algebra.
Pog
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Structure_theorem_for_finitely_generated_modules_over_a_principal_ideal_domain#Non-finitely_generated_modules suggests there are strong limits to how "nice" you can get unless your module is known to be finitely generated.
just double checking my understanding here: Z is a commutative ring, throwing in mult. inverses make it a field..?
{n, 1/n | n in Z} is not a field. You have to take the closure under rings operators
And that only makes sense when you have some ambient field in which it embeds to begin with
If you throw in enough stuff to give everything multiplicative inverses and stay a ring without collapsing any elements, then you end up with Q.
But in general for integral domains you can form fields of fractions
That is the smallest field up to isomorphism that contains the ring as a subring
But if you don't have an integral domain you can't form a field for obvious reasons
Any tips? I'm taking that next sem lol
Since my class was very fast pace. I would suggest hitting the books the first week of classes. There are some nice youtube videos of algebra. I never took undergrad abstract, but from someone who had a friend take the undergrad it seems they go slower. By the end of the semester my friend was learning about orbit and stabilizer. While I learned it like the in six or seven week of classes. But don't worry about it. Yo will do great
ah ok
I've taken undergraduate so that should help
I plan to actually stick with the textbook
my undergrad class jumped around the text a TON
which made it hard to follow
Oh you're taking the grad version?
If you're taking the grad version, then hit the books. Don't stop studying
yea lol
Well you will be somewhat okay. As someone who never took it as undergrad. Damn it was hard but at the end I actually liked it.
Sadly never put a lot of effort to it. That was my mistake
but even if I did put effort I doubt i would have passed
Suppose we were given an incomplete Cayley table. How much of the table has to be filled out for one to be able to complete it (unambiguously) using just the group axioms? Or rather, is there a condition which is equivalent to the problem being ambiguous. (Out of my depth here, this might have implications for some experiments I'm doing in another field. If the question itself is not well defined please tell so I can arrive at a better one)
I have no idea; however I remember @fading wagon came up with a challenge problem for this server once upon a time which claims that; theres an algorithm to completely determine the cayley table of a group of size n; from just 2n entries 
actually i guess the result is a bit stronger than that; since you apparently dont even need to know which element is the identity for it to work
. was always curious about that problem
it is problem 145 in the document found here: #changelog message
Ah I wasn't specific but I didn't assume the identity was known (though it might be easy to recognize).
perfect then it matches 
Oh yeah this is super relevant. But we don't have the solution for this challenge, lol?
Lol correct; but pretty sure ppl who made challenge problems were supposed to know the solution to their own problem 
so i pinged them; maybe they could clue in as a local expert of sorts 
Haha cool, thanks a lot 🙂
The problem there is better than being handed a random Cayley table
Eg, you can fix an element then query its multiplication with every other element, this guarantees you can pin down the identity in n-1 queries
Idk what chmonkey said sounded like challenge problem easier 
You can do n/2 by multiplying different pairs each time 
rather than keeping 1 element fixed

My point is just that you have control over what entires of the table you can see
If you get given a random partial Cayley table of size 2n you don’t have the same info as when you can pick the 2n entries
O yea True
For example being given 2n-1 things just being products with identity. Lol.
Lol in the context I'm using this you don't have the privilege of asking the oracle.
So it's a more broad problem I guess
You need at least half in general if I am not wrong because for any abelian group N, you have N x Z/2Z and N semidirect product Z/2Z where Z/2Z → Aut(N) is the inversion homomorphism
and I think half of the entries in their Cayley tables match
My eyes keep reading it as Z/ZZ.

Mm. I do want to sleep.
I’m a chmonkey
Surely you don't need half of the table for an abelian group, wouldn't you know the whole table by symmetry.
The semidirect product won't be abelian
Oh ok that went kinda past my head then.
Also you don’t know a priori the group is abelian
If you somehow did then you can use symmetry
The reason I want N to be abelian is to ensure that there is a non trivial homomorphism Z/2Z → Aut(N)
Which I can take as 1 maps to inversion automorphism
in the abelian case
I'm here because I got a neural network to fill in a whole table by looking at ~30% of elements. But it only does this if you perturb it a lot in a specific manner. If you train it naively it just does perfectly on the 30% visible ones but fails miserably at the unseen pairs (~0% accuracy pretty much).
Makes me think that the network configuration which encodes the group structure is somehow more stable than the one which just memorizes the seen data, so I'm trying to pin down what exactly happens there.
Ofc stochastic optimization doesn't know what group axioms are, but there should be a lower bound on the amount of seen samples which implicitly convey the group structure.
Lol I'm posting this because some people might find it interesting. Machine learning is nothing but maths in the end
lower bound is n^2/2 + 1 (or 0.5)
but you could probably do better if you specialize to certain kinds of groups
Maybe some caveats on that last sentence lol
Lol yeah, I guess if you construct a purposefully hard sample. But a random 30% apparently seems to be enough >99% of the time
Oh this is interesting, id be interested to see a distribution of this based on some database
https://mathai-iclr.github.io/papers/papers/MATHAI_29_paper.pdf this is the paper which first figured this phenomena out
It's on the shorter/simpler side
Managed to reproduce it this morning for S5
Neat, time to run this over the entire database of finite groups 
Lol they did quite a few binary ops actually, don't think they're all groups
merry christmas
actually I submitted the solution too, I'll dm

Why not post here
what are you hiding
answer of Riemann hypothesis
the answer of the previous challenge problem wait is it still running I forgot
so can I post the solution here lol?
Yeah probably 
i know that prime ideals of Zn are of type <p> where p is prime , but what they want to say in that underlined line, can someone please explain?
it's a bit of an abuse of language
When you have a ring R and an ideal I, with a map f: R -> R/I, then the maximal ideals of R/I are exactly the images of the maximal ideals of R under f
That is, if J' is a maximal ideal of R/I, then f^-1(J') is a maximal ideal of R containing I, and conversely if J is a maximal ideal of R containing I, then f(J) is a maximal ideal of R/I
This follows between the more general order-preserving (under inclusion) bijection between ideals of R containing I, and ideals of R/I, where the map is given by the image under f
So if you have a quotient ring, to study its ideals it's enough to study the ideals of the parent ring satisfying a certain property
can you please tell how this is abuse of language?
It's an abuse of language because maximal ideals of Z containing p^2qZ aren't actually maximal ideals of Z/p^2qZ
an ideal in Z/whatever cannot be an ideal in Z because they literally live in different sets
But their images are
okkk i got it
btw thankyou for help
so it should be "the maximal ideal of Z/p^q Z are those pre-images of maximal ideals of Z containing p^qZ"?
no, images
Trying my luck again, this time I have a solution that I'd appreciate if you validate. The attached image is a reminder to my question. my solution is in the next message.
By Schur's lemma, since $Z(G)$ is abelian, the restriction of $\rho$ to $Z(G)$ is one dimensional. Hence, $Z(G)$ acts through $\rho$ by some scalar $\lambda$. So if $\rho = \sigma\oplus\tau$, then $Z(G)$ acts through both $\sigma$ and $\tau$ by $\lambda$, i.e. nontrivially.
Gromov
Its not true. For instance, if G is abelian, take sigma to be the trivial rep and tau some non-trivial 1-dim rep
Your solution doesn't work because schur only says that irreducible reps of abelian groups are one-dimensional, not every rep
Merry christmas
Thanks, I knew I missed something.. Do you happen to have any other idea?
You only know that Z(G) act not trivially on the direct sum, so there must be at least one component where the action of Z(G) is not trivial, but in general there is no reason such that it's true on every component
I don't know about conditions for this specific question
if M is a finitely generated torsion free module over a PID why is it free? no jordan normal form and no structure theorem allowed
wren
By induction you can show a projective module is free
If a ring satisfies the property that every finitely generated module is principal, a torsion free module is flat
By using that a finitely presented flat module is projective the conclusion follows
Tl;dr: I think it’s really hard if you’re trying to avoid the structure theorem
If you’re local then you’re fine but then you’re just over a DVR, and to get it in general I think you need to know facts about projectivity being equivalent to locally free
then why did wikipedia say that the fact that finitely generated torsion free modules over a PID are free is a step in proving the structure theorem 🙁
Prove that sub things of R^n are free, and stick the torsion-free module inside R^n
the first thing can be done by induction
to prove the second thing, look at a maximal linearly independent subset of a generating set
and find an injection from M to the submodule generated by the maximal linearly independent subset
Q17, is there some trivial way I'm not seeing?
GL2(Zp) has order (p²-1)(p²-p) so testing the divisors is the best option here?
finding the common pattern of the power and etc..
can you put it into jordan normal form?
yee jordan normal form is like the proper way to do it, but you could also use frobenius. so by cayley hamilton,
(A - 1)^2 = 0
(A - 1)^p = 0
A^p = 1^p = 1
works for correct option type questions 
reminds me of jee lol
yea but we kinda got lucky >.<
the jordan form is
[1 1]
[0 1]
and it's pretty simple to show that n^th power of this is
[1 n]
[0 1]
i'm scared when i see test questions >.<
if |G| = n, then we need to find q such that n divides q - 1
so pick a prime p not dividing n, and then q = p^phi(n)
knowing it's cyclic is all you need here >.<
i'm giving online exams ever since March 2020 
yeah same, 2yrs of online class,, my brain is empty now
Is n divides q-1 enough here?
filled with "yes sir" "ok sir" "am i audible" shits
Are groups of units of finite fields cyclic?
yee
Oh okay, then it is enough
any finite subgroup of multiplicative group of any field is cyclic
I vaguely remember that fact but wasn't sure
Was interpreting this to be about G not F_p^x lol
oh oops
even (Z/p^nZ)* is cyclic


hold up
is that supposed to be an easy fact
nu

i was checking if i was not confusing F_q with Z/qZ 
but it's not like super hard as well, just a weird induction argument
maybe there are cuter proofs
I see
lol that's exactly where messed it up


😢
Given an Abelian group G and an endomorphism d of G such that d^2 sends everything to the identity, the homology is given by ker d/im d. I'm trying to see examples of this using Z or (Z/2Z)^2 as prototypical examples but I can't find anything other than the isomorphism sending everything to the identity. :/ Does anyone know more interesting examples off the top of their head?
i feel "sends everything to the identity" means it's the zero map 
Oh right
Sure, never heard the term "zero map" used before.
F
so a nice example is endomorphism of A x A sending (a, b) --> (b, 0)
On Z/p²Z you could have multiplication by p
(for abelian groups people prefer additive notation)
Aight, gracias gamers
You can also take g^2 on (Z/4Z)^n
And for that matter you can pepper in any extra combination of Z/2Z ‘s in that product
M has a set of generators and you're taking a maximal linearly independent set from those generators. are you taking this to be maximal across all possible generating sets for M. also unless we already assume that M is free, we don't know that this is all of M, so how ok earth does M inject into the submodule that they generate
i'm not getting what that coset of x means here?,i also tried to make that Q[x]/<x^2+1> structure is it will be Q X Q , form , because elements of
Q[x]/<x^2+1> will look like remainder when elemnet of Q[x] divided by x^2+1
this is confusing me , please help.
Q[x]/(x^2+1) is not isomorphic to Q x Q
These are only isomorphic as vector spaces over Q
not as rings
the first is a domain, the second is not
coset of x means its equivalent class
in the quotient
can you please tell me the structure of Q[x]/<x^2+1>?, i am facing difficulty while driving the structures these quotient rings.
by taking isomorphism whose kernal is <x^2+1>?
is there any other way , because every time thinking isomorphism will be dificult?
Adjoining a variable and then quotienting by a polynomial can be thought of as adding a root of that polynomial to your ring
but other than that
you should just think of it as a quotient
you will have to get used to treating quotients as their own thing
There is a way to think of quotients as just a universal object but if you haven't seen universal properties then you could have a hard time doing that
If this kinda thing scares you then just stick to thinking in terms of cosets
you will see universal stuff eventually
hmmm,looks like this is the main problem
Ye so maybe just stare at the construction of the quotient and solve some problems until you feel comfortable
You can also try proving properties like R/I is a domain iff I is prime
that can get you some initial familiarity
i am familer with this and R/I is field iff I is maximal ideal
but dont know how they will hlep
nice
I mean looking at the proofs you can learn how to work with quotients
see if you can recreate the proofs of these facts on your own
okk so here <x^2+1> is irredcuible so its quotient should be a field , but here Q X Q is not even a integral domain , so my suposition is wrong?
That is correct
Thank you @hidden haven , so in my question they just asking for irreducibilty , here R=Q[i], which is a field, so for order 2 and 3 degree polynomails i have to just check their roots are in Q[i] or Not ?
I think the problem should be talking about irreducibility in R rather than over R
As in, all the given elements are elements of R
And if they are non zero, then they are units, since R is a field
And units are not considered irreducible I think? I'm not sure
But yeah everything is either zero or a unit, if you see this then it's just a matter of playing with the definitions
these are two different things?
Irreducibility over R usually means irreducibility in R[t] where t is a variable
Over R means you're talking about polynomials over it
Rather than within R itself
Idk if this is always true but I've never seen someone saying over R when talking about elements of R itself
Hausdorff
My first thought is that it should follow from showing that the sequence is recurring in a specific way.
That is my thought too
I saw this, but didn't really understand why p is a generator for Z/qZ
You can probably adopt a proof of Fermat-Euler to see this.
Okay, proved it, nice
can someone give me a nilpotent group example rather than Q8 and Heisenberg group?
I want to say $E_{p^2} \rtimes \mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
Where E_p^2 is elementary abelian
I’m just having a bit of a brain fart doubt on whether there’s a non trivial homomorphism here
$GL(2,\mathbb{F}_p)$ has order divisible by $p$ so yeah it’s aight
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
Pick any generating set {x_1, ..., x_k, y_1, ..., y_r}. WLOG assume {x_1, ..., x_k} is a maximal linearly independent subset of {x_1, ..., x_k, y_1, ..., y_r}. For any y \in {y_1, ..., y_r}, by maximality, we have a nontrivial linear combination a y + a_1 x_1 + ... + a_k x_k = 0. a must be nonzero as otherwise it would contradict the fact that {x_1, ..., x_k} is linearly independent. Therefore for all y_i, we have a nonzero a_i such that a_iy_i is in the submodule generated by {x_1, ..., x_k}. Set a = a_1a_2...a_r. Then we have a map from M to <x_1, ..., x_k> given by m \mapsto am. The map is injective as M is torsion-free.
any p-group
this seems so like cheating but I get it at the same time
lol
I can see how it works with examples too though
Can you show that $(hk)(kh)^{-1} \in H \cap K$ thus it must be $e_G$?
Bradyfish
Think about what you can learn about $(hk)(kh)^{-1}$ based on the fact that it is equal to $e(k_1k^{-1})$
Bradyfish
interesting thanks
npnp feel free to @ me if that's not enough
@rustic crown this is the most annoying problem I've done in a while
Are finite groups of integers considered subgroups of Z?
What do you mean by finite groups of integers
Z/nZ
They are not subgroups of ℤ
Any p grouo
Finite p Group
Any abelian group
Groups of upper triangular matrices with 1s along the diagonal
I guess that's heisenberg
It works for nxn in general tho
Not just 3x3
Any group for which each sylow subgroup is unique (normal)
can someone please explain that underline, words?
is it possible to just count the number of elements dividing p^2 and that is enough?
maybe im just dumb lol
but once you have p^2 q-sylows then there are p^2(q^2-1) elements of order dividing q^2
so then there are p^2 elements of order dividing p^2 (including the identity)
so necessarily there is one p-sylow
this is probably not correct

need to get good
oh wait
i would have to show that the q-sylows intersect trivially
ok
Lemma: Let $G$ be a finite group and $\rho$ a representation of $G$. If $Z(G)$, the center of $G$, acts non-trivially on $\rho$, then $\dim \text{Hom}_G(\rho\otimes\tau,\tau)=0$ for all irreducible representations $\tau$ of $G$.
A solution attached:
Gromov
My question: In the solution, why may we assume that $\rho$ is irreducible?
Gromov
Write ρ as a direct sum of irreducibles, distribute the tensor, distribute the hom. The original set is 0 iff each hom(summand ⊗ τ, τ) is 0
Omg you're right, I forgot that the Hom is distributable.
Tnx, sry for the dumb question 🤦♂️
Wait, I might be missing something again:
If $Z(G)$ acts nontrivially on $\rho$ it doesn't mean it necessarily acts nontrivially on each of its summands.
Gromov
It acts non trivially on one of them, and I think from there they deduce that it acts non trivially on τ* ⊗ τ?
But Z(G) does act trivially on τ* ⊗ τ.
Thanks anyway 🙂
I think the lemma is wrongly stated. It must require Z(G) to act nontrivially on each summand.
If there are p^2 q-sylow subgroups then the index of each of their normalizers is p^2 which means their normalizers have order q^2 and hence they are their own normalizers
So they are self normalizing
Hi, guys, is there any good reference for the proof of PBW theorem?
Is this the place to ask about Lie groups?
If so, I know that SU(2) is a double covering of SO(3). Now, I'm looking for the lifting map from SO(3) to SU(2). So, given A in SO(3), what is the corresponding A' in SU(2)?
By the nature of things there are two corresponding elements in SU(2).
Yeah, I mean up to these two elements.
I suspect it is rather simple: We can use the isomorphism of SU(2) to the unit quaternions and the mapping from the unit quaternions to SO(3)
Would it suffice?
That looks right.
So given this A in SO(3), it has two possible corresponding quaternions by this map, which are mapped by this isomorphism to SU(2)
Giving A' in SU(2)
I'm not sure there is a simple computational way to go in the other direction. It will need to have an ugly discontinuity somewhere to deal with the two-valuedness. What I can imagine right away would be to go via the Lie algebra -- you can find the rotation axis of the SO(3) matrix as an eigenvector with eigenvalue 1, and the rotation angle as the argument of the two remaining eigenvalues. Selecting the right rotation direction could be tricky, but you might build a right-hand system with your rotation axis as the new z-axis e.g. by taking cross products, and see which quadrant of the new xy-plane the new x vector maps to under your original matrix. This should give you enough ingredients to build a purely imaginary quaternion whose exponential will be one of the SU(2) elements you want.
can anyone explain the part that is highlighted in red? I'm pretty sure that the \sigma's are the elementary symmetric polynomials because that's the notation the author used before. But why can a monomial be written as that product?
I think in the context of the symmetric polynomial ring we're redefining "monomial" to mean such a product. The only thing he's doing is to prescribe an order of the factors.
Yes, which is why you need to select an ordering arbitrarily before we can compare different monomials lexicographically.
Oh lmao I’m dumb
There's a mistake in the second transformation in the diagrams, right?
like, it did m_3 instead of r_1?
yes
geometry 
Thank you, good sir
Can't talk about chad without bringing up gmod, the chad overseer 😎
LOL
if A is a normal subgroup of G we can assume A is a subgroup of G 😐

No 
Is this a statement.
xD
like saying a red cat is a cat
what if you are colorblind?

how can you show that a group homomorphism $\varphi:(G, +) \to (H, *)$ satisfies the following: $\varphi(e_G)=e_H$?
gmod
Just use the fact that it’s multiplicative
If something satisfies gh = h for any h, then g is the identity
alternatively phi(e)=phi(ee)=phi(e)phi(e)
oh okay thats helpful :)
Can you guys give me an example of a polynomial g such that when we divide $x^2y + 1$ by that polynomial it will give us a rational function where x and y have the same powers? Such that $g \neq x^2y + 1$ or in the ideal determined by it. Does such a thing exist ?
Naruto_101
Difference between R[x] and R(x) for a ring R?
Wiki uses Q(i) for {a+bi|a, b rational} but I've only seen R[x] before.
"But Q is also a field." Yeah okay I know. I just dunno if there's a corresponding thingy for rings, too. Point is, what the heck is the difference between Q[i] and Q(i).
Oh crap there was a question asked here
sorry man..
so, lets say you have fields K \subset F, and x is in F. Then K[x] is the subring of F generated by K and x and K(x) is the subfield of F generated by K and x. When x is algebraic over K, K[x] = K(x)
Appreciated
npnp
ok i understand why Z_m is not a field for composite values of m, it's bc the factors of m wont have an inverse, but why is that
if that makes sense
the factors of m are zero divisors, and zero divisors are not units
not sure if it gets any deeper than that 
maybe go back to the proof that a finite field has prime characteristic (and therefore has p^n elements for some prime p):
you can add 1 to itself n times, so that 1n = 0, then factor n into primes, and use that a field has no zero divisors to conclude that 1p = 0 for some prime p.
it sleep tiem for mem
what's the notation for homomorphisms
will do this in morning but merci
like how can I write "G is homomorphic to H"
what's homomorphic?
judging from your notation, i presume you want group homomophisms. there is at least one hom for any two groups, G --> 1 --> H
yes
is that not how you say it?
so you mean any two groups are homomorphic?
I just want to know how to say that two groups are homomorphic
i've only seen people use isomorphic
how are you defining homomorphic 
just give it a name if you wanna say there is one f : G --> H
alright ty
so could I say "f:G→H is a homomorphism"
and then continue on whatever I wanna say
theres no real reason to define such a term bc as said above theres always a homomorphism between any groups
well it depends on what you want.... there is always the trivial map between groups >.<
ohhhhhhhhhhh
namely map everything to the identity of H
so two groups can be isomorphic but it doesn't make sense to call two groups homomorphic
thats what im gathering
its not that it doesnt make sense to say homomorphic
you can say one group is a homomorphic image of another
but its just a bit meaningless bc any groups are homomorphic
but smth like isomorphic IS very meaningful
I see
the only context ive heard "homomorphic" is in a statement like "H is the homomorphic image of G [under some map which is implicitly known]"
I'm going through this Naive Lie Theory book by Stillwell and I am stuck (idk where else to ask this)
"Show that a reflection in any hyperplane orthogonal to any coordinate axis has determinant -1"
wait nvm I got it I'm dumb
Thanks.
The reason I was asking is that I'm trying to figure out the binary polyhedral groups from the polyhedral groups (finite subgroups of SO(3) (rotations). e.g. the dihedral group).
The idea is that SU(2) is a double cover of SO(3), so polyhedral subgroups of SO(3) have double covers which are subgroups of SU(2). These are the binary polyhedral groups.
This should somehow give a complex 2-dim representations of these groups.
So I'm trying to find a way to understand the structure of these binaries from this description.
My current idea is to construct the following diagram:
2P ---------> P
| |
| |
SU(2) ----> SO(3)
Where the vertical lines are the representations: left is for the rep of the binary polyhedral and right is for the rep of the polyhedral.
and the horizontal lines are the surjective homomorphisms.
This way we can describe the rep of 2P in SU(2) by the other maps.
But it feels like I'm missing something...
SORRY FOR THE LENGTH 
Anyone know an easy proof of cayley hamilton for either finite fields or F_p^alg. I know the normal ones are jcf or zariski dense, but i want to find something simpler for either class, as then i can use model theory to make a nicer proof of this for all fields.
is legible 
i saw a prof use cyclic generating functions but idk if this applies to those conditions…? i also dont know what zariski is so take that as you will
can someone help?
Post legible image then I'll look at it
it's still very bad
The way we did it in general was just using triangular form which is easy to prove existence of w quotients
this is the original form of the question. I cant upload my proof nicely
Can you show that it's a homomorphism?
I.e. do you understand why it's a homomorphism
This looks like a two part question. Which part are you unsure about?
@hybrid lichen
identity?
Do you know what the kernel means?
Every homomorphism has a kernel
It's the set of elements that map to identity
You need to go back and review the fundamentals
I am writing a Geometric Algebra library in C++. My reference text is "Linear and Geometric Algebra" by Alan Macdonald.
I need to represent a general $k$-vector using an array of elements corresponding to the coefficients attached to the blades in the general $k$-vector form whose array size is computed in terms of the dimension of the geometric algebra $n$ and $k$. For example, in $\mathbb{G}^{3}$ the $2$-vector contains an array of $3$ elements $[ a, b, c ]$ corresponding to the general $2$-vector form $a\mathbf{e}{1}\mathbf{e}{2} + b\mathbf{e}{1}\mathbf{e}{3}+c\mathbf{e}{2}\mathbf{e}{3}$.
On the Wikipedia page for "Blade (geometry)", the following statement is made: "In a vector space of dimension $n$, there are $k(n-k)+1$ dimensions of freedom in choosing a $k$-blade, of which one dimension is an overall scaling multiplier."
This array sizing of $k(n-k)+1$ appeared to work initially, but this is not the case when considering a $2$-vector in $\mathbb{G}^{4}$ for example: $2(4-2)+1=5$, which suggests that the basis consists of $5$ blades. This contrasts with the actual basis which consists of $6$ blades: $\mathbf{e}{1}\mathbf{e}{2}, \mathbf{e}{1}\mathbf{e}{3}, \mathbf{e}{1}\mathbf{e}{4}, \mathbf{e}{2}\mathbf{e}{3}, \mathbf{e}{2}\mathbf{e}{4}, \mathbf{e}{3}\mathbf{e}{4}$.
How can I correctly determine the number of elements to be contained within the array of a general $k$-vector given $n$ and $k$?
Casey
I think the problem is blades aren't closed under addition, you can take $e_1e_2+e_3e_4$ and this is not a 2-blade even though it's the sum of two 2-blades, because you can't factor it into a product of vectors.
Merosity
This question was asked to me in an interview i replied identity ,but the they said it is zero(0).
Elements in kernal are mapped to?
It depends on the context
In the context of vector spaces, kernels map to zero
Same with rings
But in the context of groups it maps to identity
Zero is the additive identity in vector spaces and rings
That makes sense
Also the identity in abelian groups is usually called zero
Hmm, do you perhaps have an idea as to how to determine the number of blades defining the basis of a k-vector then for that matter? Perhaps I ought to scavenge other GA libraries and see what they do.
I think they cover it, but I can't guarantee if they do, in this book called Geometric Algebra: An Object Oriented Approach
I know they discuss the problem in there and probably implement it so I'm pretty sure it does
Aha, thank you kindly, I will certainly give it a look.
yeah good luck, feel free to ping me I'll probably look in there later today out of curiosity myself
looks like they discuss it in chapter 2, section 2.9.3
ah paragraph 5 they say there is a necessary and sufficient condition for a k-vector to be a k-blade and cite the paper, "but it's not easily summarized"
they might go into more detail on programming it since it's a programming book in part
What is the cited paper called? I'd like to read that if possible
If $A_p$ is the localization of $\mathbb{Z}$ at the prime ideal $p\mathbb{Z}$ then is $A_p$ complete local ring?
K零ꓘ
Complete in what sense?
Is S4 x A3 a normal subgroup of S4 x S3? I am confused with this , anyone can please help?
What about this confuses you?
By producing a homomorphism whose kernel is S4 x A3
Not again
Dude just learn what homomorphisms and kernels are
These are fundamental concepts
Can you please tell what homomorphism will work here?
Do you know about the index of a subgroup?
144/72=2
The signature homomorphism on the second component of the product
So normal
I know what homomorphism is ,but it is very difficult to think about that particular homomorphism that will work for given situation.
That comes with practice, with such problems its good to try to find homomorphisms. Any thought you put into that will help you in the long term
I will try 👍
Did you understand what homomorphism I was talking about?
Looks like f(a,b)= sign(b) wich will always give kernal S4 x A3?
Yes beacuse signature of even permutation is always one
So kernal will be S4 x A3
Hi, guys, what does this corollary 3.6 mean?
It links representations of g with those of U(g) so you can study either to understand the other
Or are you asking for the literal meaning 
Oh, i see, so this is like constructing a injection between representation of g and representation of U(g)?
yeah, can't understand what it wants to prove
not just an injection
it is a bijective correspondence (and also an equivalence of categories)
given a representation pi of g, you can define a corresponding representation pi~ of U(g)
and you can also go back
and this is a bijective correspondence
Thanks
I have to show that S4 x S3 have no normal sylow-2 subgroup
Order of given group is 144=2^4 x 3^2
So we have posabilites for 2 sylow subgroups 1,4,9
After that i am getting confused how to proceed further ,i also searched this on google but the answer was very confusing ,can some please help me with this?
There can't be 4 sylow 2 subgroups because their number has to be 1 mod 2
All sylow 2 subgroups are conjugates of each other
So sylow 2 subgroups are normal iff there's only 1 of them
So you have to prove that there's more than 1 sylow 2 subgroup
The sylow 2 subgroup of the product would be a product of sylow 2 subgroups of S4 and S3
See if you can figure anything out from this
This might be false
Is not true in general at least
Maybe the fact that if there are 9 sylow 2 subgroups they must be self normalizing?
Since you have such a nice caractérisation of conjugation in symmetric groups there might be smth you can do with that
I’m at the cinema rn but I’ll think about it later
We know 1 of the sylow 2 subgroups
Which is the product of the sylow 2 subgroups of both groups
And this is not normal
Because the sylow 2 subgroups of S3 aren't normal
I mean we already know multiple lol
So that proves that the sylow 2 subgroups aren't normal in the product
@trim grove
can someone explain to me wtf a group action is
An action of a group G on a set X is a homomorphism G-> Sym(X)
Sym(X) = the group of bijections of X
Sym is the symmetric group right
Yes
oh alright
The group of symmetries of X
A G-action is a homomorfism G->Aut(X) where X is an object of a category
basically a group action is something that takes some set and moves it around
u can use feit thompson ;)
what does "moves it around" mean?
simplest example I can give is take a set of elements like {a,b,c} then permute the elements around in the set, to make {a,c,b}. That's an example of a group action by an element of the permutation group S_3 on that set
other examples are like taking a shape, like say a square and labelling the corners, faces, or edges
and then using the dihedral group D_4 to move it around
all the different configurations are the elements of your set that your group is acting on
yup you're welcome
might be a dumb question but why can't n11=3 * 5^3?
is there a special name for fields that are isomoprihc to a subset of the real numebrs
Thankyou @hidden haven
Yeah: F
?
I think "Archimedean ordered field" comes close, but that implies that a particular embedding into the reals has been chosen.
Sorry for that, it should be 3.but how to eliminate this posability?
you don't have to eliminate that possibility to show that S4 x S3 has no normal sylow 2-subgroup. you just have to show that there is more than one sylow 2-subgroup (which moldi showed by taking products of the sylow 2-subgroups of S4 and S3)
thank you , i got it
need some help with this question, i discarded option a by taking n=4, and second option is direct a result because of cyclotomic polynomials , but i am confused in 3rd and 4th , any hint?
4 is a number of the form p^e lol
what for last one?
You can rule out 3 the same way you ruled out 1.
Maybe cheese it with e=1 lmao
Units aren't considered irreducible are they
I always forget this
nope
one way to say this is like this
$f_n = \frac{x^n - 1}{x - 1}$
So if $d \mid n$ then $f_n = \frac{x^n - 1}{x^d - 1}\cdot \frac{x^d - 1}{x-1}$
det
the first terms looks like (1 + x^d + ... + x^{n-d})
by doing this we are just proving it is true, but this will be for a particular case (e=1)?
go
\[
\frac{x^{p^e}-1}{x-1}=\frac{x^{p^e}-1}{x^{p^{e-1}}-1}\frac{x^{p^{e-1}}-1}{x-1}\implies f_{p^e}(x)=f_p\big(x^{p^{e-1}}\big)f_{p^{e-1}}(x).
\]
Then I think you can use
\[
f_{p^e}(x+1)\equiv f_p\big((x+1)^{p^{e-1}}\big)f_{p^{e-1}}(x+1)\bmod p
\]
to show that you can apply Eisenstein to $f_p\big((x+1)^{p^{e-1}}\big)$.
I got the first line, but not getting the second line.
well if $f_{p^e}(x)=f_p\big(x^{p^{e-1}}\big)f_{p^{e-1}}(x)$ then $f_{p^e}(x+1)=f_p\big((x+1)^{p^{e-1}}\big)f_{p^{e-1}}(x+1)$ so they will also be equal mod $p$
,texsp
||
\[
\frac{x^{p^e}-1}{x-1}=\frac{x^{p^e}-1}{x^{p^{e-1}}-1}\frac{x^{p^{e-1}}-1}{x-1}\implies f_{p^e}(x)=f_p\big(x^{p^{e-1}}\big)f_{p^{e-1}}(x)
\]
We have $f_p(1)=p$ so the constant term of $f_p\big((x+1)^{p^{e-1}}\big)$ is $p$. Also
\begin{align*}
f_{p^e}(x+1)&\equiv\frac{(x+1)^{p^e}-1}{(x+1)-1}\equiv\frac{x^{p^e}+1-1}x\equiv x^{p^e-1}\bmod p\\ f_{p^{e-1}}(x+1)&\equiv x^{p^{e-1}-1}\bmod p.
\end{align*}
Since
\[
f_p\big((x+1)^{p^{e-1}}\big)=(x+1)^{p^{e-1}(p-1)}+(x+1)^{p^{e-1}(p-2)}+\cdots+1=x^{p^{e-1}(p-1)}+\text{lower degree terms},
\]
this means that
\[
x^{p^e-1}\equiv f_{p^{e-1}}(x+1)f_p\big((x+1)^{p^{e-1}}\big)\equiv x^{p^{e-1}-1}x^{p^{e-1}(p-1)}+\text{lower degree terms}\equiv x^{p^e-1}+\cdots\bmod p
\]
so $p$ divides the coefficient of every term of $f_p\big((x+1)^{p^{e-1}}\big)$ other than the coefficient of $x^{p^{e-1}(p-1)}$. Since $p^2$ doesn't divide the constant term, Eisenstein says $f_p\big((x+1)^{p^{e-1}}\big)$ is irreducible.
||
i gotta go sleep. i think those are full details^
i have to find the prime ideals of $\frac{\mathbb{Q}[x]}{\langle x^4-1\rangle}$\
so i can write it as $\frac{\mathbb{Q}[x]}{\langle x^4-1\rangle}=\frac{\mathbb{Q}[x]}{\langle x-1\rangle} \times \frac{\mathbb{Q}[x]}{\langle x+1\rangle} \times \frac{\mathbb{Q}[x]}{\langle x^2+1\rangle} $\
but now i'm not getting how to find its prime ideals, any hint will be appreciated.
TheStudent
Use the correspondence theorem and the fact that ℚ[x] is a PID
Hi. I don't know if it belongs here.
Let G be a finite group., assume we have in G exactly t elements of ord 2 while t>=0.
Prove: |G| - t is odd
It belongs here
oh okay good to know 🙂
I don't get it, if they said exactly t elements so isn't |G| = t??
probably not because this way the proof doesn't make sense haha
exactly t elements that have order 2
yes
not that G has t elements in all
so we know that there is a that belongs to G. a^2 =1.
And there are t elements like a
yes
No I mean idk lol
hahaha
so |G| = t + x.
We need to proof |G| - t = odd, so basically t+x-t = x = odd.
So need to proof there is odd number of other elements that aren't of order 2
Let order of G is odd ,then it will never have elemnet of order 2 ( because 2 will not divide odd number) so |G|-0= odd
I am trying to prove for even one 
I found it somewhere on the internet. Maybe it helps?
A group of even order must contain an odd number of elements of order 2.
So t = odd
then wat
lol that is what we have to prove
I am trying to figure this out but still not getting this , can you please give me a little more hint?
The prime ideals of the quotient correspond to the prime ideals of Q[x] that contain (x^4-1)
A prime ideal (p(x)) of Q[x] contains (x^4-1) iff p(x) divides x^4 - 1
so you just need to factorize x^4 - 1 as you already did
and the generators you get are the ones that generate the prime ideals you need
you just have to then prove that they all generate distinct prime ideals
for which you need to show that they don't divide each other
I will try my best 
Can we use the fact that in PID, every irreducible is prime so it they all will be prime ideal,?
yes
I mean
you tell me if you can use it lol
Idk what facts you are allowed to use
Hey! Does any of you happen to know whether a finite simple group with an involution with an elementary abelian centralizer is necessarily alternating?
Provided my simple group is non-abelian
the definition of ring corrospondence is "Let A be a multiplicative ring with identity and I an ideal of A. There is a one-to-one correspondence between the ideals of A that contain I and the ideals of the quotient ring A/I." this , but how you are using this here , can you please explain?
This correspondence restricts to a correspondence of prime ideals
As well as to maximal ideals
It's not hard to prove once you know what the correspondence is
Ideal J containing I corresponds to J/I
And if J is prime
Then A/J ≅ (A/I)/(J/I) is an integral domain
So J/I is prime in A/I
now things getting clear to me
Similar reasoning works for maximal ideals, or you can use the fact that the correspondence is also an order isomorphism
Between the partially ordered sets
just one more question , is this line applicable to any ideal ,or just prime ideals?
Any ideal, for prime ideals you look at irreducible p(x)
For any other ideal you look at all factors
Very stupid question. For L/k finite separable and k_s the separable closure, when is Hom_k(L, k_s) ismorphic to Hom_k(L, L) = Aut(L/k)?
Always, no?
I think so yes, but why?
Isnt that kinda the definition of a separable extension?
At least thats how I think of the definition
Actually, wait, im sorry
Im wrong.
What you wrote is equivalent to L/k being normal as well
For example consider Q(2^(1/4))/Q
Has 4 homs into the algebraic closure
But only two automorphisms
ah
Are you thinking of this def?
Every embedding of L in \overline {K} induces an automorphism of L.
Why is it interchangable if we use the algebraic or separable closure?
If L is separable then all embeddings into the algebraic closure will factor through the separable closure
If L isnt separable then it’s not even contained in the separable closure so there are no embeddings there
lejoon come vc
Could someone recommend me a good textbook for studying groups and rings?
dummit foote
Hi, I’ve gotten parts (i), (iii), and (iv) just by picking arbitrary elements in S3 and Z[x1,x2,x3]. I can’t seem to get part (ii)… Any help?
try looking at the products of x1 x2 and x3
I computed that the orbit of x1x2 has 3 elements
Wouldn’t the orbit of x1x2x3 be the singleton {x1x2x3}?
I’m looking for a two element orbit
Add products together**
Ohh
I’ll try it out right now
Yeah I’m getting another 3 element orbit, unless I’ve made a mistake
what element did you try?
i was thinking more along the lines of something like x1x2 + x1x3
hmm actually i think that might have 3 elements also
i think (x1-x2)(x2-x3)(x3-x1) should work
Whoa hmm I’ll give that a shot @proud bear
@proud bear It was so close to being a 2 element orbit. It is a 3 element orbit.
for the second rotation, when 2->3, 3->1 and 1->3, shouldn't you get (x2-x3)(x3-x1)(x1-x2)?
i don't think you permuted all of the indeterminates
I think stain’s thing works
Should be fixed by any 3-cycle
But not by any transpositions
Okay I will do it again, thank you @proud bear
and @small bison
Yes it worked! @proud bear @small bison
@proud bear @small bison How did you know this choice of f would work? Was this just through experience?
yeah kind of
Interesting
hmm well you can sort of use the orbit-stabilizer theorem to help
but coming up with an example is prob done with experience or a lot of time
Ahh I see. Thank you @small bison. This level of abstract algebra is the hardest class I’ve taken. I’m still an undergrad.
Bump
If the product of two ideals in a domain is principal, does that mean the two ideals are finitely generated?
Z(G) ---> G ---> Inn(G)
but Inn(G) is solvable as Aut(G) is solvable
oh ig you didnt say that it was short exact
sorry
well i meant for it to be short exact 🥲
lol
first one is the inclusion of Z(G) into G. second one is the map taking g to the automorphism of conjugation by g
it's called a short exact sequence because the first map is injective, the second one is surjective and the image of the first map is the kernel of the second
how proof
Tensor product distributes over direct sums
And a direct sum of chain complexes is exact iff each one is
Oh wait
Oh, this is about E-flatness
The simplest answer is that Tor is additive
If you can’t use Tor… uhhh you have to do some shenanigans i guess, i dunno
Yeah haven't covered Tor yet, but I will try to prove that it is additive
wait additivity just follows from adding resolutions doesn't it
and the fact that tensor is additive
by adding I mean direct summing
We have done some snek shenanigans for flatness proofs, maybe tensor an injective map into the direct sum with F and argue somehow but I just don't see how do that
so given E → dirsum E_i injective, for each i we have exact sequence 0 → K_i → E → E_i
nah we want E_i in the middle
😵💫
yes
Oh Hurb
ses with E in middle is preserved
Tor won’t even directly solve your problem

Oh maybe
try this
Direct sums are exact and commute with tensor
For something like
0 -> K -> (+) E_i
Denote K_i = K\cap E_i
Then you should be able to write K as a direct limit of K_i
Over the same index set as (+) E_i as the direct limit of the E_i
Then take direct limit and boom
Or something like that
Oh that won’t quite work
this is direct sum though 
You have to do something like
Direct sum is a direct limit of all finite direct sums
right makes sense
So maybe you can try something like this for all finite direct sums
Then try that idea
Or something
Like if you can induct
To handle the finite
Doing this trick except
Not K_i
You have to index via the finite subsets of I the index set
If that makes sense
right
And intersect K with that
I shall try it
But you need to handle the finite case
Which maybe you can induct
Or use snake lemma
Or both
¯_(ツ)_/¯
At the very least this reduces it to finite
ye we have some theorems I might try applying 😵💫

But without Tor the proof is a lot harder
The point here is that
You do something like this
I feel like this was given as an exercise because prof didn't have an easy proof
this is like the only exercise
in all of the lecture notes

0 -> E_ 1 -> (+)>=1 E_i -> (+)>1 E_i -> 0
Then you get the SES
Oh hmmm
Actually idk
This doesn’t quite work either
Lmfao
F
Maybe you can like
Make this 2-D
Put the arbitrary
0 -> K -> (+) E_i -> F -> 0
Down the middle
Then try to fill in the missing spots
Apply Snek
wait put what down the middle of what
Take this
Then you need arbitrary SES’s with the direvt sum of E_i in the middle
So put that vertically down the middle
Then you have some missing spots
👀 💯 🙏
The diagram is like a +
oh I see
¯_(ツ)_/¯
lol I will try doing that
I don’t think Tor is particularly helpful here anyway
You just brought it up to scare me 
Idk about trying what I suggested either anymore
I mean I guess you can fill it in with push outs or pullbacks I think
But things get kind of dicey I think
¯_(ツ)_/¯
oof
Anyway I am planning to leave this till the end, haven't finished preparing for the exam tomorrow 😵💫
I know it's simple question but i need validation. If A is subgroup of B, it implies A' is subgroup of B' ( where A' and B' are commutator groups of A and B) right?
Good luck mate
i have check whether the given polynomial is irreducible or not on given field , the given polynomial is of three degree so i can just check its roots in the given field , and it has root x=3, but is there any other method to check its irreducibility , like checking each and every element will be difficult?
There’s various tools sure, but because you have just F_7 plugging in all the numbers is the easiest way
In general there’s a wide array of things you can try to do to determine if a polynomial is irreducible, Eisenstein’s criterion for example, but in general it is a hard problem
So there’s not going to be some magic formula you can follow, you have to try various things
QED even
Just did some star jumps. I am none the wiser about the proof!

Hello i need help with a question in the book Linear algebraic groups by humphreys
Let G be a connected algebraic group, $x\in G$ is semisimple. Must $C_G(x)$ be connected?
kh
and $C_G(x)$ is the centralizer of $ x$ in $G$
kh
i tried using that in a connected algebraic group the centralizer of a torus is connected
can i prove that in a connected algebraic group the closure of the power set of $x$ is a torus?
kh
what’s [g,h]
Their commutator, I assume.
I don't think it's really tedious. Generally, to compute g^n h^m we need higher-order commutators like [g, [g, h]] etc., but in this case they vanish. For the first part, try to express [x, yz] in terms of commutators and conjugation.
Is it alright to ask for proof verification here? Small problem in intro group theory
yes
Does something like this work? I can't help but feel as though I'm skipping details, or not being general enough somehow
(This is only for the first part)
If x has order n and i,j are distinct elements of {0,...,n-1} such that x^i=x^j I'm pretty sure you can find a positive integer k less than n where x^k=1?
For ex take j>i wlog and consider x^(j-i) maybe?
Yeah I looked at the solution and it uses that argument exactly
I understood that one and am convinced by it, I just wanted to know if mine works or not since I couldn't come up with that one
Why can't x be 1 and how do you know n is not 1? (I could be forgetting basic group theory stuff lol)
Wait, does this not work if n = 1? Since x = 1?
I guess I assumed n was greater than 1, and then x wouldn't be equal to 1 since its exponent would be less than the order of x
Wait how does this actually work if n = 1...? They're not distinct anymore, since x^1 = 1, right?
Yeah I'm confused on that myself.
But ignoring x=1 specifically I think your proof will work.
It seems to me like an inductive version of this argument
Where you consider the set {1,...,x^k} for k<n.
And show all elts of that set are distinct.
Oohh I didn't think of it like that
You can apply the same trick with i,j at every step of the induction proof so it should work.
Though you'd be picking i j from a subset of 0,..,n-1.
I'll try and tackle it that way, and see if I can construct something. I really need to take another look at induction lol, I only know how to use one version of it, I think
In any case, thanks a bunch
I was feeling iffy about it since it felt a lot less "clean" than the one you suggested
For the case x=1 I guess n=1 so you can maybe argue x^0,...,x^(n-1) is just the list/set or whatev containing only 1?
Then that case is obvious enough that you could consider only x not equal to 1 maybe lol?
Wait it's actually n = 2 where the problem arises, isn't it
I think the x matters also
I'd say the induction arg is less clean, but it doesn't hurt to prove a result you already know in a diff way.
I think you're right then yeah, probably saying n = 1 gives the list containing only 1 is to the way to go
Yeah it definitely feels a lot more messy, but I guess it wouldn't hurt to get some practice in for me, I desperately need it
Appreciate your help a bunch, thanks man
silly question about notation, if you would please. let R be a [commutative] ring and M and N be modules. What are some common meanings for the notation "N < M".
that's "<" as opposed to "\subset". Is it suppose to mean that N is a submodule (as opposed to just a subset) of M (which was given in my assumptions...)
ye submodule. generally in algebra < can be used to denote substructure. subgroup, subring, etc
thank you, much obliged.
can we make every finite field from ring Z[x]? (don't know is this question to worth it ask)

