#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 635 of 407
expectTheUnexpected
oh my that's perfect
Do you want the proof? I'm typing itright now 😄
Yes, I shoulda known that Hopf algebras are the setting for this! Go ahead, I'd love the proof
If it's too complicated I'm also happy with a reference but if you're super excited about typing it out I won
't stop you
I'm looking at this problem regarding bimodules and morita equivalences and I can't help but think that a bicategory is the natural setting for this
expectTheUnexpected
The first sentence in the proof is part of the so-called fundamental theorem of Hopf modules, but I will prove it to you anyway
expectTheUnexpected
That's true. 0-cells are rings, 1-cells are bimodules, and 2-cells are given by tensoring bimodules
qiaochu has a post on this: https://qchu.wordpress.com/2012/02/16/morita-equivalence-and-the-bicategory-of-bimodules/

@sour plume do you agree with the proof?
Probably! It's blowing my mind a little bit since the Fundamental Theorem you mentioned sounds insane, but I guess Hopf algebras do be like that
So this just uses that my module M is a module w.r.t. the algebra structure, and not the coalgebra structure?
Or is that somehow automatic or so
Yeah, just a module
Cooool
So, the fundamental theorem has the following nice formulation:
Let $H\text{-mod}$ be the category of left $H$-modules. Inside this, $H$ is a coalgebra object. Thus, we can consider for example right comodules over $H$ inside of $H\text{-mod}$, denote this category by $(H\text{-mod})^H$. Then the fundamental theorem says that there is a monoidal equivalence
[ (H\text{-mod})^H \cong Vect ]
expectTheUnexpected
oop that's spoilers for the next hw problem
Very cool! Thank you so much, I will digest this a little more! This has rekindled my love for Hopf algebras
no worries 🙂 I'm working with all sorts of Hopfish structures, I just love them ❤️
you know when people say the phrase "same difference"... like if they accidentally said nicki minaj and it was really cardi b? is this a reference to nicki and cardi being equivalent/congruent modulo something if it is a "same difference" situation?
congruent modulo public's perception of them
i think youre reading too much into this.
i dont think "same diff" is an equivalence relation, for one
perhaps people think they're equivalent modulo the genre of music called "stripper rap". this was a suggestion of my friend who did a phd in automorphic forms, shrugs
surely "stripper rap" would be the equivalence class, and "genre" the modulo
if we're saying theyre equivalent because theyre both stripper rappers
stripper rap...
maybe "same difference" means that cardi and nicki have the same difference when you subtract them with something in the thing you're modding out by... i.e. that theyre in the same class
how can i represent the cyclic group of Z with addition
with the cyclic group notation
you mean $(\mathbb{Z},+) = \langle1\rangle$ ?
EricW
yeah,i think i am not getting what is a generator
1
because i don't know how you get negative numbers with a generator
If it's a group, then it must contain the inverse of the generator
generators include inverses
$\langle 1 \rangle$ means all elements of the form $1^k$ for $k$ an integer
Namington
k can be 0 (so you get the identity 0) or negative (so you get inverses)
yeah but because g is a group ,it has he inverse and indentity ?
alternatively, just apply 1 enough
in ℤ/5ℤ, for example, 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = -1
since 1 + 4 = 5 = 0
Yes. A group has an identity and the inverse of every element (by definition).
i am also trying to get this definition
how many times do you need to apply g to itself to get the identity?
it will be a finite amount in any finite group
(why?)
so for example, in the cyclic group of order 4
1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4 = 0, so 1 has order 4
2 + 2 = 4 = 0, so 2 has order 2
3 + 3 + 3 + 3 = 12 = 0, so 3 has order 4
and 0 of course has order 1
okay 0 is the smallest natural such that g^m = e
now i think i understand it ,michael penn video doest explain so well this concept ,and the book i am using don't cover it.
sounds like a rather unusual textbook if they dont talk about orders of elements. perhaps they use the notation o(g) ?
i am using this one http://abstract.ups.edu/aata/section-cyclic-subgroups.html
they talk about it in section 4.1 just after remark 4.4
yeah ,i havent noticed
it
i thought the chapter was only about cyclic subgroups
the "order" of an element a, is the "order" of the cyclic group generated by a = <a>
i.e the number of elements in <a> is the same as the "order" of a
so they have something in common - hence being in the same section
Im stuck- let $A$ and $B$ be subgroups of $G$ and let $A\le N_G(B)$ show that $AB$ is precisely the join of $A$ and $B$ under the subgroup lattice of $G$
please request a new nickname
And its suggested I use this theorem:
$$ A,B\le G\text{ and }A\le N_G(B)\Rightarrow AB\le G, B\trianglelefteq AB, A\cap B\trianglelefteq A\text{ and }\frac{A}{A\cap B}\equiv \frac{AB}{B} $$
please request a new nickname
the first statement after the arrow is $AB\le G$ not $AB\le B$ by the way
please request a new nickname
can someone proof why <1>^(order of cyclic group) = e
ohh ok
now do you mean that 1 has the order of the cyclic group or the generator of 1 has the order of the cyclic group
for instance, Im not sure what is meant by
$\langle 1\rangle^n$
please request a new nickname
can you give me the proof for that?
i will write it in latex
Let $G$ be a group and $g \in G$. Suppose $g^n \neq e$ for all $n$; then $g^n$ is a distinct element of $G$ for each $n$, since if $g^n = g^{n+m}$, that means $e = g^0 = g^{m}$ (right-multiply by $g^{-n}$). This means $G$ must have at least as many elements as there are natural numbers, i.e. $G$ is not a finite group.
Namington
so in a finite group, every element g has a natural number n such that g^n = e.
this same proof also justifies that the order of an element is ≤ the order (size) of the group
so you wont have a group with 10 elements but one element has order 13
thats not possible
in fact, with a bit more work, one can prove each element has order 1, 2, 5, or 10
Since A is in the normalizer of B you have that AB is a subgroup, trivially it contains A and B. What‘s left to show is that any other subgroup C that contains A and B contains AB, that however is clear as C has to be closed under your group law.
any recommendation on a book about group theory?
What‘s your (abstract-) algebra background?
uh not much
what do you mean by "C has to be closed"
We required that C is a subgroup of the group one‘s dealing with
Hence it needs to be closed under the group law, meaning that for any elements x and y of C their product under the group law is also in C.
What about your general maths background and book preferences? Are you feeling well reading dense textbooks or do you prefer rather easy to read maths books?
ahh, I thought you had derived something I had not seen in the theorem
Does the explanation make sense to you though?
so basically you took the definition of the join of A and B, namely the intersection of subgroups containing their union, and said that AB must be within this subgroup since all a\in A and all b\in B must be in these subgroups and hence, their product must be as well, that is, AB
yes
There‘s some details I didn’t write out explicitly though, you‘d need to check that AB indeed is a subgroup
Yeah, it seems that the theorem provided allows me to just say it though
But since A is contained in the normalizer of B you have that AB=BA and then it follows
but how does AB=BA imply that it is a subgroup
You need to check that it is closed under the group law and that inverses are contained, if x and y are in AB, so there exist a,a‘ in A and b,b‘ in B such that x=ab and y=a‘b‘ then xy= aba‘b‘, because AB=BA you have that ba‘ is in AB and hence there are a‘‘ in A and b‘‘ in B sich that ba‘=a‘‘b‘‘ and hence xy=aa‘‘b‘‘b‘ which is in AB. Hence xy is in AB whenever x and y are in AB and so AB is closed under the group law.
If x is in AB then there are a in A and b in B such that x=ab, then x^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1} which is in BA, since BA=AB we have that x^{-1} also is in AB.
oh ok so you can reconstruct the product so that it becomes an element of AB
Yes
I see
Maybe something in between? I think I could handle most assuming it doesn’t have that many pre requisites
I'd perhaps recommend "Algebra chapter 0" by Paolo Aluffi, not exclusively on group theory but that's the first thing it covers and if you aren't familiar with any much algebra you might be interested in continuing reading it
Dummit and Foote is also very good imo
interesting, I foudn the idea of the book interesting
I'd agree but I somewhat dislike the style personally
Which book do you mean?
What idea of it are you referencing? You mean a general purpose basic algebra textbook?
Algebra: Chapter 0 is a self-contained introduction to the main topics of algebra, suitable for a first sequence on the subject at the beginning graduate or upper undergraduate level.
Personally wouldn't call this idea original but I suppose why not
There's a quite some books like that
Lang is a famous other
Though I don't recommend it if you have no background in algebra nor advanced maths
lol
I’m on Bourbaki gang
(When you have a specific result you want a proof for and know it’s in the book, or have a feeling it will be)
The proofs are very clear albeit you have to flip pages a lot, but you won’t be sitting there wondering how they justified a step
Never read Bourbaki algebra but from what Bourbaki I skimmed through it was pretty good
the kernel of a vector space is ${v : T(v) = 0}$
mns
where $T : V \rightarrow W$
mns
I am seeing an exercise where the author straight away assume $T(0) = 0$
mns
Why can't we have a linear map where for the zero vector in V we have a non zero vector in W ?
T(0) = T(0 + 0) = T(0) + T(0). subtract T(0) from both sides
Given a linear map $T:V\to W$ between two vector spaces over the same field $K$, one has that $T(0)=T(0\cdot 0)=0\cdot T(0)=0$
27182818284tropy
That 0T(0)=0 follows from that 0T(0)=(0-0)T(0)=0T(0)-0T(0)
Perhaps it‘d be better to put this like $$T(0_V)=T(0_K\cdot 0_V)=0_K\cdot T(0_V)=0_W$$
27182818284tropy
Further one can prove that the kernel of a linear transformation is a subspace of its domain
homomorphisms can be from sets of different cardinality correct? for example Z_10 to Z_25, has homomorphisms right?
Yes
aight. thats what I thought but then I second guessed myself since the cayley tables are not trivial
Usually the term homomorphism is used in the context of algebraic structures, not simply sets necessarily, but the underlying sets may have different cardinalities yes
cayley tables are about multiplication within a single group
For an incredibly trivial example take G = Z and H = 1 and let f: Z -> 1 be the map sending everything to 1
or 0 depending on preferred notation
oh yea, I guess that is true
Yea, I was trying to visualize everything though. I find that helps a lot
low key, I really wish I could find books that had pictures of everything for high level maths. It just gives more context imo
The way to visualize homomorphisms f:A->B between magmas(or groups if you prefer) by Cayley tables, I’d say is to imagine collapsing some rows and some columns of the Cayley table of A and inserting it into the Cayley table of B.
Personally I prefer Cayley graphs rather than Cayley tables for this kind of visualizations
fair. I just 2nd guessed myself since I wasnt sure if it was proper to call something a homomorphism when it doesnt map to every element, but I guess it wouldnt really matter since not all sets are well ordered
What do you mean?
what does well ordering have to do with any of this
A homomorphism in this context is a map that preserves the operations of your structure
I mean operations on sets can skip values. it wouldnt matter for homomorphisms though since if you can include that skip within your function you would still have a bijection between corresponding elements.
what bijection
between the sets
there's no bijection
A homomorphism needn‘t be a bijection
oh, am I thinking of isomorphism?
isomorphism is a homomorphism with a homomorphism inverse
damn. my prof covered them in the same day so now they get tangled in my head
isomorphisms preserve cardinality yes
Yes, that makes sense for what I was trying to say, thanks.
For algebraic structures bijectivity suffices
In what context are you talking about homomorphisms Caesium?
group homomorphisms
where some operation can map elements in a group to always return the same value in another group
A homomorphism from a group (G,•) to a group (G‘,•‘) is a function f:G->G‘ such that for any a,b in G you have that f(a•b)=f(a)•‘f(b)
An isomorphism from a group (G,•) to a group (G’,•‘) is a homomorphism f:G->G‘ such that there exists a homomorphism g:G‘->G such that g(f(x))=x and f(g(y))=y for any x in G and y in G‘.
thanks, that makes sense. I just got the definitions messed up in my head a bit
One can prove that a homomorphism is an isomorphism if and only if it is bijective
why is x^n + x + 1 only reducible (over Q) for n = 5, 8…
x^2 + x + 1 is a factor for those n
uh
well ig there is way to show it
(x^2 + x + 1)(x^n-2+a1*x^n-1+…+an)=x^n+x+1
and then solve relationship between coefficients
if you look at it $x^{2+3k}+x+1 \mod x^3-1$ then $x^3=1 \mod x^3-1$ so it simplifies to $x^2+x+1 \mod x^3-1$. Since $x^2+x+1$ divides $x^3-1$ we can simply reduce further to see that it's really $0 \mod x^2+x+1$.
Merosity
although for the 3k and 1+3k case it remains to show that those really are irreducible, maybe try translating to get some sort of eisenstein criteria to show up
yea i understand why n=3k + 2 is divisible by x^2 + x + 1 lol
what have you tried so far
showing they’re the only reducible ones js the hard part
what ways do you know of to show irreducibility
how tf will eisenstein work
translating a polynomial doesn't change whether it's irreducible or not
uhh
so by looking at f(x+n) it's possible to make it satisfy the eisenstein criteria
x^2 + 2x + 1 is reducible
this is a standard trick, you can use it to prove cyclotomic polynomials are irreducible
you're not plugging in correctly
yeah
another trick that's easy to try is map f(x) to x^n*f(1/x)
really just change the order of the coefficients from left to right to right to left, might help you achieve making eisenstein criteria
yeah i saw this too https://math.stackexchange.com/a/800835
where's your problem come from, I haven't started looking at MSE cause I figure it's just a textbook problem
you're being kind of evasive, you haven't answered my questions so you're forcing me to pull teeth here
what have you tried? what methods do you know of to show irreducibility?
So I have the following problem. Let a_0,a_1,a_2 be algebraic integers. Then if I have some number b\in C with the property that b^2 a_2 + ba_1 + a_0 = 0, then b must also necessarily be an algebraic integer. That is, there should exist a monic polynomial with integer coeffficients which have b as a root. My current attempt was to esentially set up a system of 4 equations all = 0 since we also know a_0,a_1,a_2 are all algebraic integers, so together with b^2 a_2 + ba_1 + a_0 = 0, we get 4 equations which = 0. However, I am not seeing where to proceed from here.
Another idea I tried was showing that if b^2 a_2 + ba_1 + a_0 = 0, then a_0,a_1,a_2 must be rational. Then if they are rational and algebraic int, they must necessarily be integers and we would be done. This one seemed promising, but I quickly realized it was not true at all. In fact, we can even look at a simpler case, where a_0,a_1 are algebra int and b has property b = ba_1 + a_0. We set a_0 = a_1 = \sqrt 2
Does anyone think this is a good idea or have a hint for other approaches?
The discriminant of the quadratic polynomial you have written is a square root of algebraic integers, so is an algebraic integer
So, I see any root of algebraic int is necessarily algebraic int, but why is looking at the discriment enough? Because algebraic int's are closed under additon and multiplication?
Yeah, that was what I was thinking but I just realised that you need to divide by 2a_2 to get b 
So I don't think this works
yea, its not closed under division
I think a approach should work in a more general setting, where we can have as many a_0,a_1,....a_n-1 all algebraic int and b is a root of a monic polynomial with coefficients a-s.
A third idea might be that I would want to show Z[b] is finitely generated, which implies b is an algebraic integer. So I know a_0, a_1, a_2, are algebraic integers thus Z[a_i] is finitely generated. If b is a root of a monic polynomial with coefficeints a_i -s, why does that imply Z[b], all polynomials with integer coeffieicnts taken at x = b, is f.g....
Ugh…
Man this stuff really sucks
If you were looking at the notion of integrality which is basically algebraic plus satisfies a monic polynomial (okay the latter condition implies algebraic so not particularly useful lmao) I would refer you to a commutative algebra textbook
OH I CAN SOLVE THIS FOR YOU
b satisfying a monic polynomial says for some n you get a relation like b^n = a1b^n-1 + … + a_{n-1}b + an
So now take a polynomial in b of the form
cmb^m + … + c0, we want to show you can write this as Z-linear combinations of 1,…,b^n-1
If m < n, you’re done
If not, do induction on m, so all you have to do is write b^m = b{n-m}b^n
Then use the relation here to turn b^n into a poly of degree n-1 in b, then you’ve turned
cmb^m + … + c0 into
d_{m-1}b^m-1 + … + d0
All you did was turn b^m into some polynomial in b of degree m-1
By turn some b^n factor into a poly of degree n-1
So once you just collect all the coefficients you get a poly in degree m-1
Hmm, I have seen this trick before, but I dont see where the fact that the a_i -s are algebraic integers were used anywhere
Well… it doesn’t
Doesn't what you have above require b to be an algebraic integer?
algebraic int means that b is the root of a monic polynomial with interger coeffiecients
That is what I want to show, and I know that is equivalent to Z[b] being finitely generated
The other direction is easier
If Z[b] is finitely generated then you can’t have {1,b,…,b^n} linesrlynindependent forever
So eventually you can write b^n as a Z-linear combination of 1,…,b^n-1
So it’s algebraic
Now we can finish
So this time we assume b satisfies a monic poly b^n + … + a1b + a0 = 0
Where all the ai are algebraic
So all you need to do is see that Z[a0,…,an] is finitely generated
Cuz all the ai are algebraic
Then Z[a0,…,an,b] is fg over Z[a0,…,an]
Yes, that is clear since Z[a_i] is f,g
wait, why is this?
Yeh
So joe use transitivity of finite generation
Z[a0,…,an,b] fg over Z
So you can again look at 1,b,…,b^n
Eventually these are linearly dependent
So b^n = a0b + … + an-1b^n-1
Where all the ai are in Z
What I understand Z[b] to mean is that Z[b] is the group (under addition) of all polynomials over Z taken at x = b. Is Z[a,b] meaning all polynomials over Z taken at x = a OR x = b?
No
It’s like
Take multivariate polynomials
And plug in the vector (a,b)
So like a^2 + 3b^2a + 17b^9
Exists in there
So a polynomial like f(x,y) = x^2 + 2y + 0?
Oh I see.
And if you want to adjoin more numbers you just increase the number of variables
So you probably want to switch to x1,…,xn to scale up
Then Z[a0,a2,a3,...a_n-1 b] is f.g over Z, and this must imply Z[b] is f.g too
Yeah
This is a little subtle
One way to get it is to use Noetherianness but that’s kinda overkill
I’d use this to just see that b is integral directly
The reason it’s subtle is thinking along the lines of “subobject of finitely generated thing is finitely generated” isn’t always true
Doe it also work to notice Z[a_1,a_2,...a_n,b] is a f.g abeliean group, with Z[b] a subgroup, hence Z[b] is f.g
I think there is a simple reason for this, but I can't see: Let cos x be an real algebraic number of degree at most 2, so its minimal polynomial has degree at most 2, then I want to show
cos x + isin x has degree at most 16 as an algebraic number
[Q(cos x) : Q] <= 2,
[Q(sin x) : Q] <= 4 as Q(sin x) = Q(sqrt(1 - cos^2 x))
[Q(i) : Q] = 2
combining everything gives that [Q(cos x + i sin x) : Q] <= 16
So if cosx has degree at most 2, this implies sin x has degree at most 4, and noting i has degree 2(the polynomial x^2 - 1), we have the desired result
Hm, I have not seen that before, is it a trivial exercise, or is it involved?
it's very simple. say E/Q and F/Q are finite extensions, define EF as the smallest extension containing both E and F.
(try to see if you can show EF = {e_1f_1 + ... +e_rf_r | e_i in E, f_i in F})
pick spanning sets for E/Q and F/Q, find a spanning set of EF/Q.
oh but you don't need to use this btw, since you're only working with simple extensions we can make remove this
I am trying to work out the fact that the minimal polynomial for sin has degree at most 4. The use of x was bad... so instead use g. Say cos g has minimal polynomial ax^2 + bx + c. Then I know sin g = \sqrt(1 - cos^2g), but I am not seeing a clear way to come up with the minimal polynomial. Namely, the issue is that we have some cos^4 g's that pop up that I don't know how to get rid of
don't work with the actual minimal polynomials, use degrees, they make life easy
can you see why the second extension has degree at most 2?
We took cosg such that it has degree at most 2
det
So the 1st extension is clear, but I cant see the 2nd one immediately
det
Oh, I see now.
But what about the second equality?
I'd guess we should do something like, X= X'+iY' and Y= X'-iY' but that requires your field K to have a square root of -1
Gewisser Fler
Ok lets just assume $K = \mathbb{C} $
Yes that works, thanks!
So I am trying to show the following: If a is an algebraic integer with minimal monic polynomial f \in Q[x]. Then necessarily, f \in Z[x]. Since a is algebric int, I know there exists a monic g(x) \in Z[x] such that a is a root of g. Moreover, since f is irreducible, we have g(x) = f(x) * q(x) for some q \in Q[x]. However, I am not sure how to proceed. The minamality of f is used, but I don't see how to use f is also monic. All that is telling me is that q must also be monic, right?
strict subgroups of rationals under addition are either trivial or integer multiples of a particular rational number, right?
no
shouldn't it be g(x) = f(x) * q(x) ?
Yes, mb I switched them accidently
But it should still be true that q is also monic right, else g could not be monic
yes
if you are replying to me, can you at least correct me?
Then, I think we can turn them into polynomials with integer coefficents by taking the lcm
I'm not sure how that helps showing that f has integer coefficients
you can either use gauss lemma to do it or use that other roots of f are also going to be alg int
yeah I have a feeling gauss lemma has to be involved
If b is another root of f, then notice that g(b) = 0, this means that b is an algebraic integer
this will avoid gauss lemma and would give you a simpler proof
hint ||coefficients of f are algebraic integers and are rational||
This gives that all roots of f are algebraic integers
yep!
oh yeah that works
Then f can be factored as a product of (x - roots) all of which are algebric integers, and alg int are closed under multiplication, so all coeffiicents are alg int and rational, thus integers

This is more of a definition thing. But if f(x) is an irreducible monic polynomial with a root at x=a, is that the same as saying that saying f(x) is the minimal polynomial of a.
not quite, but you can prove it in your case. in general minimal polynomials are not irreducible
Is there a easy example to see the difference?
yep... it can happen if the element doesn't lie in some integral domain
det
we physically adjoined alpha = coset of t that satisfies x^2 = 0
in particular it's minimal polynomial is x^2 and is not irreducible
in our case, if you had a non-trivial factorization of the minimal polynomial f(x) = g(x)*h(x) then we can plug in the x = a and get that either g(a) = 0 or h(a) = 0 from the integral domain-ness. This will give a smaller degree polynomial contradicting minimality of f.
same thing doesn't work there because Q[t]/(t^2) isn't an integral domain
Is there a way to show that the quadratic integer ring $\mcal{O}(\sqrt{D})$ is E.D. where $D=-2, -3, -7, -11$ without bruteforce calculation of $r,s$ ?
Ryu
Compile Error! Click the
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what's r, s?
remainder and quotient
you need to find the circum radius of the lattice triangle and show it's <1
what is it? can you link any resources?
this is directly showing that the usual norm gives a euclidean valuation
like consider alpha and a non-zero beta. look at alpha/beta. need to find a close enough lattice point.
in case of Z[i], you can choose the lattice point to be at most 1/sqrt(2) away
this will give you that N(alpha/beta - gamma) <= 1/2
the same thing, but as -3, -7, -11 are 1 mod 4, those rectangles become triangles
I understood the proof for Z[i] but what is the 'rectangles become triangles'?
So if I changed the condition of f from instead of being the minimal polynomial of a to just some irred monic polynomial with a root of a. Should I be showing the reason f is minimal is because otherwise let q be the minimal poly of a. Then f = q*r for some other polynomial r, contradicting the irred of f?
so if you did the same thing for Z[sqrt(-2)] we'll have to find the longest distinct from a point inside the rectangle with sides 1 and sqrt(2) from the 4 vertices. this is half of the diagonal = sqrt(3)/2 < 1
for -3, -7, -11, we need to add that middle point, so now the question is to find the largest distance from a point inside the triangle to it's 3 vertices
we can cover the plane with these triangles and it's upside down image
oh nice, what about D=-19, -43, -67 tho? the proof in the book is given in terms of Universal side divisors which I didn't quite understood.
det
for D = -3, -7, -11
so if you look at our calculation for D = -19, we get that maximum distance is 5/sqrt(19) which isn't < 1, so our proof fails. but the thing is they are not even euclidean domains. we need to show that no euclidean valuation will work
yep! this is true
and to do this, we need to get some criterion which doesn't depend on the euclidean valuation as it's very hard to work with all the possible valuatoins
I think this argument works: Let f be a irred monic poly with root at a and g be a minimal poly of a. I claim f = gr. If not, then f = gk + r by divison, and r has a root at a with degree less than g, which contradicts the minimality of g. Since f = g * r, we can let h be a monic poly over Z[x] with a as a root. Then I want to say h = f * k where k \in Q[x], but thats not necessarily true. I only know h = g * k' for some k' in Q[x]
wait, nvm f is irred implies f = g
and one criterion is this universal side divisor. if it were a euclidean domain, then look at all non-zero non-unit elements and pick the one with minimal valuation. call it u.
now if you divide anything by u, the remainder will have valuation smaller than that of u, so will be 0 or a unit.
if we show that for D = -19 and others that these have no such u, then it will show that there isn't any possible euclidean valuation on it.
only units in those rings are +-1 so it's not a hard thing to check
Let me read about the universal side divisors a bit more
okie
I find universal side divisors p weird
in the sense that Idt I've actively thought about those properties in familiar rings like Z, Z[i] etc
yea, only time i ever used it is showing the quadratic ring of D = -19 isn't ED xD
lmao
yea it felt pretty weird at start... but there was one similar thing a prof said in one of our lectures
there is a correspondence between valuations and like some partition of subsets idr 

wait our alg geo prof talked about hilbert series on thursday, dunno about poincare series
but don't think i understand the hilbert series well either, too much language

yes I think actually
moldilocks I have a question
do u know about graded rings and hilbert/poincare series?
Let z be an algebraic integer on the unit circle with degree n (ie its minimal polynomial is degree n), I'm having a hard time understanding what does that have to do with z being either a root of unity or not a root of unity. I don't see the connection between the degree of a minimal polynomial and being a root of unity. So if z is a n-th root of unity, I know the minimal polynomial has degree at most n, since z^n-1 does the job, ie all roots of unity are algebric integers. However, there are more algebraic integers on the unit circle which are NOT roots of unity. We can for example find algebraic integers on the circle with has degree at most 16, so how does knowing the degree of an algebraic integer help us determine if it is a root of unity or not
What exactly is the statement you are referring to ? @dull root

shika I have a question
😂
oh I didn't see the question
I have seen the definition of a hilbert series but nothing beyond that
I am trying to show that there are infinitely many algebraic integers on the unit circle which are NOT roots of unity. The hint I was given was to think of the degrees of such algebraic integers, ie their minimal polynomial
I just cant find any sources that cover that stuff well imo
my course is all around the places
do you know that cyclotomic polynomials are irreducible?
is it a topological combinatorics course?
Nope, I have not heard of that term
not sure if asking me or masaka but neever heard of that 
you
was asking because that's where I encountered them so could send a resource in that case
So eariler, we were able to find infinintely many points on the unit circle which had degree at most 16 by taking cosf + i sin f. Then I want to show there are a finite amount of roots of unity which have degree at most 16.
this is intro comm alg class first month in
.
oof
ah right
that basically boils down to prove that if alpha is a primitive n-th root of unity for n > 16 then alpha is an algebraic integer of degree n > 16
Because there is finitely many primitive n-th root of unity for n <= 16, and those clearly have degree atmost n (because X^n - 1)
primitive nth root of 1 has degree phi(n), so that can be <= 16 even when n> 16
but idk how to avoid using that and phi(n) >= sqrt(n/2) for (n >= 2)
So the euler toitent function counts the degree of a n-th root of unity right?
yep
Yea, so the above claim is not true...
that's because the primitive roots have minimal polynomial = cyclotomic polynomial
and proof of its irreducibility requires some work
it's true but we need to look at nth roots where n > 512 or something
there might be some elementary way
But maybe I am misunderstanding: the goal was to find infintely many algebraic intgers on the circle which were not roots of unity. We have infinitely many such points which had degree at most 16. We know there are finitely many primitive n-th roots of unity for n up to 16. So the current issue is that some of our points might be primitive roots of unity for something > 16?
btw for D=-15, is it E.D. tho? the method we used previously won't work because the circum radius >1
btw is it enough to conclude that it's not ED? ig yes
wikipedia says it's not a pid as well
Oh yeah fuck
I was thinking of prime numbers
but this is still not true
lol should have checked, mb
is it yes?
don't think so... but there might be some weird theorem saying that some weird class of number rings are Euclidean if and only if usual norm is an euclidean valuation
But the phi(n) >= sqrt(n/2) bound fix the idea anyway
Intuitively saying that if R > 1, then it is possible that we can find one point which is more than 1 dist apart from all the vertices then we cannot find a lattice point.
Q(sqrt(D)) is dense in C when D < 0
so should be true
we'll need to pick a point very close to the cirucumcenter
and hope that other triangles don't interfere
Hmm, is there another really tirivial bound other than that sqrt bound? We just need the lower bound to be > 16 after a certain point right?
yes cool
phi(p_1 ^e_1.. p_k^e_k = n)
Show that whenever any p_i > 16, phi(n) > 16
and then cases assuming each is p_i <= 16
but this is ugly
not hard at all but ugly
yea lol so ugly
i had a problem in one of our endsems to show that if [K:Q] is finite then it contains finitely many roots of unity
i had to prove that bad bound phi(n) >= sqrt(n/2) to make writing a little nicer
what's the simplest bound that you can give without any ugly work?
like a very bad upper bound for number of divisors is 2sqrt(n)
@rustic crown you are doing masters rn?
nah, 3rd year of ug

i don't understand the sotrue emote lol
we never covered this much in our undergrad
it means you are lying
no i mean how does
and sotrue connect

nope, stopped using insta a year ago, that was my only source of meme
F
damn

why tho? isn't that like taught in first ring theory course
we were taught only the basic rings, hell our professor even skipped the whole part in the class in our masters class and gave a load of assignments

that's how things are done here, lol
our ag prof does most things in assignments, and classes are so hard to follow 
yeah, the whole group theory from the syllow was given as an assignment, so was the field extension part

I'm just reviewing these topics because I forgot most of the things
need them for entrance
i have to review each thing 3-4 times until i can prove them in my sleep
yeah, our sem 1 was rushed like hell, all had to be covered in 3 months
due to covid
it's supposed to be 5-6months,
our sem are usually 4 months 
but sem5 they made it 2.5 months 
this ag course is too rushed up

I forgot most of the things we were taught in group theory, had to so a full run through. It's a pain, ig I need to be more in touch with the subject 
yes I mostly do those, good thing I found the server to help with abstract stuffs 
i never studied this either no worries
but as you go deeper into AG you need this stuff more
Im not sure what I need to show for this.
Write down the formulas for all homomorphisms from $Z_{10}$ into $Z_{25}$.
CaesiumIsFake
I understand all the ideas independently but I am having trouble putting them into a form where I can easily show a homomorphism
try proving these two lemmas as an exercise and then applying them to solve your problem
thank god 
this stuff is pretty accessible imo, if you read Gallian's book on algebra ED's and PID's are both covered thoroughly
I read dummit foote
I read Aluffi, but our algebra prof did a very good job in the ring theory course 
wish I could say the same. Also there is another problem I have about group theory. any subgroup of R ( Q) is either cyclic or dense in R. How do I prove it?
wrt •
Hi! Any hint for showing that the dimension of any irreducible representation is a divisor of |G:Z(G)|?
We know that the dimension divides the order of G
I don't think that's true: consider R_>0
denseness of a subgroup is equivalent to having elements of arbitrarily small magnitude
hm I think it was wrt + then 
oh ye should be wrt +
yeah so like if there are elements with arbitrary small magnitude then we can say it's dense because of the + right?
idk what you mean by because of the +
like we would be able to translate it to any nbd of x ∈R by adding it sufficient times
yes
so how do I show that if it is not cyclic then there is an element of arbitrary small magnitude?
You suppose that it isn’t cyclic and that you don’t have arbitrarily small magnitudes and derive a contradiction I suppose? Cause you should be able to take two elements such that no Z linear combination gives a divisor of either and I think you should be able to argue that by making coeffs big enough you can get a magnitude small enough?
Just speculating here haven’t tried this
show that smallest magnitude positive element generates it
I was speculating something similar as well
showing contrapositive of what you said
seems like I was going the other way around
Right kind of like when you show the only subgroups of Z are nZ
uh, i dont think thats right? consider 1/x and 1/y where x and y linearly independent over Q
yea
i think it'll be dense not cylic
ye it will be dense
we need to show that if there is a smallest positive magnitude then group is cyclic

oh it reminds of bezout
yea it makes sense
Yeah so I suppose you can argue similarly for any Euclidean domain no?

yes whenever you have long division
Pretty nifty
though here it is a specific kind
because you only want quotients to be integers
since this isn't a ring
Yeah fair enough
so similar true for C as well?
Is there a notion of being a Euclidean domain as a module instead of a ring
C is also an ED
So that we could say that “R is a Euclidean Z module” or whatever
I think narwhal is referring to ideals
Like in this case you can get quotients in Z
ED implies PID, and the argument is pretty much this
But in general if you’re an R module you may or may not be able to get quotients in R if you know what I mean, and get Euclidean division under a certain norm?
C has non cyclic non dense subgroups
Yeah you can’t perform the type of Euclidean division I’m referring to in C can you?
As a Z module
Even as an R module for that matter
you could by Z[i]
True
Btw totally unrelated but I’m proud to announce we’ve finally started looking at matrices in my linear algebra class lmao
After 8 weeks
😌
"It is my experience that proofs involving matrices can be shortened by 50% if one throws the matrices out."
E. Artin
Lmao probably true
"There is hardly any theory which is more elementary [than linear algebra], in spite of the fact that generations of professors and textbook writers have obscured its simplicity by preposterous calculations with matrices."
Lol
Honestly matrices is a breather after the dual space
It’s much nicer to look at an array that indice and star hell
matrices aren't that bad
is there a way to understand upper triangular matrix without matrices
like as a linear map
in a nice way
yea
how do
Not really to be fair it would seem quite unmotivated
it means that the basis vector b_n 's image is a linear combination of b_1, ..., b_n
lol
“Pick two bases and orders such that phi(e_i) = sum_j=0 ^ i lambda_j f_j” or smth
Bit gross

it kinda relates to the definition of linear independence

matrix just means you pick a basis
work in category of pairs of vector spaces and bases
as moldilocks said, try explaining upper triangular "transformations" without matrices
this is equivalent to category of vector spaces
You can’t cause there are none

and matrices now coincide with maps
You can be upper triangular in one but not another basis so eh
makes the change of bases formula extremely easy to remember
you can't mess it up if you view maps as maps of pairs
tho matrix makes it easier to calculate EVs

say the operator f ↦f+f'
This is how I cat pilled first years in my college

without mentioning the word category
I need to read the category part ig
Our Lin alg teacher does that a bit by subtly mentioning cat theory
category word is foreign to me
i think categories are nice it helps keep things organized

not all fans are huge carla
are they supercompact fans?
cats are nice 
it's always risky to give a negative answer to a question like this but i would expect a property of matrices to have a good interpretation in terms of linear maps iff it's preserved under similarity
That is fair
Diagonalisability though
it also has a basis dependent description but is way simpler than the upper triangular one
we have subspaces $V_0\subset V_1 \subset V_2\dots V_n$ where $V_i4 is $i$-dimensional
diligentClerk
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
actually you can remove basis dependency by saying all generalised eigenspaces are 1 dimensional
and $T$ carries $V_0$ into $V_0$, $V_1$ into $V_1$, and so on
diligentClerk
it should be the case that $T$ is upper triangular iff such a filtration exists
diligentClerk
this is nice yeah
sorry im just spitballing here
idk if this is actually true i'm just like,
handwaving
its like composition series
ok, sure
of k[T] modules
yeah and the induced map on $V_{n+1}/V_n$ is the $n$th diagonal element
diligentClerk
right
in particular, the determinant is zero iff the induced map on $V_{k+1}/V_k$ is the zero map
I am happy with that description
diligentClerk
for some k
I'm struggling with a problem, could someone give me a hint?
"If (G:H)=m, the order of every element of G/H is a divisor of m)"
Any help is much appreciated. Thanks
Oh, I see. Thanks 😄
Hi, I am working on this problem and having some struggle.
There is a hint my professor gave, and it is that since the product HK is not necessarily a group, we would need to explain carefully why |HK/K| = |HK|/|K|
I do see that $HK/K = {hK(K):h\in H} = {hK:h\in H}$, that is, $|HK/K|$ is the number of distinct left cosets of K
Mega Euler
<@&286206848099549185>
What's question (i) ?
Show that the map is well defined
can i ask about this question
i feel like its dumb but i dont understand the notes
How does a polynomial represent a finite field?
they kinda give it to you there
a quadratic over F_2 is like
ax^2 + bx + c
and each of a,b,c are either 0 or 1
so it's like making 3 independent binary choices, so we see that the size is 8
So as a set let's just associate these polynomials with (a,b,c)
so when we add two polynomials together it's like doing this
(a,b,c) + (a',b',c') = (a + a', b + b', c + c')
wait omegalol how do you multiply these. You can't do it component-wise
Okay well I'm gonna just reduce them mod x^3 and see what happens
so if we took (ax^2 + bx + c)(a'x^2 + b'x + c') we get
aa'x^4 + (ba' + a'b)x^3 + (ac' + bb' + a'c)x^2 + (bc' + cb')x + cc'
So I'm going to just kill all the terms of degree > 2 so this is actually a quadratic
so we obtained
(a,b,c)(a',b',c') = (ac' + bb' + a'c, bc' + cb', cc')
So we in particular see that (0,0,1) acts as the identity here
Now we want to show that there's inverses for everything
uh, but this doesn't work lol
okay I dunno
This problem sucks
I am sorry jan Niku
@next obsidian its okay, thank you 🙇♂️
i actually vaguely remember now saying she doesnt remember how multiplication works in class but not knowing what she meant
so its vague how exactly these represent the field since its hard to capture what the operations are doing?
she did say something like
I mean like there’s a hacky answer where like
You grab a random ass bijection to F_8 which exist cuz both are size 8
that whole thing
that works okay
but explaining multiplication is harder or something
Then you can just artificially import the field structure of F_8

Cuz any size 8 set can then be cooked up to become F_8
im guessing since its the last class before break ill be the only one that shows up 
Lol
i appreciate u tho 
Why do you have a break at end of November
thanksgiving
👑

its a dumb reason and a dumb time for a break
do people even celebrate thanksgiving anymore
Also America has very very few national holidays
Relative to other countries
So don’t try to get rid of Thanksgiving too lol
every element of F_8 satisfies T^8-T=0 so you should factor this in F_2 to get irreducible polynomials
that's how you know what to mod out by
always on the second wednesday in november

$T^8-T=T(T-1)(T^3+T+1)(T^3+T^2+1)$ so you have two choices there, either of those cubics
Merosity
why only the cubics? since theyre above the given degree?
$T^3=T+1$ or $T^3=T^2+1$ are how you handle reduction, depending on your choice
Merosity
there's only one finite field of every order, so they're isomorphic
im not sure i follow
how do you know T^8-T=0 for all the elements in F_8 without checking
well brute force checking
oh
duh

scratch that
ok scratching
lol
and
so this reduction
is it just really basic algebra or am i missing something
how can you be sure these describe an element in the field
this is maybe less trivial than the last question
well there's more than one approach to getting at understanding this stuff
based on the question you asked you would have to take a bit more of a diversion to answer this if you don't already know, so I was kind of assuming some of this had been covered previously
at the very least, the fact that everything is being represented by quadratics means you must have some irreducible cubic that you're using
no the last class was the first time weve seen this kind of thing
weve seen polynomial uhh
rings before i guess
? how do you mean
the diversion isnt necessary
if its really a big gap
well you're quotienting by the polynomials
effectively x^3+x+1=0 let's say
if it weren't a cubic and it were some quartic let's say, then you'd end up with nonzero cubic terms
contradicting the statement that you are representing things with purely quadratics
sounds like you're being asked a question that's further ahead than your class has come to yet
quotienting what by the polynomials?
im not sure i understand what it means to quotient something by polynomials
were quotienting all of those by some cubic?
yup
Oh lmfao so this is almost what I did
i dont really understand what that would even do 
by sending x^3+x+1=0 we're saying x^3=x+1 is a way to simplify cubic and higher polynomials down
I see, you’re associating F_2[x]/(x^3 + x + 1) with degree 2 polys
It’s kind of what I tried to do here
also maybe I'm overassuming, -1=1 here btw
idk if this is what were supposed to do
I think it is, this makes sense
sounds more like they're saying it as a passing remark, not an exercise
since im not sure what youre talking about and i think im one of the more on-top-of-it people in the class
well we have a homework that relates to this
You’re reinterpreting the definition of F_8 as F_2[x]/(x^3 + x + 1)
As the right being degree 2 polynomials with a bit of a fucked up multiplication
I think Mero is doing a better job explaining this anyway
So I will let Mero do their thing
haha no it's fine, learning through teaching is good
redeeming yourself for trying to quotient by x^3 🤣
:(
oh i dont understand either explanation so whatever works 
So like do you know how to construct F_8?
idk she said you find the prime factorization of the number in the subscript
sounds like you have some missing material to cover, what book and where are you in the book
we dont have a book

its just teachers notes
Okay well
can you send those or

it'd help to see what you're expected to make this from
cause sounds like you're missing a lot of prior stuff that's necessary but maybe you just don't realize how stuff you know applies
Did they define F_p^n tho?
Like you kind of have to make it via quotienting F_p[x] by an irreducible poly of degree n
im not sure how quotienting would work here
they define the multiplicative group here as being Z_{p^n-1} so in our case Z_7
kind of tricky cause you need to then pick some generator polynomial and show that it has order 7 I guess, but even then you'll still need to find a way to quotient
I don’t see how you can define F_p^n just via this tho
it's enough to define it up to isomorphism
Can you guarantee the addition and multiplication distribute?
because it turns out there's only one field of every power of a prime order up to isomorphism
yeah like you can write up a table and just guess stuff until you get something consistent
For some specific p and n sure
More so I just think this isn’t the definition they’re given
yeah which is maybe what they intend for this question
yeah true, they're calling this a theorem
I think the easiest way to do this
Is to assume that finite fields are unique (this is kinda what this theorem says)
Then just note that F_2[x]/(x^3 + x + 1) is a field because the polynomial we quotiented by is irreducible
So it’s a maximal ideal
Then we can take F_8 to be this, then you can just do the magic of replacing x^3 with x + 1 enough until you’ve written every element as a quadratic
But overall this seems really… wonky. I don’t like writing F_8 unless you already know finite fields are unique and to do that you usually just show they’re all isomorphic to some quotient of F_p[x] lol
im very confused 😄
weird
start reading from day 34
your teacher walks through that example in detail
I realize that
that was nice of her
I think your teacher is expecting you to time travel to tomorrow to do the exercise today
I think you're probably supposed to get stuck so that when you see the stuff tomorrow you'll be ready
i think shes leaning into vector intuition that most of the class has but i do not maybe
sure, which definition
what do you mean integers
the product of the integers mod p
it's kind of hard to answer "why" in this context, it's just how it is
if I say "write down a cayley table for a field with finitely many elements" you'd be forced to do this

primes are not divisible by numbers less than them, so when you mod them out you're not getting any zero divisors
okay
that gets you the isomorphism
build it into a box rather than a line
chunk out rows or columns
I guess one common misconception is people think a field with p^n elements is just mod p^n
but that can't be true for n>1 since p^n=0 but individually p is not 0, so it breaks field axioms
that sort of answers why you might take this polynomial approach
yeah, I guess you could see it that way
I was thinking specifically it has no inverse
$p^n=0$ so if $p^{-1}$ existed you'd have $p^{n-1}=0$ when you multiply both sides by it, but that's a contradiction
Merosity
whatever works to show it, I don't think there's one unique or best way to show it breaks lol
so it has to be mod some prime
I wouldn't draw that conclusion directly from that
well at least that it cant be mod the full p^n
but at least once you know F_p are fields you can at least think other fields will be extensions of this and so F_p[a] will have to be what it looks like, so if you look at it as a polynomials in a of degree n, then there are p^n possible elements to make
but in the problem given we arent extending anything right
unless we are?
we shouldnt be
the definition is saying like
we can take a finite field with 8 elements, and then use some kind of mapping that reduces Z2 + Z2 + Z2 from 24 to 8
im sorry i know im slow
i appreciate your attempt lol
yeah we're extending F_2 to get F_8
we're adjoining a root of x^3+x+1 to get the splitting field
which the problem is saying
think of a polynomial a+bx+cx^2 with a or b or c either 0 1 2
and the problem is we have too many of these so we assume we can find some factor to mod these out by to get 8
right?
yeah, like your teacher is kinda skimming the details on this to assume you could answer this with what you know so far
bold of her to assume
I mean we can prove x^3+x+1 is irreducible if you want to right now
how do you know? lol
oh wait
i guess i only know its not rational then
i dont know
i mean im not sure what significance irreducibility would even be here
i get the quotienting because thats gonna make the orders match
Quotienting a poly ring over a field by an irreducible polynomial gets you a field
sounds like your teacher is planning on discussing it tomorrow anyways lol
I think you've done enough to prepare for what you need, sleep well @oak grove
an algebraic structure is basically an n-tuple right?
an n-tuple that has a non-empty set and a bunch of operations defined on that set that obey a bunch of axioms?

not "basically", literally
this usually isnt the most useful way to think about them
but its the formal way
and (ℤ, +) or whatever is a very common way to specify them in cases where the set alone isnt enough
though caveat: some algebraic structures come with info about multiple sets
(Z, +) would be a abelian group?
like vector spaces have a set of vectors and a field of scalars
and that field itself carries info about a set
ahh right
add a norm and you also need info about ℝ, if you didnt have it already
so how would a vector space be represented using an n-tuple
yes, the abelian group of integers under standard addition
(F, +, *)? for any field F?
something like $(V, (F, +_F, \cdot_F), +V, \cdot{V})$
Namington
$+_F$ and $\cdot_F$ are your field operations, $+_V$ is vector-vector addition, $\cdot_V$ is scalar-vector products
oh so the subscripts indicate that that's scalar addition and vector addition
Namington
though perhaps this notation is a bit overengineered
you could have one $\cdot$ operator that accepts scalar-scalar and scalar-vector products
Namington
is domain and codomain would look weird though
right
$(F \times V) \cup (F \times F) \to V \cup F$
Namington
¯_(ツ)_/¯
lol it does look weird but makes sense
this is just a theoretical concern in any case
youll rarely see vector spaces defined like this
even in pure maths?
its typically not useful to refer to everything by its hyperformal set theoretic definition
we care much more about how it behaves than how its constructed
normally they just use F^n right?
for a n dimensional vector space over the field F
F^n is the most common type of vector space but certainly not the only ones you see
okay thanks for all that info
if you defined addition and mutiplication like that would the algebraic structure be (V, F, *, +)?
your field still has an additive structure and its not really compatible with the vector additive structure whatsoever
so its very weird to bundle them into 1 operation
like you COULD
but its strange
oh lol alright
bundling the different multiplications together makes sense as (ab)v = a(bv)
for scalars a, b and vector v
and similarly a(uv) = (au)v
so how would a vector space be defined in abstract algebra?
but we dont really have (a+b) + u = a + (b + u) because... you cant add scalars to vectors lmao
in linear algebra most people use F^n
geometric algebra go brrrr
the standard way, a vector space is composed of two sets, a set of vectors and a set of scalars, satisfying 10ish axioms
my LA course always worked with V over an arbitrary F
where possible ofc
given finite field F
and p in F^n
make a polynomial f in F[x1,…,xn] with f(p)=1 and f(q)=0 for q in F^n\p
x-a is zero at a and non zero everywhere else for any a in F
Try multiplying such factors
Oh you might need slightly more complicated factors because this makes things zero on hyperplanes parallel to the axes
You want to make all hyperplanes not through p 0, and there are finitely many such
can't it be done by doing something like (x^|F|^n-x)/(x-p)?
in one variable?
oh you are viewing F^n as a finite field itself
I think you would have to prove that x^n in this field structure may be expressed as a polynomial in the original field structure
which seems kinda legit
Hi! Can someone help me with this problem?
Actually, what field are you working over?
C