#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 634 of 407
You get some relation like
k^nh^a = k^mh^b
Now like a≠b
Else you can undo and you get k^n = k^m
So multiply by h^-a
Then multiply on the left by k^-m
You get like
k^{n-m} = h^{b-a}
Note that n-m and b-a are both like, non-zero
And < p
So this says some non-identity power of k is in H
But like, from this you can show k is in H by like
Taking a suitable power of k^{n-m}
Basically cuz of Bezout’s lemma, and p being prime
How do I show that that's what I'm lost on
Okay
So let N = n - m
0 < N < p
Now gcd(N,p) = 1
So by Bezout there is some a,b so that aN + bp = 1
So do
(k^N)^a = k^{aN} = k^(1-bp) = k•(k^p)^-b = k•e^-b= k
Well I learned some reasons why I failed my exam
In question 1 I cited a result we proved in the homework; we were supposed to prove it again (I had forgotten the proof so fair enough).
Question 2 I'm pretty sure I got points taken off for initial scratch work but idrk.
Question 3 I got correct
Quedtion 4 I didn't prove a fact about non-trivial automorphsms which was crucial to the overall proof
In all cases I got half points taken off which means I got 5/8 of a score which is just below failing
how does multiplication in graded algebras work
By multiplying
Do you just have a graded ring?
Or an a graded algebra over a graded ring?
right yeah
I mean in this case
If it isn’t over a graded ring it just like
Works
Like I guess the two are separate kinds
Like when you wanna multiply by the “scalars”
It totally fucks ur grading up
like somehow the graded ring that i have is an algebra
Because there’s nothing ensuring it works right unless like the map goes into the degree 0 part
Yeh
so then like
ok
Or rather I don’t wanna think about arbitrary gradings lol
u mean like
You can grade wrt any ordered abelian group
finite gradings?
oh sure
Not like your stupid fucked up ordered group
Yeh
so then if i have another element (b_i)_i
like
how do i multiply them
and get another element in the form
In the ring?
ye
So these are like finite
yeah
ohhhhhhhhhhhh
and then distribute out
ok ok
So my advice
Pretend ur ring is always
K[x1,…,xn]
And think “how do I do it here”
This will work often times
And it gives you intuition of like
When does it suffice to prove for just the graded parts?
And shit like that
righttt
Like here’s another example is
Suppose you had
(ai)(bi) turns into
Like umm
A homogeneous element
Of degree n
Then by some magics in the graded parts besides the n-th degree
We can like…
Okay whoops what I’m about to say is false but
I guess we can always assume that ai and bi
Have nothing above degree n
Cuz whatever was there has to cance
This is like saying yes we might be able to take some
(a + bx)(c + dx) and end up with an ex^2
Cuz of cancellation
But we can just assume the two things have nothing in degree >= 3
Cuz like they can only contribute stuff in degree >= 3
And those all have to become 0 anyway
This is bad explanation
In degree greater than or equal to 3
how can they have nothing in degree >=3 and also contribute only in degree >=3
The terms that would look like
No no sorry
I meant like
Okay a priori
Maybe our shit could look like
(a0 + a1x + a2x^2 + … + akx^k)
And similarly for b
But because the result is just x^2
Usually you can just cut out all the ai and bi where i > 2
Cuz they can only show up in the parts of degree >=3 which have to be 0 anyway
So like they all have to cancel out in the end
This is useful cuz like let’s say we had a homogeneous ideal I
And we have that (ai)(bi) = x^2 where (ai),(bi) in I
Then we know that aix^i are all in I
So when we subtract away all the aix^i and bix^i for i>=3
The result is something like
(a0 + a1x + a2x^2)(b0 + b1x + b2x^2) = x^2
Where both things on the left are still in I
ah okay
Anyway me point is
This is like pretty obvious for a poly ring
But the intuition holds true in general
I’ve had to do something like this a number of times
yeah i think it makes sense for the most part
looking at it like a polynomial ring helps a lot
Yah
And at some point I thought I came up with a reason why that’s okay
Like umm
Oh yeah
Most graded rings R are generated over R_0
By R_1
Let’s say for right now it’s finitely generated
In particular if R is Noeth this is true (wait this isn’t true, Noeth gives fg over R_0 but not in degree 1 necessarily)
Okay so now take generators a1,…,an
Then we know R = R_0[a1,…,an]
This is surjected onto by R_0[x1,…,xn] an actual poly ring
And this is like a graded surjection
Cuz xi map to ai
Sends degree 1 to degree 1
Then the kernel should be graded or some shit
So we can write R as a quotient of R_0[x1,…,xn] by a graded ideal which means the quotient has a grading by like, lifting
My point is as a graded ring, so even considering the grading
R looks like a quotient of a poly ring over R_0
i see
ohhh i think thats what i was meaning to say
yeah graded rings are algebras over A_0
generated over a finite collection of homogenous elements
which gives it the same structure as A_0[x_1,...xn]

we have this way of defining multiplication
by just like
considering the elements
as literal sums
but then like
Yeh
You have to just do it this way
using something like this
Like
Yeah I mean
That’s the same thing
You just haven’t written it out as a sum
On the left
I highly recommend against this tho like
Anytime you deal with a graded ring
You really won’t be able to do shit unless you write out like a in R
a = a_0 + … + a_n
Then manipulate it like that
I guess for arbitrary gradings it doesn’t work well
But if you don’t do this it’ll be really hard to know wtf is going on I think
yeahh im kinda in the spot where idk wtf is going on
Just write stuff as
a1 + … + an
Always
Like a, b in R
Write them out as graded parts
Then do shit
This is what we do for polynomial rings
:^)
And you’ll get more used to it

if i have |G| = m, |A| = n, A abelian, then wbhat is |Hom(G, A)|? pls do not tell me but give hint or something
i have no clue how to start
You can’t say in general I think
I think using classification of finite abelian groups you can give the set of values it can take on
Like this isn’t a function of m and n I think
really?
this is a problem on my pset so I hope i can say something
I mean, this seems mega fake like
Idk, maybe there's something silly I'm overlooking but
Let me make sure I have the full context
If you take G = Z/p^2Z
and Z/pZ x Z/pZ
I don't see why there number of maps from here to an abelian group have to be the same
but maybe I'm being stupid
Maybe this case actually works out cuz it's all about divisibility criterions
its supposed to be. |A| = m
Not really, I guess this is just true...
wtf
Like
if G is abelian too
I can maybe see how to do it
Do you have the classification of finite abelian groups?
This isn't determined by size
There are counterexamples where G is abelian too
find one
wdym

but |Hom(G,A)| is not equal to |Hom(G',A')|
LMAO
I knew this problem sounded like bullshit
Hint:
You don't need to think about complicated groups to find a counterexample
idk what is complicated to chmonkey algebrain
You don't have to go past size 4
nice ok
I knew it
Yeah haha
But I just didn't compoot
I just figured it came from here
I was thinking Z/p^2Z and (Z/pZ)^2
but I was like
"wait maybe these are the same"
I should've plugged a number in for p lol
Oh actually
I was fixing A
that's why
I was pretty sure by classification that like
the number of things of order dividing p^2 is the same as (order dividing p)^2
did you ask shamrock

im coming up with a counterexample to own my prof on piazza rn

I asked in Chmonkeymath
and someone else came up with the counterexample
the legendary boy who went to Berkeley
how do i just enumearte all the homomorphisms
this seems hard to write down every map
i guess there are very little elements
wtf
I mean
one of them is dihedral of order 4 lol
but there's 2 groups of order 4
yeah
is any notion of gcd for polynomials or just normal elements only well defined for integral domains?
like do we require no zero divisors
for gcd to make sense?
is there a way to construct a surjection M (x) N -> M
where (x) is the tensor product and M, N are A-modules
Tensoring can make modules smaller
M ⊗ A/a ≈ M/aM
So take a finite module to get a counterexample
shoot
okay right now
im trying to construct a bijection
so M is an A-module
and B is an A-algebra
and i want to construct a bijection from


$Hom(\oplus_{i=0}^{\infty} M^{\otimes i}, B) \to Hom(M,B)$
pdk
where the Hom on the left
are algebra homomorphisms
and the Hom on the right
are module homomorphisms
Do you have the universal property of the tensor algebra?
Any progress you've made so far?
not much, but i was thinking like
if we have a mapping from like
the tensor algebra to B
i wanted to use some kind of projection
from the tensor algebra to M
and like
get a mapping from M to B
that way
like a universal property kinda
idk
thats why i was asking
if it was always possible to construct
a surjection from a tensor product of modules to the factors
So you have a module map from M to TM (TM being the tensor algebra) which is the natural map as m ↦ m in the degree 1 component. If you have an algebra map from TM to B, you can precompose that (viewing it as a module map) with M to TM to get a module map M to B. This should be the bijection
To go the other way, if you have a module map from M to B, then you get a k-linear map from M^k to B by multiplying the images. This gives a map from the k-fold tensor to B for each k, which gives a map from the direct sum over all k, to B
You'd have to show that these 2 are inverse operations (or that either of these is a bijection)
ahhh okay
yeah i had just realized how to construct the map from M to TM
phi -> [m -> phi(0,m,0,...)]
Shouldn't it just be m ↦ (0,m,0,0,...)
Or are you talking about the map between hom sets
Right ye
is a mapping from M to B
here
yeah
so thats the same thing as like
precomposition by inclusion onto the first factor
Yes

Which part
Ordinary product
oh
M^⊗k is the k-fold tensor
Yep
but then how r u extending that
to the direct sum
just like
concatenating them?
adding them?
If you have a family of maps f_i from M_i
They combine to give a map from ⊕M_i
Universal prop of direct sum
ahh okay
It happens by mapping the tuple (m_i) ↦ summation f_i(m_i)
Only finitely many m_i are non zero so sum makes sense
ahh okay
,w 10000 hours
🤡
The total numbers of maximal ideals of $\mathbb{Z}_n \times \mathbb{Z}_m$ are
I know that maximal ideals in Zn are prime divisers of n , but what about in product ? Any hint
Algebra
Prove that maximal ideals of R x S look like m x S or R x n for m a maximal ideal of R, or n a maximal ideal of S
Bonus: show this statement is true for prime ideals
Bonus: show that ideals of R x S look like I x J. for ideals I of R and J of S.
So the number will be omega(m) x omega (n)?
like in case of Z10 X Z15
Z10 X <[5]>
Z10 X<[3]>
<[5]> X Z15
<[2]>XZ15?
check the third one
My bad
but yea, notice
det
I am going through my exercises, could someone tell me if the following linear transformation of R-vector spaces which maps a continuously differentiable function to its derivative. (Hint: FTC) is epi/mono/iso morphism? Thanks
I proved that its a linear transformation by now
I guess it is bcs it is continuous
no
both are 3
its not 1-1
so not isomorphism
so it is epimorpshim
since it cannot be monomorphism since they can match to the same derivative
yeah I have been thinking it is surjective as there cannot be a derivative in the set with no preimage
oops
yeah that makes sense, thank you a lot
now I have concluded it is injective so i think iam right
its C^1[0,1] -> C[0,1]
Continuously differentiable and continuous
Here i can just consider "R:R×R mapping to R" just as real number right?
Example 1
Sir did you understood the above example?
I am new to proof not understanding anything
And also a and b belongs to the group of real numbers right?
....
Yes... I have to recall those.
Yeah, I'm looking at it. I concentrated on proofs of contradiction, Direct, contrapositive and those sets functions and even relations got partially erased.
Indeed, all continuous functions have antiderivatives. But noncontinuous functions don't.
I have not understood why we care if it is continuous I just want to see if it is injective or surjective
if we want to have gcd well defined for a ring
do we require that the ring is a PID?
or just integral domain?
nvm answered my own question cause gcd is well defined for polynomials but <2, x> can never be principal in Z[x]
just integral domain isn't enough
okie so consider the ring Z[sqrt(-5)] what is the gcd of 2(1+sqrt(-5)) and 6?
2 and (1+sqrt(-5)) are common divisors
6 = (1+sqrt(-5))(1-sqrt(-5))
oh
ok hm
but you can't say one is greater than the other
so we need a notion of order in addition to integral domain?
nah, that's not how gcd is defined
gcd of a and b is an element d such that d | a and d | b, so d is a common divisor. And for every common divisor c of a and b, we have c | d.
the partial order | does the job for us.
ahhhhh I forgot | is a partial order and that's how we define greatest
ok so wikipedia says GCD domains are a subset of integral domains
yee
but all it says is "GCD domain is an integral domain where gcd is defined"
which like
thanks but that means nothing
lol
cause "where gcd is defined" is really my question
there are also domains which are called bezout domains where bezout's theorem holds
so you can write gcd as linear combination
but you're right, unless you study them specifically the name doesn't help lol
in general you can define gcd for UFDs
if a and b are two non-zero elements, factorize both into primes and take minimum power corresponding to each prime
someone explain why isomorphisms only send elements to those of the same order
so if you wanna continue this proof, say d was a gcd of 2(1+sqrt(-5)) and 6
then notice that norm is a thing in Z[sqrt(-5)]
N(2(1+sqrt(-5)) = 24 and N(6) = 36
this means N(d) divides both 24 and 36, so it divides 12
but since 2 and (1+sqrt(-5)) are common divisors, they need to divide d, which means 4 and 6 divide N(d). All this forces N(d) = 12
but there are no elements of norm 12...
indeed, 12 isn't a perfect square and 12 - 5 = 7 also isn't a perfect square and 12 - 4 * 5 already gets negative
first try looking at the isomorphism, f(x^n) = ? can you change this into anything
be careful, it takes a little more thought to be sure that this works, how do you know that if x has order n that f(x) doesn't end up having order d, some number that divides n?
hmmm
can I say that the inverse function of f is also an isomorphism and hence the same rule must apply?
nvm the same problem arises
you're on the right track
all I could think of is that it would be a contradiction since the inverse doesnt map back to x
sounds good 👍
might help to write this all out a bit more formally if you haven't already done so
but that's really it
thx
contradiction is the way I would go too
discussion is fun
wait for cosets
suppose G = finite group
and H subgroup of G
we have |H| divides |G|
but we also have |gH| = |Hg| = |H| for all g in G right?
does that mean all cosets have the same cardinality
so for all g1, g2 in G, |g1H| = |g2H| = |Hg1| = |Hg2|?????
I knew the partition part but I didn't realize that all the partitions were equal in size
You can just
Express a bijection between the different cosets
They all have size |H|
You go from H to gH by sending h to gh
And the inverse is h -> g^-1h
I mean like proving that this map you described is indeed both injective and surjective
Chmonkey does Hom(Z/4Z, Z/4Z) and Hom(K4, K4) work for that question I posted yesterday
I think thats 4, and 16 respectively
maybe i cant count tho
yeah that looks alright @shell brook
okay
K4 is klein four for you right
yup
Z/2 \oplus Z/2
It has an INVERSE
I wrote it down!
gH -> H by h -> g^-1h
that’s what I was saying
You don’t need no silly cancellation to show injectivity or whatever it just has an obvious inverse
Chmonkey is this the example ur firend came up with
Yes
Okay thanks
Also what lets you do this to Hom? This seems like non-trivial to rewrite w/ group factors
or however you call what he did here
it's the universal property of (co)products
lmao
Hom(A \oplus B, C) = Hom(A,C) x Hom(B,C)
k i asked on Piazza
maybe im actually stupid and its obvious cuz i misread something
fuck this professor!
can anyone help?
Suppose R is a PID, and I ⊂ R is a nonzero ideal. Prove that I is a prime ideal if and only if I is generated by a prime element of R.
Show that the statement is true assuming I is a principal ideal for any ring R
This is… basically how a prime element is defined
Now every ideal in a PID is principal… that’s how they’re defined
Then you GG win EZclap
@next obsidian SO contrapositive proof?
Umm
No
I mean to prove th (p) is prime iff p is
I guess one direction is maybe easier with contrapositive
But honestly it’s kinda definitional

No, it's not definitional
A prime ideal $I$ is an ideal in which ALL elements $c \in I$ satisfy $ab = c \implies a \in I$ or $b \in I$
polikuj2
The statement above is wrong in a not-PID ring
(the minimal hypothesis being factorial, I think)
at least one direction is definitional 
just change ur definitions so it's trivially true
I said that (p) is prime iff p is
A principal ideal is prime iff its generator is, this is definitional
This proved the result in PIDs because all ideals are principal
@lavish mantle what?
Hello, I am attempting on working on this question but have no idea where to start… Why does it suffice to show that <s> (s is symmetric reflections on the n-gon) is not normal in Dn?
<@&286206848099549185>
hint 1: products of abelian groups are abelian
hint 2: ||what do you know about subgroups of abelian groups?||
hint 3: ||theyre normal!||
this is weird though
there should be a far easier proof
(like, hint 1 should give it automatically?)
I see!
Cyclic groups are abelian, and products of abelian groups are abelian. If Dn were isomorphic to Cn x C2, to the contrary, then Dn would be Abelian. And all subgroups subgroups are normal in abelian groups. So if we show that the subgroup <s> of Dn is not normal, we are done.
Is this enough to say $H_{n+1}(C^kX) = \bigoplus_{i=1}^{k=1} H_n(SX)$?
Namington + mniip 2024
This is from alg top, but this is really more of a pure algebra question
and might just be first iso theorem idk
like if you have groups G,A such that $(\bigoplus_{i=1}^{k+1} G)/A = G$, can you say $A= \bigoplus_{i=1}^k G$
Namington + mniip 2024
or maybe this is rank-nullity on Z-modules?
no
rank nullity only works over a field
you can get some sort of shitty statement maybe from PID-ness of Z
bruh
that's literally just false though
I explicitly remember my professor using rank-nullity over a Z-module
maybe it only works in special cases?
If you’re free you get what’s basically rank nullity
But there’s plenty of non-free abelian groups
If the localization of a commutative ring at a prime is a field, what can I say about the prime?
E.g. would it imply p=0?
No
It’s a minimal prime
And the localization is reduced (these two combined are equivalent to A_p a field. If A is an integral domain so that 0 is prime then this forces p = 0)
Im not sure if you can turn the latter into a statement about p
But this happens if eg your ring was reduced to begin with
As a related thing, you can prove the following theorem is true
Let A be a reduced Noetherian ring, and p1,…,pn its minimal primes
The total ring of fractions of A is isomorphic to A_p1 x … x A_pn, so in particular it is a finite product of fields
And when does a ring have a (unique) minimal prime ideal?
It’s used to prove Serre’s criterion for normality
There’s not a great way to characterize it
It’s equivalent to its Spec being irreducible lol
It’s also equivalent to having the nilradical be prime
Which is interesting I think
two things which aren’t nilpotent can’t go have a baby which is nilpotent (have a baby means multiply)
What am I getting myself into 🙈
The
zone
Why is algebra(icish geometry) so interesting? :( It's making real life hard

What about local rings with unique minimal prime?
Doesn’t say shit I think (I bet you can find something you can say but nothing comes to mind that isn’t mega esoteric)
I mean the lattice of primes looks cool
But that’s kind of on the wrong side of things
But assuming that a ring as a unique min prime, is localization at it a field?
No
There could be nilpotence
So the result has just 1 prime
So that prime is exactly the nilpotents
If your ring was reduced to begin with any localization also is reduced
So the only prime of the ring has to be 0
Aka it’s a field
I'm asking because I was thinking: forget from (field) to (commutative rings + conditions). When does forget functor have which adjoints?
For example, if conditions are "local pid = DVR", then the left adjoint should be localizing at (0), and the right adjoint should be quotienting out the maximal ideal
Is that right?
I don’t see why that’s a right adjoint
This particular example btw feels to me like the discrete-forget-indiscrete adjunctions for topological spaces, and there is probably some deeper relationship that I don't know since I don't know grotehendieck stuff
Like
Well, didn't check, just felt like a guess. If you don't see it I guess it's wrong 
I don’t see why we can’t get K -> R/m
To be given by
Two different maps K -> R
Like quotients are a mapping out thing
So it should be on the left I feel
Also
Forgetful functors shouldn’t have a right adjoint I think
Just like
Morally
Or rather you shouldn’t expect them to
I feel like if you’re gonna call something a forgetful functor it needs to have a left adjoint haha
If not you shouldn’t call it a forgetful functor lol
Yes they should, if for example you forget from the category of comodules over a comonads, then you'll get a right adjoint, the "cofree functor"
I mean, "forgetful functor" is not a rigidly defined thing, it can mean what you want it to mean 
I mean all the examples I think of are right adjoints
Top → Set 
Right, they'll usually have left but not right adjoints. But top -> set has both adjoints
Without being a left adjoint, or at least an obvious one
Yeah I mean this isn’t always true
Yes
Field → Set 
My point tho is I don’t think field-> DVR
Ought to have one
Like there’s no natural way to grab a field from a DVR which has a mapping into property
At least one that I feel is natural
Theorem: no functor with domain or codomain in Field has a left or a right adjoint

w0t

Obviously not true
I think category of domains with injective maps is a reflexive subcategory of Field
Yes
All maps factor through FOF

🚗🚗🚗🚗
You got caught in a 4 car bumper to bumper crash?!!
Shouldn't have been texing while driving

uh... what? how does it fix no faces
if I rotate about the blue line, the action on the faces is (1,2,3,4,5,6) -> (6,5,3,4,2,1) [= (1,2,4,3,5,6) morally]. Am I being kindergarten dumb?
I think it means like a diagonal line
Like grab two vertical lines in opposite corners
I see, so like from the 1|4 edge to the 3|6 edge, and that is a transposition in S4 because S4 acts on the "long diagonals"
so, an element in a finite group has finite order, right?
ye
KEEP RAISING IT IF IT FOESNR HIT e IT WILL GIVR A COPY OF Z
chdrunkey
Let V be a finite dimensional vector space over a field K, and let W1, W2 and W3 be subspaces of V. By analogy with the Inclusion-Exclusion Principle for sets, and taking into account the dimension formula for a sum of 2 subspaces, I concluded reasonably that a dimension formula
dim(W1 + W2 + W3) = dim(W1) + dim(W2) + dim(W3) − dim(W1 ∩ W2) − dim(W2 ∩ W3) − dim(W3 ∩ W1) + dim(W1 ∩ W2 ∩ W3) (†) holds for the sum of 3 subspaces.
How can I prove by considering 3 distinct lines through the origin in $R^2$ that that (†) does not necessarily hold?
Many thanks
just_dom
Let V be a finite dimensional vector space over a field K, and let W1, W2 and W3 be subspaces of V. By analogy with the Inclusion-Exclusion Principle for sets, and taking into account the dimension formula for a sum of 2 subspaces, I concluded reasonably that a dimension formula
dim(W1 + W2 + W3) = dim(W1) + dim(W2) + dim(W3) − dim(W1 ∩ W2) − dim(W2 ∩ W3) − dim(W3 ∩ W1) + dim(W1 ∩ W2 ∩ W3) (†) holds for the sum of 3 subspaces.
How can I prove by considering 3 distinct lines through the origin in $R^2$ that that (†) does not necessarily hold?
Many thanks
maybe look at 3 different lines?
yeah but how to show that
show what? just calculate, its not hard with lines in R^2
look at x=0, y=0 and y=x
then all the dim intersections are 0
and I think 2 doesnt equal 3 in general
sorry hows that related to my problem?
because dim(one line + 2nd line + 3rd line)=2 when the lines are different
and dim(line)=1
and dim(line intersction other line)=0
I get that but how do I prove it based on the dimension formula above?
you don't, because the dimension formula above is not true
and what they are saying is the counterexample, K = R, V = R^2, and W1 through W3 are distinct lines in R^2 passing through the origin
yeah it does not but I need to shoe that does not necessarily hold based on the 3 distinct lines in R^2
I don't understand what you're asking for here. It's a simple calculation that it doesn't hold in this case.
Oh I am not sure what dim(W1 ∩ W2 ∩ W3) will be in this case of x=0 y=0 and x=y
do you know what W1 ∩ W2 ∩ W3 is going to be?
it's the set of all points that lies on all of these lines, which points are these?
not sure ;/
here's x = 0 in cyan, y = 0 in orange, and y = x in purple
where do they all intersect?
at 0
right, and what is the dimension of {0} as a vector space?
the zero v.s. has dimension 0
so there you go, dim(W1 ∩ W2 ∩ W3) = dim( {0} ) = 0
next time you should probably go to #linear-algebra
thank you so much so I will just show that
dim(W1 + W2 + W3) = dim(W1) + dim(W2) + dim(W3) − dim(W1 ∩ W2) − dim(W2 ∩ W3) − dim(W3 ∩ W1) + dim(W1 ∩ W2 ∩ W3) = 1 + 1 + 1 - 0 - 0 - 0 +0 =3
so you will show that dim(W1) + dim(W2) + dim(W3) − dim(W1 ∩ W2) − dim(W2 ∩ W3) − dim(W3 ∩ W1) + dim(W1 ∩ W2 ∩ W3) = 1 + 1 + 1 - 0 - 0 - 0 + 0 = 3, but dim(W1 + W2 + W3) = 2, and therefore the formula your originally asked about does not hold
W1 + W2 + W3 obviously can't be more than 2, since they are all subspaces of R^2 which is itself of dimension 2
yeah now it makes absolutely sense many thanks again!
you're welcome
where do question related to algebraic manipulations of continued fractions belong?
probably analysis
ugh
wait you can algebraically manipulate continued fractions?
are there nice ways to find sum and product of two continued fractions?
i never thought about this
if this is true it's time to ditch decimal notation
Well, to be fair, I'm thinking of finite continued fractions of the form a - 1/(b - (c - 1/ ...)) where a,b,c blabla are natural, in particular they are rational numbers.
maybe should have clarified that 
(hope it's okay to ping) i almost never used continued fractions, i'm curious what are they so good for if you'd ditch base-b notation if could find sum and product in nice ways for continued fractions
so real numbers are very bad already and decimal notations don't help much understanding them
like consider pi = 3.14159265358979323...
so this basically says that 314/100 is the best rational approximation with denominator 100
π=22/7
but why would you use 100, that's so bad
the error is is like 1/1000
[3; 7, 15, 1, 292, 1, 1, 1, 2, 1, 3, 1, 14...]
on the other hand this is the continued fraction of pi
that bigg 292 says that you have an extremely good rational approximation for pi
[3; 7, 15, 1] = 355/113
and what's the error this time?
it's on the order of 10^-7
isn't that bizzare?
fast convergence good for numerical stuff maybe
even that comes from the continued fraction, take the first two terms 3+1/7 = 22/7
det
yes I'm aware of that
that's nice, but how can that be useful for someone who doesn't do applied math?
pi comes up in pure math pretty often
continued fractions have crazy nice properties
for instance that's one of the only nice ways to solve the pell's equation
the continued fraction of sqrt(d) are periodic and in fact the period is palindromic
honestly I like this approach more than reverse contracting the euclidian algo
you can use continued fractions to prove 1 mod 4 primes are sums of 2 squares
that sounds nice cuz i suck at number theory
i started liking abstract algebra because of number theory 
I was once doing cryptography, that made me interested in number theory, fields and groups, not the rings / modules tho
they suck
but PID/ED/UFDs are nice
i've heard that if the decryption key somehow happens to be very small in the RSA algorithm, then continued fractions give a very effective way to break it

by very small i think it was like d^4 < n
but n is like product of those two huge primes
so even the 4th root is crazy big
Let V be a finite dimensional vector space over a field K, and let W1, W2 and W3 be subspaces of V. By analogy with the Inclusion-Exclusion Principle for sets, and taking into account the dimension formula for a sum of 2 subspaces
dim(W1 + W2 + W3) = dim(W1) + dim(W2) + dim(W3) − dim(W1 ∩ W2) − dim(W2 ∩ W3) − dim(W3 ∩ W1) + dim(W1 ∩ W2 ∩ W3) (†) holds for the sum of 3 subspaces.
This formula does not hold because I proved that it does not, but I need to state general assumptions on the subspaces of W1,W2,W3 which guarantee that the formula does hold and prove it under these assumptions.
But how do I do that?
Many thanks
I was trying to solve a CTF challenge which was about crypto. the ring that was used was Z[i] (mod n) component wise. the right wasn't even a ID. that was pain, couldn't do it
det
but how can I start the proof?
by second isomorphism theorem, the formula is true for two subspaces
but based on which assumptions I have to prove it?
and how does this is related?
that's called the second isomorphism theorem, which is like a standard theorem in abstract algebra that applies to all sorts of algebraic structures
in our case, taking dim of both sides gives us
dim(W1 + W2) = dim(W1) + dim(W2) - dim(W1 n W2)
i was saying to use this formula twice
with this, and see what you get
oke I try that thanks for ur time
"So, to show that f is an isomorphism it is enough to show that f is injective"
why?
why do we not need to show surjectivity
are the groups finite and do they have the same size ?
well for my questions
I need to show a group of size 9 with no elements of order 9 is isomorphic to Z_3 x Z_3
trying to construct the isomorphism
so I have <h>, <k> such that h, k have order 3
h =/= k
so I want f(h^i k^j) = ([i], [j])
just want to show that it is bijective
my other idea was use this theorem
If H, K are subgroups such that
H, K normal
H ∩ K = {e}
HK = G
Then G ≃ H × K
so I need to show HK = G
H = <h> and K = <k>
just stuck on that
what if h = k²
so I already showed H ∩ K = {e}
I just need to show hk, h^2k, hk^2, h^2k^2 are not in <h> and <k>
which I'm not sure how to do in a clean way
how did you show that H inter K is {e}
???
we define h =/= k
what if h = k² ?
well then we have hk = k^3 = e
wait hm
fuck
this problem shouldn't be this hard idk why it's been tripping me up
here's the full problem
4b specifically
yea so we get normal for free
so I guess I need the other two conditions
H ∩ K = {e}
HK = G
you need to show that HK has exactly 9 elements then
|HK| = |H||K|/|H n K| so that's done if you show one
once you know that you might as well define an isomorphism directly
HK either has 3 elements or 9
If it has three elements then H=K
But since you have 9-1 total elements of order 3
U can make sure H=K doesn't happen
yea
oh just do it based off of cardinality?
yea that is easier
yep
so how did you get H?
you picked any non-identity element h and took H = <h>
how should we choose K?
only thing we want is H n K = {e}
yea so pick k from G \ <h>
yep!
so k =/= h, h^2
and e
so H n K is a strict subgroup of K, indeed k is in K, but is not in H n K
you can do that, but it's easier to just do stuff more generally... what you're proving works for any group of order p^2
a few days ago my prof mentioned that only groups that occur as galois groups are pro-finite groups. does anyone know nice place were i can read about this? i don't know any infinite galois theory
That's because Galois groups of infinite galois extensions are defined as profinite groups ! For a reference, you can try "Galois groups and fundamentals groups" by Tamás Szamuely
wait aren't they defined as automorphism groups of normal and separable extensions?
i can kinda see why it will be projective limit of finite groups
but he gave a more topological criterion
basically, if you have a Galois extension L/k, you define his Galois group as the projective limit over the Gal(K/k) where K/k is a finite Galois extension contained in L
Yes, you get the same thing
But the projective construction makes the topology natural on it
oh
(Maybe I misunderstood your question. I don't know if every profinite group is a Galois group)
I never really learned infinite Galois theory so this might not be the exact definition
i think that's what he mentioned, just like every finite group can be realized as a galois group of some finite galois extension same holds for infinite but need to look at profinite
seemed very interesting as he mentioned that using those topological facts, compact, hausdorff and totally disconected one can show it's either finite or uncountable, so Z is never a galois group
Oh that's nice, I never thought of that
how can i use a hint like "p(x) = x^4p(1/x)" to help factor a polynomial over a field?
maybe that lets you put it into a form where you can recognize a factorization easier, or show that it's not factorable by eisenstein
that transformation will, assuming it's degree 4, reverse the coefficients on the polynomial
hmmm
How would I go about showing that the ideal (2,1+sqrt(-11)) is principal in Z[(1+sqrt(-11))/2]?
Compute the gcd of the two elements
That’ll generate the ideal
By property of being a gcd 2, 1 + sqrt(-11) will be in the ideal generated by the gcd cuz well, they’re multiples of the gcd
And you should be able to find a way to express the gcd as a sum of multiples of 2 and 1 + sqrt(-11), this is like Bezout’s lemma for Z
[note that all of this hinges on the ring you have being a UFD, this guarantees the existence of a gcd and everything else I said. I still think even if the ring isn’t a UFD if that ideal is principal then it’s generated by the gcd but I’m not 100% sure]
That follows from working over a Dedekind domain right?
I think you should just look at elements of it of small norm and see if they generate the whole ideal
like
uh
2
http://abstract.ups.edu/aata/section-cyclic-subgroups.html does theorem 4.3 applies to every group ?
yes
any subgroup of containing must contain all the powers of by closure ,why this is true ?
i cant get
okay i think i get it ,but i had to think a lot i dont know why
i think your math symbols are missing
if g is in a subgroup, then so is g^2 = gg, since the subgroup is closed under the group operation which i've written as multiplication. similarly for g^3 = ggg, etc
but does the binary operation need to be multiplication?
no its just the word im using for it
i mean i wrote it like multiplication
im explaining my notation for the group operation, which could be anything
i don't understand why every subgroup containg a must containg all the power of a
the part that the subgroup is closed under the group operation
the group operation applied to any two things in the subgroup produces another element of that subgroup
if a is in the subgroup
then aa = a^2 is in the subgroup
learning group theory, i am getting the same felling when i was learning basic category theory a long time ago
i don't know ,its like thinking different all the math
category theory before group theory 
a group is just a one-object category where all the morphisms are isos
a group homomorphism is just a functor between groups
what's the problem??
prove the sylow theorems
the category theory class was a class with a good professor from my college so i took it
i don't remember nothing about category theory ,it was 2 years ago i think
but i remember these words
can "a" be anything in G? like a set for example?
okay it is a set
okay i get it
anything in the subgroup
i have a question that i believe can be answered by the g/z(g) theorem, but i'm not sure how to get to that step:
Let $p$ be a prime and let $G$ be a group of order $p^n$ for $n\geq1$. Suppose that $|Z(G)|\geq p^{n-1}$. Prove that $G$ is abelian.
Snodlop
some thoughts on the problem before i ping for help, just to help me see some things in writing
if |Z(G)| is strictly greater than p^(n-1), then we would have to have Z(G)=G (by lagrange's theorem the order of each subgroup must divide the order of a group, and since |Z(G)| is larger than all of |G|'s other factors it must be p^n)
so the case we really care about is |Z(G)|=p^(n-1)
in this case, we'd have |G/Z(G)|=p, which would mean G/Z(G) is cyclic, which means G is abelian
is this correct?
Yes
The part that deserves a bit more details is "G/Z(G) is cyclic so G is abelian" but this is true (and not particularly hard to prove)
that is already proven in my textbook; the part i have a slightly harder part grasping is "|G/Z(G)|=p so G/Z(G) is cyclic"
Any group of prime order is cyclic. To see that, pick any non-identity element x, what are the possible values o(x) can take? @dire summit
oh that's right duh
thank you
i've been stuck on this problem set for a while now lol, that was my last problem
I'm working this exercise out of my book and I'm stuck.
I worked up to 4 and I think I've gotten it figured out
Except I'm not exactly sure why c can't be zero?
It seems like 4 is just untrue if c is 0?
(By "is a root field" I think the author just means "is a splitting field")
You can vary b until you get a non-zero c
That requires knowing linear independence of characters
Ah dang I do not know that.
I was thinking maybe since pi generates Gal(F_i:F_{i+1}) that "pulling out" all those powers of pi could let me use a group identity?
There's that weird one where if ur group has an x that is its own inverse then the prod of all elts in the group is e or something?
Idk if that helps either though
Sorry it's if there is no such x
you've already used those stuff to get pi(c) = wc
I mainly did that by rearranging the sum.

Maybe I used it implicitly.
if you picked b = 0, then you'll definitely get c = 0
so problem is with b, not with pi
Yah true
try to show that if G is a group and k is a field, then Hom_{Grp}(G, k*) is linearly independent over k.
the proof is an exact copy of "eigenvectors with distinct eigenvalues are linearly independent"
The notation Hom_{Grp}(G,k*) here refers to what?
set of group homomorphisms G --> k*
If $A$ is a unital $\mathbb{K}$-algebra for some field $\mathbb{K}$, and $M$ is a free $A$-module, is then $M \otimes_{\mathbb{K}} M$ a free $A$-module?
Lartomato
Hmmm wait maybe i'm not thinking about this right
I have a specific problem that I was trying to phrase in some generality but I think in this generality it's not even clear how A can act on M \otimes_{\mathbb{K}} M
Rephrasing: Let $\mathfrak{g}$ be a Lie algebra over a field $\mathbb{K}$, and $U(\mathfrak{g})$ its universal enveloping algebra. Further, let $M$ be a free $U(\mathfrak{g})$-module. Is then $M \otimes_{\mathbb{K}} M$ a free module over $U(\mathfrak{g})$, with the action being induced by (i) $1 \cdot (m \otimes n) = m \otimes n$, (ii) $g \cdot (m \otimes n) := (g \cdot m) \otimes n + m \otimes (g \cdot n)$ for $g \in \mathfrak{g} \subset U(\mathfrak{g})$ and (iii) the Leibniz rule for higher tensors in $U(\mathfrak{g})$?
Lartomato
$M \otimes_k M$ is isomorphic to $\dim_k M$ copies of $M$
expectTheUnexpected
oh, you're doing infinite stuff
Yeah, and I think the fact that my action mixes the two copies also means I can't just view M otimes M as a big direct sum
Is there a intuitive description of invariant factor decomposition?
every left R-module is an (R, Z)-bimodule right?
by the virtue of being an abelian group
im pretty sure so cuz every abelian group is both a left and right Z-module, and distributivity
na just means a+...+a n times and analogous for negative n
wikipedia confirms btw
yes, that's just true. Abelian groups are the same as Z-modules. A ring is just an algebra in the category of abelian groups. Every left R-module is precisely a left R-module of the algebra R in Z-mod, so it in particular also comes with a right Z-module structure
