#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 633 of 407
i figured it out brute forcing
Anyway
I think you can figure out how to factor that poly
In a cheater way
Write x^2 = y
Turns into y^2 + y + 1
showing x^4+x^2+1 resucible
yeah i figured out
Ok
but i wonder if there is better way
I mean that is a good way
it for sure works
You just use quadratic formula and it kinda spits it out
but feels messy
I think that’s clean
i tried factoring like ttera
Yeah but you can get that factorization without brute forcing it
You ought to be able to get from here to the good factorization
I am trying to think how, I think it probably is clean
Must think
Oh
Brain work
Fuck so like
I think you need to break that up into products of linear a
Then swap
And you should get like
(x - z)(x - z-bar)(x - w)(x - w-bar)
Which turns into two real quadratics
Like basically you have to find
o true
Cuz you want to write this as like difference of squares
I think
And then it should just turn out that you get conjugate pairs
Mainly cuz like you have (1 +- isqrt(3))/2
And then like that gives you the conjugate-ness
That’s my chmonkeytuition
mm
But yeah this kinda sucks deek
Anyway in general like
I guess you posit it it’s a product of quadratics
And write it out in general
Then use Lin alg to find the coefficients IG
I mean you can always assume it’s
(x^2 + ax + b)(x^2 + cx + d)
Like Gauss’s lemma says it’ll factor in Z if it factors in Q
And even w/o that like
You can always assume the polynomial it factors into are monic
By just like moving the leading coefficient over, you know the coefficients on x^2 have to be inverse
So just move them over
Then it’s just 4 unknowns and it is kinda shit sure but you get like 4 equations for x^3,x^2,x,and constant term
In 4 variable
So you can throw it into a matrix and do like rref to find a solution
Or maybe not, this maybe isn’t linear
Whatever
Chmonkey
Chmonk
ye
it boils down to basic HS algebra
i ended up getting that a(d-b)=0
so a is 0 or d-b=0
a=0 runs into a contradiction
d=b works but then you need to consider if b=d=1 or -1
you have contradiction when they are negative
the reason its messy is because showing the contradiction is messy
i dont need to show all the details though
Question, what's up with F_1?
Idk much algebra but I'm getting that "field with one element" is touchy
Why so?
it formally doesnt exist
but one can define structures that "feel like" what it'd be if F_1 existed
in that you can put geometries on them that "agree with" what we'd expect geometry on F_1 to be
in practice, you dont need to worry about this unless youre one of like
10 people in the world
for everyone else, it suffices just to say F_1 doesn't exist since a field must have at least two distinct elements.
(if youre wondering why we dont just let {0} constitute F_1, it breaks all our theorems so we'd need to revise all the statements, and some definitions too)
(and doesnt really behave as we expect a field to)
char 2 breaks half of the theorems too but we allow it tho 
but fields of char 2 at least feel like fields
like gross, ill-behaved fields
but like fields
if youre interested in this, see https://arxiv.org/abs/0806.2401
just note that its, uh, pretty prereq heavy
(I was joking)
I'm still stuck on that problem :/
Ugh.
I thought I figured it out but I think I reached a dead-end. Hmm.
OOHHHHHHHHHH
Wait
^^Maff^^
@next obsidian
Yes
Suppose $L = F(\alpha)$ and $n$ denote the degree of the minimal polynomial of $\alpha \in L$ over $F$; since $L\backslash F$ is Galois with Galois group $G$, if we consider the field of extensions $F \subseteq F(\alpha) \subseteq L$, we have
$$|G| = [L:F] = [L:F(\alpha)][F(\alpha):F] = [F(\alpha):F] = n,$$
so then if $\sigma \in G$, there are $n$ distinct Galois conjugates $\sigma$ of $\alpha$.
eM
I figured out the reverse direction but I'm trying to figure out how to word the forward direction.
Ummm
This is like
If the extension is degree n
And there’s n Galois conjugates
Then L = F(alpha)?
We want to show if L = F(alpha), we have to show the images of alpha under G are all distinct.
Which I guess
Yes
Consider (x - beta_i) over all beta_i in the orbit of alpha under G
So this has degree = # of Galois conjugates
Notice this is fixed under the action of G
Cuz all you do is permute roots
So that this poly lives in F[x]
Thus alpha is a root of this poly
So it must have degree <= n, but also bounded by n cuz there’s at most |G| = n Galois conjugates of alpha, so it’s degree n
Aka orbit is size n
I feel like I'm missing something obvious here but first off what ring is the principal ideal of x even an ideal of?
R[[x]] bruv
@prisma thunder idk if this is how you came up with the other direction but this is how I would do it
I think it’s pretty simple to state and stuff
Uh, it follows because Z[i] is a UFD
It’s just like a general fact about them that like gcds exist and they operate like dat
I'm a bit iffy on the second part of the problem though
I'm guessing it has to do with how if the ideal wasn't maximal then there'd be nonunit elements
but idk how to really prove that
Just mod out by (x)
You get R
R[[x]] -> R defined by set x = 0
Kernel is (x)
Surjective
Apply 1st iso
oh yeah
I'm guessing this is a common trick for polynomial rings
I mean, yes
But this is a power series ring
The same idea works tho
The issue is just like, you can’t define a map R[[x]] -> R by sending x to like 1
Because infinite sum
ok yeah
1st iso is so op
Just find some homomorphism and you already get an isomorphism for free

ok
if i have to make a field with 144 elements
Does F_12[x]/(x^2+1) work?
where F_12 is field with 12 elements
wait bruh
idk if this exists lol
yeah nvm idk field with 12 elements
or 144
finite fields can only have prime power order
144 is not a prime power
every finite field is a vector space over the subfield generated by 1, which is some F_p
by 1 I mean the element 1
i can see how that justifies powers
but i mean why only prime powered fields, the prime part
why cant subfield generated by 1 be F_2n
as example
this goes back to the idea of characteristic
since it is a finite field, there is some sum of 1s that add up to zero
in a finite field the characteristic must be a prime number
yes
but i forget details
soz I can't continue talking cos I have an exam starting soon
👀
Characteristic is prime for any integral domain
Because if it is mn then in the domain, mn = 0 so m = 0 or n = 0 but then mn = m or n
oh ok
i can see how assume characteristic is prime power makes sense from this
like if characteristic is p^2 then pp=0 implies p=0 or p=0 lol
so nvm
characteristic is always prime for integral domains
but why can order be prime power :/
Any finite field is then a vector space over F_p of some finite dimension n so cardinality would be p^n
there is another nice proof, say char F = p, now if q is any prime that divides |F| then there is an element a with additive order q by cauchy/sylow whatever.
so q * a = 0, treat q as an element of the field as well! so since a is not 0, we get q = 0, i.e. p divides q.
so there is only one prime divisor of |F| which proves it's a prime power
Honestly
If ur going through all this
Just classify finite fields already
IMO
Like the moment you start thinking about them, you might as well just go ahead and classify them
¯_(ツ)_/¯

is this true?
I think this is like
Bass-Serre conjecture
And it got proven I think
I’m gonna google
Bass-Quillen
You can find some info in that ^^
thanks
Actually I forget if this is only for fg
but uh... that's not true, is it? Quillen-Suslin is just "fg projectives are free", and here again is the assertion that Quillen-Suslin is "all projectives are free"
But there’s a proof in Lang
from Lang, tf is a unimodular vector and the unimodular extension property 
HMMMMMMMMMM
oh
It’s like
Defined in that section
That and the section before it
Combined proves it
Yeah, I see
But also yes it seems fg is needed
Yeah idk
I can’t find anything when you drop finite generation
I kinda feel like it’s either open or just false
thank, I'll put [citation needed] then
Hello@robust pollen
from Bass "Big projective modules are free". So now I see it for fields, but if R is a pid, why is it connected?
I mean, R pid, why is R[x_1, ..., x_n] connected?
Oh, it's an integral domain
Hello
I think I'm dumb.
Take any ring R. Is the answer to "is the dual of a finitely generated projective R-module again projective?" as simple as
Connected rings? 
$R^n = Hom_R(R^n, R) = Hom_R(P \oplus M, R) = P^* \oplus M^*$, where $P$ is our fg projective?
expectTheUnexpected
those in which the only idempotents are 1 and 0. Which apparentley means that the spectrum is connected in zariski top, but uhhh
oh ok not too bad
But moldi, is my logic above correct for the duals of fg projectives? seems 2 trivial 😬
I do not understand it 
for commutative rings this is the condition that it's not a product... why are products disconnected, how to picture it?
what but you know everything!
woah pretty neat
Primes in product are whole ring x prime
woah pretty neat
is it correct? I don't believe it lel
i can't geometrically think about spec yet 😦
yea, i remember it was pretty simple that projectives are precisely direct summands of free
yeah, I know, but then I don't get why this is an actual exercise and not just a minor remark 

I'd recommend switching to a harder course
They haven't learned that/how/when Hom commutes with direct sums
i remember dualing kills torsion
so situation is good if you're working with fields
maybe check this up once more
But, dual is defined as M^* = Hom_R(M, R), no?
Isn't this by uni prop coprod
right
Hom(R^n, R) ≈ Hom(R, R)^n
my bad
I like russian math books where End_R(R) = R as rings. Because they write the composition f then g as fg
If R is not commutative, End_R(R) = R^op
no, as rings, not modules 
yea lol, spec R is too much
join the dark side moldi, learn rngs. They have less structure.

Actually, a unit is a property and not structure, right?
property and structures are same thing ig
no
It's part of the structure if you want your substructures to contain it and morphisms to respect it
wat
elements can be thought of as 0-ary operation
and now you just want this operation to be preserved
This is a model theory question 
But, like, an algebra can admit multiple non-iso bialgebra structure. Thus, being a bialgebra is not a property of an algebra. But a bialgebra admits at most one Hopf algebra structure (i.e. an antipode), so being a Hopf algebra is a property of a bialgebra.
Isn't that right?

lol so many words
Ooga booga but ok.
ok, uhhh... like, a semigroup


Meh. I can't formulate this in Set, because every set has a unique comonoid structure.

quoi
quoi
quoi
(french for "what?!" btw)
(thanks for telling)
Question ignored 
You're welcome, I know not everyone has read EGA
ohhh that was a question
Pretend 
i thought this was nice, that people are interested in studying things that are not directly some added structure to set
Ah, if. But what I mean is that a monoid is unital in a unique way, right? So, of course, if you talk about the category of unital monoids, then the unit is part of the structure, but I don't even know what I want to say anymore.
No even if it's unique, if you don't make it part of the structure you still shouldn't call it a unital monoid
uh, I don't get what you mean.
Because morphisms from or to this will not need to respect the unit
then probably i didn't get what your statement meant lol
Imagine not learning what a comonoid is in your course 
Your teacher must have been worse than mine 
let me make it precise: In the cartesian monoidal category Set, every set carries a unique coalgebra structure.
actually, I just added the words "cartesian monoidal" 
which course are you talking about lol
sure, i guess. Do we mean different things by "property" and "structure", then? I thought I was using it the
way, but maybe I'm wrong
Category theory course 
F
I am using structure to mean model theoretic structure
I'll have you know that I'm a model theory pro and totally know what you're talking about
Would expect nothing less from you 🥰
meanwhile me who thought that there was only one type of structure
like one definition
I assume the model theoretic type
i can't think of a proper definition of structure
what's the model theory definition?
Did you not attend the tutorial where I defined it 
you said something like topological spaces then are weird
I don't thing you attended lul
what did you define during this then?
During what
I'm talking about the logic tutorial that I did when topology tutorial was cancelled by hanny
Took advantage of free slot
this was before cat theory tutorials started
you're once talking about why continuous maps aren't model theoretic structure maps
Pretty sure I didn't devote a tutorial to that
i think it was just on DMs
Ye
expectTheUnexpected
Since the class of fg projectives is self-dual, and since the dual of a projective module over a field is projective, so this is in some sense the simplest example (since Z is a euclidean domain, i.e. closest thing to being a field, and that direct sum above is the simplest non-finitely generated module over it)
Abc
I was "manually" proving that distinct up to real multiples and irreducible implies coprime for elements in R[x] (R= reals here) of degree 1 and 1 and degree 1 and 2, but can't quite figure it out for degree 2 and 2, is this even true? Is there some high powered theorem that would be more obvious to use instead to show this?
well ok just googled it too 💀
makes sense, you can't get anything smaller containment wise from the sum than the whole ring cause we're assuming maximal (via irreducible generator) anyway
and assuming distinct up to real multiple and irreducible also take care of the case where you add two things in the same ideal for degree <= 2
so that will never happen
much better than my "manual" proof it was yucky yucky
well, what's your group?
If it's mod 3 then it's in Z[x]/3Z[x] 
im having brain poop; if I have two groups G,H and a representation of both on a single vector space V; does V furnish some representation of some G semidirect product H?
But it doesn't live there
Unless you mean ignore mod 3 in which case yes all linear monic polynomials are irreducible over integral domains
Yeetus
The representations are maps from kG and kH to GL(V). These should induce a map kG ⊗ kH → GL(V), and kG ⊗ kH ≈ k[G × H]. You might want to check some of these things I'm not completely sure about this
This irreducibility check is happening in the quotient
So your question just with Z3[x]
And same answer applies
Because Z/3Z is an integral domain
Yes. Implicitly using the isomorphism Z[x]/3Z[x] ≈ (Z/3Z)[x] here
Do you have any idea how to show that if for a character chi(g) = 0 for all g except for the identity, then chi(1) is divisible by the order of G
Im kinda rusty, what morphisms are these? by kG, ,.. I assume you mean group algebra; what type of morphism are you having from kG -> GL(V)? because GL(V) is not a vector space over k; so I'm confused where you are getting the induced map from the tensor product
any hint would be appreciated
should be End(V) I think
oh sure
k-Algebra morphism
so they are algebra morphisms
is the claim then that if you have a V that furnishes representations of G,H, then it automatically furnishes a representation of G x H? because I thought this was wrong but maybe im poopoo brain
Yeah I think that should be the case
Working it out concretely might help verify
Though I don't see any obvious ways of making (g,h) act on V 😵💫
doesn't it suffice that (chi, chi) = 1?
oh.
But it should be an integer tho right? 
wait this can't be right; what if I just took a representation of G semidirect H; then forgot about the semidirect structure, now I have a representation V of G,H separately; but somehow you end up with a representation of GxH?
Wait chi(1) is always dimension of rep
Ye it's probably wrong then lol
Is kG ⊗ kH ≈ k[G × H] true?
I think it is but 😵💫
I'm big confused
wait thats not dimensionally correct? for finite groups, left hand side has dimension dim(G)dim(H) but right hand side is dim(G)+dim(H)?
No, for sets |S x T | = |s| |T|, no?
oh right my bad
coproduct in Ring is tensor product over Z, algebras are just beefed up Rings, Q.E.D.
(lmao)
I am convinced
I don't quite get your question 😵💫
You want to prove that the subset containing 1 and all order 27 elements is a subgroup?
That seems false 
Unless you have abelian or something
that only implies that the order of ab divides 27 though, right?
Ye you would need to
Ye but you might be able to somehow show that product of order 27 elements is order 27 I guess
2 and 27 are coprime

I am convinced
Wait, does this really work? Don't you need something like kH is a kG module algebra, and then a kH-module inside kG-mod is a module over the smash product kH # kG, which I guess would be the group algebra of the semidirect product?
I T ' S J U S T
This just shows that a^27 is e
(ab)^27 I mean
Not that (ab)² is not e for example
Order 27 means no smaller power is e
Like x^27 = e but if also x³ = e then x doesn't have order 27
Because order is smallest positive exponent such that element becomes zero
is the consensus now that you get a representation of G semidirect H (from a rep of G,H)? 😢
the only thing I think I'm sure of is at the least, you get a representation of G freeproduct H.. right? lol
H a Hopf algebra (then H-mod is monoidal), and A a (unital) algebra in H-mod, then the category of A-modules internal to H-mod is isomorphic to the category of modules over a certain unital algebra A#H, which is called the smash product of A and H. The underlying vrector space is just A tensor H, but the multiplication is funny and I cna never remember. something like
a x h * b x g = a(h_1 b) x h_2 g I think. (sweedler notation used)
The consensus is my identity 🤡
I'm not really sure the semidirect makes that much sense to me either because it 'breaks the symmetry' between G and H
I also dont know basic algebra so I could be poopooing it up
So, your situation was just "G, H groups, and V a representation of G and H simultaneously", but without any compatibility conditions?
yep
Hopf algebra more like hopfully I can understand what you said within the next year 🤧
I breave dat shi*
but I don't know anything beside basic Hopf algebra and quasi-Hopf algebras, lmao. That's what you get for doing physics, and switching to math too late
without any compatibility conditions i cannot see anything 😦
well, if you're a physics person maybe I can say my actual question...
fermions live in some representation of lorentz group, but they also come equipped with actions of other symmetries (like chiral, C,P, blahblah..) depending on what you're doing, and for some reason I've never seen what actual group you get for the symmetries of a single fermion field (with say, just spin indices), if you include
- lorentz, C, P, chiral
the C and P do funny things with the lorentz and I'm sure you do end up with somme kind of semidirect product, was curious about the general case
I have no idea where to look, but all I really want is a decomposition of operators into irreps of this lorentz (semi) C (semi) P (semi) chiral; (by that I mean a decomposition of the exterior algebra, something like that, into 2quark operators, 4 quark, etc)
"well, if you're a physics person" lmao, I'm neither a physics nor a math person, I dun totally goofed w/ my choices mang
vibe
living in the inbetween I see lol
But aren't you asking here for like the gauge groups of some field theory, e.g. the entire standard model?
ah so I'm just dealing with QCD, so my fermions just come with SU(3) color as well; but that doesn't interact with the spin indices so it'll just be a direct product I'm thinking
oh man I wish I remembered/understood anything. aren't particles e.g. fermion something like section in the associated vector bundle of some principal bundle for the gauge group? Actually, that might be wrong, because it sounds too global.
this is something I wish I understood too lol; its funny because in all physics textbooks essentially its always assumed that you have a trivial bundle, and so you can write down fermion/gauge fields as just like real functions over space without ever talking about the bundle structure
but yeah, its something like gauge field lives in the associated bundle to the adjoint representation, and fermion in the vector (standard 3 dimensional rep) associated bundle, if you're doing SU(3) gauge theory
can someone explain how to find order of an element in a finite field. specifically im working with F_64 generated by x^6 + x + 1, and i need to find the order of x
The order of an element is what?
how do i make x^m = 1
ok yes sorry
i know the order is the amount of times needed to get back to 1
but idk how to understand the process in this context
That's because your definition isn't precise enough to use
say i have x^10 how do i even equate that to be a number let alone 1
Amount of times of what?
Oh, well x^10 is an element of F_64 so it is a linear combination of 1, x^2, x^3, x^4, and x^5
Every time you multiply something by x you can reduce it mod x^6+x+1
amount of times needed to add that element back to get 1? (or is it multiply
i think its add
Better get that straight
yes
i dont understand that
two iterations it just 2x
so they all stay in that same position of the vector when adding x
What is 2 in F_64?
😵
What is 2 in F_2?
What is 2 in F_2[x]?
What is 2 in F_2[x] mod any polynomial?
im sorry i dont know. you mean looking for remainder 2 when dividing by a poly in F_2[x]?
noo
Answer the first question, then the second one
then I will clarify the third one
F_2 is just 0 and 1
so i guess 2 must be 0?
F_2[x] is all poly with 0 or 1 as coefficients
how to do name one of those elements 2
If 2 is 0 in F_2 why would 2 not be 0 in F_2[x]?
After all... F_2 embeds in F_2[x]
How does 2=0 in F_2 lead to 2=/=0 in F_2[x]?
:nods:
okay that makes sense
so 2 is 0 in F_2[x] also?
Ya
F_2[x] is the ring of formal polynomials in the symbol x with coefficients in F_2
ok i see what the elements look like
It's not true actually, because if a has order 27 then a³ has order 9
so the case of F_64 generated by x^6 + x + 1, we have poly up to degree 5 with coefficients 0 or 1
Yep
if im looking for the order of x do i need to find some integer m larger than 6 such that x^m mod x^6 + x + 1 =1?
There's a better algorithm than long divisioning every time
Just multiply the last answer by x
then do the reduction
and repeat
Yes 31 being prime should make it work
can you explain that? so say i try x^10 mod x^6 + x + 1 and i get remainder x+1 (making this up)
then the remainder for x^11 would be the (x+1)*x now? each time the remainder goes up by x?
Yes because if a and b are order p, (ab)^p = e and any smaller exponent that makes it e has to be a factor of p which can only be of a and b are inverses
Is there an elementary (= without localizations) proof of the fact that Q is a flat Z-module?
Uhh
Doubt it
I mean
Z is a PID so torsion-free <==> flat
But that’s not elementary
Honestly I’d argue that if you’ve defined flat
Then localization is just more elementary than the notion of a flat module
So why do you want to do this?
Pretty much what you wrote. What I was saying is that if order of ab is 1, then ab is identity so a and b are inverses of each other
yeah, saw that as well, but the proof is also not appropriate.
Appropriate for? 
Really?
Yes…
Localization is simpler than the tensor product
Pls
You just add fractions
bruh
For people without Comm Alg. They are probably just hearing about projective and flat modules for the first time, since we're going the abelian category route


Got a 66 on my exam 😭
My confidence is done for (I felt incredibly confident before, during, and after)
What if the avg was like 40
Look at points lost because of what reasons

I said that last exam and did worse lmao
seems like the harder I study the worse I do

.
I was
I legit was sick during the exam
shat myself twice
well
i don't think your poor performance had to do with you (supposedly) being bad at math

I mean I've done well on exams while shitting before
I did my linear algebra final while throwing up
got a 96
could've been 100 if I didn't forget rank nullity
but yeah next exam is a final
well not really a final
but like it's everything from part 2 of D&F
This ain't topology bro
that class was hard af
I feel like the only way to learn topology is just to do it twice
Well I'm not bad at math but like I'm not as good as my peers
i didnt mean to imply you were, it was poor phrasing
And it's not even a peer thing it's more me comparing myself to what I think I should be at
Like I think I should've nailed that exam
last exam I was even more unsure about and I got above the median
ive been completely stuck on how to approach this problem for a few hours now
I want to prove that for $m,n$ coprime, $F_{p^m} \otimes F_{p^n} \cong F_{p^{mn}}$
pdk
hey so im stuck on this problem; so from what i gathered, R doesn't have an identity because it doesnt and cant have the identity matrix, but im not sure what subring would have the identity in the same matrix form as R
can i use a subring with a matrix different to the one for R and call it a subring?
or am i supposed to work with this only
there is a subring isomorphic to a more famous ring, if that gives a hint
and yeah it has to be a subset of R so i'm not sure what you mean by this
i meant like S can be array 1: (a 0) array 2: (0 b) but realized that wont be a subset at this point
but i still dont get how i can possible form an identity matrix out of what im given
there's always going to be that zero at the bottom right
i really dont know any famous rings lol
just assume i know nothing bc i have a hard time learning anything from my textbook or lecture notes
I'm not sure how to give a hint without giving it away unfortunately
so far, what i know i can work with is the definition that S should not be an empty set, elements r,s in S should also have r*s in S and r-s in S
to have a subring S of R if S is a subset of R
and so going off of that, I tried doing subtractions and multiplications with different matrices in hopes of forming an identity
am i on the right track at least?
I think you're probably getting too hung up on the identity, take a step back
Can you see any "obvious" subrings of R?
(the most obvious one to me has an identity)
im not sure if i have a gap in my knowledge here regarding matrices and subsets of matrices, because thinking about it, i cant really figure out any unique subsets that wont just be ([a b] [0 0])
just for reference
this is the only example or mention
of matrices in my textbook regarding subrings
am i supposed to look at general linear groups?
but those only have multiplication as binary operation
i really dont understand what im supposed to be doing here
i give up lol idek anymore
Yeah probably over complicating it dw lol
Another major hint is that diagonal matrices are nice lol
i did think of diagonal matrices, but i didnt want to use it since i wasnt sure if that would necessarily give me a subset of R
well pick diagonal matrices w bottom right 0
for a ring A is xA[x] isomorphic to A[x]?
I don't believe so, if you have a map $A[x]\to xA[x]$, then no element will map to the identity polynomial 1
cgodfrey
They're isomorphic as A-modules, that's as much as you can say
It only makes sense to define this in terms of A-modules
Find a splitting field and Galois group over $\mathbb{Q}(\omega)$, where $\omega$ is a primitive $6$th root of unity, i.e., a root of $x^2 - x + 1$, for $x^6+3$ and $x^6-5$.
eM
If I look at $x^6+3$ first, I find the splitting field $L$ over $\mathbb{Q}$ is $L = \mathbb{Q}(i\sqrt[6]{3},\omega\sqrt[6]{3}, iw\sqrt[6]{3})$, which is both normal and separable. If $\omega \in L$, then we have the tower of extensions $\mathbb{Q} \subseteq \mathbb{Q}(\omega) \subseteq L$. From earlier, we can determine $L$ is normal and separable over $\mathbb{Q}(\omega)$, so $|\mathrm{Gal}(L/\mathbb{Q}(\omega))| = [L:\mathbb{Q}(\omega)] = [L:\mathbb{Q}]/2$.
eM
I am very certain $L$ is "smaller" than its current current form, which I'm trying to determine I can hopefully eyeball $\omega \in L$ and also be able to determine the degree of the splitting field to obtain information about the order of the group and decide what group it is.
eM
Hmm.
oh lol, i forgot that i^6 = -1
okie what i want to say is that notice in this case that omega is actually redundant
We should be able to use Kummer theory directly
right, but that's from order stuff
using that x^6+3 is irreducible over Q
in general if you're taking splitting field of irreducible x^n - a and your base field has zeta_n, then galois group is cyclic of order n
So for x^6 - 5, if you show this is irreducible, you'll be good for the second part
if you want to use this simple theorem for the first, we'll need to factorize the polynomial to get something irreducible, x^3 - (2omega -1) works
Eisenstein this b*tch
that gives your irreducibility over Q, what about Q(omega)?
we can compute the top right easily because omega is not real!
Yes
So the top left has degree 6 and we're done 😄
the proof of this is very simple if you have't seen Kummer theorem
the cooler part is that converse is also true!
if you have a cyclic extension of degree n and the base field contains zeta_n, then the extension is obtained from splitting field of irreducible x^n - a
It's Z_6
That was the last problem
With that said, I am finally finished with this godforsaken long-a**, distasteful, yet fun HW
I like Galois Theory but it feels there's so many tools splattered together in this colorful, Jackson Pollock-esque manner, it's both ugly & abstract, yet pretty
Alright, I'm done and tired and want snacks. Till next time 😌
How can i find the number of elements in $A_6$ of order 2
Any hint
Algebra
only way to get order 2 is when its cycle type only has 2-cycles and 1-cycles
2+2+2
2+2+1+1
2+1+1+1+1
first and last are odd, so ignore them
you need to find number of permutations which have cycle type 2+2+1+1
now it's a combi exercise
6!/2^2 * 2! 2!
Looks like my campus wifi not allowing me to use discord 🤔
Yep! 
Thankyou @rustic crown

I have to find the intersection of $\langle \sigma\rangle \cap \langle \tau \rangle$
Where $\sigma= (1234)$ cycle and
$\tau= (1324)$ cycle
Solution i tried : as i can see both are of order 4 so creat a cyclic group of order 4
And also group sigma will have all tau elemnets
So order of intersection will be 4?
Algebra
enumerate all 8 elements 
Please elaborate little bit
why do you say tau in <sigma>?
Like if i satrt taking square of tau the its generated set will have sigma
<tau> = {(1324), (12)(34), (1423), (1)(2)(3)(4)}
<sigma> = {(1234), (13)(24), (1432), (1)(2)(3)(4)}
i only see the identity common 
I was thinking both have same cyclic structure so they will form same group, 
lol
Btw thankyou for your response

is anyone around to help me get started with this problem?
"In any subgroup H of S_n, either all of the permutations in H are even, or else half of the permutations in H are even and half are odd"
I'm given that all cosets have the same size and a reminder of the sign homomorphism
sgn : S_n --> Z_2
Well assume all permutations aren't even
So there's atleast one permutation sigma that's odd
Find some bijection between even permutations of H and odd permutations of H using sigma 
Hello Shika 
Hii 
also if you like playing with maps, notice that subgroup means that H --> S_n is a group homomorphism. so composing with the sign map gives you another homomorphism
H --> Z_2
kernel of this is even permutations in H. so either the kernel is all of H or like Shika said, there is one odd permutation which means that this map is surjective!! and in that case kernel is half of H.
last fact follows from the "first isomorphism theorem" H/ker =~ Z_2 so taking sizes, we get |H| = 2 * |ker|
omg you guys are so helpful, thank you!!
Oh yeah this is a cute way of doing it 
det
depending of whether H contains all even permutations or at least 1 odd permutation we get HA_n = A_n or HA_n = S_n


what was an even permutation again?
many equivalent definitions, one is number of inversions is even
so number of i < j such that sigma(i) > sigma(j)
:NE_capreevee:



I should get to AA soon, this stuff seems so nice as well 
I'm a chmonkey
yes u are chmonkey
how many chmokeys are there?
imagine defining the localization of a module without tensor-hom adjunction and pullback functors. Why would you... 🙈
How can i find number of permutations in S5 that keep 1 to 1? Any hint
Do you know how to compute the number of elements of S5?
Then explain to me how you do it. In the course of the explanation, you will hopefully also see the answer to your question (about the order of the stabilizer of 1)
I think permutations matrix can help
Like fix a11 and then total ways will be 4! ,I think
Yeah, sort of. 4! is correct, but you don't need matrices
Ohh , i have to fix one so just move 2,3,4,5,so total waysa 4!?
S5 is the group of all permutations of a set of 5 elements, call that [5]. So, you need to describe all bijective function from [5] to itself. To describe such a function, you need only to say where it sends each element. It can send the first element to 1,2,3,4,5, then it can send the second element to only 4 elements (namely [5] without the point where it sent the first element), the third can only possibly be sent to 3 elements, and so on. So the total number of ways is 5!
Now if you fix 1, you're basically asking for all permutations of {2,3,4,5}, so a four element set, hence 4!
yes!
In particular, if you act with S_n on [n] in the natural way, then the stabilizer in S_n of a single element is isomorphic to S_{n-1}
this is so dang nice
what book is this?
my notes I'm writing right now 
ah okay epic
Hello as a physics major I'm preparing for abstract algebra but i also have linear algebra. That that gets easy if i prepare for abstract algebra?
And actually, if f : R -> S is a ring extension, the pullback functor will always have S \tensor_R - as a left adjoint.
So I now state that fact as a lemma, and then define the localization functor simply as the left adjoint to the ring extension R -> S^-1 R. I like that a lot better than e.g. Rotman does it
........
Some parts in abstract algebra will be very well possible without linear algebra, but for some parts in the abstract you will also need a good grasp of linear things. What are your topics more precisely?
Topics for linear or abstract algebra?
I haven't looked at linear algebra portion but I'm pissed off weather that's gonna be easy or hard
Both, I guess. For example, if you only do basic group theory in abstract algebra, then that would be pretty disjoint from linear algebra (assuming basic group theory = no representation theory)
So linear algebra is completely different from abstract?
I want to show that <x^4+4> is not prime in Q[x], ?
Here Q[x] is pid so every prime ideal will be maximal so irreducible, i f i shomehow showed that x^4+4 is irreducible them i am done? Is this ok?
In your first sentence, you want to show "not prime", and in the second sentence you want to show "prime"?
I want to say that if i showed it is reducible , soory for that.
ok. and how do you show it's reducible?
Just write that e^2x - 1 in from e^x( e^x- e^-x) and try to solve
This is what i am trying to do, here I can't use root method becuse polynomial is of degree 4, can't use eienstine criteria.
i don't get that sorry
After some research i come accrose sophie germain. Formula
Here’s a really, really meme way to do this
Let y = x^2 then this becomes
y^2 + 4
Factor this as
(y + 2i)(y - 2i)
So we turn into
(x^2 + 2i)(x^2 - 2i)
Write 2i as a square, so let w be a primitive 8th root of unity, like e^ipi/4
we can now factor this as
(x - sqrt(2)iw)(x + sqrt(2)iw)(x - sqrt(2)w)(x + sqrt(2)w)
Err we should be able to like
Btw Thankyou @next obsidian
Turn this into (x - alpha)(x + alpha-bar)
Or something like this
Gah!
Time to do a think
Okay so
I think you do
(x - sqrt(2)iw)(x + sqrt(2)w)(x - sqrt(2)w)(x + sqrt(2)iw)
So let’s expand the first two
We get
x^2 + sqrt(2)(w - iw)x -2iw^2
Note iw^2 = i^2 = -1
So the constant is 2
And I feel like
w -iw should be 0 or some shit
:kek:
But it isn’t
wot
Maybe I’m supposed to pair the negatives up
In which case the constant becomes -2
and we have w + iw
Or no
Negative
This is e^pi/4 - e^3pi/4
So the imaginary part is the same
So this is purely real
And is equal to like uhhhh fuggin…
cos(pi/4) - cos(3pi/4)
Which is…
Sqrt(2)?
Is that correct???
Yes!
It is
Hope so
So this turns into x^2 + 2x + 2
Then do something similar for the other one
It’s probably the same thing with some negatives somewhere
I think
x^2 - 2x + 2
Yes!
So this is a meme way to factor it lol
I just think it’s fun to like
Do bullshit like this
Factor it linearly in C
Rearrange
that was pretty sweet man
Get real coefficients
I appreciate your efforts

How can i show x^4-x^3+x^2-x+1 is irreducible in Q,
I know about cyclotomic polynomial is irreducible in Q , and this given polynomial looks like ( little bit) cyclotomic polynomial, but I don't get which approach should i use to show that this is irreducible, any hint?
Take the x ↦ -x automorphism of Q[x]
How to use this?
Irreducibles map to irreducibles under ring isomorphisms
That is the idea behind proving the irreducibility of the pth cyclotomic polynomial too
x ↦ x+1 is the automorphism you use there
And then Eisenstein
Thankyou @hidden haven
So I have $\mathfrak{a}_1,\cdots,\mathfrak{a}_n\triangleleft R$ where $R$ is a ring. Also, $M$ is an $R$-module. I've defined a homomorphism $\phi:M\to\frac{M}{\mathfrak{a}_1M}\times\cdots\times\frac{M}{\mathfrak{a}_nM}$ by $\phi(m) = (m + \mathfrak{a}_1M,\cdots,m + \mathfrak{a}_nM)$. I've shown that $\phi$ is surjective and now I'm trying to prove that $\text{Ker}(\phi) = (\mathfrak{a}_1\cap\cdots\cap\mathfrak{a}_n)M$. The inclusion of the RHS is trivial but I'm having trouble showing the other direction. Does anyone have any hints?
Kraft Macaroni
I should probably mention that $\mathfrak{a}_1,\cdots,\mathfrak{a}_n$ are pairwise coprime
Kraft Macaroni
nevermind i got it
@hidden haven i think i understand it now. In R^3 If your linear functional has let's say 1 variable then the linear functional only evals to 0 on the 0 vector. if it has 2 variables then it evals to 0 on a whole plane, if it has 3 variables it evals to 0 on a line
by "having x variables" I mean like f(v) = x "has 1 variable" (with x being a component of the vector v)
f(v) = x - y "has two variables" f(v) = x - y + z "has 3 variables"
and well the only vector that makes all linear functionals go to 0 is the 0 vector
The number of linear functionals matters, not the number of variables. If you have 1 variable, then the set of things that map to 0 is not just the 0 vector, it's all vectors with 0 in the coordinate corresponding to that variable which is an (n-1) dimensional subspace @potent briar
The zero set will always be (n-1) dimensional or n dimensional
This is by the rank nullity theorem if you have seen linear maps by now
smells like eisenstein criterion
it does
is 101 a prime number ?
sniff sniff
u wanted me to say Q8?
no that's a group
I wanted to see "a ring of matrices"
M2(Z/2Z) isn't quite small enough but it has a noncommutative subring
But now you do, right?
no
@hot lake gave you a good hint. How many elements does the ring of 2x2 matrices over F_2 have?
Do you know a subalgebra with half as many elements? Is it commutative or not?
matricies
fun fact: you can replace 101 with any number n, and it's still irreducible. Though the proof gets a bit harder when n isn't prime.
Pretty sure this was a Putnam/Olympiad problem
Or some variant
Does anybody have a good reference which talks about monoids (and perhaps monoid actions / representations)?
I want to understand how they differ from groups; from what I've understood so far the existence of inverses is crucial because it allows for the orbits to form a partition and everything attached to it
you have proof for that?
Yes, I know a proof.

In $\mathbb{Z}_7[x]$ all irreducible polynomials have degree less or equal to 2
Spamakin🎷
it's a true or false question. Not sure what theorem or ideas to use to determine the answer
My guess is false
but I can't confidently prove either way
what about x⁶+x⁵+x⁴+x³+x²+x+1?
1 is the root
x^3-2 is irreducible I think
Do you have access to the construction of splitting fields
no
F
idk what that is
I guess I'm more asking "hm how do I do this in general if I can't just come up with an example"
just come up with an example 
Z_7 is a field
I guess maybe you can just do some mod stuff
So the claim implies any cubic has a root
Find a cubic without a root
This is my chmonkey strategy
hm ok
is there an elementary proof of det's statement
idts
I can only think of take splitting field of x^p^n - x then primitive element
that basically gives you that there are fields of any size p^n
right
what I did was just check what x^3 equals to mod 7
or equivalently what it doesn't equal by noticing (a^3)^2 = 1 mod 7
are there other methods of checking irreducibility other than roots, eisestein, reduction?
Nope those are the only ways in the world
wolfram alpha
I feel like determining irreducibility is like
Verifiably “hard”
As in I bet it falls into some sort of complexity class or like
hard fr integers
Insert some other meme that constructivist use
they are even 1 stage higher
yea Eisenstein and Gauss are all I know
There are some other memey criteria like perrons and cohns but they arent very useful
Can someone help? Im trying to build some geometric intuition behind normalizers, centralizers, and the center of a group
Uhh what do you mean by geometric? I don't think that works for any group in general
like when we talk about the possible symmetries on say, a square, where any given symmetry can commute with
r^2 for instance
so that r^2 is in the set of centralizer
can someone just sanity check my idea for this question. I just show the quotient is equal to {(e, h)(G x {e}) : h \in H}, and so the isomorphism is obvious?
seems okay
you could also use the first isomorphism theorem
come up with a surjective homomorphism G x H -> H with kernel G x {e}
though you'll probably end up getting the same isomorphism as in your idea
i was thinking using first iso but wasn't sure how
cuz showing quotient is what it is feels sorta janky for some reason
ill try rewriting with first iso
thx pptea
pptea
😋
yea quotients can be weird to work with directly. isomorphism theorems are good tools for dealing with em

Struggling to show that if $G$ is abelian, $|G| = 9$, and there are no elements of order $9$, then we have that $G \simeq \mathbb{Z}_3 \times \mathbb{Z}_3$
Spamakin🎷
I know order of elements must divide order of the group
and only the identity can have order 1, we have no elements of order 9
so we must have elements of order 3
😬 not sure where to go
My idea is that I pick elements g, h in G such that <g> intersect <h> = {e} and |<g>| = |<h>| = 3
and then every element in G is a combination of powers of g and h
and get a natural isomorphism from there
but idk how to do that
basically show that if <g> intersect <h> = {e}, <g>, <h> normal (free from def of abelian) and <g><h> = G we have isomorphism
it's that last part and existence of that first part that is tripping me up
For the existence, can't you just pick some g of order 3, remove <g>, and pick some other h
Can we?
That was my thought
But wasn't sure if that was correct
Ok then I need to show <g><h> = G
Clearly ⊆ is trivial
Other direction is not
Ig need to show g^ih^j are different for different i and j?
gh^2=/=g^2h=/=gh=/=g^2h^2
think about |<g><h>|.
Well I'm trying but idk lol
I need to show that something like gh^2 =/= e, g, g^2
For example
trying considering the map H x K --> HK
given by (h,k) mapsto hk. Compute its kernel, and compare orders and stuff
Any group of order p^2 is abelian
Cuz it either is Z/p^2Z or (Z/pZ)^2
Maybe try to prove this, the idea is if you have an element of order p^2 you’re done
If not, you have the identity and then everything else has order p
Fix a g which is order p, then consider H = <g>, this is a copy of Z/pZ
Then H is normal cuz index p, or find another way to prove it
G/H is order p so also Z/pZ
Then you can find a splitting map
Or you can manually show it, like look at k not in H
k also is order p
Then G breaks up as
H, kH,…,k^p-1H
What is splitting
Yea I'm trying this but idk how to show it
Well


