#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 632 of 407
im not familiar enough with algebra textbooks to respond.
okay
every vector space is a group right?
under +, yep
but only an abelian group?
yep, that's how we define vector spaces. abelian group with some cool action of a field
I saw a meme that said a function is the same as a homomorphism between two sets, that's not correct right? like for example you can have a function from a set with only the + operation to a set with only the • operation and that wouldn't be a homomorphism
Well they said sets, not groups !
they did but a mapping is only a homomorphism when the domain and the codomain are the same algebraic structure right?
Using the word homomorphism for the category of sets is pretty weird here since there is no algebraic structure to preserve; hence, homomorphism is a synonym of function
like a vacuous truth?
Sort of, the conditions for a function aren't completely trivial still
but still you can find a counter example, like a function that maps stuff from an algebraic structure to a different algebraic structure? you're still mapping from a set to another set but it cannot be a homomorphism of sets
or am I just being stupid?
A group is a set plus a binary operation
A set is a set, nothing else
A homomorphism of groups is a function between sets compatible with the binary operation
A homomorphism of sets is a function between sets.... and that's it
The notion of homomorphism between sets doesn't change just because they happen to be groups
$\Hom_\Set$
Icy001
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Icy001
The default preamble has \Grp bolded hmmmmmmm
i personally really dislike artin's book
the first chapter of the book is about multiplying matrices
and in the second chapter he condenses like
basically all of elementary group theory into the span of like 20 pages
comparing artin to dummit and foote
artin basically covers all of the content in the first 5 or so chapters of dummit and foote in just one chapter lmao
his combined approach of abstract algebra and linear algebra in one text also didnt rly work for me
his textbook feels like
if u took a text in linear algebra
and a text in abstract algebra
that are each self contained
and then u combined them into one book with the odd chapters being from the linear algebra text and the even oens being from the algebra text
yeah, I didn't really enjoy him condensing cyclic groups into 2 pages of content.
His concise writings may appeal to someone who has a foot in, in the door of abstract algebra.
But to a beginner like me, he was incomprehensible at times.
yeah artin can be a pretty solid reference
but as a first textbook in algebra like
its pretty terrible in my opinion
I'm finding Gallian way more readable.
Though his second chapter introducing what symmetry is wasn't as good as I'd like it to be.
ive personally never read gallian
what did you start with?
dummit and foote
hm
im reading through a pdf of gallian right now
he doesn't cover group actions??
I think group actions get covered later?
I'm at chapter 3 and he has covered the basic definition of a group, order of a group, subgroups, cyclic groups, centralizers of a group and an element etc.
so I dont know
doesnt seem like it
maybe its in the special topics section
yeah he has like
a two page section on group actions in chapter 29 lmao
group actions are like
arguably one of the most important topics in an undergrad algebra class
I guess I'll have to refer to Artin for that
hopefully I'm erudite enough for that when the time comes.
In general, a set set doesn't have an operation (+,*,..) !
Sets are algebraic structures and set functions are structure homomorphisms in the sense of model theory
Homomorphism usually refers to structure homomorphism rather than any morphism
I mean morphism and homomorphism aren't synonymous
containment is an operator
sorta
Hey hey, I was wondering if someone would agree to take time with me at looking into my algebra course from top to bottom ? It would be done regularly during the same time, and would be presented like a talk, but with any interaction being let possible. How does that sound ?
The goal would be to at least look at the half of it (the last subject of the half being cycles)
It's basic algebra, and these "talks" can really last how much be decide it would last
Relation
Operators are functions
Unless you mean operator from 2^S x 2^S → 2 lul
Oh like elements?
ye
im jokingly saying this tho
because ik ppl get in their feels with this nuance
I guess we could really start now if we want to lol
,
yeah
How about the ideal (2, (1+sqrt(-5))) over Z[sqrt(-5)]
Ok I needed a refresher on the definition of a simple module because that is not a simple module
Yes
Any simple module is cyclic aka generated by a single element
Proof: if it isn’t then it has a proper cyclic submodule
Let it be generated by x
Then the map A -> M given by a -> ax is surjective by assumption
It is injective by TorM = 0
Bijection
yeah it checks out
@stark sigil @next obsidian thank you both
I think
You can prove something amazing from this
A has to be a field here
Because you’ve shown that A is a simple module which means it has no ideals
Other than A or (0)
So the existence of this module is a ridiculously strong condition on the ring
right
that's why for this problem they got another thing called indecomposable
so if it's indecomposable and torsion free it is a free module of rank 1 over PID
instead of a field
very interesting
I did not realize this earlier
the path to the order of the multiplicative group mod n goes through the Euler totient function, right?
goes through? it's in some sense the definition of phi(n)
yeah coprime to n is equivalent to having an inverse (Z/nZ)*
I need to prove that a group G of even order has to have an element whose order is 2.
Is the right direction to assume that there is no element in G such that a = a^-1 for all a in G?
there is always the identity of the group satisfying that
a =/ e ***
yep that's the right approach
okay
So I am having trouble finding all invariant subspaces of a given representation. Let S_3 be represented by the 3x3 permutation matrices over a two element field {0,1}. How do I go about finding all possible (nontrival) invariant subspaces. It is easy to see the one dimensional subspace with (x,x,x) as a basis is invariant and in fact, this is the only nontrivial 1 dim subspace, since any 1 dim subspace is just 2 vectors since we are over F_2, but I am not sure how to find others
I have seen Maschke's theorem, but I don't think that applies here since we are over F_2
So, a couple questions that I need help clarifying. It is sufficient to find all dimension 2 invaraint subspaces, since this space is dim3 over F_2 right, and we already found all dim 1 invariant subspaces
Then is there an easy way to show the existence/non-existence of a dim2 invariant subspace?
With Maschke, this is clear, but we can't apply it here
{(0,0,0) ; (1,1,0) ; (1,0,1) ; (0,1,1)} is invariant
So you took (1,1,0) ; (1,0,1) as your basis
I didn't choose a basis
How did you come to that subspace?
It's usually the complementary subspace when maschle does apply
Set of vectors with coefficients summing to 0
I picked a random element of F2^3 and looked at the smallest invariant subspace containing it
and you basically only need to look at (1,0,0) (1,1,0) and (1,1,1) to get all the possibilities
So I see if an invariant subspace contains (1,0,0), the subspace itself is the whole space. If it contains (1,1,0), the smallest one looks like the one you posted and if it is (1,1,1) the smallest subsapce is ((1,1,1),(0,0,0))
Then it also looks like the subspace W_1 generated by (1,1,0) forms a direct sum with the subspace generated by (1,1,1)
Even so, we were not allowed to apply masche since the Char(F_2) divides the order of S_3
Then is it true that Maschke truly fails when we look at F_3? Because the whole argument applies; we only need to find the smallest invarant subspace containing (1,0,0), (1,1,0), and (1,1,1). It is clear the smallest invariant subspace containging (1,0,0) is the whole space itself. Where this differs from F_2, is that the smallest invaraint subspace with (1,1,0) is also the whole space. Then the only nontrivial invariant subspace is the one with (1,1,1)
no there are others
(1,2,0)
for representation of Sn as permutations, you can always get an invariant subspace {(x1...xn) | x1+...+xn = 0}
that will always be a (n-1) dimensional subspace
but not necessarily orthogonal to the 1-dimensional subspace
for example for S3 over F3, it would contain the subspace generated by (1,1,1)
I don't know if <(1,1,1)> has a complementary invariant subspace in that case
So I see that if (a,b,c) where a+b+c = 0, then we can find an invariant (n-1) dimensional invariant subspace which contains (a,b,c), but now I'm confused about when do we know we have found all invariant subspaces. It was easy to understand in the F_2 case
well then you have to look at invariant subspaces generated by x where you pick one x in each orbit of the action of S3 on F3³
Oh, I see. I also think that the subspace we have is not a orthogonal complement to the 1 dim subspace (1,1,1), since (2,2,2) is in both. So is that enough to conclude that the space CAN NOT be written as a direct sum of two subspaces that are both invariant, showing Maschke is not necessarily true when char(F) divides the order of the group
I wanted to show that X^4+1 is irreducible over Z_p for any prime p
I did it by showing that $$X^4+1$$ has a root $$\alpha$$ in $$F_{p^2}$$ such that the minimal polynomial of $$\alpha$$ has degree less than 2 and divides $$X^4+1$$
AoiKunie
The exercise also asks me to show that X^4+1 is either a product of 4 linear factors or 2 irreducible quadratics (irreducible over Z_p). But I cannot seem to exlude the case of 2 linear factors and 1 irreducible quadratic
how did you show it had a root in Fp² ?
If p > 2
I factorized it directly in Z_2
Because then the order of the multiplicative group of Fp^2 is divided by 8
ah then why not look at where in that cyclic group are the 4 roots, and where are the elements of Fp
Ah right
I only showed there was one root
But by elementary group theory I guess there are more...
Ah right, there should be eulerphi(8)=4 of them
And they all lie in the same cyclic subgroup, so if one of them is in the small field then all of them are
det
det
right
But…
is it true if k = Q and discriminants of E and F are coprime?
no, the product

so our profs scared us in the quiz
I don’t know field theory
lol idk enough grammar to understand that
The point is
It says “if X”
Then just ends
There’s no like, “then Y”
The then is after a period
ah, right it should be a comma
they converted the quiz to an assignment
So I am of no help
and asked us to assume the extensions are galois
but i still wanted to know what we can do in general
¯_(ツ)_/¯
yea, this problem lies in the intersection of field theory and number theory... but i thought my question belonged here
discriminant of a finite extension F over Q is defined very weirdly. you look at the ring of integers O_F. This turns out to be a free abelian group of rank [F:Q]. so we can take it's Z-basis. if {sigma_i} are embeddings of F into Q bar, and {alpha_j} is an integral basis, then disc(F/Q) = det(sigma_i(alpha_j))^2
i was wondering if we could do some normal closure stuff and use that if one of the extensions is galois then nice stuff happens.
U suck
Hi can someone help me with this? I’m confused what they want for 1a
@rustic crown we had this exercice in my number theory class (sorry it's in French), it may be relevant for you
oh arigato. but i don't think it helps me completely... i'm trying to understand what will happen if we drop the [L:Q] = [K1:Q][K2:Q] and instead pick up K1 intersect K2 = Q.
(also i can read the math, so it doesn't matter if it's French
)
R* means the set of units?
So I need to show that R* subset of {f(x)/g(x) ... }, which are set of units?
And the set of units {f(x)/g(x) ... } subset of R*? @lethal dune
you need to show that a inverse will exists iff f(0) neq 0
what about the function g(x)/f(x)? think about it
well if we have this function then it will produce a unit since the two functions cancel each other to equal 1
Hi! What do we mean by the complex conjugate of a character? The character of a representation is a function from G to the base field, so how can one interpret the complex conjugate of such a map?
It means that for every g \in G, we take the complex conjugate of the trace of its representation matrix
it only makes sense if your base field is a subfield of the complex numbers
it is actually the complex numbers
in general however you can take the dual character
and stuff like the orthogonality relations will still be true
oh, so yeah
you just take the complex conjugate of the trace, yes
So we talk about characters of representations, right? And for every representation of G we have such a function from G to F
yes
thanks
And if I want to show that the complex conjugate of a character of a given representation is a character as well, I have to find another representation for which the complex conjugate will be its character?
Hey everyone! We're in an abelian category and im hoping to use axioms only. So I want to show that if this sequence is exact:
\begin{tikzcd}
0 \arrow[r] & A \arrow[r] \arrow[r, "f"] & B \arrow[r, "g"] & C
\end{tikzcd}
\
then $f=ker g$. I already have:
\
\begin{tikzcd}
& & & coker f \
0 \arrow[r] & A \arrow[r] \arrow[r, "f"] \arrow[d, shift left] & B \arrow[r, "g"] \arrow[ru] & C \
& im f= ker g \arrow[u, dotted, shift left] \arrow[ru] & &
\end{tikzcd}
\
$A\rightarrow ker g$ exists cause $fg=0$. I know that if we can find $A\leftarrow ker g$, then $f$ satisfies the kernel univ prop and we're done, but i cant see where this arrow will come from. Any hints?
Brian485
This is so trivial or I am missing something. So given phi : G -> GL(V) and its character chi : G -> C such that for every g \in G chi(g) = trace(phi(g)). I want to show that chi' : G -> C, chi'(g) = complex conjugate of chi(g) is also a character. But we know that for every g \in G the complex conjugate of chi(g) is just chi(g^-1), so chi'(g) = chi(g^-1) for all g.
so the representation can be alpha : G -> GL(V) such that for all g alpha(g) = phi(g)^-1
is that really a homomorphism though
alpha?
yes
alpha(gh) = phi(gh)^{-1} = (phi(g)phi(h))^{-1} = phi(h)^{-1}phi(g)^{-1} = alpha(h)alpha(g)
you need to look at the dual vectorspace, that is Hom(V, K), where K is your base field
ohh
then if phi is in Hom(V, K), you can define a "linear action" from G as phi*g phi \circ g^{-1}
something like that anyway
this should work
so the trick is simply that the complex conjugate of the given character will be the character for a representation of G over the dual vector space
yes
i think this direction is also better to look at
its natural to ask whats the character of the dual representation
i.e. G acts linearly in a natural way on the dual vector space, what is its character?
(this way you also get a more general character theory that doesnt require you to work over C)
thanks 😄
bump
chi(g) = chi(g^-1) if and only if g and g^-1 are conjugate?
where chi is a character
We know that characters are constant on conjugacy classes, but is the other direction true?
No, look at the character of the trivial representation of a group in which there is an element g that is not in the conjugacy class of g^-1
Yeah, thanks
So how to prove this: chi(g) is real if and only if g inverse is a conjugate of g. I proved the <= implication
isn't the trivial rep again a counterexample? or is there more context?
because chi(g) is real for any trivial rep
and any g
For the other direction we know that chi(g)=chi(g inverse)
Here is the problem: Let g \in G. Show that chi(g) is a real number for all characters chi if and only if g inverse is a conjugate of g.
I found a solution on stackexchange, but => this part is not correct:
He says that chi(g) = chi(g^-1) hence g and g^-1 are conjugate
Isn't there some result that says that characters span the space of class functions on a group
I forgot the conditions for that
Then that should be enough
given 2 elements of the group
not in the same class
if all characters agreed on them, all class functions would agree on them
oh wait I misread
you can also use the second orthogonality relation
Is G finite?
I think you might be able to say that character of g inverse is conjugate of character of g
phew I am just learning this stuff rn so I am very worried that I might be saying wrong stuff lol
if G finite, you just need algebraically closed field and characteristic not dividing order of G (you can deduce this from the orthogonality relations)
if G not finite i have 0 idea lmao
but orthogonality relations prove slightly stronger result, so there is easier way i guess
thats the first one
its one of the statements i remember bcs it lets you compute character tables
Well I have an idea
Suppose g and g inverse are not conjugate, and chi_i (g) = chi_i (g^-1) for all g, and chi_i. Since g and g inverse are not conjugate by the second orthogonality relations we get that sum_{i=1}^k chi_i(g)^2 = 0. Is that contradicting to something?
well then chi_1 (g)^2 + ... + chi_k(g)^2 = 0 for all g in G, but this can be true iff chi_i(g) = 0 for all g since all the chi_i-s are real
so {chi_i} can't be an orthonormal basis (??)
It seems legit for me, can you find any mistake in the proof?
ehh, here I supposed that every character is irred
so this won't work in general 😦
or does is? well from the second ort rel we get that for all characters chi(g) = 0 for all g
so this is true for the irred ones
contradicting the first ort rels
sorry, the second is also for irred characters, so this proof is wrong
or maybe not.. damn I'm confused 
all characters are sums of irred characters so it should suffice to consider those?
well I don't really need to use that, if I'm not mistaken I just supposed that for all characters of G and for all g in G chi(g) is real, so this is true for the irred ones
applying the second ort relations to g and g inverse we get that for all irred characters chi(g) = 0 for all g
and then it contradicts the first ort relations
works i guess
you can also just plug it directly into it
using $\chi(g) = \chi(g^{-1}$ for all irreducible characters $\chi$ you get that
$$\sum_{\chi \text{irred}}\chi(g)\chi(g) = \sum_{\chi \text{irred}}\chi(g^{-1})\chi(g)$$
is not zero
Lochverstärker
as g is conjugate to itself
so again by second orthogonality relation, g and g^{-1} are conjugate
(this in fact works if you replace g^{-1} by any element h)
(this also requires G finite)
I'm guessing that G is finite, we're dealing with representation theory of finite groups
thanks for your time 😄
The set of all matricies with real entries form a ring right?
you need to fix some n and look at n x n matrices
yee
cool ty
it's a non-commutative ring with identity to be precise
it's even a R-algebra 
Why? 
multiply a 2x2 matrix with a 3x3 
Can one not put some weird graded structure?
but you still need to be able to multiply any two elements right
all matrices form a category
objects are natural numbers and yes 0 is a natural number
Ofc 0 is a natural number, who thinks otherwise?
Hom(m, n) = n x m matrices
there are people 
like my number theory prof

But yeah, I was thinking more like graded ring, but that doesn't work, at least not with the usual definition of graded ring
yea, graded rings are rings first
it's not a natural number 
N = {1, 2, 3....}

That S U C C s
Bruh just say natural numbers with unity or without
I personally believe that natural and natral is a good distinction
unity? 
ohh this is cute
Did you just say "natral"
Natral
naturals are clearly more natural than natrals

Brilliant compromise that solved absolutely nothing
Based
Natral nmbers
But at least I can get an nlab page on me
let's all just agree to disagree and use $\mathhbb{Z}^+$ and $\mathbb{Z}^+ \cup {0}$
neamesis
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reaction for more information.
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British version na'ral numbers {1,2..}\{t}
Na, should be "noombahs"
nice, i'm someone i don't know
what's a set truther?
Ababou holy sht, totally forgot about that absolute king
whats ababou
NJ Wildberger reaccs only
those are the people who think that N should contain 0
Lol
I'm jk btw
i've accepted i'm cringe 😌


if H isnt normal, G/H is not well defined
at least not in the sense of having a usual group structure
so presumably its hidden in the "proposition" it mentions.
N⁰ means non zero integers= whole numbers right?
N⁰ should really be denoted N, since the natural numbers are {0, 1, 2, 3, ....}
If a group satisfies associative property then it definately satisfies commutative property right?
no
Pretty sure my counterexample was bad lol.
All groups satisfy associativity but not all groups are abelian though.
what makes you think that?
smallest counterexample: S3
the identity element e needs to satisfy a * e = e * a = a for all a in the set. the operation * is commutative so it's enough to check a * e = a. the first part of that paragraph shows that e = 1 works
i dunno what properties G1 - G4 are but supposedly one of them is your set having an identity element
Can I write like this?
It's confusing right?
I don't know how they have arrived to b=-a+2
they explain a little in the analysis paragraph
to find the identity they write a * e = a and solve for e
Yes
to find the inverse of a, they write a * b = 1 and solve for b
But it's a+b-1=1
I don't know how they arrived here
The last line of the paragraph
a*b= 1 ?
I'm Solving, sir
Quick Q
what's a curve over a field?
Also, for a curve over a field K, what does it mean for the curve to have a point with "K-coefficients" .__.
For K-coefficients, does it mean coordinates in K?
Sounds like an algebraic geometry question!
A curve over a field k is a curve with a morphism to Spec k :)
A "point with K-coefficients" sounds like the concept of a K-point, which is a morphism from Spec K to the curve!
uhhh
is there a less complicated answer
this book literally assumes you don't even know multivariable calculus
I figured so, but also the third message in my reply to your answers.
I’m revisiting some abstract algebra and I’m having a hard time with this. I’ve gotten to if the order of b is less than 36, then e=a^m b^q, for some 1<=m<=11,1<=q<=2, but I’m having a hard time proving this is impossible. Additionally, I’ve avoided using the hint because I’m not sure why I can only consider factors of 36
lagrange’s theorem
Why are you considering m and q in a range?
Given that Lagrange’s theorem comes after this problem in the book, I’m assuming that’s not allowed in the proof. So I’m trying to do it algebraically, which led me to those ranges
Well a is a cube root
with order 12
ab isnt identity because that contradicts orders
similarly with ab^2
if you consider a^11 multiplying by b gives a^14=a^2
similarly a^17 for b^2
you can show similar happens with a^10
no nvm this is wrong
so this is the claim that i want to prove
and my first thought was
constructing this mapping
and showing that its a bilinear bijection
am i going in the right direction here?
it's not going to be a bijection
in general
the tensor product isn't isomorphic to the cartesian product
You should definitely construct that map beta and check it's bilinear.
That's a good start.
Then by the universal property you get the desired map
which you want to prove is an isomorphism
The way I recommend you do this is as follows:
let $Z$ be an arbitrary $A$-module and let $f : A/I \times M \otimes Z$ be a bilinear map. Show that $f$ extends uniquely along $\beta$ to give a map $M/IM\to Z$
diligentClerk
then consider the case $Z = A/I\otimes M$ and $f$ the identity, this gives the desired inverse to $\beta$
diligentClerk
gotcha
wait
what do you mean by "f extends uniquely along beta"?
@fossil shuttle
I think this pops out when you consider
0 -> I -> A -> A/I -> 0
@past temple use fii note on playstore so you can write math easily
You have to prove M (x) A = M via multiplication
Then it does follow from
0 -> I -> A -> A/I -> 0 by right exactness
hey! im super confused on this problem i think ive confused myself im not sure where to go
In general, what’s the degree of the extension Q(a)/Q?
Can you give me a different way to get that number in terms of a?
Suppose $\mathrm{char} , F$ does not divide $\mathrm{Aut}_FL$ and that ${\beta_1, \dots, \beta_n}$ is a basis for $L$ over $F$. Let $H$ be a subgroup of $\mathrm{Aut}F L$. Let
$$\gamma_j = \sum{\sigma \in H} \sigma(\beta_j)$$
Show that $F(\gamma_1, \dots, \gamma_n)$ is the fixed field of $H$.
eM
I was able to show $L^H \subseteq F(\gamma_1, \dots, \gamma_n)$ but haven't found a clear way for the reverse inclusion.
eM
I would have probably brute forced it but I don't think that's what we want to do.
Notice that each gamma_j is fixed by the action of H. The sum is just permuted.
Gotta love sums over the entire everything which stays stable over an automorphism
By this I mean like doing some sum over all g in G then you end up doing a sum over all g^-1 in G (Maschke’s theorem or something does this.)
Love that stuff
hmm dfjklhasdf im completely spacing
I mean so
What’s the degree of Q(i) over Q
Hint: this doesn’t require anything about Q in particular. I could just as well have asked what is the degree of F(a)/F for any field F
Well, I actually have to drive so I’ll instead just say stuff
In general the degree of F(a)/F is the degree of a’s minimal polynomial over F
In your specific case, a is the rea root of a cubic polynomial
First determine if a can be a rational number, if it is then Q(a)/Q is degree 1, they’re the same field
If not, then a’s minimal polynomial divides the cubic polynomial of the problem
So a isn’t in Q, so its minimal poly has degree > 1, and it satisfies a deg 3 poly so it has degree <=3
If it was degree 2, then the cubic polynomial factors like
f(x)(x-c) where a is a root of f(x) and f(x) has degree 2
But now one of the other two roots, b or c (I wrote it as c when I factored) has to be a root of a linear poly
So that c is in Q
But… c is a complex number 😨
So a’s monomial poly can’t be degree 2, so it’s degree 3
Thus Q(a)/Q is degree 3
Once you adjoin another root it will end up having to be degree 2 over Q(a), so Q(a,b)/Q is degree 6 (this is because Q(a) ≠ Q(a,b) since the latter has a complex number, but the former has only real numbers. It has to be degree 2 since this is contained in Q(a,b,c) which has degree at most 3! = 6)
Then it follows that c is also in Q(a,b,c) since the splitting field of a deg n poly has degree at most n!
So Q(a,b,c)/Q is also degree 6
I have to drive now, so hopefully you can use this to work out the details necessary to fill in whatever gaps
fields can be groups under both of their operations but rings(that don't have a multiplicative inverse) can only be groups under only one of their operations right?
um not quite
fields aren't groups under multiplication
non-zero elements of a field form a group under multiplication
you have to throw away the elements which don't have multiplicative invereses
in the case of fields, that just a single 0
but in case of rings, you might have to throw many more elements
each ring has at least 1 invertible element, namely 1
if the ring was Z, and you throw away all the elements that don't have multiplicative inverses, you're left with {1, -1} and that's a group under multiplication
ah right so field - {0}
right okay
oh wow
thanks
this is called the group of units of a ring
what is called group units? the elements that have an inverse?
det
so for fields k, the group of units k* = k \ {0}
ohh that makes sense thank you
Hi can someone help me understand how to figure out 1b?
if b(0)=0 what does this tell you about the x^0 coefficient of b
@golden pasture if b(0)=0, then we have the zero polynomial and some constant right?
uhhhh
no?
try writing $b(x)=\sum_{i=0}^db_ix^i$, what would $b(0)$ be in this case
ari 亲
hence if b(0)=0, what does this tell you about some factoring b(x)
just 0?
yea
b(0)=?
1
yea
so in this case?
We're not just plugging x = 0? wouldn't it just be b_i(0)^j?
uhhhhhh
the sum of those
sum of b_i0^i yea
yea so why is it not 0?
what happens in this case
It would just be b_0
ari 亲
so you can factor
So then this would be the a(x) that they are asking about
Thank you @golden pasture
When it comes to identity property ae = ea=a. I didn't understood how this relates to ab = a+b-1. And the explanation is like at the bottom analysis line.
ae=a+e-1=a which follows e=1
Be substituted e on the place of
b why?
And I don't know why took b=-a+2 by solving a*b=a+b-1=1.
I don't know why he ended up there. It's goddamn confusing.
The core thing is to prove a * e=e *a=a. But I'm not understanding what's happening over there.
Will anybody eloberate the step???
You define the operation * on Z by setting a * b = a + b - 1.
Then you ask: Does this operation have a unit, that is, does there exist an element e such that a * e = a = e * a for all a in Z?
Since * is commutative, it suffices to just try to solve a * e = a.
Now, simply write it out a * e = a + e - 1 and this should equal a, so the choice e = 1 does the job, since a * 1 = a+1-1=a for all a.
next you ask: Does every a in Z have an inverse with respect to the operation *? What does that mean? Well, you have to find an integer b such that a*b = e (remember that * is commutative, so you get b*a = e for free).
We have seen above that e = 1, so now expand a*b = e: it simply is a + b - 1 = 1. And now you solve this for b, to find b = 2 - a
This is beautiful peace of art! thankyou so much.
Hey, so a while ago I asked the following question. Suppose that $A$ is a ring, and that $P$ is a generator in the category of right $A$-modules.
(This means that for every right $A$-module $M$ there is some set $I$ and an epimorphism $P^{(I)} \to M$, hence "generator").
The question/task is now to show that the functor $P \otimes_A -$ reflects short exact sequences.
expectTheUnexpected
And I have absolutely no idea. I feel like this question is not even well-posed: I am not told what the source and target of the functor are. Do we go from A-bimodules to right A-modules? Or do we go from left A-modules to abelian groups?
I would guess the former, since we cannot say anything about the generating properties of P when we're talking about left modules (since a priori, the categories of left and right modules can be quite different).
Also, a reminder: "reflects short exact sequences" means if $ 0 \to P \otimes_A K \xrightarrow{P \otimes f} P \otimes_A M \xrightarrow{P \otimes g} P \otimes_A N \to 0$ is exact, then $0 \to K \xrightarrow{f} M \xrightarrow{g} N \to 0$ was already exact
expectTheUnexpected
I guess since all categories considered are abelian it would be enough to show that tensoring with a generator reflects epis and monos?
I know its not the hardest problem but I still need some help on this guy 
I get the roots should be $\pm \sqrt{ \pm i}$
jan Niku
how can i be sure that I write my field in a minimal way though? I have a lot of doubts that $\bQ ( \sqrt i, \dots)$ is the best way to write it
jan Niku
notice that splitting field will contain i as well as (1+i)/sqrt(2) = sqrt(i)
right, it has to contain some things like i and also 1/i etc
how does that inform you about what the minimal choice would be
Q(sqrt(i)) = Q(i, sqrt(2))
wait is your question like you don't wanna write all 4 roots?
i guess i dont really understand what all these roots are hitting in the context of the field
so im not sure how to write them
i assume ive written all four roots?
or you mean in the extension
Q(sqrt(i)) is enough because a = sqrt(i) then other roots are just a, a^3, a^5, a^7
weird
but do you capture everything you need?
or i guess you dont know for sure that 1/i is in it
you just need -i
what's your definition of Q(something)?
usually it's smallest field containing Q and something
and Q[something] is smallest ring containing Q and something
well idk my working definition in my head is its q, then starting with some base power of some element not in q, all elements needed to capture all orders of that element and something in Q until you enter back into q
so capturing all actions you could make with the element youre adding
you dont need for sure that you have a multiplicative inverse i guess
or i guess just sqrt i to some power is its own inverse

so it doesnt matter anyways
this problem is so confusing
so you'd just note that since Q(sqrt i) is a field it'd have -sqrt i
how can you be sure itd have -sqrt -i
it must be picked up in some power of sqrt i?
sorry, i'm not sure what you mean by action exactly
like operation
it's sqrt(i)^3
like draw these 4 things on the complex plane
they'll form vertices of a rotated square
im not really sure how to be honest 
i was looking this weekend
i get they look like a square
i guess thats the thing to notice
x^a + 1 has roots that look like a a-gon on the complex plane
youre saying this is enough to inform a person that sqrt i is sufficient
i think?
yep, because if you look at the 45 degree angle, all the other angles are multiples of it
yep, a, a^3, a^5, a^7
why odd?
even things correspond to roots of x^4-1 = 0
nah, a^2 = i
oh duh you need 3 to get from the first to second
okay
sorry for the dense brain
I appreciate your help
🙇♂️
also in case of algebraic extensions, inverse of any non-zero element is a polynomial in the element itself
it basically means that every element satisfies some polynomial over Q
im gonna have to think on that one
i think you're a little confused in giving a basis and a generator
so Q(cbrt(2)) is generated by a single cbrt(2), but a basis for this over Q is {1, cbrt(2), cbrt(4)}
right
since cbrt(4) isnt sufficiently captured by cbrt2 and some element of Q
you need an additional power
if you're only allowed to add, then it's not... but when we write Q(a) you're allowed to multiply as well
so Q(cbrt(2)) contains cbrt(2)^2
remember it is smallest field contains Q and cbrt(2), so of course we can multiply any two elements in the field or add them
to just get the idea of this without the words, say a is non-zero and it satisfies some polynomial f(x) over Q. Since a is not zero, you can assume that constant term of f is not 0. because otherwise f(x) = g(x) * x^n with g having a non-zero constant term.
so notice g(x) = x * h(x) + b, where b is a non-zero rational
plug in x = a to get 1/a = (-1/b) * h(a)
is that what you were looking for?
if you want to find a basis for this, say a = sqrt(i), then {1, a, a^2, a^3} is a basis. The other roots since a^4 = -1, the roots are {a, a^3, -a, -a^3}
another nice basis is
{1, sqrt(2), i, sqrt(2)i}
sorry @rustic crown i have class so i had to check out suddenly but i appreciate it 🙇♂️ ill take a look at it
okie 
Hey guys! Do you have any idea how to start the 11th problem? Is there enough information? Don’t we need the size of conjugacy classes?
,rotate
the first row is easy 
How can i show that $\sqrt{-5}$ is prime in $\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{-5}]$ without using norm, any hint?
Algebra
One way to "solve" the exercise is to compute some character tables with sage. This is my way, since I don't know character theory. I hope your way will be different.
Assume sqrt(-5) * (a+bsqrt-5)= xy for x and y in the ring. If sqrt-5 doesnt divide x and y, then a+bsqrt-5 has to divide x, y or xy
this is also a domain so you can cancel stuff I guess
you can also show the quotient is an integral domain
Z[sqrt(-5)] =~ Z[x]/(x^2 + 5)
the ideal (sqrt(-5)) on the left corresponds to the ideal generator by x on the right
so (Z[x]/(x^2+5)) / ((x, x^2+5)/(x^2+5)) =~ Z[x]/(x, x^2+5)
(x, x^2+5) = (x, 5)
Z[x]/(x, 5) =~ Z/5Z
Z/5Z is field so done
beautiful 
How this can you please explain?
okie so we have a ring Z[sqrt(-5)]
so we'll get the surjective map Z[x] --> Z[sqrt(-5)]
the kernel is (x^2+5)
Okk
now what's the inverse image of the ideal (sqrt(-5))?
it's the ideal generated by (coset of) x on the left, okie?
that has to be the ideal (x, x^2+5)
Why to check inverse image?
one way to see this is via the correspondence theorem,
Z[x] --> Z[x]/(x^2+5)
ideals of the right correspond to ideals of the left containing (x2+5)
oh because
we want to find the kernel of the composite
Z[x] --> Z[sqrt(-5)] --> Z[sqrt(-5)]/(sqrt(-5))
if you're new to working with maps, it might feel weird or hard, but eventually this feels very comfortable
you just use the isomorphism theorems without thinking
This statement below is very useful for concrete example, but think of it like just using the isomorphism theorems
det
Let $L/F$ be Galois with Galois group $G$. For $\alpha \in L$, show that $L = F(\alpha)$ if and only if the images of $\alpha$ under $G$ are distinct.
eM
What does it mean for the images of $\alpha$ to be distinct? I'm not sure if I'm understanding the question. Any automorphism of $L$ fixing $F$ acting on $\alpha$ are all distinct from one another?
eM
det
eM
Exactly
unless those are the same for some power
But the images are distinct
yeah but f can be equal f^2
It means that g(alpha) for every g in the automorpjism group are different
This is I think equivalent to saying that G acts freely on the orbit of alpha
faithfully?
what was free action i forget
i remember something like free groups act freely on a tree lol
I guess. Identity automorphism as an example.
free action is G acting on a bunch of disjoint copies of G
left adjoint to forgetful 😎
OH
equivalently an action is free iff gx = x implies g = 1 for any g and x
trivial stabs
Same lol
faithful is weaker
But I mix up faithful and free
O_o
gx = x for all x implies g is identity
ah right
free is
gx = x implies g is identity for any x
ohhhhhhhhh
Well in our case we act only on 1 orbit
Ohhhhhhhhh
So it’s the same
Ohhhhhhhhhhhh
Please be mature in the advanced channels.
Joe papa 😂
blocked
wait, doesn't Sn act on {1, ..., n} faithfully and transitively?
wait I might be wrong then
I was wrong 
....
F*ck


ye faithful + transitive to free isn't true

F
,w 69!
Yeah

yeo i remember this
didn't you block him
70! > 10^100
It’s the first one
Yes I did.

$$\begin{pmatrix}
1 &1 &1 &1 \
? & -1 & ? & ?\
2 & 0 & \frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{2} & ?\
? & 0 & ? & ?
\end{pmatrix}$$
$<C1,C2> = 0$ gives
$$\begin{pmatrix}
1 &1 &1 &1 \
1 & -1 & y & a\
2 & 0 & \frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{2} & b\
x & 0 & z & c
\end{pmatrix}$$
You can obtain with the norm of the second column : card(G) is even
If $card(G) = 2n$, $\frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{2}$ is sum of two unity root of order 2n since the subrepresentation is of dimension $2$
The aim is to find $2n$
$e^{ik\pi/n} + e^{il\pi/n} = \frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{2}$
Since the sum is real and not zero : $k = -l$
$2cos(k\pi/n) = \frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{2}$ and $k\pi/n = 2\pi/5$ which gives for instance $n = 10$
Boomer
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
multiples of 10 can work but we will try with n = 10
1+1+4+x² = 10k maybe you can show by solve the equation in x that the only integer possibility is when x = 4 and card(G) = 10
What will $\frac{\mathbb{C}[x]}{\langle x^2+1 \rangle}$ will look like? Any hint
Algebra
do you know CRT?
Yes
awesome!
Here (x-i) and (x+i) are its factor
yep, and notice these are coprime!
CRT says, that ring is isomorphic to the product of two quotients
Hmm how to check the are coprime in complex? Or i can say one doesn't divide other that's why they are co prime?
linear polynomials are irreducible over fields, so you just need to check they are distinct. since char is not 2, we're good
but you can give a direct reason, if d was a common divisor, then it divides their difference 2i
so d must be a non-zero constant, which are units
One of my friend told me that if they are not associates then this will aslo work , is it true?
Yess
right, but usually while working with polynomials over fields, we have a natural choice of working with monics
so yea, you're right, I should have said associates
This this from linear combination stuff like gcd?
yea ig? d | a and d | b => d | ax+by
Can you please explain this condition?
if some polynomial divides both (x+i) and (x-i) then it divides (x+i) - (x-i) = 2i
but 2i is a non-zero constant in C
this forces them to be coprime
explicitly, 1/(2i) * (x+i) - 1/(2i) * (x-i) = 1
so they coprime
Okk so here that number may be 2,-2,i or -i , these doea not divides (x-i) or (x+i) so that's why they are co prime?
oh we're working in C, all these are units
it would require more work if it was Z[i]
I was also thinking about this
Are they in C[x]?
yep
you need to be a little careful with using coprime over non PIDs
Z[i] is a UFD, so we get that Z[i][x] is a UFD
but we can't say that if they share no non-trivial factors, then they are coprime as in sum of the ideals equal the whole ring
for the purpose of CRT, we want the two ideals I and J to satisfy I + J = (1)
in C[x], (x+i, x-i) = (x+i, 2i) = (x + i, 1) = (1)
How? X-i is 2i
Really?
if something can be expressed as (x+i)*f(x) + (x-i)*g(x) then it can equivalently be expressed as (x+i) * (f(x) + g(x)) + (2i) * (-g(x))
this is some sort of "euclidean algorithm"
(a, b) = (b, a - b * q)
I know two numbers are coprime when there gcd is one. Can we somehow use this to show (x-i) and (x+i) is coprim?
how do you define the gcd?
Gratest common divisor
for PIDs, people just say gcd d of a and b is the generator of the ideal (a, b) = (d)
but you can talk about gcd for UFDs as well, prime factorize both a and b and then take the minimum exponent for each prime factor
of course these two agree for PIDs, but depending on the definition, we might need to prove the equivalence
This looks easy in integrs, but in complex it looks tough.
Okkk now I'm getting this
Thats why gcd is linear combination of these two elemnts?
yee
Just one more doubt, how 2i into 1 ?
it is unit
if an ideal contains a unit, then it contains 1
because ideals absorb multiplication by all elements
in particular the inverse of the unit
I heard that if ideal contain unit then that will become whole ring
yee, that's exactly the last equality
Hey guys
So, I have a set $A = {S \subseteq V : S \text{ is linearly independent and }S_0 \subseteq S}$. Where $S_0$ is an arbitrary linearly independent set in a vector space $V$. The author claims $A$ is partially ordered by inclusion. I wonder how is the order defined? If that makes sense (the question)
oh ok so S <= T if and only if S is a subset or equal to T
yup
ok thanks
if $H\subset G/N$ is a subgroup, then there exists a unique subgroup $H' \subset G$ containing $N$ such that $H = H'/N$
TTerra
that's what it's asking you to prove
got it
what does the product of an ideal with itself look like?
for example, if we let I = (x,y) in F[x,y]
$I^2 = (x^2, xy, y^2)$
polikuj2
how did u get that
can you see (x^2, xy, y^2) \subset I^2?
an element of $I^2$ is $\sum (ax + by)(cx + dy)$.
kxrider
ahhh okay yeah i was being dumb
Hi, guys, is there any way to extend maschke's theorem to infinite group? Is it even possible that if i have a representation V of infinite group, and a subrepresentation V_1, then i can find V_2 s.t. V = V_1 (+) V_2?
There is a small sections on wikipedia about non-examples if G infinite : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maschke's_theorem#Non-examples
Thanks. But what about matrix groups?
right now i have a mapping $\beta: (x,y) \otimes (x,y) \to (x^2, xy, y^2)$ defined by $\beta(a \otimes b) = ab$. This is an $F[x,y]$-linear surjection, but I want to prove that it's not an injection. How should I go about proving this?
pdk
where F is a field
(pls dont say smth like "prove the kernel is nontrivial")
perhaps its possible to show that beta extends to an isomorphism to a module strictly containing (x^2, xy, y^2)?
but even then how do i construct that module
prove the kernel is nontrivial
ty for fixing
okay so the easiest approach would be to show that the kernel is not trivial
actually perhaps x tensor y might be different than y tensor x but map to the same thing
hmm okay so in that case i actually have to think about
what the tensor monomials actually are
i have that the the tensor product of (x,y) with itself is equal to this
where A = F[x,y]
honestly I had something similiar to do recently and I didnt figure it out but I think there was some problems with exactly that x tensor y so just guessing
@past temple i think i have an idea. Suppose for contradiction that you have an iso and recall that M (x) I is iso to M/IM
lmk if you need more hints
ohh right i forgot that result
okay so then M/IM = (x,y)/(x^2, xy, y^2)
and so i want to show that this strictly contains an isomorphic copy of (x^2, xy, y^2)?
still seems pretty hard to prove that tho..
wdym "strictly contains an isomorphic copy."
For contradiction we assume there is an iso I (x) I --> I^2 i.e. an iso I/I^2 --> I^2.
u just need to show that this can't happen when I = (x,y)
oh
ok so bwoc there's an isomorphism (x,y)/(x^2,xy,y^2) -> (x^2,xy,y^2)
what are some general strategies for proving that no isomorphism exists between two objects
ive rly only done problems where i have to prove that there IS one
in general, elements of isomorphic rings/groups/modules must satisfy the same relations. For example elements should have the same order
Im not crazy right?
how is this reducible in Z[x]
i showed the second part
Omg whatever you guys said I think solves my problem
(x^2 - x + 1)(x^2 + x + 1)
bruh
wtf
U crazy
no i just put it into wolframalpha
cheater
how showed it isnt factorable into two binomials
i showed it isnt *
that was my mistake ig
yep
so that doesnt help us here
do i need to like
consider the explicit construction of the tensor product here then
im not totally convinced beta is not injective. I don't see why $f : (x^2, xy, y^2) \to (x,y)\otimes (x,y)$ given by $f(h) = h(1\otimes 1)$ is not a left inverse.
kxrider
So like
This map isn’t injective but you have to look at non-simple tensor or something
You show that the thing isn’t 0 to begin with by looking at partial derivatives or some shit
I think
I’ve done a problem like this before, it fucking sucks
what goes wrong with $f\beta(h\otimes g) = f(hg) = hg(1\otimes 1) = h \otimes g$?
kxrider
oops fixed ^
Look at example 5
I can’t tell you what’s wrong with your map, I suspect it’s secretly not linear
Altho that doesn’t actually matter
Or maybe it does, I think it might fail to be an inverse for non-simple tensors?
Look at what happens to (x (x) y - y (x) x) like in the example
This maps to xy - yx
Then f maps this to 0
But show x (x) y - y (x) x isn’t 0
So I think the issue is you can’t check if f is an inverse to beta on simple tensors
Because of “something something not linear@
Or some shit
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Anyway to show that (x (x) y - y (x) x) is non-zero
Consider the map from I x I -> K[x,y]
Defined by (f,g) -> f_xg_y (those are partial derivatives)
This is bilinear
Then (x (x) y - y (x) x) maps to
1 - 0 = 1 is non-zero
So the element can’t be 0 cuz it maps to non-zero thing
Or something like this works
am i going crazy why isn't x (x) y = xy(1 (x) 1)
ohhhhhh
yup rookie mistake 
I’ve done this before hahaha



