#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 631 of 407
Yup
Well
More so I’d just say like
The expression nk just doesn’t make sense
Ya know or something like that idk
like f(ab)=f(ba)
Right
so there would be a contradiction
Anyway
ok i see why it doesnt work for non abelian
So for the Hom(Z^n,G) thing
If the image of ei is ai
ei being like
1 in the i-th spot
0 everywhere else
Then you’re forced to have
f(m1,…,mn) = Sum mi ai
Cuz like
Break up by linearity
The LHS
ye
Yeah okay yee
And then like
Because Z^n is free
As in like, there’s no relation among the basis vectors if you wanna call it that
It just pops out that
Defining f like that will always be a homomorphism
Like you can show it’s linear and stuff
This isn’t the case when you have say
yeah lol
0=4
nvm im thinking of maps between cyclic groups
Oh yes
!
This is a nice point
Also I think I lied
I think the Hom(Z,G) = G
Is always true even if G isn’t abelian
yeah thats true
I was thinking about it
Anyway
By that fact
Combined with univ prop of kernel
Maps from (Z/nZ, G)
Are in bijection with elements of G such that the order divides n
You define the map as
f(m) = x^m
And then you can show this just is a homomorphism
Not all of them
but the ones that do have maps
so Hom(Zn,G) uniquely determined by number of elements of order k such that k|n
for G abelian again probably
or maybe not abelian too
uh
oh yeah i meant something else
Is Hom(Zn,G) is not an abelian group
If G isn’t abelian
But maybe it’s just also a group
Lol
Idk
ilol
I think not
this reminds me
Probably no inverses
i was reading about closed categories
Is that when they have a Hom object which lives in the category?
pretty much from what i learned, a category is closed if its Hom sets are objects in the category
yeah
i think some types of abelian categories are closed but idk how to prove or anything
i just read on nlab
ngl nlab is bad
if you have knowledge of everything
If you’re a certain type of person at a certain point in ur career
I use nlab at times now
slowclap*
also uh
remember or convo yesterday about ideals of rings of functions?
maybe we didnt have conversations
but rn im trying to get better understanding of ideals of a ring R by looking at Hom(R,S) or Hom(T,R)
Prime ideals are all given by maps into a field
Consider the map R -> R/P -> Frac(R/P)
Maximal ideals by surjective maps onto fields
This is all I know
woah
what lol
if P is prime then R/P is integral domain?
i think right
but idr proof
ab in P implies a or b in P
so if we suppose ab=0 in R/P
we have that a in P or b in P
which corresponds to a 0 or b 0
oh lol
when can you stop finding prime ideals?
so say P0 is prime in R and P1 prime in R/P0,…
does this end
im only thinking of this because im thinking of solvability for whatever reason and wondering what an analogue would be
It might jot end
You’re starting to think about krull dimension
Which is the length of chains of primes inside of A
oh cool
so many moving parts in theory of ideals and it seems super widely applicable to everything because it pops up so often, you said algebras show up everywhere but im not matured enough to see it
maybe i need to take up something like algebraic geometry so that i can have and learn more examples maybe
also if u dont mind checking imma try and compute Tor of abelian groups
G \ H doesn't mean set minus right
i dont know what it could mean but no chance its set minus
I've never seen it defined
nah just think of it as sending every element in H to identity
but G/H={gH|g in G}
set of left cosets of H
oh bruh wtf
lol
not set minus right
oh it is set minus
It definitely does
yeah that's setminus
Yeah but this actually means setminus
it is yea
yeah kinda weird notation choice cuz we've never seen anything like this lol
The Chmonkey
lol wtf

btw i think i have misunderstanding
order of a group is size of set, but it also corresponds to order of each element
wait
But “corresponds” isn’t the right word
order of each element divides
More generally, if e is an idempotent in a ring R, then eRe is a ring with unit e. Note that the set-inclusion eRe -> R is a rng morphisms, but can only be a ring morphism if e = 1 to begin with
It's like the familiar situation for algebras, where you have something called "idempotent subalgebras". These are linear subspaces which are closed under multiplication from the full space, but their unit is not the unit of the full algebra, but rather an idempotent.
For example, look at matrix rings, e.g. M_2(k) and embed k into it by sending a |-> {{a,0}, {0,0}}
(actually, it's not "like the familiar situation for algebras", it is exactly that situation, since rings are just algebras in Z-mod)
what do you mean?
Oh huh
I guess the image of Z -> R does always end up in the center
Let’s gooooooooo
wha
I was thinking when you aren’t dealing with a commutative ring S, and R algebra is a map R -> S landing in the center of S
And so I was worried about if you had a noncommutative ring it might not be a Z algebra
But this is just dummy
Oh ok 😄
btw, I don't understand the statement that R-algebra structures on an abelian group S are the same as ring morphisms R -> S. How does this work?
S needs to be a ring for this to make sense, except if I'm missing something 
What does a ring morphism going from a ring to a group means ?
If you have S a (commutative) ring, then any ring morphism f: R -> S defined an R-algebra structure on S, given by r . s = f(r) x s
I mean that having a ring morphism in particular implies that S is a ring
Doesn't really make sense stating it that way, but yeah okay
So if you start with an R-algebra structure on an abelian group S, the fact that s is a ring is already baked into it
It makes total sense actually 😬
Well then you're not working over an abelian group S, you're working over a commutative ring S

You don't say that a group G has dimension 28 and expect people to deduce from this that G also has a vector space structure

So like
The point is that given f: R -> S
You define r•s by f(r)s
And given an algebra structure in the “usual” sense
You can recover f by looking at what r•1 is
But for this to work as you’d want you need f to land in the center of S
Else you have this weird shit with left multiplication and right and it’s just whack
Or something
Idk you can probably define a left algebra
And a right algebra
(Yeah you can but it's ugly
)
But anyway if your rings aren’t commutative you already want to die so why make it harder on yourself
(R is commutative I guess, S doesn't have to be)
S does need to be commutative if you want an algebra in the usual sense, I think
What is an algebra over a ring for you guys? For me it's a monoid in the category of R-bimodules
Oh
You can make it workout basically the same
yeah that's enough, then, yeah
A ring map R -> S landing in the center of S
Kekw
But actually
You can also define it the explicit and annoying way
Like R is a ring, A is an R-module and then you add a multiplication by an R-scalar law that satisfies compatibility conditions
like distributivity over addition
and mixed-commutativity with multiplication
Explicitly, r.(x+y) = rx + ry, same thing with (x+y).r and (r . x) * y = x * (r . y) = r . (x * y)
(I probably forgot half of the compatibility conditions, the list is long and it's intuitive anyway
)
You mean A is an R-bimodule, though, right? Otherwise (x+y).r doesn't make sense. Or is R commutative?
Also you probably want multiplication in A to be R-balanced
and then it should just give you the statement that A is an R- algebra iff A is a monoid in R-bimod
actually, this is related to the most recent question in #category-theory lmao
Is anyone familiar with André-Quillen homology? If so, how did you learn it?
I'm not aware of any "notation" that would tell you right away that the given algebraic structure is a group
(G,*) could also represent a monoid, or semigroup, or a poset, none of which is necessarily a group
Good practice is to just say "A group G.."
bummer\
you should actually get used to just writting the words
its much easier to read
unfortunately, yeah
i think once you get used to this you will think "fortunately"
like this reads like trash
$g,h\in G \implies g\cdot h \in G$
lime_soup
just write,
for any two elements $g$ and $h$ in $G$, their product $gh$ is also in $G$
lime_soup
ehhh, wastes too much time imo
maybe I don't want to write much.
or at all
if you see someoen writting assignments like this
it always seems to end up being a poor asignment
write for your own sake
I still wanted to get it right if I could
The biggest tip i ever got for math writting was to make sure that you say the type of object a thing is
like
Let $f$ be a polynomial in the ring $\mathbb{C}[x,y]$
reads so much nicer than
Let $f\in \mathbb{C}[x,y]$
modulo getting the latex correct
incredible
lol
Yeah the ldotsx_n is confusing 
🥳
y=ldotsx_n
its funny to imagine
just how poor you could make some notation
Consider the polynomial ring in one variable. Denote this single variable by $x_1,\ldots,x_n$
lime_soup
I need to show that in an Abelian group G, H being the set of all elements whose order is odd forms a subgroup.
I've shown that for some a in H, a^-1 is in H.
How do I even show that for some a,b in H, a*b is in H?
what's the order of ab
It's the LCM of the order of a and the order of b?
there we go
well strictly it divides the LCM of the order of a and the order of b
but same difference
Hmm, I'm still clueless how to incorporate this fact into 'a*b is in H'.
can you say anything about the odd/evenness of: the LCM of: the order of a and the order of b?
i think you might be over looking this
to show that ab is in H, its enough to show that the order of ab is odd
OH
and moverover
Order of ab is odd
yeah
there is this subgroup criterion
to check that H is a subgroup you need only check that a^{-1}b is in H
I'm stupid, it mentioned in the subgroup test that you need to use the specific property of the set to prove a subgroup.
ehhhh
this automatically gives you the closed under inverses
i don't like that test
but
clearer to just do each criterion separately
it often can be easier to just check the two seperately
yeah
Gallian did mention that, it's the One Step Test.
i still think its good to know
I'm stuck on a question concerning Dihedral groups.
I need to show that if H is a subgroup of D_n, then either H is all rotations or half of H is made up of rotations.
thats a good exercise
pick a small example of a dihedral group and look at its subgroups
okay
either it has s or it doesn't
Can anyone find a transversal for this action on R^2?
is it not just {(0, b)}?
So any real number right?
nevermind
@viscid pewter Can you explain why?
Would {(1,b)} work?
"Prove that if y is a linear functional on an n-dimensional vector space V, then the set of all those vectors x for which [x, y] = 0 is a subspace of V; what is the dimension of that subspace?"
I think the dimension of that subspace is 1?
how do i explain this?
I think of it as a set of One element representative for each orbit
I know there is only one element in the transversal, since there is only one orbit
ok
i don't have that theorem yet
So they are vertical lines?
i see thank you
this book studies spaces themselves a lot before doing any transformations
yeah that's the question
with y = 0
then the set of all those vectors x for which [x, y] = 0 is a subspace of V
then the set of all those vectors x for which [x, y] = 0 is a subspace of V
oh halmos uses stupid bracket notation for some reason
[x, y] = y(x)
the set of all vectors
such that y is 0 at those vectors
i haven't had anything on transformations yet so idk what kernel is
but no y is not 0
it's any functional y : V -> F
Do you know Gram-Schmidt, or the fact that you can extend a set of m =< n linearly independent vectors to a basis?
yes I proved that you can extend a non-basis independent set of vectors to a basis
well actually, only kind of proved it
because i haven't proved that all spaces have a basis
but i can believe it on faith for now becuase i was told it was difficult to prove xd
the fact that vector spaces have a basis is an axiom
Yeah, assuming the axiom of choice.
it says "Prove that every vector space has a basis. (The proof of this fact is out of reach for those not acquantied with some transfinite trickery, such as well-ordering or Zorn's lemma.)
But conversely, if you assume that every vector space has a basis, you can prove choice. So in fact, one might as well view the existence of bases as an axiom 🤷♂️
Anyway, show that there is some x such that y(x) is not zero, and try some extending to basis stuff
then y(a*x) = 0
so the set of all vectors that make y 0 is a subspace of dim 1
because i already proved that if {x1, ..., xn} is a basis and {a1, ..., an} a set of scalars
then there is only one functional such that [xi, y] = ai
Given y, can you find x such that y(x) is non zero? Can you then find x' which is linearly independent from y and such that y(x') = 0?
I don't understand (1.1). Nowhere is it stated explicitly what the $(R,R)$-bimodule structure on $C \otimes_S C$ is, and then in (1.1) it is sort of implied that it's given by $r \cdot (c \otimes_S c') \cdot r'= c r' \otimes_S r c'$.
But this does not seem to be the most natural R-bimodule structure, I would have expected $r \cdot (c \otimes_S c') \cdot r'= r c \otimes_S c' r'$. so what gives?
expectTheUnexpected
And actually, also the centralizer thing, equation (1.2), implies that the action is the one I write. lolwut. Am I dupid?
ok @robust pollen i don't understand
ok, so first of all, is there a vector v in V such that y(v) is not zero?
well, if and only if y is not the zero functional, to be precise
(in your original question, y was any functional, so to solve the exercise completely you'll have to distinguish between y = 0 and y =/= 0)
ok
so, you also said here that you know you can extend any set of linearly independent vectors to a basis.
sure
the set {v} is trivially a set of linearly independent vectors
keep appending indepedent vectors until you're out
Ok, so, since Vwas n-dimensional, we can find vectors v_1 = v, v_2, ..., v_n that form a basis, right?
Can you change the vectors v_2, ..., v_n in such a way that y applied to each of them is zero?
what?
do you agree with the fact that we have a basis v_1, v_2, ..., v_n?
yes
Ok. So, if for example y(v_2) is not zero, can you somehow build another vector, say w_2, for which y(w_2) = 0?
hint: the definition of w_2 will include v_2, v, and y (more precisely y(v) and y(v_2))
If you can do that, you can do it for all v_2, ..., v_n. Then you show that the corresponding w_is, for which y(w_i) = 0 holds, are linearly independent. So you get a lower bound on the dimension of the space you're looking for
hmmm
ok let me think of a concrete example
in R^2 with the canonical base
let's say y = 2x - 7y
that's a linear functional no?
uh, no
what??
how is y = 2x - 7y a linear functional?
first of all, there are ys on both sides, and secondly, this expression does not live in R, but in R^2
... fine, let the vectors of R^2 be of the form (x, y)
and let f(v) = 2x - 7y
Ok. f(x,y) = 2x -7y then
but examples really don't help too much here I think. And certainly not R^2, R^3 would be much better
ok right R^3 then
f(v) = 2x - 7y + z
(0, 0, 0) makes it 0
(7, 2, 0) and its multiples make it 0
i dont know what vector with three non-zero coords makes it 0 hehe
(0, 1, 7) and its multiples, (1, 0, -2) an its multiples
a bit more systematical:
Standard basis e_1 = (1,0,0), e_2 = (0,1,0), e_3 = (0,0,1), then f(e_3) = 1
But f(e_1) and f(e_2)? They are non-zero.
What about f(e_1 - 2 e_3) and f(e_2 + 7 e_3)?
Are e_1 - 2 e_3 and e_2 + 7 e_3 linearly independent?
if they are linearly independent, you know that the kernel of f (fancy name for those vectors that get sent to 0) has dimension at least 2. Now, can it be 3-dimensional?
Need to prove that C(a) = C(a^3) whenever a^5 = e.
I showed that ax = xa <======> a^3x = xa^3
is this enough?
C(a) = centralizer of a?
yes
they are linearly independent
???
i guessing it can't be 3-dim
bruh at least highlight the message you are replying to
other discussion 😄
And regarding your question, well the <===> means that x is in the centralizer of a if and only if it is in the centralizer of a^3
well, yeah: if it we're 3-dimensional, f would just be the zero map
also, if a^(2n-1) = 1, then C(a) = C(a^n).
Haven't gotten that far, and I can prove that now
but
whenever ax = xa, xa^3 = a^3x
does this imply that C(a) = C(a^3)
right
so, try to generalize and then prove that if you have a non-zero linear functinoal, its kernel has dimension n-1
Well, what does C(a) = C(a^3) mean? Write it out.
The centralizer of a is equal to the centralizer of a^3
Write it out in terms of sets
So what does your "xa = ax <=> xa^3 = a^3x" show, in terms of these sets and elements?
Not quite. Your "if and only if" shows that x is in C(a) if and only if x is in C(a^3). And that is the definition of equality of sets.
so 6?
the size of H is 4
wait what elements would be in H? im confused
{i,i^2,i^3,i^4}={i,-1,-i,1}
Is the space of nxn matrices isomorphic to the space of nxn matrices without 0
so there would be 2 left cosets and they would <j> and <k> right
without 0 in what sense
also what's the group operation
My bad I should be more specific. Let M be the matrix ring with the usual matrix addition and multiplication over a division ring. I read somewhere that $M\cong M/{0}$. But I'm not sure if this is a mistake
fajitas
hey guys is this correct?
it's not wrong. but depends on the prof how much details you should put in.
alright thanks, this isnt hw, im just prepping for an exam so I didnt go super into details
I think you can more succinctly prove the latter one by noting if Z_16 -> Z_2 (+) Z_2 is onto then the latter is a quotient of Z_16 which is cyclic, but clearly the latter isn't cyclic
It's basically the same sort of idea as what you did
it is trivial, yes
oh well
no yeah
Maybe they want you to show that if K < H < G and K,H are subgroups of G, then K is a subgroup of H?
It said that K is a subgroup of G
you "need to show" that it's a subgroup of H as well
this is like totally fucking trivial
but you need it to apply lagrange to get a statement about [H:K]
even easier, just apply Nichols-Zoeller theorem to the group (Hopf) algebras of K,H,G over C 
If I have a finite group $G$ and two normal subgroups $H$ and $K$, what can we say about the statement [G/H \cong G/K \Leftrightarrow H \cong K.] Is either direction true?
OmnipresentCoffee
nope
both are false
work with abelian groups to get rid of checking normality
G/H =~ G/K could be because these groups are too small
G = Z/2Z + Z/4Z
H = Z/2Z + 2Z/4Z
K = 0 + Z/4Z
and if H =~ K we don't really know how they live inside G
G = Z/2Z + Z/4Z
H = Z/2Z + 0
K = 0 + 2Z/4Z
Let M be a module over R
We can localize M by S, where S is a multiplicatively closed set in R
If S contains 0, then S^-1M is 0
Is this also true if S contains a zero divisor
I can see if there is and s*m=0 then m/s=0 in S^-1M
But will all of S^-1M be zero?
In Lang's algebra pg 206 he states that if $A$ is a complete local ring then the power series ring $A[[X]]$ is also complete local.
K零ꓘ
no
localize Z/6Z at 2
Ah thank you
So basically what’s going on is
Z/6Z has 2 torsion and 3 torsion
So to kill it we would need to inver 2 and 3
But then let’s say if we had Z \oplus Z/6
We could only ever kill everything if we invert 0
Hi, for this question a
Do I just need to mention that g(0) is not equal to 0 in R and R is an integral domain so there are no zero divisors and the only way to get a zero divisor is if f(0) =0. So R* is defined as R with f(0) not equal to 0?
g(0) neq 0 is already given
would anyone be able to spend 1 hour ish helping me understand ext and tor and uct later at around 11est
i have an exercise like prove that if you have m linear functionals on an n-dim space with m < n there is a vector that makes them all 0
my intuition is that it's true because theres n - 1 base vectors that make a dual base vector 0
so given some functionals you can choose a vector thats a combination of these other basis vectors
Hint; what is the zero set of a linear functional?
Why’s that a guess
i havent been introduced to it formally lol
Ye that is the definition
But you can say more about it
What properties can a vector space or a subspace have?
Cocatthink lol
if you have a functional which is a linear comb of the ith dual basis vector
it evaluates to 0 on every other vector
no?
What’s the definition of a linear functional?
All other basis vectors yes
This method will lead to a brick wall because none of the linear functionals have to evaluate to 0 on any basis vector
i.e. not the ith basis vector
So, what’s the definition of a linear functional?
wdym
What is the definition of definition?
“definition of a linear functional” is like the clearest math question ever
I said why after “because” in that post
any linear functional is a combination of the dual basis
Is that the definition of linear functional?
no
What is it?
Is the sum of all dual basis vectors a linear functional, even though it evaluates to 0 on none of the basis vectors?
It won't help to think in terms of basis elements vik
The object i asked about is one linear functional
So what is the definition of a linear functional?
youre wasting time i already didnt come up with the obvious cobsequence of the definition
Oof didn’t expect this in an abstract algebra student

Can you say anything about dimension of the kernel of a functional?
You need to write it down to proceed with the problem
That is the way mathematics works
Zero set 
It also helps to see what definitions your book uses
scalar valued function on the space with linearity
Ya when a subject has multiple orders of presentation
Different things can have different definitions to start with
Determinant is a prime example
and in those books the words linear functional mean something different
Could
right
It never means something different
It will eventually be proven equivalent to other definitions
But depending on your book, you know a certain definition and have to use it to prove things so as to not use circular reasoning
Gotta go for an hour
anyway
Good luck!
Not sure where else to ask this
is the book "Naive Lie Theory" by Stillwell any good?
Just got it for free from my library
I wouldn't trust it.
yeah it might try dealing drugs to you
Hi, guys. What does it mean for pi(g)|w? if W is a subspace of V, then the size of pi|w(g) will be smaller than the size of pi(g)? So it means there are some entries will be removed in pi(g) in order to have p(g)|w?
That is some terrible notation 
agree, but my lecture uses the same notation😅 , just do not understand what it means
What do you mean by "size of pi|w(g)"?
for example, 2 by 2 matrix if dimW=2
That’s standard notation for restriction of a function to a smaller domain
It also applies here
Nah, it's note, pi : G -> End(V)
And pi(g) is an element of End(V)
So pi(g)|_W is the restriction of that endomorphism to W
Well, pi(g)|W is standard notation, but pi|W(g) is not standard (but it's defined in the statement, so all is good - except for the fact that it's terrible notation imo)
A better notation eludes me at the moment
The second best after that is just using pi again
I like that one better 👍
sry, i am confused, doesn't a subrepsentation is like (pi|W,W), pi|W: G-->GL(W), but if dimW=n, then GL(W) is isomorphic to GL(n,F), where F is the field for W\subset V. Then for example dimV=n+1, then the representation(pi,V), pi:V-->GL(V), GL(V) is isomorphic to GL(n+1,F)? how can image of a restriction of a function not in the codomain anymore?
Subrepresentation just means that if you act with pi(g) on the subspace W, you will again land in W.
Also, pi doesn't have domain V, but G
oh yeah, that domain is a type. But dimW<dimV, then how can we mutiply p(g) with w\in W
lol, type is a typo
W is a subspace. In other words, "Pad with zeroes" until you get a vector of length dim V, act on that
ok, so it is like (w_1,w_2,...,0,..,0)? something like this?

if W is a subspace of V
and pi(g) is a map from V to V
then you can apply pi(g) to an element of W
because elements of W are also elements of V
that would give you an element of V
but if W is a subrepresentation
that means all the pi(g)(w) are actually in W
oh,yes,lol, i see i see, thanks
and so pi(g)|W can be a linear map from W to W
But i saw someone is asking online. he\she uses the definition that a subrepsentaion is pi:G-->GL(W). is this uncorrect?
this is all correct
well subrepresentation can mean either the subspace
or the map into GL(the subspace)
I'm not sure which one is more used
im stuck on question 5 im not sure of the formula to find the pint parallel to equation given
#multivariable-calculus will be of more help
I don't think you're in the right channel
but how can GL(W) is an n by n matrix, for example, dimW=n=dimV-1, then GL(W) v, where v =(v_1,...,v_{n+1})
oh, I see! Thanks! it is set of linear bijection from W to W?
yes
Thanks! really helpful!
ill just join a vc at est11 and hope for a savior
Est11 is like in 5 hours or sth right?
Hey guys! I just started my Introduction to Algorithms class for my masters and have hit a bit of a brick wall. It's been since high school that I've had to take a math class, and so I've been trying my best to hit the books and catch myself up to speed. I'm running into an issue with an exercise in my textbook though (not part of an assignment), and I've really been trying to figure it out. The question is specifically finding which values insertion sort beats merge sort for a given implementation, where insertion sort is 8n^2 and merge sort is 64n * lg n (I'm not sure if this notation is standard, so lg == log_2). I wrote this down as 8n^2 < 64n * lg n.
I tried my best to simplify it, dusting off some of my old online resources to relearn logarithms, but I simply couldn't figure it out. I decided to put it into Wolfram Alpha to see the answer and work backwards from there, but it completely blind-sided me with something I've never seen before, being the Lambert W function. I won't write it here simply because I don't know how to feed LaTeX to the bot, or if that's possible, but the link is this: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=8n^2<64n*log_2(n)+solve+for+n
I'm mainly wondering, what is the Lambert W function, how do I solve it, how do I use it, and how was it used in this context? And, if possible, the steps taken to solve for the expression would be extremely helpful. I'm not the sharpest tool in the shed for this kind of mathematics, so I might need a bit more than others to follow along 😓. I've looked at some online resources and figured out that it's the inverse of f(x) = x * e^x, but it's been so, so long since I've done this sort of math that I'm struggling to understand it. I've really been trying to learn it on my own, and this was the last resource I had, as I didn't want to trouble you guys with something I could learn on my own. If you take your time to help me understand this, I thank you greatly.
If I'm in the wrong channel, let me know and I'd be happy to move. I'm not quite sure what Lambert W function falls under
this isnt really #groups-rings-fields but in fairness there isnt a great place for this question on the server, and no one else is using the channel rn, so its fine here
anyway, the problem is that one cant solve this in exact values through elementary functions
in general, we cant solve things of the form f(x) e^x in an elementary way for "most" f(x)
which is what this becomes after some rearranging
the lambert W solves specifically equations involving xe^x, which turns out to be useful here
i could show the full derivation but it seems tedious and not particularly insightful
since i dont think you care about exact values
after all, n will be an integer
Yeah I just need approximations, then round up/down for the final answer
That does solve my question, but doesn't help me to understand how
you plug in values lmao
as i said, theres no elementary way to express this solution
you're asking how a computer approximates values?
thats why the lambert W had to get involved
Which is what I want to mainly tackle, as logarithmic algorithms are relatively common among the most popular ones
i mean, im not even sure what your question is exactly
you cant "solve a function"
you can evaluate it at a point, but you'd never do that for the lambert W by hand
you'd either do a computer approximation or, lacking access to a computer, you'd try random numbers
I see, so for these kinds of problems it's best to leave it to the computer?
yes
the problem is that there is no elementary way to express solutions to this
by "elementary" i mean using like
polynomials, radicals, fractions, exponentials/logarithms, trig
Yeah
you know, the "common" functions
so we're forced to "make something new up" to extend our ability to solve these problems
in this case, that is the lambert W
but its very hard to compute
(hence why you dont learn about it with the other functions)
I see... it does feel a bit unsatisfying to learn something is far outside your reach to solve though
but you dont need exact values for this problem anyway
well, more than just a bit
since n is a natural number
you just need approximations
you CAN do calculus to maybe speed up the process of finding an approximation a bit
(see any numerical methods class)
Yeah, but the pursuit of knowledge was the main driving force
I see something that I don't understand it and I want to try to understand it
we understand it
it's just that it's literally impossible to get from here to there
where here is the nice functions we use all the time, and there is the lambert w
i mean there's taylor series ig
if you want a pseudo-closed form, the lambert W on this part of its domain bears the following taylor series
when will that even converge tho
r = 1/e
lmao
but you can uniquely extend it to a holomorphic function
so
¯_(ツ)_/¯
again, not really practical to compute
but uh, it exists
fyi this is far from unique to these sorts of things
I sadly am just not knowledgeable enough to understand this information
hell, the polynomial equation x⁵ - x - 1 = 0 has no elementary solution either
ok do you know what taylor series are
I do not
ok well
okay then ignore what i just said lmao
🤣
they're like
except for:
hell, the polynomial equation x⁵ - x - 1 = 0 has no elementary solution either
this is a true fact
its not that mathematicians havent figured it out
its that we KNOW theres NO POSSIBLE WAY
to express it without inventing "new" functions
(in the case of degree 5 polynomials, one possible "new" function is the bring radical: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bring_radical)
the lambert W is the same principle
its a bit more theoretically hefty because of domain/convergence issues and whatnot
but thats not really relevant unless youre taking a complex analysis course
so whatever
basically the taylor series of a function is an infinite sum of polynomial terms, derived by taking repeated derivatives of the function, that is usually equal to the function at a certain point
anyway, i will confess that this is a bit unsatisfying at first
to approximate a function, you can then sometimes just take the sum of the first few terms in that series
fortunately, computer techniques to approximate this stuff have gotten very very good
and sometimes it'll be a good approximation
I never learned derivations 
ahh ok
so you can just copy the formula from somewhere, and approximate it that way if you want...
it only converges on a small interval though so youre still SOL with this question lmao
this is more practical
I don't really know any Galois Theory but do we know that we still can't do it if we're allowed to use, say exponentials and logarithms ? 
and a programmer might actually know what o(1) means!
oh, sick
o(1)? I don't know what little o is, only big O 🤪
when is that one a good approximation
probably a corollary of liouvilles theorem somehow
So basically, to solve this question, I either need to plug in random values or let a computer solve it. Unsatisfying, but it works I guess
The one about integrals that can't be expressed using elementary functions ?
yeah
Okay, thanks 
you can translate a lot of results from galois theory into results on exponentials using it
idk exactly how it works though
been a while
Any reference I could check to learn more about that ?
(I should probably actually learn galois theory before that but I'm just being curious
)
+o(1) means the "relative error" approaches 0 as your inputs get larger
(informal definition)
dont have any recs but the broad name is "differentiable galois theory"
you quickly end up doing algebraic geometry though
so uh
Ahhh I see!
not for the faint of heart
Makes sense
Alright thanks 
There should be another equivalence here right?
$(v+v')\otimes w = v\otimes w + v'\otimes w$
Finitely Many Bananas
its already there
This only has the property about scalar multiplication
We would also need addition, right?
einstein convention
einstein convension is used so its really $(\alpha_1 v_1 + ... \alpha_n v_n ...$
Brian485
those are all sums
yeah
yes
Thanks
what are your doubts?
Just the convention
I try to avoid Einstein notation so I thought I'd make sure I was using it correctly
geometers hate him! click here to learn his trick now
and yet another new notation for differential geometry is invented.
i swear literally every student develops a unique one
Einstein convention is an absolutely blessing
ok so I know if $B$ is a ring containing $A$, then $B\otimes_A A[x_1,\dots,x_n]\cong B[x_1,\dots,x_n]$. also if $M$ is any $A$-module, then $M\otimes_A A/I\cong M/IM$. I can't see how to combine these rules to get a rule for determining the tensor product $B\otimes_A A[x_1,\dots,x_n]/I$
wren
I is just an ideal in the corresponding ring both times it appears
I feel like it would be nice if $B\otimes_A A[x_1,\dots,x_n]/I\cong B[x_1,\dots,x_n]/IB$, but I am getting confused
wren
Is B tensor I an ideal in B tensor A[x...]?
Can you find a surjection B tens A[x ..] -> B tens A[x...]/I?
yes, just take the quotient of the second component
oh....
teehee
the kernel is B tensor I
yeah ok I see
tyty
I just got a bit confused
You need IB[x_1,\dots,x_n] in the bottom
but you can prove this by doing
well the only way for IB to make sense is interpreting it as B tensor I
and B tensor I works on the bottom
$B\otimes_A A[X]/I = B\otimes_A A[X] \otimes_{A[X]} A[X]/I = B[X]\otimes_{A[X]} A[X]/I = B[X]/IB[X]$
The Chmonkey
Where $X$ just means $x_1,\dots,x_n$
The Chmonkey
This is really common, once you get some practice you'll see it immediately
Sneaking in a A (x)_A cuz it does nothing
yeahhhh
well I assume it's common cause quotients of A[X] are just general rings that contain A
oh yeah
quotients of A[X] are finitely generated A-algebras
yes
hahahaha of course
man I'm just staring at this
it just works so well
but either IB[X] or B tensor I are both perfectly fine ways of saying almost the same thing right
Frankly, I'm not totally certain
Because you can only tensor B with I over A
not over A[X]
Since B isn't a module over A[X]
I think IB[X] is just... nicer
Like if I is something like $x^2 - 1$ or $x^2$ basically generated by polynomials in $\mathbb{Z}[X]$ then $IB[X]$ will be the same ideal
The Chmonkey
As in like it's generated by those same polynomials, just where we now multiply it by all polynomials in B[X]
yeah
And like
it is nicer
yeah
but B (x) I is what naturally pops up when you do this
well...
no
the image of it is
Because you lose exactness on the left
B (x) I doesn't embed into B (x) A[X]
yeah
Right, this works over fields but not over general rings :(
The image will end up being IB[X] tho
after you associate B (x) A[X] with B[X]
that's why I don't like modding out by B (x) I because it kinda doesn't make sense
that's kind of mean of the modules to do that to me
tensor product is not terribly well-behaved but you get used to it
and learn how to become buddies with it
I like it a lot
yeah I'm not yet buddies with it 😔
because it's useful and has that goldilocks level of badly behaved
it makes it interesting without just being trash
Like
B (x)_A A[[x]]
is not B[[x]]
that's weird to me
I think if B is finitely presented it's true
this has to do with the fact tensoring doesn't commute with infinite products (but it's true when the module you're tensoring the product by is finitely presented)
the fact taht B (x)_A A[x] = B[x] is because it commutes with infinite direct sums
oh yeah
Can I envision A[[x]] just as a product of A over Z then?
but isn't this just sums of modules
It is
Yeah
like A[x] is a countable direct sum of A
so that's why it becomes B[x]
you lose the multiplicative strucutre
a countable direct sum of B
Oh well like the isomorphism respects the ring structure of B
this isn't immedaite but like
if you know what the map does
you can verify it
yeah but it feels a bit forgetful
Yeah view it over N tho, it makes more sense. the i-th coordinate gives you the coefficient on x^i, you need product not direct sum cuz a power series can have infinitely many non-zero coefficients
Sorry, was thinking Laurent
Laurent series are weird
why finitely generated?
you can have large polynomial rings in lots of variables
because you require that only finitely many non-zero negative coefficients
well if you want finitely many variables
oh
Finitely generated as algebra
ok
any A-algebra is a quotient of a "polynomial ring" in infinitely many variables
but if you want to be able to say A[x_1,\dots,x_n]
you need f.g.
Umm
a commutative algebra book
there's notes by like
Keith Conrad online
Those are good too
establishes good base properties to build off of
besides that it's just experience
you use it and you get used to it
it acts unexpectedly and you remember how it can go wrong and learn to avoid that
chgonkey 
omg my brain slipped
Also to really get good with tensor product stuff you need to learn what Tor is
since it controls stuff about the failure of left-exactness
yeah I don't know what a tor is
What is an ideal in an algebra?
I mean, conceptually 
;rotate
One should also be able to define "polynomial algebras" in general monoidal categories with biproducts, right? Since a polynomial algebra seems to be nothing more than a special case of a "graded algebra object"
Hey. Let $G$ and $H$ be groups, where $H$ is abelian. Also, let $\tilde G = G/[G,G]$ denote the abelianization of $G$. If $f:G\to H$ is a homomorphism, is it true that $f$ induces a homomorphism $\tilde f: \tilde G\to H$?
Hausdorff
how do you prove it tho
use universal property of quotients
alright
f([G, G]) = [f(G), f(G)] = 0
ahh okay! so kerf contains [G,G]
yep
and by the univ property of quotients we are done

@median pawn unique one satisfying $\tilde f p = f$, not unique in general
p is the quotient map
Moldilocks ✓
can someone explain quotient groups to me?
take some equivalence relation
this "partitions" your groups into "classes" which are all related
so like, in the integers for example, congruence modulo 5 partitions the integers into 5 classes
those congruent to 0, those congruent to 1, ... those congruent to 4
and these partitions are themselves groups or something like that?
now construct a group whose elements are these classes
and whose operation is the parent operation of the group
to finish the example
lets represent the entire class of integers congruent to n by [n]
there are 5 of these, [0], [1], [2], [3], and [4]
we couldve instead wrote [5], [1], [7], [-2], and [13] or whatever
but i think the former way is simpler
now our operation will just be the parent group operation
our parent group was Z under +
so [0] + [1] = [0+1] = [1]
[3] + [4] = [3+4] = [7] = [2]
(since 7 is congruent to 2 mod 5, hence [2] and [7] are the same equivalence class)
[3] + [3] = [6] = [1]
you probably get the idea
hmm so we are doing operations on these equivalence classes or is that the case only for this specific example?
always
if [a], [b] are equivalence classes, we define [a][b] in the quotient group by [a][b] = [ab]
where ab is computed from the operation of the parent group
its a good exercise to check that this is well-defined
now, a footnote
for notational convenience we often drop the []s
like the quotient group in my example is ℤ/5ℤ
the group of (equivalence classes of) integers modulo 5 under +
but we often write its members simply as 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
instead of [0], [1], etc
and say 3 + 2 = 5 = 0 (mod 5) or whatever
this is purely a notational consideration
so its whatever
but watch out for it
I will
the notation doesnt pose a problem since again
[ab] = [a][b]
so writing ab for the parent group and ab for the quotient group doesnt make a difference
ab in the quotient group is actually [a][b], i.e. [ab]
which by well-definedness is the equivalence class of, well, ab
so you can see we dont run into an issue
ye
so its just a formal note from the construction.
i got it


