#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Ā· Page 630 of 407
If you can compute that, then you can use the formula that connects discriminant and resultant
In not sure where to start with this one.
What does it mean when it is asking me to prove an isomorphism for a group and its operation? I thought that group isomorphisms had to be between differently defined operations.
You have to construct a bijection on G, such that f(ab) = f(a)*f(b)
like, you can take the identity map on G, which is an isomorphism
i dont think thatll work unless G is abelian
g maps to g inverse
lol
yepp
i was gonna try and lead them there
ah well
because like
(ab)^-1 = b^-1 * a^-1
so it does the flippy thing you want
(āÆĀ°ā”°ļ¼āÆļøµ ā»āā»
Do you know about Newton Waring formulas?
I know a solution but that involves NW formulas
Okay, so we denote P_k = x_1^k + ... + x_n^k, and we have two cases
First case: if k <= n, then the formula is the following: P_k - P_k-1 * s_1 + ... + (-1)^i * P_k-i * s_i + ... + (-1)^k-1 * P_1 * s_k-1 + (-1)^k * k * s_k = 0
Second case: if k > n, then the formula is the following: P_k - P_k-1 * s_1 + ... + (-1)^n * P_k-n * s_n = 0
where s_1, ..., s_n are the elementary symmetric polys
Next step: the discriminant of f can be written in terms of P_i, where P_i are polynomials as above, and the variables are the roots of f, and the form is this:
,rotate
And now, using the formula for your polynomial you get a pretty easy determinant to compute, because most of the P_i-s are 0, by NW
I hope it helps
In fact the only P_i which stays in party is P_n because by the Viete formulas you get that for all i from 1 to n-1 P_i = 0 (in the first NW formula all the s_i = 0), and P_n = n*a
And you should check what happens, when k > n: then P_k = 0 for all n < k < 2n-2 (due to the same argument above)
Guys what do you think about this problem here: Let G = <g> a cyclic group of order n. Let us map g^k to the rotation of the (real) plane around the origin by 2pik/n. Show that this is an irreducible representation of G, provided n > 2. So I have to show that if n > 2 then this is an irreducible rep, or if this is an irred rep then n > 2?
you have to show that if n > 2, it's irreducible
Thanks
well basically I have to show that no one dimensional subspace of R^2 is invariant under this action, right?
Hello, I could really use some help on 1). I am not even to sure where to start.
Actually, if we are using the Fundamental theorem, I think we need to show that if d, d' are divisors, then gcd(d,d')=1
Then we can break it up into a direct product of cyclic groups. Since the order of each is relatively prime, our group is cyclic.
this is a classical solution for x^n - 1
Maybe you can try this method to solve it for your polynomial, it should work
However, I have no idea how to do that...
Tbh, I am not really sure how to apply the Fundamental theorem.
factor it as a product of cyclics and try arguing in each cyclic component
each component is like Z/p^kZ or something like that
that's C_6
Ye
C?
C_n is cyclic of order n
anyway at the end you should be able to show that if Z/p^kZ has that property that k=1
and that should basically give you the proof once you know how to combine the factors back into one big group
Well, small issue with that. The primes dont necessarily need to be distinct when we break G into the direct product of cyclic groups
Why k=1 
Oh wait

cause Z ain't finite
Ignore me 
think about why something like Z/pZ * Z/pZ isn't allowed
Well, I know why it shouldn't be, because then it wouldnt be cyclic
Like using the condition imposed on G
Ooo. So say you have a group of order d, we will call it D. Then (0,D) and (D,0) would be two subgroups of the same order
But we can't have that, because exactly one subgroup has order d
So why are we looking at cosets and not Z_p itself?
What do you mean by cosets? Iām just giving examples to help you work out the full proof
Isnt Z/pZ the factor group of Z induced by pZ?
Also now that I think about it Z/p^kZ should be okay for k >= 1
Uhh Iām using the fundamental theorem to write G as a sum of cyclical
Cyclics
And I write my cyclic groups as Z/max
Z/nZ
Ah, I see
Okay, so now if it works for k>1 as well, then why can't something like Z_pxZ_p^2 be apart of our product of cyclic groups?
Oh wait, the only subgroup of Z_p is the identity and itself
Then of course {0,p,2p,...,(p-1)p} form a subgroup of order p in Z_p^2
That thought process did the trick. Thank you.
Almost any group theory book
But it's better to work this out yourself
That's why I'm looking for it
Apply both sides to an element x
And see how x gets permuted
So
I solved the problem without it
And my friend told me it turned out to be similar to the proof of that theorem
So what book
Artin has this I think
can someone help me with the following?
Let K and L both be field extensions of field F (F is a finite field with q elements) with [K;F]=l,[L;f]=n. where both L and K are contained in and extension M of F.
Proof that [KL;F]=lcm(l,n)
and
[K\capL;F]=gcd(l,m)
my reasoning was since K and L are subfields of KL n and l must both divide [KL;F]
We know that [KL;F]<=ln
but i dont know how to conclude it
for the second with similar reasoning [K\capL;F] must divide both l and n but i also dont know how to continue here
I finished it, but I just wanted to say that this problem is a pain!!
Man, I did not miss the symmetric difference š¤£
so i have this problem; i managed to show that the function is a homomorphism
for the kernel, im not sure what im supposed to do
Whatās the identity in GL2(R)?
identity matrix (1 0
------------------0 1)
When does phi(a) equal that matrix?
a=1
Youāre done
GG
oh right its supposed to be a one element set right?
Well, thereās some restrictions
Could someone help me with this one
ok i see
Weāre in the middle of something itās kinda rude to just butt in
This also probably fits better in #discrete-math
Anyway yes
The kernel could be a singleton, it could be everything
If your set is finite the size needs to divide the size of the ambient set
But in general you donāt really know a priori how big the kernel is
š thanks
is a tuple of complete lattices a complete lattice?
bump
The only definition I can find of defining equations of a group is a system of eqns that completely determines the operation table of the group. What exactly does this mean? My book provides an example and says that (ab)(ab^2)= ... = a^2 b^4. Why is a^2 b^4 "determined" and (ab)(ab^2) isnt, and what does it mean for an entry to be determined?
this sounds a little like generators and relations and presentations
i guess it's just a set of relations that completely defines the group
idk what determined means
just got it, sorry for the interruption
Need to use something special about finite fields. A finite field of q=p^n elements is the set of all roots of x^q-x
In this question we only need the fact that the field of p^n elements is unique (up to isomorphism). If n|m then F_{p^n} is a subfield of F_{p^m}
If I have $\Bbb{Q}(\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3},\sqrt{5})$ and a subgroup of the galois group for this field of order 4 that is something like ${e,a,b,c}$, is ${e,a,b,c}'={e,a}'\cap{e,b}'\cap{e,c}'$ where $'$ denotes computing the corresponding fixfield of a subgroup?
DootDooter
Now that I think about it idk if fixfield is the word ppl normally use for these things.
My book defines it as something like the field that corresponds to a subgroup of the Galois group for a field under the Galois correspondence.
It seems to me like there should be something sort of like De morgans law kind of deal going on. Where if $B={A_i:i\in I}$ is a set of subgroups of G the Galois group of some field that we should have something like $\bigcap_{i\in I} A_{i}'=(\bigcup_{i\in I} A_i)'$. But I'm not totally sure if that is true.
DootDooter
Could Sym(G) be the symmetric group on the set G?
Just a guess.
I have not really seen that notation for that.
Oh I see. I've only ever seen it written with subscripts.
I think you can just do S_X for a set X
But Sym({...}) seems like it could be more convenient if you have a need for the bracket notation.
I think it makes sense when you need to emphasize what set itās bijections on
If you want to say evaluate them on a particular element and use the output for whatever reason
Group theoretically tho it only depends on the size of X
So, like if you wanted something like Sym({f,...}) to make it easy to compute something like f(n)?
Uh I mean like
Say you have a set of triangle square and circle
And wanted to evaluate on triangle
For some ducking reason
This makes more sense if like, idk you have a subset of an abelian group
And wanted to do like
Sum_f in Sym(S) f(fixed thing in S)
I guess me point is just you want to emphasize these are actual functions, with the same domain and codomain
That makes sense.
Could someone help me with the question: how to calculate the direct sum and product of two polynomial rings: k[x,y]/x^2 and k[x,z]/xz ?
now i know they're equal. and i still don't know how to work it out.
x^2 means (x^2), etc
I want to cancel the plus sign
Do you mean direct sum and product as k modules?
You don't have direct sums of rings
\otimes_{\mathbb{Z}}
Do we call coproducts direct sums 
so any intuitive way to understand the syllow theorems??
How define direct sum of rings?

no, I mean rngs. So the problem for direct sum with rings is that the obvious inclusions are not ring morphisms, but for rngs, the obvious inclusions are rng morphisms, right?
actually yeah that's the abelian way to think about it, you're right
I will not be tricked into thinking about rngs

Some people might denote the category of by Set. But I prefer to call it

Sorry, I mean coproduct
So you want to prove that for these rings, coproduct = product? 
sorry, i can explain the problem as this: Is it possible to cancel the plus sign in "k[x,y]/x2 + k[x,z]/xz" by using another symbol?
where the plus sign means coproduct






I probably misunderstood the concept of polynomial rings: I thought the coproduct of polynomial rings can also be polynomial rings. Is it not true?
Hm, so if we're just talking about k[x,y] (without quotients), then note that this is the free (commutative unital) algebra on the set {x, y}, which can be seen as the disjoint union of the set {x} with itself.
Call the free algebra functor F. Then k[x,y] = F{x,y} = Fx + Fy = kx + ky in your notatation, since F is a left adjoint and thus commutes with colimits. But I don't see it for k[x, y]/I rn
Is what I write true? 
rn = right now, I is an ideal and capital i's look like lowercase L's.
what do you mean?
thanks, i understand what you have written now
Here "+" is the tensor product over k
Since we're working in the category of k-algebra
But I don't know what happens if we forget the k-algebra structure to get vector spaces over k
wtf I got confused bw subgroup notation and order notation
today is not a good day
okay, needed to prove that if a is in a group G, then card(a) <= card(G)
The order of a is the largest nonzero positive integer such that a^n = e.
by closure of G, a, a^2, a^3..... a^n are in G.
{a} is a subset of G.
If {a} = G, done.
If not, there exists b in G such that b is not in {a}.
Therefore, card(G) > card(a)
Closed subsets are finite or the whole set because a polynomial can have finitely many roots. The only finite irreducible subsets are the singletons
also we have an #algebraic-geometry channel now lul
@hidden haven is my solution correct?
ye, but you could have stopped at <a> is a subset of G therefore |<a>| <= |G|
card(a) means nothin because a isn't a set. You want to say card(<a>) instead where <a> is the subgroup generated by a
oh sorry, it's supposed to be order.
I see
You need to also handle the case where a has infinite order
probably
idk what the problem says about that
eh, this is the subgroups chapter in a very introductory text, so probably not
Yeetus
right ye
so algebraic sets are exactly the whole space or finite subsets
check this
from each single variable polynomial having at most finitely many roots
and notice that all singletons are algebraic
so finite subsets are algebraic
so only irreducible ones would be the singletons
or empty set š¤”
wait non empty condition
all good 
okay
hmm basically Z_n for even n is the union of all the even and odd whole numbers less than n
no thats true for all of them, there are exactly half evens and half odds in Z_N for even n
Gallian?
yeah
manan book collecting 
He's my role model in that regard.
you know, I got Complex Variables by Kasana today.
Hi! What's the idea behind this construction? In general we can easily construct a 2-dimensional representation of S3, by considering the rotation and reflection matrices. But then the entries would not be integers.
S_n has a natural representation (idr what it is actually called) which is n dimensional. You take the free vector space generated by n elements, say x_1 to x_n, and make S_n act by permuting them in the natural way. This is a reducible representation and splits as A direct sum B where A is the set of vectors c(x_1 + ... + x_n) for some c in F, and B is its complementary subspace, of all elements which, when written as a linear combination of the x_i's, have coefficients summing to 0. This B is exactly the one given above
To see that this is the B you are given, take the basis ||(x_1 - x_3, x_1 - x_2)||
by natural representation you mean for every permutation we take the corresponding permutation matrix?
yes
and this is a 3d rep, and reducible, and splits into A + B as you have written
yes
A is called the trivial rep (it is one dimensional, all elements of the group act on it trivially)
B is called the standard rep
It is irreducible for any n (at least when F = C)
and B has dimension n-1
and it's reducible because for instance a line is not fixed by a 120 degree rotation
i mean the natural repr
ye well you can show that A + B is a decomposition
so this is a method for constructing 2d reps for S3 up to equivalence<
?
when I change the basis of B i get another one
but those are equivalent
Ye you only really get one representation
so not very useful in terms of constructing representations directly
It is useful because it is an irreducible rep
and for nice fields (characteristic not dividing |G|), any representation of G over that field is a direct sum of irreducible representations
By Maschke's theorem
So characterising the irreps of S_n gives you a lot of info about arbitrary reps
thanks š
I want to show that $x^2 + 1 \in \mathbb{Z}_3[x]$ is irreducible using Gauss's lemma and Eisenstein's criterion
Spamakinš·
So I am stuck on the Eisenstein's criterion part
(yes I know this is overkill and I can check 0, 1, 2)
that's a weird way of showing irreducibility of a quadratic over a field
well I just more want to get practice using this theorem
so like
I need some "prime" in Z_3
You can't apply it here
oh
Only prime in Z3 is 0
oof 

In fields, all non zero elements are units
So can't be prime
Zero is prime because integral domain
semigroups and monoids 
I was able to answer a and b but I have no idea how to answer c
How the hell do I prove if it's a group..
check invertibility of the elements
oh
So what does set with the operation need to be to be a group
associativity, identity element, closure, invertibility
anything else?
supposedly you've already checked everything but invertibility in parts a and b
yeah
but yeah you've got it down here
you checked associativity in a and identity in b, so you just gotta check invertibility for c
and closure if you havent already lol
xd
The Jacobson radical of a division ring is the 0 ring?
If you have a center N, if G/N is a subgroup of G, is G/N a normal subgroup?
how can G/N be a subgroup of G
N = {e}
If G= N semidirect product with H isnāt G/N=H
ah yeah but then it has to be a semidirect product
so you're asking if there is a section, is it normal
I think it should be
every element in G ban be written in the form ns with n in N and s in "G/N"
conjugation by anything in N does nothing
and conjugating G/N by anything in G/N gives G/N
so G/N should be normal
For groups that can be factored into distinct primes, is G/N not a subgroup?
G/N is never a subgroup
the elements are like
sets
different elements
it might be isomorphic to a subgroup tho
Isnt it the cosets tho?
yeah, cosets aren't elements of G
they're sets of (elements of G)
right?
equivalence classes
Are you stuck on homomorphisms or the Z_n notation?
I'm having difficulty understanding how i'd go about solving a problem like this.
I know i have to do something with a kernel and a generator
but im really not sure what it is that i have to do
my book had an example with a similar nature to the problem, but it's a bit vague in how it did it
this is the example given
Exercise: let $\phi, \psi : \mathbb{Z}_n\to A$ be two homomorphisms. Suppose $\phi(1)=\psi(1)$. Prove $\phi = \psi$.
diligentClerk
Exercise : Let $a \in A$. Then there exists a homomorphism $\phi : \mathbb{Z}_n\to A$ sending $1$ to $a$ iff $a^n=0$. (By the previous exercise, this homomorphism is necessarily unique if it exists.)
diligentClerk
If you can solve both of these it should give you all the tools you need to do your problem.
ill be honest, im not sure how to solve them
"if |G| = pq for primes p and q not necessarily distinct, prove that either G is abelian or Z(G)=1"
Where do I even start for this type of question?
Well if G is not abelian, then Z(G) is going to be a proper subgroup of G. Maybe start there
I reach a point where Z(G) must be a normal subgroup of G with order 1,p, or q, but I dont know where to go from there
Maybe note that Z(G) is cyclic and if Z(G) != 1 then G/Z(G) is also cyclic.
or atleast im not sure where to make the jump from contains a cyclic group of order p to the entire group is abelian
the center is normal so you get Z(G) -> G -> G/Z(G)
and i think you can do some semidirect product thingy
right, but G/Z(G) is not nessesarrily in G right?
Well, okay so we want to show G/Z(G) is abelian to get a contradiction right? So if x,y are in G, then xy might not be equal to yx, but we can pass to the quotient and say: xyZ(G) = yxZ(G)
Now you just have to unpack what this means
wait how does showing G/Z(G) is abelian arrive at a contradiction?
oops, i meant we should show G is abelian, my bad
i think what i wrote works also
0 -> C_p -> G -> C_q -> 0 is short exact
so every action C_q -> C_p gives an isomorphism between G and C_q semidirect product C_p i think
wait how do you know C_p is a function image?
yeah
yeah any group of order prime is cyclic
but what about Z(G)=1
that's what you want to happen
you're trying to prove that Z(G) = 1
so you would assume Z(G) != 1 so Z(G) = p or q
wlog |Z(G)| = p and run the argument above
also I dont get the left hand side of the diagram
0 -> C_p -> G
there are short exact functions from 0 to C_p to G?
do you know what short exxact sequences are?
if not then you should try to prove this a diff way
isnt that the image of the previous function is the kernel of the next
whats the image from G/Z(G) to G
yeah it was 0 -> Z(G) -> G -> G/Z(G) -> 0
ok I see that, but I dont see what you mean by semidirect product
because the group isnt nessesarily reconstructable by semidirect product of normal subgroup and quotient group right?
Are you saying that if f(xy)=f(yx), then we can say xy=yx?
yea, you would need to use that G/Z(G) is cyclic
wait I dont follow how f(xy)=f(yx) imples xy=yx tho
arent dihedral groups a counterexample?
i think this should be the case
it's a group extension
we havent covered extensions yet, is there a line of reasoning that doesnt involve extensions?
hmm in that case maybe you can just sylow it lmao
yea so lets say cZ(G) generates G/Z(G), and xZ(G) = c^nZ(G) and yZ(G) = c^mZ(G).
then x = c^nk^j and y = c^mk^a for k such that <k> = Z(G).
got it from here?
and because k commutes with everything, you can just reorder it to have c on one side and k on the other no matter if its xy or yx?
yep
Regarding the extension thing, if G is an extension of the quotient by the normal subgroup, then does that imply that you can write G as the semidirect product between the quotient and normal?
because im thinking about say Z_4 and the normal subgroup of 2 and quotient group of 2.
because you get {0}->{0,2}->{0,1,2,3}->{0+{0,2},1+{0,2}}->{0}
which still seems short exact
but you cant write that as a semidirect product
hmm maybe i'm forgetting the details of how it works
this is not always the case
those are split extensions
there are many non-split extensions
there are uncountably many non-split extensions of Z and Q
yeah ik that but i'm trying to do it with semidirect products
i think you just need in addition a homomorphism from G -> semi direct product to get an iso
I think G/H needs to be in G to semidirect product
so you need something from G/H -> G I think?
oh groups of order pq
yeah all extensions are split
@coarse stag what exactly are you trying to prove
one of the discontinued challenge problems
the question I had before was already answered tho
wait what are you trying to do?
show that 0 --> Z/p ---> G ---> Z/q ---> 0 splits?
if so, this shouldnt be too hard
G has order pq, so it has an element of order q
then we have a homomorphism f: Z/q ---> G
by mapping 1 to that element
Oh yeah thatās easy then
yeah we just need to show that it is a splitting
call the map G---> Z/q g
for any x in Z/q, we need to check gf(x) = x
i.e. gf(x) -x =0
(im using additive notation because it's hard to type it out multiplicatively)
now, g is surjective, so g(y) = x for some y in G
so we need to check gf(x) - g(y) = 0
i.e. g(f(x) - y) =0
g(f(x)-y) = 0 iff f(x) - y is in Z/p (by exactness)
hmm
y cannot have order pq as we're assuming G is not abelian
so it has order p, q or 1
if it has order p, it cannot map to a nonzero element of Z/q
(assume x \neq 1)
so it must have order q
f(x) has order q
so does f(x)-y have order dividing q 
f(x) has order q?
yeah it's in the image of Z/q ---> G
oh and by homomorphism
subgroups map to subgroups
so the subgroup generated by x maps to something of order dividing order of x
the issue is that f(x) and y may not commute
if they do commute, we are done
maybe we can change y by an element z of Z/p so that f(x) and yz commute
I assume you mean x \neq 0 here btw
wait even if we show that f(x)-y has order not dividing q, how can we show f(x)-y in image of Z_p --> G?
Z/p is a p-sylow, and it is normal. So it is the only subgroup of order p
yeah this is getting a lot uglier than I thought it would be
the cleanest way is probably showing G/Z(G) cyclic implies G abelian
now im not even sure this works 
ignore what I said
we need to show that it has order dividing p 
and q
yeah this shouldnt work
so this is a dead end?
oh wait wtf
Z/p is normal in G
the image of Z/q ---> G has order q
call the image H
Z/p \cap H = 0
as the orders are coprime
Z/p \cdot H is the whole group (as it has order pq)
so G is a semidirect product
wait I dont see this?
if H and K are subgroups of a group G
then |HK| = |H||K|/|H cap K|
note that HK may not be a group
but the formula still holds
no
but this is
what is |H||K|/|H cap K|?
oh no it is correct
as Z/p is in the center
no it isnt right
as this would imply G is cyclic
but G is cyclic nvm
yeah it works
here's the whole thing
assume Z(G) \neq 1 and G not abelian
then Z(G) = Z/p wlog
choose Z/q ---> G
elements of Z/p commute with everything
so ord(xy) = pq for x in Z/p and y in the image of Z/q ---> G
x and y \neq 0 ofc
so this implies G is cyclic, which is a contradiction
| something| = order of that thing
this proof strays too far away from what young_smasher was trying to do though
i see
I'm trying to show closure for multiplying multiplicative inverses in $\mathbb{Q}\left[ \sqrt[3]{2}~\right]$. Is there something analogous to multiplying by the conjugate for things of the form $a + b\sqrt[3]{2} + c\sqrt[3]{2}^2$??
Spamakinš·
Any ideas?
š
it's due in 30 minutes and this is all I need lol
just need to show this takes the form $a' + b' \sqrt[3]{2} + c' \sqrt[3]{2}^2$ such that $a', b', c' \in \mathbb{Q}$.
Spamakinš·
I'm not sure I understand what you need
Is p is in this ring, then p inverse is too
Is this what you want to show?
It follows from the fact that Q[cbrt 2] is isomorphic to Q[x]/(x³-2) (using first isomorphism theorem) and (x³-2) is generated by an irreducible in a PID so is maximal so this is a field
@barren sierra
I needed to show that $\mathbb{Q}\left[ \sqrt[3]{2} \right]$ is a subfield of $\mathbb{R}$
Spamakinš·
if you wanna show by hand, then notice that gcd of x^3-2 and d+ex+fx^2 is 1 assuming not all d, e, f are 0.
Haven't learned that š„²
we haven't done isomorphism theorems idk why
it's like we're skating around it
so you can find polynomials (x^3-2) * p(x) + (d+ex+fx^2) * q(x) = 1, and now plug x = cbrt(2)
oh damn
so a multiplicative inverse must exist
rip
ugh I've used that exactly
on a prior HW
oops
isomorphism theorems are tomorrow š
iso thm good 
midterm not so good 

do people remember proofs for isomorphism theorems off top of head?
i have intuition for first iso
but i dont for the others as cleanly
does anyone have tips for developing better intuition for abstract algebra (e.g. group theory)? I feel like my intuition for analysis and even linear algebra is much stronger because I can visualize things. On the other hand, I still don't feel like I know what a coset or a normal subgroup is, and I actually find that my intuition for group theory is pretty misleading a lot of the time (like something that seems intuitively true to me might only be true for Abelian groups). I think it might be because with abstract algebra, everything is abstract, so there isn't some canonical example I can rely on (unlike in analysis where Euclidean space is very intuitive). I know intuition isn't something I should necessarily rely on, but I do think I am much better at analysis because I have strong intuition for concepts, whereas I don't really have this tool when I'm doing algebra.
I can probably reproduce them if I have to
The first iso is definitely just baked into my head tho
First and the 4th one are actually used the most
don't remember the last time I had to use 2nd or 3rd
3rd is used a decent bit
2nd is not very often used
I use 3rd a decent bit with modules
lol I use them so less, I can't even recall the 3rd one
Tfw numbering can be inconsistent anyway 
For isomorphism, I probably think it's universally understood which number represents which thm
you would be wrong :)
(If this is the wrong channel for this, please feel free to redirect me.) Working on proving the first statement, but I'm pretty stuck. I'm using the definition of the norm (norm-2) in which ||A|| is equal to the max. eigenvalue of A'A but I'm not sure how to use that definition to prove the statement. Is there a different definition of the norm I should be using or some sort of trick I am missing?
I have been assuming it means joining the matrices together (sorry if there's a better term for that I'm missing). The dimensions of the given matrices A_1 and A_2 would allow for it.
commutator probably?
Could be, though it looks like commutators usually have a comma in between the matrices like [A_1, A_2]
don't think commutator is defined if p,m1 and m2 are unequal so IDK what that means
maybe the joint like sticking them together
as you have mentioned
I think it's just A_2 horizontally appended to A_1, but I asked someone else in the course to confirm
Ya
well you can use contradiction for that
say $\norm{A_1} \geq 1$ then you get a vector $x \in \mbb{C}^{m_1}$ s.t. $\norm{x} = 1$ and $\norm{A_1x} \geq 1$. Now you append / pad 0's to x and make it compatible with $[A_1 A_2]$ and you'll get $\norm{[A_1 A_2]} \geq 1$ contradiction
Ryuzaki
Might also help to write out [A1 A2]' [A1 A2] as a block matrix, and then consider its norm.
Thanks! Trying the suggestion to write it out as a block matrix, also going through the proof by contradiction that Ryuzaki posted. I may post follow-up questions once I've been able to think about it a bit.
Hi, guys, i am confused about how to prove that if p is a prime, b\in Z, and p cannot divide b, then b+p^{n}Z is invertible in Z/pZ for all n>=1.
is there any hint, please?
Hi. So I have this problem here. Implication b => a is trivial, and from a I proved that in R a^1 \neq -1, but how can I get that R is a division ring. Using the Jacobson Chevalley density theorem we know that R is dense in End(S_D), wehere S is a simple, faithful left R-module and D is a division ring, but what's next?
Can we prove that S_D is actually a 1 dimensional vector space?
cuz then S_D is isomorphic to D_D and then R is dense in D, because End(D_D) is isomorphic to D
Solved


I want to be Hilbort in this channel, should I pay for that?
wikipedia says that the krull dimension of a ring can be infinite even if the ring is noetherian, how is that possible?
oh nvm it says how
Hi, I'm supposed to prove that there is a right inverse, but all I have is a left identity
Is that even legit?
And there is no right identity
all you have is ea = a?
I don't think you can get inverse just through an identity
What kind of structure are you working with?
I'm not interested in getting an inverse
But
If I was
a * a^{-1} = e
Where e is identity
I don't think just identity suffices, not every semigroup is a group
So I'm not sure how legit it would be to assume that left identity is actually the identity
Or monoid, I don't know what associative binary operation+identity is
Hmm, in certain structures left identity automatically becomes the right identity, I'm not sure about the more general case. Again, are you assuming an associative binary operation here?
Yeah I am
Let's see then
I want to find G/H where G = S_4 and H = { I, (1234), (13)(24), (1432)} = < (1234) >. I know there are a total of 24 / 4 = 6 equivalence classes but is there an efficient way to enumerate through these??
But by the definition, a * a^{-1} should be e, for a^{-1} to be a right inverse right
And here, I don't even know if e is the identity
True
I wish
You do need a both sided inverse
In order to claim that something is a right inverse right?
I think so, yes. My brain could be buffering though.
In any case you should be able to prove/find a counterexample by gliding through some examples of monoids, semigroups, etc.
But it's like, I'm asked to compute a right inverse without really confirming that I have an identity in the first place :/
I just have a candidate :/
ae=c, a(ea)=ca, aa=ca
Need right cancellation to show a left inverse is also a right inverse
but but
G = SymmetricGroup(4)
H = G.subgroup([(1,2,3,4)])
G.cosets(H)
in sage I should add 
I might do this
cause fuck doing it by hand
just gotta get Sage to work on my laptop
I'm not asked to show that
Just looking at the definition
oh wait no I can use a docker container that I have access to
You can't really get a right or left inverse without an identity
Yeah, then the problem seems ill-posed as such
@barren sierra there you go
neat
yea idk why sage won't work on my computer
probably fucked over some Path variable or something
I'll figure it out later
Hello
Hello I'm preparing prerequisite for abstract algebra
Like referring to proof book. But it's huge I don't know what's important and what's not!
I would pretty much say that anyone could start reading group theory... as it's "basic enough"
From chapter 4 what can I skip. I mean which topic should I skip
Let me click another photo
,rotate
To be frank, a lot of this can be learnt for the first time within the context of abstract algebra itself
yea
It's becoming tedious for me for preparing
i don't know anyone who took time to learn it separately
(That's how I started with more abstract math about a year ago)
yeah, just dive into it, and make sure you really undrstand the proofs
All of these. And since I don't know how this concepts are related to abstract algebra. I am not knowing what to learn and what not to learn
But you should know some basic stuff about sets, relations, functions (some elementary terminology around them and basic results)
There's a pinned "Introduction to Proofs" in #book-recommendations
I think it should suffice
How many pages the book might be?
Oh, the revised edition with typos fixed is pinned in #proofs-and-logic
Sir
Imagine going through this whole book š¤¦āāļø
One of the users here wrote it, it's just 30-35 pages I think
it's not the size of the boat, it's the motion of the ocean š
let f:A to B be a a ring homomorphism
if p is a prime ideal in B
what do we mean by the ideal f^{-1}(p)
do we have to take the ideal generated by the elements f^{-1}(x) where x is in p
is the set of such elements f^{-1}(x) where x is in p automatically an ideal
f^-1(p) = { x in A | f(x) in p }
yes but
for example its not obvious to me that if r is in A, x in p, then r f^-1(x)=f^-1(y)
for some y in p
no, you have to show: x, y in A with xy in f^-1(p) => x or y in f^-1(p)
use if f(xy) = f(x) f(y) is in p, what does that imply?
if I is an ideal in R, we need that ir is in I for any i in I and r in R
this does not give us that the ideal is closed under multiplication by R
you were asking about preimages of prime ideals
preimages of ideals are always ideals
my question is
is the set of the preimage an ideal
or do we need to take the ideal generated by the set
if x, y in A and y in f^-1(I), then f(xy) = f(x) f(y) with f(y) in I, and since I is an ideal, f(xy) in I, so that xy is in f^-1(I)
thank you
(now understand that preimages of primes ideals are prime)
hey guys
I have $V = R^3$ with basis $(e_1,e_2,e_3)$. Let $W \subset V$ be a subspace generated by vectors $v = {e_1+e_2, e_2-e_3}$. What would an element of W be?
mns
A linear combination of the vectors in your set v
0
uh I see that but

its the fact the way v = {...} that I don't understand š
vectors of the form $ae_1 + (a + b)e_2 - be_3$ for $a, b \in \mathbb{R}$
Namington
v is just a set
oh
I see but how did you came up with the form of the vectors?
do you know what a linear combination is?
Yes?
by the way, assuming $e_1, e_2, e_3$ are standard basis vectors, this means any element of $W$ has the form [\begin{pmatrix}a\a+b\-b\end{pmatrix}]for $a, b \in \mathbb{R}$
Namington
then take a linear combination of $e_1 + e_2$ and $e_2 - e_3$ and just rewrite it a bit
Namington
@simple mulch write it like this and massage the expression (i.e. distribute and refactor) to arrive at a e_1 + (a+b) e_2 - b e_3
i just wrote it like that to make it clear what the coefficient of each basis vector is, btw
there isnt, like, a canonical form for this stuff
yeah I got that part
so whats your confusion?
the set v
it's just notation
is using the letter v for a set confusing to you? are you expecting it to be a vector since its denoted with a v?
i'll admit that its a bit weird to denote a set with a lower case letter
but v is definitely a set
so v = {e_1 + e_2, e_2 - e_3} for all e_1,e_2,e_3 in V ?
ok, so every vector in V can be written as a linear combination of e_1,e_2,e_3
at hte begining of your statement
its exactly the elements of v that are confusing me
I mean, what exactly does the definition of v says?
v is just a set of vectors in V
v is a set that contains two vectors
one of those vectors is eā + eā, the other is eā - eā
W is given by taking linear combinations of the elements of v
i.e. sums of the form a(eā + eā) + b(eā - eā)
so for any a,b in R, taking a(e_1+e_2)+b(e_2-e_3) gives a vector in W
expectTheUnexpected
yes, thats what it means for a set to generate a subspace
ok, got the ah! moment, thank you guys
Is it possible to have a rng homomorphism between rings where the identities don't match?
I know if it's a ring homomorphism then this should be the case but if we have a rng homomorphism with less structure I'm not sure
imma guess no, unsubstantiatedly
What if Z/q ā> G doesnāt exist?
what about the inclusion R -> R x R? It's not a ring morphism, but should be one of rngs, right?
it always exists, G has an element of order q
is there a less cumbersome way of showing that D8 is a subgroup of S4 than showing that every element composed with every other is still in the set?
jus to be clear, D8 contains the 4-cycle (1234) and its inverse (1432), and all possible double transpositions (elements like (12)(34))
D8 acts on 4 things faithfully
This gives you a map into S4 which is injective
is that map a homomorphism?
sorry, i don't get why a map existing between them shows that D8 is a subgroup
i can tell it's a subset but i don't know how to show that it's got closure
it's a group
i have question
with rings with units
units are defined to be invertible elements right
so a*b such that ab=1
group of units is group under multiplication and there is additive group of ring too
is there any meaning to tensoring the two?
uh ig i should be more precise
can you take group of units as R module
and the additive group as a R module over itself
im only thinking about this because I know construction for field of fractions uses direct producting the ring and the multiplicative group, so im wondering if tensoring it had any meanings
Yes this is what a group action does. If you donāt know what a group action and the first isomorphism theorem is then I donāt think thereās much of a way to go about it other than just bashing shit manually
Not an R module
Itās not closed under multiplication by arbitrary elements of R
As an extreme example, 0 kills everything, and 0 is very much not a unit (unless R is 0)
You could tensor over Z but idk if this has any meaning
group of units is closed under multiplication by units though
thats what i meant
taking group of units being M
and looking at it as R module
so R x M -> R by rm
but that just acts like normal multiplication
oh lol
i see what ur saying
its R x M to M
and 0 not in it
Yeah
You canāt define the āactionā of R so to speak (the scalar multiplication) on all of M and have it land in M
So like I noted since everything is an abelian group (Z-module) you can tensor over Z
But I have no idea what this does, my gut tells me it isnāt really useful
uh idk lol
i just learned about Tor today
so im just curious about a lot of the properties, and this forces me to understand tensoring R-modules in a way
for R commutative ring
but we phrased it in terms of groups
so like
Tor(G,H) is H_1(F. tensor H) where F. is free resolution of G
Normally if you have a SES
Okay
i got it
ok lol
so
H1(X)tensor G to H1(X;G)-> Tor I forgot lol
something similar to this though
If you have a SES
then tensors preserve it
0 -> M -> N -> L -> 0
yeah
Right
its ker something
So Tor letās you extend this
So you get something like
Tor^1(M,K) -> Tor^1(N,K) -> Tor^1(L,K) -> M (x) K -> N (x) K
And like you can keep going even back further
To Tor^2
Tor^3
ā¦
yuh
Tor^2
(Or maybe Tor_2
I honestly forget if super or sub
Is the second homology
probs sub
oh
It flips
it doesnt matter for abelian groups ig
wuh
Itās about if the thing is a chain complex
isnt free resolution inly 2
not for abelian groups
in general ig
Hahaha
Yeah
Itās true for any PID
That Tor^2 and onwards is 0
Like your free resolution ends at 2
lol idk how many ways im being lied to
You arenāt being lied to
You just arenāt doing the most general form
Itās different than being lied to
Itās just not opening the door all the way
;)
ive been told its F1->F0->H where the first map is relations and second maps generators
Right
So this can end here
Because Z is a PID
But in general
You might have relations between relations
And then relations between relations between relations
ā¦
wait
So on and so on
why does it correspond to relations exsctly
like an example given Z_3 x Z_2
Take generators of H
Call these h1,ā¦,hn
So letās assume we have finitely many for ease of writing stuff down
Then the map F0-> H
Is defined by sending ei to hi
Then suppose you have some expression like
Sum aiei in the kernel
This says that Sum ai hi = 0 in H
So that expression Sum ai ei in the kernel is expression some relation among the hi
So here
i sort of see it
ok
These generate it
Then thereās basically two relations here
3h1 = 0
And 2h2 = 0
so F0 is Z2?
Then we have only two relations
one Z for each generator
Yuh
lol bruh i forgot they are free groups
So now F1 is also Z^2
So the kernel
Is generated by
3e1
And 2e2
Cuz that generates the kernel
So now F1 -> F0
and the map between F1 and F2 is for the relation ship between generators?
lol i meant F1 and F0
Sorry yeah I mistyped
So yeah
F1 -> F0
By sending d1 to 3e1
And d2 to 2e2
So this surjective onto the kernel
oh ok
Cuz kernel generated by those
so uh
And now 3e1 and 2e2 have no relations among them
Thereās no way to get
a13e1 + a22e2 = 0
Unless a1 = a2 = 0
(1,1) |-> (2,3) |-> ??
oh yeah true
But yes
This is the map
And this is injective
Thus your resolution just ends there
there are a couple of things I missed out learning on
so i dont remember exactly why but it feels intuitive, elements of Hom(Z,G) for G Abelian are unique determined by where 1 gets sent.
So in guessing similarly f in Hom(Z^n,G) are uniquely determined where (1,ā¦),(0,1,ā¦),(0,0,1,ā¦),⦠get sent?
Yes!
This is cuz Z^n is the free group
Of rank n
The reason is cuz
Linearity
why isnt this true if G not abelian though?
Because
The map might not be a group homomorphism
So we define the map by
Say f(1) = k
Then by linearity
You need f(n) = nk
o i see
Well itās like
and n(ab)=abab⦠not equal to a^nb^n
yeah



