#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 629 of 407
How? Isn’t trivial homormorohism just mapping each element to itself
i mean the homomorphism G -> H taking everythingin G to the identity element of H
trivial homomorphism maps everything to identity
identity homomorphism maps everything to itself
i believe
Oh I see. That makes sense then thanks
any ideas how to prove that φ : R-> Frac(R) is surjective?
that phi being?
and what is frac(R)
you take an element of Frac(R) and find a preimage under phi 
Why is ideal generated by content of a polynomial the ideal (1)=R
uhh dont u need R to be a field or sth lol
the field of fraction
yh R is a field
sorry forgot to mention
like c(2x) = 2 this is not whole ring
R is any commutative ring
I think
in Z[x]
frac(R)phi(b) should be right b cosets of R which should contain everything in fraction field besides elements looking like a/b
right?
frac(R)phi(b)
this is wrong lol
i forgot phi was there
it won't be cosets, it would be the ideal generated by phi(b)
idk what phi is too
yes
yeah it is
good question im not sure
like I said its not true
oh f needs to be primitive
in general rings
oh lol
lol
by definition this is true when ur poly is primitive
only true in UFDs
what is?
what is example of primitive and gcd not equal to 1
there is none
I have a theorem here saying if R is a UFD and f is primitive iff content is 1
what is definition of primitive and content
because the definition I see is primitive iff content 1 lol
A polynomial is primitive if for all principal prime ideals p, f not in pR[x]
busting out hungerford. are you talking about this?
yea ok your definition of primitive is weird
Said it isnt usually presented in this way
idk a good example
uh
Z[sqrt negative 3]
what is an example of a primitive polynomial in it
x 
fuck
So say we have $(\sqrt{-3})Z[\sqrt{-3}]$
mMahael
where () is ideal generated by
actually fuck this
ill come back to this on tuesday
Well I guess I want to find a polynomial f such that for any principal prime ideal p in Z[-3], f not in pZ[x]
Im starting to forget why I should care about this
oh
uh
pZ[x] are in general the set of polynomials with coefficients in p
So I just need a polynomial with coefficients not in every prime principal ideal of Z(sqrt-3)
how about 2x
What does it mean for conjugates to intersect in the identity subgroup
When two things intersect at the identity it just means H\cap G = {e}
(i already asked this in the help chats but they could not answer)...this is a question about fermats last theorem, can someone please explain to me how you link elliptic curves to modular forms through the use of L-functions (modularity theorem) because i dont really get it...
Hi. Can anyone give me a nice reference to study a little bit of the Heisenberg group?
You might wanna delete and post in #advanced-number-theory, this will probably just get buried here
tyy
do nonunital group rings not contain the group elements themselves (i.e. the elements generating the module)?
also if rg=rh, and r is not zero, this means that h=g right? We didn't even formally learn about group rings over rings lol, only over fields and I know modules are funky w.r.t like independence and stuff
but this is true right
or is this only true if R is unital
Hey y'all, so I am having a hard time
- processing the fundamental theorem and
- Determining how to actually find what the direct product is based on the finite group G
Moreover, what does "prime-power order mean"?
You should be able to decompose it if you know the order of each element
oh
gcd isnt defined for all integral domains
you need a ufd or a gcd domain
so thats why content is defined weirdly
Yup
Definitions of primitive vary based on who’s saying it and they aren’t always the same
For what $p$ does $f(x) = x^5 + x + 1 \in \mathbb{F}_p[x]$ have distinct roots over its splitting field?
eM
Let $L$ denote the splitting field of $f$. Before we proceed, observe that $0$ is not a root of $f$ since $f(0) = 0^5+0+1 = 1 \neq 0$ for any characteristic $p$. We will consider two cases: $p = 2$ and $p \neq 2$.
Suppose $p\neq 2$; observe that $f$ has a multiple root $\alpha$ if and only if $\alpha$ is a root of $f'$, i.e., if $\alpha$ is a multiple root, it satisfies $\alpha^5+\alpha+1 = 0$ and $5\alpha^4+1 = 0$. From this, we determine that $4\alpha = -5 = (p-5)$, which, by Fermat's little theorem, since $4$ is coprime to $p$, implies $\alpha = 4^{p-2}(p-5)$. Observe that if $p=5$, $\alpha = 0$, which cannot happen. Since $4^{p-2}(p-5)$ is non-zero in $\mathbb{F}_p$ for $p>2$ and $p\neq 5$, we have $f$ has multiple roots in $p> 2$, $p \neq 5$.
However, if I check $p = 11$ and see its splitting field, I find that $f$ does not have multiple roots, so I'm wondering what I'm doing wrong.
eM
A finite field is perfect so any extension is separable. This means if f is irreducible it will have distinct roots
So you only have to analyze what happens when p is such that this is reducible
am I being stupid or does this problem have a typo
wouldn't this mean that every galois extension is trivial lol
Trivial in what sense?
like, if K is already the splitting field for every element of L then isn't L/K just K/K?
But K ain’t
Cuz alpha_i isn’t in K
The product of this magically has coefficients in K
Take like R and then consider a third root of unity
The Galois conjugates are the other third roots of unity
Or take C over R this is easier
The degree is 2
Generated by complex conjugation right?
Let alpha = i then the alpha_i are i and -i
Then the min poly for i is (x - i)(x + i) = x^2 + 1
Perfect fields are top tier
I am learned field theory for comm alg 
Do you want me to walk you through how to prove this?
Whoops should’ve replied to the original problem
is this an appropriate place to ask a question about some (basic) field theory? I'm having a hard time with an exercise and trying to understand my instructor's hints/comments.
Yes
my instructor wrote me back and I have better grasp on the problem. Thank you though.
It reduces to $(x^2+x+1)(x^3-x^2+1)$ in any field.
eM
BUUUTTtTTTtT realizing that helped me solve another problem completely 🙏
Oh fucking rip lmao
Something something the different factors can’t share roots, so only have to see if the two factors are reducible?
I think if both are irreducible then they can’t share roots
Because like if alpha was a shared root both of these would be its min poly… but they’re different degrees lol
I was told to look at this polynomial and compare it to its formal derivative since if it had any multiple roots, its formal derivative would be zero there as well.
Yeah like
alpha is a multiple root iff alpha is a root of f and f’
this is why char 0 fields are perfect
Why did I forget this fact kekw
From earlier, I found if f had a multiple root alpha (nonzero since zero is not a root ) that’s not characteristic two, I found that, comparing f and f’, we have alpha satisfies 4*alpha = -5.
I wasn’t too sure what to do after that
What of interest can I say about two homomorphisms with the same kernel, domain, and image?
Of course, they aren't necessarily the same homomorphism, consider two automorphisms on $\bZ/p\bZ$ (for $p$ prime with $p>2$), the first of which maps $1$ to $1$ and the second of which maps $1$ to $2$.
Isaiah
Ok, so is the proof just that m_alpha splits into a product of linear factors in L, the orbit of Gal(L/K) of an algebraic element is the set of roots of m_alpha, so m_alpha is the product of (x - s(alpha)) over s in Gal(L/K)?
Is it really that simple?
The coefficients being in K just follows from K[x] embedding in L[x] I guess
This is the idea basically
The reason the coefficients are in K is cuz when you apply any g in G to the polynomial, all you’re doing is swapping around where the alpha_i are
So the polynomial is fixed by every g in G
Then as K is the fixed field of G, all the coefficients are in G
So you have to now show that the product of the (x-alpha_i) is actually of minimal degree, but this is true cuz the minimal poly of alpha necessarily has g(alpha) as a root for all g
Okay perfect
Now i have another question
Is this not just false
Sorry, take F_p(x)(y)
What is a simple extension again?
Like generated by one thing?
Anyway I think this is supposed to say algebraic
Cuz this is the primitive element theorem
Or I guess a finite extension
Perhaps “extension of finite fields” means a finite field over another finite field which is equivalent to just any finite extension of a finite field
An algebraic extension is simple iff it has finitely many intermediate extensions, and if you have a finite extension of finite fields then this is obviously true


Maybe it should live in category theory actually
Oh even easier lol
Just use the primitive element theorem 
Finite subgroups of mult group of a field are cyclic
So extension is generated by a generator of multiplicative group
How do you get from fact 1 to the conclusion?
what's fact 1?
Can anyone give me any hints?
Let $(x,y)$ and $(x',y')$ be elements of $\bZ_p \times \bZ_p$ that are not the identity. Show that if $(x',y')$ is not an element of $\langle(x,y)\rangle$, then there exist some integers $a,b$ such that $(ax + by \equiv 0\ \mathrm{mod}\ p)$ and $(ax' + by' \not\equiv0\ \mathrm{mod}\ p)$
Isaiah
p prime
p-adics or just Fp?
if it's F_p then, notice (F_p)^2 is a vector space over F_p and the condition then says that (x, y) and (x', y') are linearly independent. we can define a linear map which sends (x,y) to 0 and (x',y') to 1. but linearly forces it to look like (s, t) maps to as+bt mod p.
If by F_p do you mean cyclic group of order p, then yes
yep, F_p is used to like stress out it's a field, rather than just a group.
oh cool, TIL, that makes me think of the free group with p generators tho :P
oh lol
This linear map you're defining, what is its codomain?
F_p^2 --> F_p
so you can find a, b such that ax+by = m (mod p) and ax'+by' = n (mod p) for any choices of m and n
I'm unclear on how this map extends to the rest of F_p^2 outside of elements generated by (x,y) and (x',y'). Would you mind revealing a bit more? FWIW, I'm trying to prove that the subgroups of Z^2 of index p correspond exactly to subgroups of F_p^2 of order p, and this is one way of formulating the last thing I need for my proof.
oh i see, this is what i was using...
if V is a vector space over a field k, and B is a basis of V, then you can extend any set function B --> W to a linear map V --> W.
if you haven't seen much linear algebra, i can probably remove this language
Right, sorry, that makes perfect sense. Would you mind hinting as to how I can do this using just group theory?
I would need to prove multiple things, such that any element of F_p^2 can be written as a(x,y)+b(x',y') for some a,b, and I feel there should be a more direct way then converting the problem to linear algebra, no?
right, lemme think if i can directly do it with group theory
okie this should work
if H is a subgroup of ZxZ of index p, then since everything is abelian i can talk about (ZxZ)/H which will be a group of order p. in particular if r is an element of ZxZ then p * (r+H) = H meaning p * r is in H.
therefore subgroups of index p will contain the subgroup (pZ) x (pZ)
now look at the quotient map
(Z x Z) --> (Z x Z)/(pZ x pZ) =~ (Z/pZ) x (Z/pZ)
by correspondence theorem subgroups of right correspond to subgroups of left containing pZ x pZ. just restrict this correspondence to subgroups of ZxZ with index p.
since size of (Z/pZ)x(Z/pZ) is p^2, index p and order p are same thing.
I would need to show that subgroups of index p are exactly those containing pZ x pZ as a subgroup, right?
Wait that's not true
Wait is it?
nah, you only need index p subgroups contain pZ x pZ.
{subgroups of ZxZ containing pZxpZ} and {subgroups of (Z/pZ)^2}
now restrict the left to subgroups of ZxZ with index p.
the correspondence sends H with index p to H/(pZ x pZ)
but H has index p in Z x Z, so H/(pZ x pZ) has index p in (Z x Z)/(pZ x pZ)
so start with the correspondence
{subgroups of ZxZ containing pZxpZ} and {subgroups of (Z/pZ)^2}
and restrict to get the correspondence between index p subgroups
Wow, that's an amazing proof haha, thanks lol
My original one involved enumerating all surjective homomorphisms from Z^2 to Z/pZ, and then associating each homomorphism f to the pair (f(1,0), f(0,1)) in Z/pZ x Z/pZ, and then showing that two homomorphisms had the same kernel iff they belonged to the same proper subgroup of Z/pZ x Z/pZ
And I got stuck on what I posted lol
did you just number someone else's facts?
No


lol
lol
Anyone know if the quotient of a principal ideal is still principal?
i.e. let A be a ring, I an ideal of A and A/I the quotient ring. If J is a principal ideal in A, is J/I a principal ideal in A/I?
J/I is generated by the image of the generator of J
thanks!
Hey yall, I need to show that if G is a finite group, then the number of x in G s.t. x^3 = e is odd, and y in G s.t. y^2 =/ e is even.
If x has order 3, then so does x^2
A cute group theory problem
Show that every finite abelian group is isomorphic to a subgroup of a U-group
U-groups are U(n)={k>0 : gcd(k,n)=1 } under multiplication mod n for n>0
just reverse the arrows and apply yoneda

If ${b_1,\cdots,b_n}$ is a basis for a ($n$-dimensional) Lie algebra $\mathcal{L}$ what can we say about the basis of a subalgebra $\mathcal{L}^\prime \subset \mathcal{L}$
Kraft Macaroni
I have a feeling that the existence of certain dimensional subalgebras in some way has to restrict our basis because the lie bracket applied to the basis of the subalgebra must give elements contained within the subalgebra's basis
Can closure be thought of as a symmetry of sorts (not exactly fitting the mathematical definition)?
what kind of closure?
algebraic closure
what kind of symmetries are you looking for?
like why do you think that they would be linked
you could always study the aut group of the extension cl(k)/k for a field k
hmm, cool, by classification we get that it's a product of cyclic groups, then for each cyclic group of order k, find another prime of the form mk+1, then multiply the primes together to form n
though is there a less whack solution?
that is pretty neat tho... I saw that argument when my book proved that every finite abelian group appears as a galois group of some extension over Q.
If I have homomorphism phi: G to H, phi_m(x)=[mx], G=(Zn,+) how can I prove phi_m(G) is equal to <[m]>? It feels like it’s by definition and not sure how to show rigorously
Ye
dirichlet theorem was the key to this problem
and uh
I guess you didn't include it but
we are using full dirichlet theorem
not just existence of one prime
since $G\approx Z_{p_1^{n_1}}\oplus Z_{p_2^{n_2}}\oplus\cdots\oplus Z_{p_k^{n_k}}$
CityHunter
p_i need not be distinct
we consider primes of form $r_i=s_i p_i^{n_i}+1$ such that all $r_i$ are distinct
CityHunter
and then consider U group of product of r_i s
which is direct sum of U group of r_i
and that is $\approx Z_{s_ip_i^{n_i}}$
CityHunter
i was wondering if we could avoid using the special case of dirichlet's theorem by using something like for a > 1order of a modulo a^n - 1 is n. This solves it for cyclic groups, but didn't find a nice way to patch up things.
If the kernel of a linear map is nontrivial can that say something about linear dependence?
T: V -> W is one-to-one iff it takes linearly independent sets in V to linearly independent sets in W
Ahh I was actually looking for this result. Does anybody know of a way to think about why this might be true?
@next obsidian Hey, I found a neat way of doing those problems I wrote yesterday.
Since we know f is separable if and only if gcd(f,f’) = 1, I look at my polynomials like they are in Q and find polynomials g and h for which gf+hf’ = 1 and look at the content of g and h. Any prime factorizations will immediately tell me which F_p f is separable or not
consider $T\colon V \to \bR^n$ given by $$T(v) := (L_1(v), \dots, L_n(v)).$$ this is linear and $\ker T = \cap \ker(L_i) \subset \ker L$, so by linear algebra, there is a functional $f\colon \bR^n \to \bR$ such that $L = f \circ T$. such a functional is of the form $f = t_1e^1 + \cdots + t_ne^n$ for some scalars $t_i\in\bR$, which gives the result
TTerra
When you say "by linear algebra" what precisely are you using?
something non trivial i didn't feel like proving lol
Fair enough lmao
but since you asked ill elaborate
😋
by the first isomorphism theorem, we get a linear isomorphism $\tilde{T}\colon V/\ker T \to T(V)$ such that $\tilde{T}\circ\pi = T$. since $\ker T \subset \ker L$, we have an induced map $\tilde{L}\colon V/\ker T \to \bR$ such that $\tilde{L}\circ\pi = L$. so $\tilde{L} \circ \tilde{T}^{-1}\colon T(V) \to \bR$ is a functional. we can extend it to a linear functional $f\colon\bR^n\to\bR$, and it shouldn't be hard to see that $f\circ T = L$
TTerra
something like that
eh i probably could have included it in the original answer
didnt wanna get sidetracked though
i want to ask just a dumb definition question. I'm having a hard time figuring out exactly what ring with unity means
my book implies that it means that you have a multiplicative identity for all elements
but then other sources say that it means that there exists an inverse for some elements?
it should be the first right?
Let $p(x)\in F[x]$ be irreducible over $F$, and let $c$ be a complex root of $p(x)$. Let $h:F\to\Bbb{C}$ be a monomorphism. If $deg p(x)=n$, prove there are exactly $n$ monomorphisms of the form $F(c)\to\Bbb{C}$ which are extensions of $h$.
DootDooter
In this wording, are they meaning to assume F is a subfield of C?
I'm not exactly sure what to make of "let c be a complex root of p(x)" when it seems like F could be some really weird field.
Nvm, I'm dumb they hid the part where they said that F is a subfield of C somewhere else lmao.
I think the monomorphism does imply an embedding of fields.
So you wouldn't even need to state F is a subfield of C?
I think so, yea. Assuming it is a monomorphism of fields.
Yea it is a field monomorphism
How does that implication work? The defn they gave for a monomorphism was just that it's an injective homomorphism.
It implies that F is isomorphic to a subfield of C.
Yeah I see what you mean. So in the absence of explicitly stating F is a subfield of C you'd take c being a complex root of p(x) as something like c is isomorphic to a complex root of h(p(x))?
Hmm... I am not sure how to parse that. h does not really act on x.
Been too long since I have done Galois theory...
Sorry, h(p(x)) was just notation from my book for the polynomial you get by applying h to every coefficient of p(x).
I want to say you are right, but part of me is... unsatisfied by that answer.
No worries, we might just be taking the blurb I mentioned too far out of context lol.
I have a slight feeling that I had been tricked by this exact same thing in the past...
Which ones?
Z[x] homomorphisms are defined by where 1 goes
Z homomorphisms are determined by x^k for all k >= 0
As Z[x] is the free module with basis {1,x,x^2,…}
how do i figure the solution out for this question?
hint: $(fg)^{-1} = g^{-1}f^{-1}$
Namington
for (a), use the fact that a n-cycle $(a_1\ a_2 \ \cdots \ a_n) = (a_1\ a_n)\cdots(a_1\ a_2)$
Alphyte
this is a fact of groups as well as functions (when the domain makes sense)
i got part a wrong
it allows multiple attempts. i wasnt able to figure out what i was doing wrong
you decomposed (3472615) as (34)...(35), where it should've been (35)...(34)
same with (734)
ooooh okay i got it right when i submitted it this time
i still dont get how to figure out part b tho
im still not getting it 😭
I also needed help with these
im not even sure what even permutations are and what it means
Ah, even permutations are permutations that can be decomposed into an even number of transpositions, also known as 2-cycles.
Hope that helps @winter mesa
hi not sure if this is the right channel since i'm super new to group theory, but i have some uncertainties about some fundamental concepts. firstly, is the symmetric group S_1 considered a part of the symmetric group S_2?
Nope.
there are copies of S_n inside of S_{n+1}
So for ex take any elt of S_1 and take any elt of S_2 then compare their domains.
Their domains are not the same.
yeah thats what i was thinking when i was asking this question
i see
yeah i was unclear about that
thanks so much
what about the cyclic group on a sequence (x1, ..., xd)
vs the symmetric group on the same sequence
is the cyclic group a part of the symmetric group?
since they seem to be on the same domain
wait, what do you mean "a part of"
theres different ways to interpret this then
i see
like, there is a subgroup of S_2 that is isomorphic to S_1, so in a sense, S_1 is a part of S_2. on the other hand, you have DootDooter's argument
hm i see
lets say like we have a sequence (x1,...,xd) that is invariant to the symmetric group
then does that automatically imply it is invariant to the cyclic group?
or is this an ill defined question
probably is
in multiple ways lol
No. For starters the symmetric groups are highly non-abelian
S_2 is the only commutative symmetry group
lol
Damn! Ya got me
what do you mean invariant to the symmetric group
only non-trivial commutative symmetry group. that fixes it
The main way to relate two groups is through an isomorphism. However, since S_n is non-abelian, you can't find an isomorphism with an abelian group
Abelian-ness is an invariant of isomorphisms
well im not too sure myself cause im not even taking group theory, but our deep learning homework has suddenly transformed into advanced mathematics which the professor didnt teach lol...
so ive been trying to self teach myself group theory
sure
i just don't understand what you mean by invariant in this context
can you explain what you mean without using that word specifically
hmmm. there are abelian subgroups in S_n. i think a better comparison would be like an injective homomorphism, since i dont think in the context of the problem, we only want to worry about comparing via isomorphisms
yeah im not sure how but this is the line involving invariance in the hw if it helps: "The study and design of generic invariant function approximations starts with a good understanding of the set of invariant polynomials (since any continuous function can be well approximated by a polynomial of a sufficiently large degree)"
Subgroups, sure (powers of an element are obvious contenders)
i know i shouldnt be pasting hw problems here
the question then asks to give an example of a polynomial such that it is not invariant to either of the groups
the groups being
Also, I said isomorphism c-squared, not homomorphism.
But I cam see why you'd bring it up if I said homomorphism.
the cyclic and symmetric group
Did your professor define invariance that you know of?
oh, that sort of polynomial
the crap kind
it's gonna be like x1 + x2 + ... + xn, right? that sort of weird polynomial? or
this kind of polynomial
yeah it's one of those weirdos
i feel bad for just pasting everything from the hw lol
been trying to figure out the definitions and stuff myself for a while 😂
so i think the answer is yes
but it's vacuously true
yeah that makes sense to me
i'm not sure there's anything that's really invariant under the entire symmetric group other than dumb things like 0
i mean actually hmm
no i'm a fool, in this context we can just do like every single coefficient is the same and then it should work?
that would be an example that would be invariant to both groups correct?
yes
the question asks for a polynomial that is not invariant to either group, so in that case i could just choose any polynomial with coefficients like 1,2,3,4,... then?
in that case its a really weird question...
ok
thanks Kaisheng
and everyone else
this server is super helpful wow lol
i hope to one day be as good as you guys at math lol
Me too
if H is a subgroup of S7 and H has 24 elements in it, does that mean S7\H would have 210 elements in it?
Yea, S7 is wayyy larger than you are giving it credit :p
Here is a question for you Hazzy: If H is a subgroup, is S7\H a subgroup as well?
i would think yes but im not very smart lol
Well, do we agree that the subgroup H has the identity in it?
yeah
Okay. Does S7\H have the identity?
no its doesnt then
Correct. And one of the requirements of a subgroup is to contain the identity. So S7\H can't be a subgroup
I feel that
anyway i was expecting them to give the obvious followup clarification that oh they meant / not \ but they didn't
i'll just write what i would have written
S7/H is not a group
as H is not normal in S7, as only A7 is normal in S7
@winter mesa
I think quotient groups come a bit after ya first learn symmetric groups
Hmm, you may be right
nah i was being dumb. i was saying since S7= 7! and S4=4! i could just take out the 4 times 3 times 2 times 1 part out of the 7!
to get 7 times 6 times 5
7x6x5x4x3x2x1 - 4x3x2x1 = (7x6x5-1)x4x3x2x1
is there a quick little trick to figure out how many subgroups are in the cyclic group Z35?
theres a unique one for each divisor of 35
hey, is this the right place for homological algebra?
I kind of stuck at algebraic manipulations. Are there any resources where i can learn and master it? And is it too important for abstract algebra. Please anyone help me!
Hi, guys, is there any clue how to prove "<--" direction? i was trying to differentiate until g' in f'=(gk)'=g'k+gk'=gr=f' becomes a constant
you probably want some sort of irreducibility of g
f = x^3 and g = x^2 won't work
you also probably need char R to be zero
otherwise R = F_p[t] with f = g = x^p - t
oh, yeah, i see, if g is reducible, but it only says R is integral domain rather than UFD, so how can i say reducible g can be factorized into irreducible elements
that may not be true for general integral domains, existence of factorization is equivalent to ACCP. which in simple terms means that you can't keep on taking non-trivial factor of something and never stop.
but like this example shows it's not enough. You need char = 0. g here is irreducible that can be seen in multiple ways, one is simply by using eisenstein with the prime ideal (t). but here f' = 0 and so f itself manages to divide both f and f', but clearly f^2 doesn't divide f
Thank you!
Where did the proposition come from?
I need spoilers. How important are GL(n, Z/Q/R) groups?
it comes from my commutative algebra lecture note, just did not know how to prove this more general statement
Why?
rng* !!
What about a ring without 1 and 0, but with a star structure? A -rng?
is it true that any non-nilpotent element has a non-zero eigenvalue
Dang discord. *-rng*
or rather non zero eigenvector
non nilpotent element of?
Zero is never an eigenvector
Are there any groups whose order is equal to the cardinality of their underlying set?
What definition of group order are you using?
I guess you perhaps mean like, group generated by some set X?
Yes, that exactly.
{e}
That's the only one?
hmm probably not, like perhaps look at rationals?
Good idea.
yeah, rationals work. Just have to prove you cant finitely generate them.
I guess it means, like, some minimality in the generating set.
btw, no. $\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & -1 \ 0 & 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}$ is not nilpotent, but the only eigenvalue over $\mathbb{R}$ is 0
expectTheUnexpected
Ah thanks
Also I had another questio
what exactly is the definition of the normalizer of a lie subalgebra
our professor gave us a question on his sheet that asks us to find the normalizer of a subalgebra but he doesnt define it in the notes
set of x such that [x, y] is in subalgebra for all y in subalgebra
Sorry if this is a dumb question, but suppose that $I=\langle xy-1\rangle\subseteq\mathbb{R}[x,y]$ is an ideal. Then is $I\cap\mathbb{R}[x]=\emptyset$? But $I\cap\mathbb{R}[x]$ should be an ideal, and I don't think $\emptyset$ is an ideal, so I think I'm doing something very stupid right now.
e^(𝜋√163)∈ℤ
I see now I should have gotten $I\cap\mathbb{R}[x]={0}$.
e^(𝜋√163)∈ℤ
intersection is trivial because R[x,y] is a UFD and (xy-1) is irreducible. if it divides something in R[x], then either that is 0, or has non-trivial y-degree which isn't possible.
Yeah I was just being a dummy and forgot that 0 is in all ideals, and got the empty set by mistake.
happens lol
Is there a generalization of Borel-de Siebenthal theory to arbitrary semisimple algebraic groups?
Let R be a ring and I and ideal of R
certainly for every prime ideal P in R, the image of P under the quoitent is a prime ideal in R/I
its it true that all prime ideals of R/I arise in this way
Yes, and it's not hard
i thought weird things might happen like
(0) is a prime ideal
but I need not be prime
0 isn't a prime ideal in every ring...
only in integral domains
and if R/I is an integral domain, I is prime
ahh
To prove it, if p is a prime in R/I, consider the set of all elements of R that represent an element of p in the quotient. Try to prove this set is a prime ideal.
image of a prime need not be a prime, you need to have the prime P contain the ideal I.
else the image is (P+I)/I and P+I may not be prime in general
ah thank you that is a good thing to lookoutfor
also i think it might be just better to use the correspondence theorem to prove this, than working with elements
there is a inclusion preserving bijection between
{ideals of R containing I} and {ideals of R/I}
the correspondence is J --> J/I
in particular all ideals of R/I look like J/I for some ideal J containing I. This correspondence can be restricted to primes or maximal ideals via the third isomorphism theorem.
(R/I)/(J/I) = (R/J) and using that P is prime iff R/P is integral domain and M is maximal iff R/M is a field. (i'm assuming commuative rings)
isn't the simplest proof of this theorem looking at elements?
@hidden haven's fault. he made me cat brained.
what's the adjunction
The one you get from univ prop of quotients
Call category of pairs (R,I) Ring-2 or something
R → (R,0) and (R, I) → R/I is adjunction
morphisms of Ring-2 are ones that map ideal of domain into ideal of codomain
i do find that
the "simplest" proof tends to be the least enlightening
How can I improve after getting a zero on my graduate abstract algebra midterm?
lol are you me?
you got zero too?
same happened to me, but did pretty well on the final 
I realized you have to study or sth
I usually do better on the finals
Yea, at the moment I'm watching a youtuber who helped me pass linear algebra and so far is being great 🙂
like, algebra midterm was the only 0 ive gotten ever, but somehow its the subject I ended up studying the most 
He also done Algbera videos so that is why I'm watching him
wait, you're me now. I'm starting to like the subject
wth
I never taken algebra as an undergrad
I really do recommend Dummit & Foote book, if I liked it you will too I guess. From youtubers: Borcherds 
I'm using his book but is just not my tastes.
Borcherds videos are long. I don't have time to watch his videos
how does one take graduate algebra without having taken undergrad algebra
yeah also what do you cover in 'grad algebra'?
No idea mate. the masters program I am doesn't offer a lot of courses for masters students. It was either Algbera or stats. I couldn't take stats because prof said I never taken an undergrad version of stats.
fast pace content. in 7-8 weeks you bascially cover group theory
we just started ring theory on Wednesday
that just sounds like an undergraduate algebra class
doing group theory for two months and then doing ring theory
It obviously depends on the uni
Yea it depends on the uni.
but if this is your first time doing this stuff
Yeah first time
you will need to chew through exercises
Yup, but my undergrad is consider weak in terms of math. Alright, back to watching videos. Later
now
i do think you should
focus on doing exercises from the book
Yeah, even if you dont like D&F, at least check out the exercises, those are good
watching youtube videos on this stuff really won't get you to a graduate standard
if you know that your undegrad was maybe a bit weaker than others
you will unfortunately have to work much harder
kind of only tangentially related
but there also seems to be a lot people on this server doing a masters in pure math
like
what is the point of doing that
if u want to go into academia and continue doing pure math
then you need a phd
if u want to go into industry
then it'd be better just to do a masters in whatever field is most closely related
to that industry
maybe it just differs by country?
some people just want to learn man
this
its a lot of money and debt
lol
to just learn math out of pure interest though
eu free uni in most countries
a masters in europe is about the same as the first 2 to even 3 years of grad program in america
so do most europeans get their masters in preparation for their phd?
This is also a roadway to PhD as well. Some countries require you to do a master before you can do PhD. Also sometimes people aren't able to land a grad school right after undergrad so they have to settle for doing Masters and then applying for PhD again
its pretty much mandatory
in europe, essentially you cannot do a phd without a masters
i kinda had some questions about this too
if you apply to phd programs as a masters student
will graduate admissions committees
put u to a higher standard?
The competition is tougher
Yeah
For a masters student, having some sort of research work already under your belt is a must whereas that isn't the case with undergrad standards.
in pure math?
Yeah
okay also
what about if u apply to grad schools
after you graduate undergrad
but u dont do a masters program or anything
will grad admissions committees still put u to that s tandard?
the higher standard for masters students
In that case, the standards are lighter because you aren't expected to have publications or research work. It is strongly recommended to have those, however.
my issue right now is that
are yall talking about american schools or european/elsewhere here?
america
I am mainly talking about America
^
im worried because
im a third year undergrad rn
in america
and i feel that i d ont have sufficient background
to apply to grad schools next year
which is the cycle im supposed to apply
Why do you feel like that?
the competition for math grad school seems very tough
same. I really need to get into doing research next semester
i feel that i'll be more prepared
after finishing my fourth year and graduating
and then applying
but the catch is
im worried that
they'll put me to a higher standard
if i apply after i graduate
compared to if i apply next year
which would then make this whole plan pointless
Ok so i looked a little bit into functors and rep. theory, but i didnt quite understand that much honestly. But I think its not really necessary actually to know the background stuff, i can just think about Sym²(V) like this: So if V is a K-Vector space with basis x,y, then we can describe Sym²(V) as the K vector space with basis vectors x², 2xy, y², where the "²" is just good notation basically, so we can for example describe the veronese map in a coordinate-free way by $v_d : \mathbb{P}V \rightarrow \mathbb{P}(Sym^d)(V), [v] \mapsto [v^d]$, so for example if we consider the image of the projective line $P^1$ under the quadratic veronese map, we have $[v] \mapsto [v^2]$, so if $v = ax + by$, then $v^2 = a^2x^2 + 2abxy + b^2y^2$, so $[a,b] \mapsto [a^2, ab, b^2]$ which is precisely what the veronese map does
but if you take a gap year, the standards are a bit higher because then they are expecting you to show some work you might have done in that year.
Gewisser Fler
but why would i already have work during that year?
like
im not applying after i take the gap year
im applying during my gap year
technically toward the beginning of it
as most grad apps are due in december
So you mean instead of applying before you graduate (so you can have a position right after you graduate) you are saying you will apply at the point of graduation (so you will have a position sometime after graduation)?
no okay
so i am a third year right now
right
the cycle im supposed to apply
is by december of next year
Btw you might wanna take this to another channel
Sure
@past temple If I can get in to grad school with the sufficient background I had like very weak. I'm pretty sure you can get in too. don't give up
An ideal is maximal iff quotienting by it gives a field
Ok
i was going to say that any group that <x,2> is a subgroup of is just the entire ring right?
Yeah
it could only be a subring of <x,1>
oo
🎉
yo ive never seen this I think
There is a very low tech way of saying this
Namely, give me an ideal containing I and containing any polynomial g such that g(0) is odd
Well g-1 is in I, so your ideal contains that too
But if you contain g and g-1, you contain 1
So you're the whole ring
This is if you want to really avoid saying the word quotient
R a ring, I and ideal, the prime ideals in R/I are exactly the prime ideals in R that contain I
Consider now Z[x,y]/(xy-1)
i want to know the prime ideals of this
so i want to know the ideals in Z[x,y] that contain (xy-1)
the zero set of xy-1 is
so any idea of the form (x-a,y-1/a) should contain (xy-1)
but i cant seem to find any other prime ideals
Z[x,y]/(xy-1) = Z[x]_x
So you’re looking for prime ideals of Z[x] which don’t contain x
These look like either 0, (p) or (p,f(x)) where x is not divisible by x and f is irreducible mod p
So there should be more
In particular 0 here corresponds to (xy-1)
im a little bit confused
p is not divisible by x?
Oh whoops
I meant f(x)
Is not divisible by x
Or really just that x isn’t in (p,f(x))
Maybe this is a little stronger than f not being divisible by x
Oh
I think the ideals you’re missing are just (p,xy-1)
I mean that if you pullback 0 in Z[x]_x all the way into Z[x,y]/(xy-1) it corresponds to the prime (xy - 1)
When associating Spec Z[x,y]/(xy-1) with a closed subset of Spec Z[x,y]
ah okay yes
so in Z[x]_x
the prime ideals end up just being (p) where p in not just x
Trying to prove G=Z_n1 x Z_n2 x ... x Z_nk is cyclic iff n1,...,nk are pairwise coprime with n_i>1
so far I have proved LCM(n1,...,nk)=lg=0 but am unsure
No this is not true. I listed them out, it’s (0),(p), and (p,f(x)) where x not in (p,f(x)) and f is irreducible mod p
It’s 2-dimensional
Eh?
Which direction are you doing
teacher assigned this problem related where l=LCM(n1,n2,...,nk) and i proved lg=0 for g in G. i assume u can use it somehow
not sure which direction its for
l=LCM(n1,n2,...,nk) g in G
You’re using additive notation
yes sorry should have mentioned
So again
Which direction are you trying to do?
=> or <=
Well actually both directions basically should follow from this lemma
well i cant do either lol but i can try <=. if n_1,n_2, n_k paiwise coprime then LCM = n1n2nk
If you have (g1,…,gn) in G1 x … x Gn
Then the order of (g1,…,gn) = lcm(|g1|,…,|gn|)
From this the <= directions is very easy
Since the order of the group you’re looking at is n1…nk
And the lemma let’s you grab an element with that order
The other direction follows from the lemma but it isn’t as immediate
You should do something like if |(g1,…,gn)| = n1…nk
Then because |gi| divides ni that all ni have to be pairwise coprime
And this is possible just requires playing with some stuff
alright ill try to write something up formally and see if i can figure out other diretion
thanks
Np
If I have homomorphism phi: G to G, phi_m(x)=[mx], G=(Zn,+) how can I prove phi_m(G) is equal to <[m]>? It feels like it’s by definition and not sure how to show rigorously
Any ideas?
if i got homomorphism phi, G to H, and G abelian is ker(Phi) always abelian
yes, ker(phi) is subgroup of G, and any subgroup of an abelian group is abelian
show that phi_m(G) = <[m]>. There are two inclusions you have to show
didnt remember that ker(phi) subgroup, thanks
np
Does inclusion mean subsets? If so then phi(G) subset of <m> seems simple but by definition
Group generated by m is just m, 2m,…, km for k integer
yea, like they're both subsets of each other. So let $x \in \phi_m(G)$. Then $x = \phi_m(y) = [my]$ for some $y \in G$. So why is $[my]$ inside $\langle [m] \rangle = {k[m] : k \in \bN}$?
kxrider
Seems like u can just have y=k since y in G and G just Z_n which all positive integers
And that should work both ways right? Just reverse signs it looks like
i mean formally speaking, to show that if x \in <[m]>, then x is in phi_m(G), you have to show that there exists y in G such that phi_m(y) = x.
Appreciate it, I think I have something coherent. There’s another part where I have to prove \varphi=\phi_m for some m 0 \leq m \leq n-1 for arbitrary homomorphism \varphi G to G. Any tips on this one?
Im not sure where to start on this one. I think I might need a theorem I am not aware of, potentially a corollary of Lagrange theorem?
Or maybe I can use the definition of order to say that for all $n,m \in \bN, o(a)=n$ and $o(b)=m$ where e is an identity $e=a^n=b^m$ Hence $o(ab)=nm=e=mn=o(ba)$
CaesiumIsFake
this isn't true. Instead, think (ab)^n = ababab...ab and see what happens depending on where you place parentheses
hmm, so can I take (ab)^lcm(n,m) is equal to the identity then write out (ab)^lcm(n,m) and (ba)^lcm(n,m) to show they are the same?
where is lcm(n,m) coming from?
I was thinking about the order of a product of disjoint cycles and then applied it to the element (ab) and (ba)
actually that might be assuming commutativity.
G is an arbitrary group. I don't think it really makes sense to be thinking about cycles here. Anyway, o(ab) = lcm(o(a), o(b)) is only true when your group is abelian
Yea that makes sense, im not sure where to start then. Is there a trick using basic stuff or is there a theorem I am missing?
Quick counterexample: take D_8: If r is reflection and s is rotation by 90 degrees, then o(s) = 4, o(r) = 2, while o(rs) = 2 != lcm(o(r),o(s))
the trick is (ab)^n = ababab...abab = || a(baba...baba)b ||
Alright, thanks. I think I just need to stare at it for a while until it clicks how these statement can be put into a way that clearly shows o(ab)=o(ba)
Oh wait, do I then show that (ab)^n divides (ba)^m and (ba)^m divides (ab)^n, thus by lagrange, the order n=m implies ab has the same order as ba
well I guess I wouldnt need lagrange actually
If n = o(ab) and m = o(ba), you need to show that m divides n and n divides m. Is that what you meant?
yep, sorry for the mess im still trying to figure it out so it is ugly as of right now.
np, anyway yea that's the idea
Alrighty, thanks again
You need to have pgcd(m, n) = 1
Is it necessarily true that if $G$ is a group, $N$ an abelian normal subgroup of $G$, and $H \leq N$, that $H$ is also normal in $G$? I think this is the case, but I'm having trouble showing $H = g H g^{-1}$. Or maybe someone has an easy counterexample
Mr.Hahn-Banach
Hi! In the ring category every epimorphism has a right inverse. Is this true?
Sorry I have to reformulate my question
So I have a ring R with identity, and I consider the left regular R-module. If I take a surjective endomorphism of this module, then there exists a g R-module endomorphism such that fg = 1.
Is that true?
looks like it
the map f : R --> R is just right multiplication by a = f(1). By surjectivity, there exists b such that f(b) = ba = 1. Consider the map g which is right multiplication by b.
f(g(r)) = f(rb) = r(ba) = r
what about A4 and N = klein 4 group?
H = {(1), (12)(34)}
this isn't normal
Yea -- I realized what I wrote was not correct. So the question I have is that: let $G$ act on some set $X$, and $N$ is an abelian minimial normal subgroup of $G$. I want to show that if $N$ acts transtively on $X$ for any $x \in X$, $G = N \cdot Stab_G(x)$.
don't think that's true either
G = Z/nZ acts on n-things by cyclically permuting them. stablizer of any x is trivial.
Mr.Hahn-Banach
Sorry, I forgot an additonal condition
So by transitiveness and $N$ abelian, I see that all stablizers of $N$ are the same set
I also certainly know $N \cdot Stab_G(x) \leq G$, so all I need for equality is to show that $\lvert N \cdot Stab_G(x) \rvert = \frac{\lvert N \rvert \lvert Stab_G(x) \rvert}{\lvert N \cap Stab_G(x) \rvert} = \lvert G \rvert
Mr.Hahn-Banach
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
wait is G finite?
The issue is that I am seeing anyway to relate the order of those two -- the orbit stablizer gives $\lvert X \rvert = \frac{\lvert N \rvert}{\lvert Stab_{N}(x) \rvert}$ which doesn't seem to be giving me any helpful information
Mr.Hahn-Banach
yes $G$ finite
the most unnecessary latex
stop wasting latex, there are children in africa struggling to do subscripts
wow, i can't believe i didn't see such a trivial statement.... I think that's a good hint for me
But it seems then this does not require that $N$ is abelian
don't see why you had minimal/abelian/normal
It was a small part of a larger question, so it was unnecessary for this part
oh okie
i have given a quotient ring $$\frac{\mathbb{Z}_{3}[x]}{\langle x^2+x+1 \rangle}$$
i have to find the number of units of this
as i can see this is same as $$\frac{\mathbb{Z}_{3}[x]}{\langle (x+2)^2\rangle}$$
but here i can't apply the CRT, any hint , will be appriciated.
Your work will then easily generalize to any R[x]/(x^n)
isnt this just a field and so necessarily a PID?
yea if that prime is non-zero 😛
okk i will try
yeah lol but then it's trivial in that case
so i have to chek is this prime ideal
no no i wasnt mentioning your exercise haha
ok
your ideal isnt prime and Z_3[x] isnt a PID anyways im pretty sure
Here's a hint if you get stuck.
||Factorize (u^m - r^m), and use r^m = 0 for some large enough m||
it is PID, field [x] is always a PID, i think.
but how can i use this here?
we wanna show u-r has an inverse, that factorization pretty much tells you the inverse
let R(G) be the representation ring of a group G
if H is a subgroup of G
then there should be some map from R(G) to R(H)?
is it just restricting the representation?
same as the character ring
okie seems like i dunno this stuff
Mr.Hahn-Banach
is it okay if I ask a basic question real quick or should I wait?
okay math general moment
Just make a thread smh
already aksed lmao
I was thinking about this some more based on the hint that was given eariler, but I am having trouble finishing. Let $G$ be a (finite) group that is acting on a set $X$. Suppose $N$ is a normal subgroup of $G$ that acts transitively on $X$. Then I want to show for any $x\in X, G = N \cdot Stab_G(x)$. By Orbit Stablizer, we have
$\lvert X \rvert = \frac{\lvert N \rvert}{\lvert Stab_N(x)}$ Moreover, noting $Stab_N(x) = N \cap Stab_G(x)$, we can say
$\lvert N \cdot Stab_G(x) \rvert = \frac{\lvert N \rvert \lvert Stab_G(x) ) \rvert }{\lvert Stab_N(x) \rvert} = \lvert X \rvert \lvert Stab_G(x) \rvert$. I would need to show that is equal to $\lvert G \rvert$, but I don't see why it holds. It seems that there is some basic counting here that I am not seeing.
Also, there are some additional conditions namely that $N$ is a minimal normal subgroup and that $N$ is abelian, but it doesn't seem like those two components are necessary for showing this first part.
Mr.Hahn-Banach
if N acts transitively so does G 
so orbit stablizer on whole group says?
|X| = |G| / |Stab_G(x) |


How can i get the number of conjugacy class of group of order $5^4$ given that its center have order $5^2$ elemnets
Solution i tried : here center have 25 elemnts so definitely 25 conjugacy classes of order 1, but rest i can't understand how to find. Any hint
Algebra
right, so pick an element g outside the center. Now it's centralizer contains g as well as all of Z(G), so what can its size be?
To prove that a given map is a group representation I just have to check if the map is a group homomorphism?
So if $G = A \cdot B$ where $A$ is normal in $G$ and $B$ is just some subgroup. If $C > B$. ie $C$ contains $B$ as a proper subgroup, why is it true that $A \cap C < A$. This feels trivial, but I can't show it...
P+1?
Mr.Hahn-Banach
well centralizer of any element is a subgroup...
Hmm then it must divide p^n ,hmmmm.
hello carla 
yee p^4
but it properly contains Z(G) with size p^2
Wait, nvm it was indeed trivial lol
so for each g in Z(G) you know the conjugacy class is just {g}
for each g outside Z(G) it contains p things.
p^2 classes are singletons, this leaves us with p^4-p^2 elements.
I am confused on this
I got this one
i'm using orbit stablizer. size of conjugacy class is p^4/size of centralizer
I think i got it
p^2 singletons, and (p^4-p^2)/p with size p
Ohhhh
how you got this because acc to class eqauation $$o(G)= Z(G)+\sum_{i=1} \frac{O(G)}{C(a)}$$
Algebra
yea so each o(G)/|C(a)| = p, so that sum is p * (number of conjugacy classes with size p)
which should be o(G) - |Z(G)|
or just say directly like i did, p^4-p^2 elements arrange themselves into stacks of p, so number of stacks = p^3-p
okkk , now i got this, thankyou so much for you time


Hello 
Supposing we don't know character theory, how can we check that a group representation is irreducible? By definition it is irreducible iff the only invariant subspaces are the two trivial subspace
you'll just have to show that you can reach any non-zero vector with any other non-zero vector by some element of kG
but that's practically the definition
I have a question
:
let F be a finite field and $F^{}$ be the group of all non-zero elements over multiplication,If $F^{}$ has a subgroup of order $17$ then what is possible minimum order of $F$\
Solution i tried : order of field will be $p^n$ and we know that order of $F^{*}$ will be $p^n-1$ and will be cyclic, and subgroup of order $17$, that means \
17 will divide $p^n-1$ so $p^n = 1 mod(17)$, but after this i have no idea how to procede ,please give me a hint
Algebra
look for the smallest prime power which is 1 modulo 17
does , eulers theorem can give any idea.?
not a lot
but you can look at 2^8
8 is the order of 2 modulo 17
so you know one prime power that works
which means the answer is definitely less than that
and 2^8 is not that big
so just check all numbers which are 1 modulo 17
this is easy to see because 2^4 = 16 = -1 (17)
its just 256 lol
answer is 103
yea...?
just look at 1, 18, 35, ... , and see which one is a prime power
you don't need to go beyond 256
that like just 16ish numbers to check
please sugget me any alertanative
if you can
the answer looks pretty weird lol
yes 103 can be power of some prime?
103^1
my bad
I have a group G acting on a finite set omega. We consider the elements of omega as a basis for an |omega| dimensional vector space, and consider an |omega| dimensional representation of G. When is this action irreducible? My intuition says that this is true if omega has only one element, i.e. this is a one dimensional representation but no clue how to prove this
say k was the field look at the subspace k(w1 + ... + w_n) where omega = {w1, ..., w_n}
so if I want irreducibility then this subspace should be invariant
nah, other way... this subspace is actually invariant...
so what does irreducibility say?
G acts on omega so it pretty much permutes it's elements, but then it has to fix the element w1 + ... +w_n
So I am convinced the following statement is true even if $G$ is an infinite group. Let $G$ act on $X$, and $N$ be a normal subgroup of $G$ which acts transitively on $X$. Then I want to say $G = N Stab_x{G}$. The way to do it in the finite case, where we could exploit the orbit stablizer, no longer works here since in the finite case, we simply needed that $\lvert G \rvert = \lvert N Stab_x{G}\rvert$
Mr.Hahn-Banach
it says that this subspace is either 0 or the whole space
yep, but it's clearly not 0, so this must be the whole space. so dimension is 1
Hi, guys, what does this definition mean? i mean, i know this is just a way to define something, but for example if i know a_0, how do i find a_1? a_1 = a_0+p·c, for constant c?
yeah and you can choose that constant in 0, 1, ..., p-1 if you want
Thanks!
help
I seemed to have messed up in my algebra here (The 2abcd terms for N(zw) should cancel out for these to be equal). Can someone help me figure out where I messed up?
Fine, new question.
If you have a Ring with the property that (xy)^2=x^2y^2, does this imply R is communicative.
It does for groups, but usually we work with inverses to get that result.
just expand out (x+y)^2 and use that that equals x+y
So does it make sense to say (x+y)^2=x^2+2xy+y^2? Or does that 2 not make sense here?
Oh true
Yeah, it does not seem that way sadly
Another attempt I was going for was to say x(yx-xy)y=0. But we don't know if R is an integral domain, so we can't conclude xy=yx (provided x,y aren't 0).
On the other hand, if R is an integral domain, the only thing R can be is {0,1}
x + y = (x + y)^2 = x^2 + xy + yx + y^2 = x + xy + yx + y, so xy = -yx. this implies that xy = yx because z = -z for any z in the ring
stain's proof works
xy = -yx for all elements in the ring, so in particular if you put in x = y = z you get z^2 = -z^2 or z = -z
Ah, I see. Thank you Terra and Stain
thank stain
Also, do you mind looking at this? I am pretty sure my algebra is correct, so I think the claim is wrong
My professor's formula was wrong. N(...) was supposed to equal a^2+Db^2
if you've done a bit of work on embeddings, then the norm is defined by the product of the embeddings of your quadratic number field. The embeddings can be uniquely defined by where sqrt(-D) is sent, so the two embeddings in this case are sigma_1 : sqrt(-D) -> sqrt(-D) and sigma_2 : sqrt(-D) -> -sqrt(-D).
just curious, but isn't additive notation for groups just taking the logarithm of the multiplicative notation, just with some caveats like shoes-socks-boots-shit?
can someone explain the difference between homomorphism and isomorphism? I dont quite understand it because they both seem to have the exact same definition
my textbook really doesnt do a good job at explaining it
made me real confused
because the definition was the copy paste of isomorphism
post a picture liar!

well i mean the only thing missing was the bijection but when i first looked at it, i was confused why its even a thing since it looked like iso @chilly ocean
did you define isomorphism before homomorphism?
yeah
Nice
bruh bijection is what makes and breaks it
as i said, i didnt look at it properly
do you knnow how it feels like taking 5 courses and sleeping 4-5 hours a day does to you


ok if communicating unclearly is the point whatever then


I just have a problem with isomorphisms being defined as bijective homomorphisms
but I understand that that is a necessary thing when defining them for someone encountering them for the first time


This made me laugh way too much 



?