#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 636 of 407
A representation of G on V is a group homomorphism G -> Gl(V), and conjugation with a fixed element is an (inner) automorphism of G.
what do you mean?
Okay so a representation is a group homomorphism from G to GL(V). G acting on itself via conjugation is a group automorphism, but how does it induce a map from G to GL(V) for some V?
So, twisting "representation" by automorphisms is a general feature of the concept of "representation".
Take a group representation $\pi \colon G \to Gl(V)$. This is by definition a group homomorphism. Now take some automorphism $\phi \in \operatorname{Aut}(G)$ of $G$, which is bi definition an invertible group homomorphism from $G$ to itself. Surely then $\pi \circ \phi \colon G \to Gl(V)$ will be a group homomorphism, and thus again a representation.
expectTheUnexpected
In general, if you have some algebraic object, then you can look at its automorphisms (i.e. "bijective" self-maps that preserve all the algebraic structure in question). This is a group, denote it Aut(X). If you denote your algebraic object by X, then we would call an action of a group G on X any group homomorphism G -> Aut(X). And all of these reps can be twisted by automorphisms of G - or even of X itself (although I never see this, now that I think about it)
It’s clear now, thanks
In this proof what does that notation mean regarding the dimension in the second row, and why is that true that it equals to that inner prod?
We have [ U \cong \bigoplus_{X \text{ irreducible}} n(U)X X] and [V \cong \bigoplus{X \text{ irreducible}} n(V)X X], where the coefficients are natural numbers and e.g. $2 X$ means $X \oplus X$.
In particular, the characters are [\chi_U = \sum{X \text{ irreducible}} n(U)_X \ \chi_X] and similarly for $V$. Can you take it from here?
expectTheUnexpected
I guess we only need this for V, because U is irreducible, in fact we want to compute the sum of the row corresponding to U
or am I missing something?
in the char table only irred chars appear
In the answer, U is not assumed to be irreducible.
At least not at the beginning. Anyway, the dimension formula is true in particular for irreducible reps
But what's that space? Space of class functions of G?
No, it's the space of homomorphisms of G-representations from U to V
Don't worry about the notation $\mathbb{C}[G]$. I will rxplain it, but don't worry if you don't understand it: This is known as the group algebra of $G$, it is basically a complex vector space which has a basis ${e_g | g \in G}$ and you define on it a multiplication $e_g \cdot e_{g'} =e_{g g'}$. It turns out that modules over this algebra are exactly the same thing as representations of $G$.
expectTheUnexpected
So basically we have linear maps between vector spaces preserving the G-action?
these maps form a vector space and the dimension of this vector space can be calculated from the inner product of characters
Yes
Back to this: if pi is irred, then $\pi \circ \phi$ is irred too?
Boti
What is an irreducible representation? How does phi act on elements in G?
there are only two invariant subspaces
0 and V
phi is a faithful action
so $\pi \circ \phi$ is irred too
Boti
because pi send 0 and V to 0 and V for all g, but that composition do the same thing for another g
right?
that's what I would think too, yes. I mean, phi is just some permutation of the elements of G
yes
which book do you recommend to learn Galois theory?
milne's notes are good
full title?
thanks
Hey, I don't find any chat dedicated to group theory so I guessed this might be a good place to ask something about it, if I'm wrong just tell me. I was looking at the definition of the p-adic Heisenberg group I have to use (the one in the image). The operation defined over VxS^1 looks similar to a semidirect product but its not quite the same. Does anyone have a clue of what underlying structure there might be here?
the character \chi is just an additive character that goes from Qp to S1, it basically sends x to a exp(2\pi i x). (its not exactly that, but the idea is similar)
this is where group theory usually goes, yes
why "when g in Z(G), then |chi(g)| = d"?
Shur's lemma
Schur's lemma doesn't say chi(g) = id though, it says chi(g) = x * id, where x is some number
yes, and |chi(g)| = d iff phi(g) = x*id_V, where phi is the representation
we have that g^k = 1 for some k, since G is finite
so x must be a root of unity so |x| = 1
right, I'm dumb lele
any idea? I'm not sure this proof works :c why would d and |Z(G)| be coprime in general
if I have a question about congruence classes would that go here?
yes
so I am a bit confused on the idea of congruence classes could someone explain whats the difference between this problem and solving x^2 = 2 (mod 119)
no difference
Well, [] means the equivalence class
Because Z_119 is the group with equivalence relation that says that two numbers x,y are the same if x=y mod119
[x] means all numbers that are congruent to x mod 119
so eleements of Z_119 are [0],[1],...[118],
which are just numbers mod 119 pretty much
so if the solutions I get for this x^2 = 2 (mod 119) are x = 11, 45, 74, 108
how would i write the anwsers using [x]^2 = 2 in Z_119
would it just be x = [11] or x = [45], or x = [78] or x = [108]?
yes
so im so confused why do they even need to write Z_119 or square brackets why not just say solve x^2 = 2 (mod 119)
maybe to explain it better, Z_119 is basically all integers, but the ones that are equivalent mod 119 are treated the same. So for example 1=120, 2=121 etc This relation divides integers on 119 different sets
74 btw
So Z_119 is short for Z/119Z if you know groups.
so if I show x^2 = 2(mod 119) is that a proper way to represent [x]^2 = [2] in Z_119
you can think of [x] as the box of all numbers whose division by 119 gives x as remainder
yes, this is the same thing, just different notation pretty much
wait but if x = [11] or x = [45], or x = [74] or x = [108] then whats x?
exactly what you wrote, which means all integers congruent to lets say 11 mod 119
[11] = {119*x + 11 where x is any integer}, but we prefer to work with small representative because all the work you can do with this stuff is independent from the representatives
so whatever you work with 11 or 119*1 + 11 you get the same answer
Side question, how did you prove that you have all answers?
oh so [11] is just representing the set of all solutions for the equality x = 11 (mod 119)
that's right
question how do we solve non linear congruences manually?
because the way i got the solutions for this is I ran through python
but im unsure how youre suppoused to get this by hand?
,w factorize 119
Rip
If it’s an integral domain then there’s at most 2 squareroots
So you can just find 2 of them and you’re done
Anyway I think the way you solve it is by doing number theory shit lol
Writing a script is a good way to handle it tho
Very realistic answer to the problem
whats a integral domain?
Uh
It’s when multiplying two non-zero things is always non-zero
This fails cuz 119 isn’t prime
Like 7•17 breaks this
The point is if you know this then you’re looking for roots of x^2 - 2
Then if you have two roots alpha and beta
This turns into
(x-alpha)(x-beta)
So now if you have any root, call this one gamma
You know (gamma - alpha)(gamma - beta) = 0
wait so is the fact of me having 4 solutions wrong?
But like, now if you had an integral domain
One of gamma - alpha or gamma - beta is 0 so gamma is either alpha or beta, so there’s at most two solutions
No
It’s cuz Z_119 isn’t an integral domain
Pls read what I wrote
i havent taken number theory
Yeah me neither
so how am i suppoused to solve this manually lol
Soap, do you by any chance know chinese remainder theorem?
ye
@robust pollen
then you can compute idempotents with that
whats idempotents
im in first year for reference so if its something advance idk it
we call x an idempotent if x^2 = x
isnt that only true for x = 1?
why idempotents though? we want x^2 =2
But, anyway. Z_119 = Z_7 x Z_17, so solve x^2 = 2 modulo 7 and modulo 17. If you have a solution x^2 = 2 mod 7 and y^2 = 2 mod 17, try to solve x = m*17 + y mod 7 for m, and you will get a solution mod 119
im sorry the text is messing with me
so
do I solve the:
- x^2 = 2 (mod 7)
- x^2 = 2 (mod 17) I essentially solve this congruence set using CTR then what? @robust pollen
so these you can solve by hand, or even in your head, right?
admittedly, I didn't solve the mod 17 one in my head, too little time 😄
So, if x^2 = 2 mod 119, then because 119 = 7*17, surely x must reduce to either 3 or 4 mod 7 and 6 or 11 mod 17
so you know that (modulo 119), x is of the form [ (x = n\cdot 7 + 3 \text{ or } x = n\cdot 7 + 4) \text{ AND } (x = m\cdot 17 + 6 \text{ or } x = m\cdot 17 + 11 ]
expectTheUnexpected
where m and n are natural numbers to be determined
how do i determine them?
So if you "multiply out the AND", you get four possibilities. Let's look at $x = n \cdot 7 + 3 = m \cdot 17 + 6$. Reduce this again modulo 7, to obtain $3 = m \cdot 17 + 6 (mod 7) = m \cdot 3 + 6 (mod7)$, where the last equality is of course because $17 = 2\cdot 7 + 3$. Solving for $m$, you find $m \cdot 3 = -3$ mod 7, which is easily seen to have only the solution $m = 6$.
Therefore, $x = m \cdot 17 + 6 = 6 \cdot 18 = 108$
expectTheUnexpected
im so confused what you did
magic
But soap, try it yourself for, let's say $x = n \cdot 7 + 4 = m \cdot 17 + 11$. Just try to replicate my steps
expectTheUnexpected
how are you getting x = 7n + 4 = 17m + 11
and im very confused on why youre doing this
What is the Chinese Remainder Theorem for you?
hm
one sec let me try to understand this
because youre doing something similar to whats in my notes
but its not making sense
@robust pollenive been trying for 30 minutes trying to understand what you did but im lost
x is of the form $[ (x = n\cdot 7 + 3 \text{ or } x = n\cdot 7 + 4) \text{ AND } (x = m\cdot 17 + 6 \text{ or } x = m\cdot 17 + 11 ]$
what do we do from here
Soap
Do you understand that this ("x is of the form...") follows from assuming that x^2 = 2 mod 119?
@jagged field
not really
Ok. So, assume that x is a solution to x^2 = 2 mod 119. Since 119 = 7 * 17, we must also have that x satisfies (1) x^2 = 2 mod 7 and (2) x^2 = 2 mod 17. Do you agree?
ye
Therefore, then, modulo 7 we must have x = 3 or 4, and module 17 : x = 6 or 11
okay
So we know on the one hand that (everything modulo 119 now): x = 7 n + 3 or x = 7 n + 4, since modulo 7 these reduce to 3 and 4, but x also has to be of the form x = 17 m + 6 or x = 17 m + 11, since these reduce to 6 and 11 modulo 17
Here n and m are just some natural numbers that we want to determine
Alright?
ye
In other words, x is of the form $[ (x = n\cdot 7 + 3 \text{ OR } x = n\cdot 7 + 4) \text{ AND } (x = m\cdot 17 + 6 \text{ OR } x = m\cdot 17 + 11 ]$
expectTheUnexpected
This is equivalent to:
x is of the form
\begin{align}
& (x = n\cdot 7 + 3 \text{ AND } x = m\cdot 17 + 6) \
& \text{OR } (x = n\cdot 7 + 3 \text{ AND } x = m\cdot 17 + 11)\
& \text{OR } (x = n\cdot 7 + 4 \text{ AND } x = m\cdot 17 + 6) \
& \text{OR }( x = n\cdot 7 + 4 \text{ AND } x = m\cdot 17 + 11 )
\end{align}
expectTheUnexpected
still agree?
ye
so, in other words:
x is of the form
\begin{align}
& x = n\cdot 7 + 3 = m\cdot 17 + 6 \
&\text{OR } x = n\cdot 7 + 3 = m\cdot 17 + 11 \
& \text{OR } = n\cdot 7 + 4 = m\cdot 17 + 6 \
& \text{OR }x = n\cdot 7 + 4 = m\cdot 17 + 11
\end{align}
expectTheUnexpected
ye but how do i do this
Assume for example that $x$ is equal to
\begin{align}
n\cdot 7 + 3 = m\cdot 17 + 11,
\end{align}
this is the second line.
We can look at this equation modulo 7, right? Then what do we get?
expectTheUnexpected
wdym "look at this equation modulo 7,"
like, that's an equation mod 119. If it's true, then it must also be true if we reduce mod 7
Soap
@robust pollen?
Well, that's the equation from above. I didn't write mod 119, because somewhere I wrote "(from now on mod 119)" or something like that, that was a bit sloppy, sorry 🙈
okay so what do we do from here?
But now, you see, it's mod 119, so because 119 = 7 * 17, it must be true mod 7.
Write the euqation out modulo 7
$(n\cdot 7 + 3 = m\cdot 17 + 11) \ (mod 7)$
Soap
you can do better than that. What is 7 mod 7, 17 mod 7, and 11 mod 7?
0 + 3 = 3m + 4 ?
Sure. Solve for m
and -1/3 = 2
Remember, you're doing everything mod 7. While division is allowed, it is not the usual division.
2 * 3 = 6 = -1 mod 7, so -1/3 = 2 (modulo 7 of course)
No, you don't have to solve for n, because actually you only wanted to find out what x is, i.e. x solving x^2 = 2 modulo 119.
so what do we do from here after we get m = -1/3?
And actually, you have only shown that m = 2 mod 7, so modulo 119 you would have something like $m = 7l + 2$, but that's ok:
[ 17 m + 11 = 17 \cdot 7 \cdot l + 17 \cdot 2 + 11 = 17 \cdot 2 + 11 = 45\text{ mod 119} ]
Don't write m = -1/3, write it as m = 2.
expectTheUnexpected
So what this shows is: \begin{align*} x^2 = &2 \mod 119 \text{ and } x = 3 \mod 7 \text{ and } x = 11 \mod 17 \ &\implies x = 45 \mod 119 \end{align*}
expectTheUnexpected
but thats only one solution?
yesh
remember this
there are four equations, we just solved one of them. You will get 108 from the first line, 74 from the third, and 11 from the last
if you proceed as I have just tried to explain it
But, you also just hand in
[ x for x in range(120) if x*x % 119 == 2 ]
i guess 
thats what i did.. LOL
but i wanna learn how to do it manually
so for the first equation im getting m = - 1? @robust pollen
how are you getting this ?
What?
where is the 6 coming from?
oh wait
nvm
for the fourth equation im getting m = 0? @robust pollen
cause i did 0 + 4 = 4 + 3m
m = 0
11
oh
OHHH
okok
now i get it
wait question
how would you solve x^2 = 2 (mod 17) @robust pollen
to get x = 6, x = 11
just do it. You only have to compute it for 5, ..., 16 at most, that's 12 small computations
What’s the idea behind showing the Galois group of a finite compositum of fields over a base field F with pairwise intersection being the base field is the Cartesian product of the Galois group of each field in the compositum over the base field?
I thought First Isomorphism Theorem of groups would do it but I’m having a hard time arguing surjection—feel like a degree argument should do it but I’m trying to wrap the journey to that conclusion with a missing key detail 🤔
Gonna sit back and think about this a bit more
I think I got it now
Forgot isomorphisms imply equal dimension
Follow their hint.
det
how nice would it be if this was just 3 + 2 + 1 - 6
Does anyone have a hint for showing that if the blue, green and red sequences are exact, and the composition \eta \circ \pi = 0, then the yellow sequence is exact as well
these are just abelian groups with the arrows being homomorphims
Holy shit
I think this is like a general homological lemma
I’ve seen this diagram before
yeah its called the braid lemma
Have you been able to prove any amount of exactness?
Let me try to see if I can show exactness at the first place
And if I can I’ll show you what I did
And you can maybe try to emulate it for the other spots
sure, thanks
also the braid lemma given in nlab is slightly different, and requires that the yellow chain is a chain complex

bruh there's the whole greek alphabet up there
pretty much yeah
My advice: if at some point you have to assume this, do it. Just try to assume more at first, then see if you can remove the extra assumption
Anyway I’m gonna try to figure this out
Oh also
This commutes right…
Everything?
yeahyeah
of course
for context this is part of an algtop course and we havent had any other diagram chasing exercises
so im not very familiar with those arguments
So first part
I can’t prove the exactness, I think maybe you have to start on the other side but
Commutativity implies the yellow is a chain complex
For beta•eta note this is he same as kappa•sigma•rho = 0•rho
For lamda•beta this is phi•tau•theta = phi•0
@cursive temple okay I got exactness at C
So take a c in ker lambda, then c in ker gamma (I am gonna say “so … a lot, it follows by commutativity or some amount of exactness”)
So pull back c to a g in G so that kappa(g) = c.
Note that I can fuck with g by anything in ker kappa, meaning if I replace g with g + a with a in ker kappa, then kappa(g + a) still maps to c
We will exploit this
Sorry
So the idea here is, if g is in ker tau we know g is in im theta so I can pullback g along theta, so find some b in B with theta(b) = g
Then, beta(b) = kappa(theta(b)) = kappa(g) = c
So we’ve shown c is in im beta like we want!
The thing is g might not be in ker theta, but I can fuck with g up to something in ker kappa so that it becomes inside ker theta
Let me explain, look at tau(g), then this is in ker phi
So we can grab a j in J with w(j) = tau(g)
Now sigma(j) in ker kappa, so I can fuck with g by sigma(j), namely I can replace g with g - sigma(j)
Now tau(g - sigma(j)) = tau(g) - tau(sigma(j)) = tau(g) - w(j) = tau(g) - tau(g) = 0
So g - sigma(j) is in ker tau like we wanted!
I think next you want to prove exactness at B, then at F
I think exactness at F will be the hardest, maybe it uses exactness at B
The idea is you want to start moving elements until you can find a way to pull it back along a map by noting it’s in the kernel of some map = image of a different map
This lets you “go backwards” through a map and is well-defined up to an element in the kernel of the map you went backwards through
This is good! Because as we saw in the proof I outlined you can sort of mess with the element you got by pulling back up to something in the kernel, and this is good, in our case it let us basically assume g was in ker tau, which we needed to pull it back along theta
Exactness at B isn’t too bad
Take b in ker beta
Theta(b) is in ker kappa, so we can write theta(b) = sigma(j)
Note that w(j) = tau(theta(b)) = 0 so j in ker w, so we can write j = rho(f)
Now, theta(eta(f)) = sigma(rho(f)) = sigma(j) = theta(b)
So eta(f) = b up to something in ker theta, cuz they map to the same thing under theta
b = eta(f) + x for x in ker theta
Now write x = alpha(a), then look at f + epsilon(a)
Note that eta(f + epsilon(a)) = eta(f) + eta(epsilon(a)) = eta(f) + alpha(a) = eta(f) + x = b
So b is in im eta
I don’t know how to do exactness at F
And I have to do other stuff (like sleep lol)
I can get an x in ker eta as the image of an i in I up to something in ker rho
I however haven’t used the full strength of x being in ker eta tho
And I don’t really see how to
I got exactness at F, I think 🥳
expectTheUnexpected
expectTheUnexpected
expectTheUnexpected
expectTheUnexpected
urH
sorry if this question is too simple
i'm still kinda confused by the proof of lagrange's theorem
in the proof, they said that they would have a subgroup H of a group G. Then, the cosets of H all have the same size (which i do understand), and those cosets form a partition of G (why? i don't understand why they would form a partition?)
so can anybody help me?
sorry?
i didn't get that
(i just got started on abs algebra a few days ago, so forgive me)
Well have you learned about the equivalence relations?
uh
no
How do you define two cosets are the same?
like
a coset is basically multiplying (or doing whatever other operation) to all members of a set with a value not in that set
i would just prove that there wouldn't be any duplicates
Can an element be in two different cosets?
Ok so like the crucial observation is every element in G is in one of the cosets
don't think so
that's the question i was asking
(i didn't know why that was true)
(i still don't)
Each g is in a coset
right
Now suppose g is in 2 cosets aH and bH
i mean
i'm not trying to prove that 2 cosets can't overlap
(can't have anything in their intersection)
i'm trying to prove that there are no elements that are in G but aren't in any cosets
Yeah so you take this
And prove that aH = bH
if g is in G, then it's in the coset gH
so then
after that
do i just prove that cosets do not intersect?
(and after that i'm done?)
You said you're not trying to prove it's a partition??
i mean
after that?
You can do it in any order 
Yeah, I mean, Set^op = Set, so, they might as well be called sets
Wait. Is that even true?
Bope. Forget it, that was a brainart.
sure, I was just making a joke which requires the highest of intellects!
(Recall also my dumb mistake)
" COSET was used in 1910 by G. A. Miller in Quarterly Journal of Mathematics. [OED] "
as per this (very good) page: https://mathshistory.st-andrews.ac.uk/Miller/mathword/
Do you have any clue how to prove this statement?
If $g \in G$ has prime order p and $\chi(g) = 0$ for an irreducible character $\chi$, then p divides $\chi(1)$.
Boti
In French we say left and right classes
what am I supposed to do with the eigenvalues?
those are p-th roots of unity, right?
yes
and the sum of the eigenvalues are 0 since $\chi(g) = 0$
Boti
yes
it's some linear algebra shit, that the order of a matrix divides the dimension?
I don't really see why would p divide chi(1) 
I know some Galois theory
then think about Q(exp(2ipi/p))
alg number theory is next semester
you want to figure out that the minimal polynomial of exp(2ipi/p) has degree p-1
and that it is 1+x+x²+...+x^(p-1)
so that if an integer combination of pth roots of unity is 0
then that integer combination must me a multiple of 1+x+x+...+x^(p-1)
why?
because if you have an integer combination of pth roots that is 0
it means you have a polynomial of degree <= p-1 with integer coefficient that vanishes at exp(2ipi/p)
and if you know the minimal polynomial has degree p-1
then it must be an integer multiple of it
So we have $\epsilon = e^{\frac {2i\pi} {p}}$ and we know that $\sum_{i=0}^{p-1} \epsilon^i$ = 0, right?
from 0 to p-1 yes
usually it's called zeta_p
1+x+x²+...+x^(p-1) is the minimal polynomial of exp(2ipi/p) only when p is prime
use brackets { }
Boti
because we can write $1 + x + x^2 + ... + x^{p - 1}$ as $(x - \epsilon^1)...(x - \epsilon^{p-1})$
the thing on the left has degree p-1 and the thing on the right has degree p 
Boti
that equality is also true for nonprime p
so I'm not sure what the "because" is referring to
yes, this is the p-th cyclotomic polynomial, which is indeed the minimal polynomial of the p-th roots of unity
yes
and why do I get from here that p divides chi(1)?
because chi(1) would then be P(1)
but wait, if this is true then the dimension of the representation is exactly p
hmm then I'm not sure why is P(1) exactly the dimension
P is an integer*the minimal polynomial of exp(2ipi/p), right?
P is the polynomial whose coefficients of x^k tell you how many times rho(g) has an eigenvalue exp(2ikpi/p)
if p=5 and rho(g) has the eigenvalue 1 two times and exp(4pi/5) 3 times, P would be 2 + 3x²
the trace of rho(g) is P(exp(2ipi/p))
and the dimension of the space is P(1)
because that just counts the number of eigenvalues
if the trace is 0 then P must be an integer multiple of the minimal polynomial, and so P(1) must be a multiple of p
Now I see it. Thanks for your help!
i am having a problem with this definition, what does Φ|R = ϕ mean?
in the last line
it is bosch "algebra from the viewpoint of Galois theory" and this is the universal property of polynomial rings
How is R[M] defined here? I'm asking because it's not clear what X is.
But probably there is a canonical injection R -> R[M], so you can view R as a subring of R[M], and Phi|R simply means restriction of Phi to that subring
I’m confused about the terminology of the going up and going down theorems
A includes into B
If q is an ideal
We can contact this to an ideal of A
Is this called
Going up
Or going down
wdym by that and q is ideal of which ring
Maybe check out the wikipedia page it should clear it out I guess
@next obsidian @robust pollen thanks a lot for the help, i just went through the proofs, and probably wouldnt have made any progress without your help
Idk any character theory but I found this pretty interesting https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=wSWBk0LFvPc
The current understanding of symmetry in mathematics and physics is through group theory. However in the last 120 years, a new strand of thought has gradually appeared in a number of disciplines, from as varied as character theory, strongly regular graphs, von Neumann algebras, Hecke algebras, Lie group representation theory, cyclotomy and confo...
Neither
Going up is about saying if you have a prime p lying over q, and then a prime q’ contained in / containing q if you can find a prime p’ lying over q’
It’s called “going up” or “going down” because you’re like going up a chain of primes or going down a chain, and then being able to find a prime lying other still
Yes but
Which direction is lying over
A \subset B
p in A, q in B
Does p possibly lie over q, or does q possibly lie over p
I just don’t know where A is “above” or “below” B
B is bigger so it’s above
Like with field extensions you usually draw the bigger one above
Hello!
Do we know that if G is not cyclic that G/H is not cyclic?
or is that not necessarily true
(G being a group, and H being a subgroup generated by a subset)
What's a nice example of two non-isomorphic finite groups with the same representation theory?
By this I mean that the group algebras are Morita equivalent
Or in other words, the categories of representations are equivalent. Whatever terminology you like better
Would you say that you want a simple intuitive example of this?
That would be preferred, but I'd like to just see an example tbh
also
wtf
is up with your name
or your picture
wat
wat
moldicats

i laughed out loud
wait what
idgi
😭
ok, i know now that a sufficient condition is "equal number of conjugacy classes". But moldi plox, what did you mean by simple intuitive? Pls assplain
Hello. Can you give a simple intuitive example of a subspace whose (covering) topological dimension is greater than that of the space containing it?
Can someone does is give me exampul?
Oh, lmao
I remember that question lel
now that is indeed very funny huehuehuehue
But, anyway. Canonical example is complex reps of Z_2 x Z_2 vs Z_4.
Is a product of 2 polynomial rings a polynomial ring too?
Sure, it’s a polynomial ring in 0 variables
Maybe try to be a bit more specific?
Do you mean to ask if like
R[x] x S[y] = (R x S)[x] or something?
Or is there some ring A abstractly such that the product is isomorphic to A[x]?
Either way, I don’t know the answer
If you are taking polynomial rings over the same ring, then no
Why’s that?
I was hoping to cheese it with some dimension theory type crap, but it didn’t work
Product not integral domain lol
So there's a counterexample, idk if that will be a theorem
which ones have you worked out so far
ik 3 is false
ok so for 1, just realise that finite implies finitely many ideals
so 1 is false
yes
2 implies 4 
so if you know that exactly one of these is supposed to be true
you know which one it has to be
lol that's one way of solving it

hmm so like if $R$ is not finite then for each element $r \in R$ we can get the ideal $\langle r \rangle_R$
Ryu?
These need not be distinct
yeah that's what I was thinking
2 is false by taking a field lul
Im trying to solve 33. I was just wondering if I assume equality as the relation when checking the properties of the equivalence relation or is it any relation R where n,m have the same number of digits base ten?
They are defining R by saying that 2 numbers are related exactly when they have the same number of digits
yeah lol
well I guess im confused about the transitive property since if I given number representations for n,m in Z+ clearly reflexivity, symmetry will hold, but how do I compare with a third element from the set?
if m and n have the same number of digits, n and k have the same number of digits, do m and k have the same number of digits?
I think you are misinterpreting transitivity
All you have to check is this
oh, right. Now I get it. Guess I was just accustomed to seeing some mathematical operand associated with the relation
And for the partition this will be a subset of Z^+ where elements have the same number of digits base ten?
cool, thanks
where are these from
Is it supposed to be H-stable, rather than H-invariant?
Aren't those the same thing?
Oh right. They are defined to be the same in some areas.
For me, invariance requires say hw=w, whereas stable needs only hw in W.
makes sense
what do you need help with here, and what did you try
It is always so suss when you get weirdly cropped documents
lol
what have you tried
nothing really
a place to start is to consider a bijection f: X -> Y and to try and come up with a nice bijection Sym X -> Sym Y
now you can try things
im having a hard time coming up with any function that maps Sym X -> Sym Y
if g: X -> X then how can you use f to get a new function Y -> Y from g?
try composing with f and/or its inverse
f composed with g maps X to Y, so maybe (k composed with f) such that k is in Sym(Y)
that maps Y to Y
Let g:X -> X and element of Sym(X), then fgf^-1: Y->Y is an element of Sym(Y)
or you can just give the answer. that works
there you go
so you've mapped g in Sym X to fgf^{-1} in Sym Y. all you need to do is check whether this is a group homomorphism
Yeah i knew what to do, it was just defining the homomorphism
I did this exercise where a unital ring of order p^2 is commutative. I used the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups to show that it's isomorphic to either Z/p^2 or (Z/p)^2 as groups where one of the cyclic subgroups is generated by 1, and then from there show that the multiplicative structure passed (More or less). I fail to see where this proof fails if R is not unital, although i've seej examples of noncummitative rngs of order p^2
p prime.of course
I am really suspicious of how you can associate the multiplicative structure to the additive one
Granted this was years ago but I tried to do something like this and it went terribly
I feel like that’s where something breaks
i haven't seen rngs at all, but for rings, i remember you really really need the ring to be unital. that's like the first thing,
we get the characteristic map Z --> R
if the kernel is p^2Z then done! else the kernel is pZ and R is a Fp algebra
we'll get Fp[x] --> R surjective and this would show R is either Fp[x]/(x^2) or Fp * Fp or F_{p^2}
(depending on whether the quadratic is a square, factors or is irred)
Writing out my process again I realised where I need the unit
I did it in a bit more of a basic way
Maybe I went wrong somewhere there, but I basically took the subgroup generated by 1, either it's R and we're done or it's Z/p, quotient out and find an element a not in it, it generates a subgroup of order P, so every element in R is of the form na+k1 for n,k natural
Oh sure
It's in the step of multiplying that you need 1 and a to commute
Otherwise it's not necessarily true
So yea in associating the multiplicative structure
Cuz otherwise the cross terms won't commute obviously
This pset is technically before we've learned ideals and isomorphism thms, but that's p slick
How is the map Fp[x]->R given?
Mapping 1 to 1 and x to the other generator and the rest to 0 and extending by linearity?
Wait this wouldn't work
if the kernel is pZ, then we get the quotient map Fp = Z/pZ --> R
now pick any alpha outside the image of Fp, so for a, b in Fp; a + b*alpha are different things, this shows how all of R looks like. In particular alpha^2 = a + b*alpha for some a, b, which shows minimal polynomial of alpha is quadratic.
the map Fp[x] --> R is defined by extending Fp --> R by sending x --> alpha
I see
Ayo, is this channel the right one to talk about Geometric Group Theory ?
yep, that's one of the first ways you show irreducibility. Just need to make sure that the leading coefficient doesn't lie in that prime.
it's like a very basic result, so not sure if it has a name.
maybe try to prove it yourself, it's a nice exercise
perhaps no one here is familiarized with the most intricate things of the subject, but my question is not that difficult, I just want to know an overall description of the Reidemeister-Schreier process for rewriting group presentations, just a synopsis of the thing.
polynomials probably behave very badly over non-integral domains, so better to only look at integral domains.
det
@ember field this is the precise statement, which i just made up right now. hopefully it's correct.
the proof should follow from the very first definitions
i sleep now, bai bai 
hey, I've been struggling on this for a while now
The proof is trivial when R is commutative, but I don't even know if this holds true when it is noncommutative
I tried to come up with a counterexample in M_n(R) but had no luck
I found a solution online, if anyone's curious. Just take 1=i+j, then i and j must commute. But then, raise (i+j) to a sufficient power so it will be in I^m+J^n
I'm trying to make sense of the proof for this corollary from Fraleigh and I'm not sure I understand the reasoning. Here is the corollary along with somebody else's proof:
So, in Fraleigh the proof is like this:
Take tau_i an isomorphism of E onto a subfield of the closure of F (there are {E:F} such tau_i's). By thm 49.7 there are {K:E} extensions of tau_i to an isomorphism of K onto a subfield of the closure of F.
(So the result follows by counting rules basically)
Here is thm 49.7
So for Fraleigh's proof, I don't understand why it does anything but give us an upper bound on the number of extensions of tau_i that he's talking about.
In that other guys proof, I'm not exactly sure why the u he gives actually works.
Doesn't Lagrange interpolation work in any field?
I thought it did.
I'm not sure what ur P_3 notation stands for tho.
But it doesn't seem like it would hurt to try Lagrange interpolation?
neither do I tbh
prob some weird notation of my prof
or it has to do with Horner's method
Substration in a field e.g. F7 works like
0-5= 5?
Isn't F_7 just isomorphic to Z_7?
yes
ah
was it 0-5 = 7-5 = 2?
No problem!
For this proof here, I think my main confusion is that I don't see why u is an isomorphism. I see that it is 1-1 and fixes F.
But when I start grabbing up elts of K and working thru cases to show u(a+b)=u(a)+u(b) it doesn't seem to work out for me. 
Describe all groups G that contain no proper subgroup. For this I had the idea that if G had more than two elements then we could pick some x that isn't the identity and then <x> would be a proper subgroup so we only have to look at the case when |G|=1,2, but this doesn't seem right. It should be something similar though since this is in the cyclic groups chapter. Could i have a hint?
Take any group G with more than 1 elt, can u think of a proper subgroup G contains?
You don't really need cyclic stuff, every group by definition has a specific single elt you can use to construct a certain subgroup of that group.
just to confirm, you're not talking about {1} right? i don't think this book considers {1} a proper subgroup
Hmm
That was exactly what I was thinking of. Why would that not be a proper subgroup?
yeah artin doesn't allow it
Weird
lol
I guess with picking random elts and considering <x> you might need to worry about when x generates G right?
For ex Z_2?
no
and then i'm good with my argument?
Maybe Artin is being dumb and saying "proper" when he means like a proper subset rather than proper subgroup lol?
nah
the answer is still quite elegant
for non-trivial subgroups rather than proper subgroups
I feel like you're most of the way there. You need to worry about when an element x generates G, like you said.
wait don't Z4 and Z2 have the same cardinality
?
No, Z4 has 4 elements, Z2 has 2
oh artin calls Zn the subgroup of (Z, +) generated by n bruh
Wait, what?
lol
Lmao
oh that makes sense
no one cares about Za because Za is always basically just Z
it's all about Z_n
is that {0, 1, ..., n-1}?
yes
ok so just playing around it seems like any integer <n which is coprime to n also generates Zn. so we just pick x^k with gcd(k,n) not 1, and then < x^k > is a proper subgroup? and for groups that aren't cyclic we can pick any element?
that's correct
so
when is there no x coprime to n
wait no
when is there no x not coprime to n
very nice
so yeah groups of prime order have no non-trivial subgroups
and only those
No. For instance, the reals
No, but the converse is true
for the non abelian case, i assume i'm supposed to come up with some matrices as examples but i don't see how
I think you can grab an example by nothing that
1 1
0 1
Has infinite order
I’m pretty sure you’re able to write this as the product of two finite order matrices
I think…
Or something along these lines
I just realized for this question I was asking, I should probably mention, the notation {K:F} refers to the number of isomorphisms from K to a subfield of the closure of F that fix F.
Oof I see it now. I was missing the fact that if F is a subfield of E that any isomorphism on F has the same amount of extensions to an isomorphism on E as any other isomorphism on F, which was the whole point of that theorem.
I didn't know this was called the separability degree
Then I stumbled on the proof of it in Lang.
Take free group on 2 letters x and y, quotient by relations x² and y², then x and y have finite order but xy doesn't
This isn't a complete proof and you'll have to realise this quotient group properly, because it's not immediate that this quotient isn't trivial for example
But this gives you a starting point, and now you know you to create the group you are looking for
This should be free product of Z/2Z with itself, if you are familiar with free products
every algebraically closed field is infinite?
goob proof strategy
you can give a very simple proof of that btw. Repeat Euclid's proof to get that k[x] has infinitely many monic irreducibles. if k was algebraically closed, each of these have roots in k, but no two can be same because of irreducibility. this shows k is infinite
idk what an irreducible or Euclid's proof is, my aa is lacking lol. but i think arguing along the lines of TTerra, if you have a finite field, you just want to produce a polynomial without a root in the field
so it seems like multiplying (x - r) for all r in the field, then maybe adding 1 works
because the polynomial always evaluates to 1 no matter what the input, and has no root in the field
ah that's pretty neat
thanks
whenever i see finite fields, i automatically assume we're using the classification theorem xD
that joke went over my head lmao i need to get out of the aa channel
you can say a lot more about a finite fields lol, and you know exactly how many irreducibles of each degree there will be
also irreducible = cannot be reduced further 😶

and euclid's proof is the same thing lol, multiply finitely many primes and add 1 to get a contradiction
yep
assuming prime is just, only factors of the polynomial are itself and 1
why are vector fields called fields 
yea, upto units, we don't care about trivial factorizations... like 1/2 * (2f)
cool
pretty pictures look like grass fields and i also ignorantly blame physicists
vector fields make a little more sense than algebraic fields 
lol
if you look a piece of ground with fencing, then the fence forms a ring and the ground inside is a field 
that's the closest i ever got with the names rings and fields
rings are called that cuz of distrivutive proprty is like a ring marrying + and * together 👰♀️ 👰
Hm, in Danish, Dutch, French, German, Spanish, Turkish ... fields are actually called (the equivalent of) "bodies". weird

a nice read about that: https://mathshistory.st-andrews.ac.uk/Miller/mathword/f/
and in Portuguese too
but we still call vector fields, well, (the portuguese equivalent of) "vector fields".
true, im portuguese and confirm that anøk is not lying
hey I've done 80 pages of Gallian but still feel insecure in my Group theory knowledge
how do I know whether I got it or not?
When you can prove Feit-Thompson with a hangover
I'm sure I'd be terrified if I knew what you were talking about too, but really, how do I know I've got the theory?
More practice?
I've already done 60+ questions...
When you can answer random questions about groups on a certain Mathematics Discord server.
Well, look at exercises, and if you immediately have an idea how to go about it, that's good. If not, train.
what's the normaliser of a normal subgroup
I've done 70 pages of Gallian, at least have the facade of mercy.
ok so what exactly have you done
Prereqs, definition of a group, uniqueness of inverses and identity, and center of a group and centralizers of elements, cyclic groups, fundamental theorem of cyclic groups and some other things in between.
I can't remember all of them right now.
quotients?
oh yeah, those too.
oof
proper subgroups, subgroup tests
Anything you have learnt so far that made you go, "wow, this is neat. They fit together so well"?
so you definitely want at least to get a grasp on normal subgroups and quotients and stuff like that. Since imo they're one of the most fundamental things in abstract algebra
I guess... how cyclic groups generate the underlying group, like how some elements of Z_n generate Z_n.
I feel like if you feel insecure in your knowledge then you haven't completely got it
name three distinct groups where the center is:
the whole group
half the group
only one element in the group
I am interpreting the question as not whether your knowledge is sufficient but whether you understood what you learned
well obviously
By feeling insecure in your knowledge do you mean that you wouldn't be able to answer foundational questions?
wait actually does a group where the center is half the group even exist
depression
ok but you should be able to give the answer to the first and third instantly
The Whole Group - Z_n?
Half the group - Well, rotations are half of D_n, right? And rotations always commute.
Only one element - no idea
rotations don't commute with reflections
rotations are half of D_n, and rotations commute with each other, but they don't commute with everything
prolly not. G/Z(G) cyclic implies Z(G) = G
yeah ok
oof, I guess I do need to read more.
How did this become a quiz? xD
??
.
if you can answer questions fast then you know you've got the theory
Wait, is e an answer to the third one?
tf is e
also one thing you can try is classifying groups of small order
identity
it can be a fun exercise, see how far you can go
do you mean trivial group
technically Z1 is cyclic
identity is an element of a group
if you want to talk about a group you shouldn't say e
groups are cool
better
1

Z1!
They are, but what I'm really interested in is Geometric Constructions, the very idea of it makes me want to cry tears of joy. exaggerating a bit
I guess instead of e or 1, one should write it as 0?
just use 1
no
??
0 for abelian case is better because it is the 0 object
no i hate this
well in exact sequences you do write
1 --> N --> G --> H --> 1
but for non abelian idk I have seen 1 in a couple places
for all groups, right?
oh ye that's true
i hate this
I am all for 0 now
no
cats = love = life
i refuse

0 --> N --> G --> H --> 0
Do abstract algebra and number theory unite into some other esoteric branch of math?
do you know lagrange's theorem?
no, additive should be more
0 --> A --> B --> C --> 0
lol
G,N,H feel too multiplicative
why need additive
That's chapter 7, I think, I just finished reading chap 4.
hoooow
But {e} is the zero object in Grp, so I will just write it 0 -> N -> G ... because it's more confusing
0 is because 0 object of category
so slow!
makes me look smarter
I have heard Gallian is not great
cuz Z-mod?
we are talking about non abelian groups
For what it's worth, I understood it better than Artin.
oh, i don't think anyone uses + for non-abelian stuff
I have also heard Artin is not great
lmao
I have used Artin
Some chapters are bad
artin bad
did anyone do that here?
yeh but 0 because it's the zero object in the category, not because of addition or multiplicatoin. It'sstupid dumb fun
god i can't think of any interesting questions to ask with the basics you know about
Artin compressed all of intro group theory into some 20 pages, I live in fear of that man.

read lang
dummit foote is also goote
i use d&f's
classify all simple groups of order < 10 billion
monoids are just decategorifications of monads
monoids are literally more boring than groups
wat
they don't know what simple groups are
It was a joke on d&f
oh, I didn't even know what a set was back then lel
reminds me of little narwhal
hmm, simple groups are easy to understand definition wise.
exactly lel
... QxQ, what notation is that?
addition
QxQ is a man with funny glasses, don't mind these jokesters
ok fine
show Q is not cyclic under addition
show Q\{0} is not cyclic under multiplication
should be able to do this fast
hahaha, I think this is enough discord for today.
I'm going back to studying group theory now, don't mind me.
bruuuh
Stay on Discord! Learn the theory of being in a group!
I should've heeded the aphorism of Socrates when said, "The only thing I know is that I know nothing."
yes yes, heeded indeeded. I concur. 🥂
I've seened I'm incompetened.
But yeah, if you feel you know everything or hjave a good understanding, that's probably not true. At least for me lel ... as soon as you feel confident, something is going to come up which you can't solve. Probably
Those gallian exercises didn't prepare me for shit.
Look at an exercise 20 pages later in your book and you probably won't understand anything
Might as well have given clown makeup for free with the book smh
So, make it your goal just to understand what's being asked.
it took me a 3-4 reads until i could internalize sylow's theorem
before that the proof was magic
Arithmetic geometry 
Actually, algebraic number theory is not an algebraic version of number theory, it's the study of algebraic numbers
There is a lot of analysis as well in algebraic number theory
I think of arithmetic geometry as something closer to algebraic geometry instead of algebraic number theory, but I mean, you're not wrong tho.
(Commutative) Algebra = algebraic geometry 
Numerical algebra
truuu 😆 , Im taking classic algebraic geometry this semester and its like... spicy ring theory 😂
i'm taking algebraic geo too, but i'm scared lol. our prof started with sheaf cohomology 
in which uni year are you all in?
based
Im finishing high school rn but taking some doctorate classes
tf is wrong with you people
bruh you really had to do a drive-by and kill my sense of security, didn't you?
what ? it doesnt make me smarter of something like that tho
not about smarts
isnt it called doctorate in english ?
Doctorate typically refers to a PhD, I think.
Yes
yeh. and there are usually no classes
well, Im referring to classes you take in a Phd; rn Im taking classes on algebraic geometry and geometric group theory, with phd students, in an phd program (they also do research tho, but in my case Im just taking the classes)
anyways, I think this is kinda off-topic, we should be talking about modules or something
but after a masters? Or is it like in the US where people just go from bachelor program to phd program
that's quite a list
they usually take this after the masters, at least all of my colleagues have masters degrees
(btw my english is kinda broken, so pls be patient with some things)
I know how to show the inversion using column orthogonality. But I want to do it differently, since there was a hint for exercise, namely: Write the right hand side as the trace of an endomorphism of CG.
so, what one can do is $\dim V tr_V(\rho(g^{-1}) \hat{\phi}(\rho)) = \sum_h \phi(h) \dim V tr_V(\rho(g^{-1} h)) = \sum_h \phi(h) \tr_{\mathbb{C}G}( g^{-1} h)$, but then I don't see how to proceed
expectTheUnexpected
I guess this is then (tr_CG * phi)(g), so that the trace is the unit for the convolution? But I do not see.
oops, I ofc forgot the sum over irreducibles in the first two expressions, but other than that it's correct.
same
that's a hard proof
I have never seen a proof of sylow
😭 Im still sad bc idk where to talk about GGT ;-;
Monkey
Sylow good. I need to review it (aka read it 4 more times)
stupid q, if H, K and HK are subgroups of G, must H be a subgroup of the normaliser of K?
i think it should?
HK = KH so HKH^-1 = K?
is that how it works?
god i'm tired
I have a subset of integers $S$ and a function $f: \mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}$. I want to consider the quotient set $S/ker(f)$ where $ker$ denotes the equivalence kernel of $f$. Every subset $A$ of $S/ker(f)$ can be assigned the value of image $f[A]$ of $A$ under $f$. I want to define it for the purpose of taking the $k$th order statistics of $S/ker(f)$. What kind of space or algebraic structure is $S/ker(f)$ in this case? I want to assign an integer value to every set-element of the underlying set.
that's probably not enough really
JohnDark
$$
ker = f \mapsto \lbrace (x,x') \in dom^2(f) : f(x) = f(x') \rbrace
$$
JohnDark
And $ker(f)$ in $S/ker(f)$ is interpreted as a graph of an equivalence relation (up to $f$)
JohnDark
yes one of the two normalizes the other
oh sick
wait actually reviewing now the implication was only proved in one direction 🤡
d&f's?
yes
same here lol

that's why i was thinking about it
