#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 637 of 407
i don't know normalisers of subgroups well enough lol
HK = KH, ie. h1k1 = k2h2
HKH = h1k1h3 = k2h2h3 = k2h4 = KH
upon reflection it now seems false
like if HKH = K that would be ridiculously strong
when you take products of subgroups the result should be bigger
to be clear this just means my proof method doesn't work i think?
the actual true-falseness idk still
hmm
i feel like there could be a neat counterexample which i can't think of
im sure there is one
cus if one normalizes the other it's sufficient to form a subgroup yes
ah yes okay the stack exchange with the hookup
im bad with symmetric groups 
no wonder

group theory moment
thanks for bringing it up i never thought of the converse lmao
ic
ok that's neat ty
np
damn, that really is a neat proof
Sylow strong.
What is the automorphism group of the sedenion algebra?
for this, is there a better way than writing out the multiplication tables?
like we can associate g with the cycle permutation (1 2 3) = x and f with (1 2) = y and then write out a multiplication table for both, but is there something faster?
If you Google it you will find that's it's the product of S3 with the exceptional lie group G2. No idea why tho 
Yeh, do you know presentations of groups?
haven't heard that phrase, mind explaining?
for example the group $S_2$ has presentation $\langle t | t^2 = 1 \rangle$. You read this is as follows: build the free group on the symbol $t$, and then impose the relation $t^2 = 1$.
The free group on the symbol $t$ is just the set of words built from the symbols $t, t^{-1}, e$, and the group product is given by concatenation, i.e. $ttt \cdot tt = ttttt$. Also, $t^{-1}$ is viewed as the inverse of $t$ and $e$ is the unit.
expectTheUnexpected
So if you impose on that set the condition $t^2 = e$, then most words will collapse, until you are left with only the set ${e, t}$, which is precisely the symmetric group $S_2$
expectTheUnexpected
It's not hard to see that groups with the same presentation are iso. So now you need a presentation for $S_3$, and this is well-known. You can take $\langle s, t | t^2 = 1, s^3 = 1, st = ts \rangle$. Then check that your functions $f$ and $g$ satsify the relations in this presentation, and you know that the group is iso to $S_3$
expectTheUnexpected
btw the unit e in the free group is ofc the empty symbol
technically you would need to show that f and g satisfy no other relations other than the ones built from those 3. this is usually done by looking at sizes. You'll only get the map S3 --> 'that group' which is surjective. If you show sizes are same, it will also be injective.
there is another cute way btw, at least for this situation.
true
these fractional linear functions act on the Riemann sphere C u {infinity}
det
these are your 3 'letters' which can be permuted in anyway
action is simply evaluation
so since that group acts on the set of 3 elements, you'll get a group hom to S3, shouldn't be too hard to conclude it's an iso
I was wondering if there is a coordinate free analogue of Cauchy-Binet's formula. So say $R$ is a commutative ring with $1$ and $M, N$ are free modules of finite rank, and we have linear maps
[M \xrightarrow[]{\alpha} N \xrightarrow[]{\beta} M]
can we say something about $\det$ of the composite without breaking into matrices?
I'm not sure how would one think about the corresponding analogue for minors in the coordinate free situation.
det
ping me up if there is something cute we can do here 
can you do something with the exterior algebra?
yea, that's what i want to relate it to
the definition of det via exterior algebra is very sweet.
Hm, to me even the formula of Cauchy-Binet kind of seems to make explicit use of direct summands, if I want to write it down for free modules over rings. And that seems equivalent to choosing a basis = not coordinate free. What I mean is that, as you said, minors probably don't really work coordinate free?
What's the name for something that obeys all the ring axioms, except that + just has to be a group, not necessarily an abelian group?
a ring
there are two ways to distribute (1+x)*(1+y), and you get x+y = y+x from comparing them
Oh so it doesn't exist if you use a nonabelian group? Damn, I guess I should have tested for existence before playing around with it and seeing it was interesting.
dang, there was a name for this, the "x-y -trick", where x and y were the names of two mathematicians, but I can't remember
ah, no, not trick. It was the "Eckmann-Hilton argument"
It states: if you have a two unital magma strucutres on a set, and if these distribute over one another, then they are actually the same and even commutative.
That can be used e.g. to show that an algebra object in the category of groups (or algebras) is just an abelian group (or algebra)
is the interchange law the same as distributing over one another 
because the statement I know is that they should satisfy the interchange law
and you also get associativity for free
I think
ye you do
I guess "distribute" is not quite the right word, yeah. By my imprecise "distribute over one another" i mean "(a.b) x (c.d) = (a x c) . (b x d)"
right yeah
dass nice mang
mang
Hey guys, i come up with a proof of Projective => Torsion less
let L be a free module, and P proyective
then L = P+Q => P is submodule of L but L is torsion less => P is otrsion less
someone can check if this proof works? im not absolutly sure of it and i didnt see it in any book
they all use that proyective => flat => torsion less
(there exist an L free module by the definition of P)
Yeah that seems good
thanks!
$H_1$ and $H_2$ are subgroups of G(finite)$\$
Prove TFAE$\$
- Permutation representation associated to action of G on $G/H_1$ and $G/H_2$ are isomorphic.$\$
- For any conjugacy class [g] in G, $\abs{[g]\cap H_1}=\abs{[g]\cap H_2}$
My prof gave this question as part of our representation theory course
But I am finding it difficult to see the connection between these 2 statements
Any ideas on how to approach?
Averisera
Hello? Anyone?
the latter
rather
they are homomorphisms into group of bijections of any set to itself
not just group automorphisms
In that case the set is also G, so any bijection is fine
For 1 implies 2, notice that in G/H, the stabiliser of H is exactly H itself. This, along with the fact that isomorphisms of representation conjugate the stabiliser should give 2. I am not sure how to prove that 2 implies 1.
@random pendant
For 2 implies 1, we probably want to somehow show that H_1 and H_2 are conjugates of each other, and deduce that the quotient group action is the same, but I am too sleepy to think rn
Think about (Z_2)²
Hey
So I have $v_1 \otimes v_3$ and $v_1 \otimes v_2 \otimes v_3$.
Can I represent it by $(v_1,v_3)$ and $((v_1,v_2),v_3)$?
mns
asking because having (v_1,v_3) and ((v_1,v_2),v_3) could I add them as (v_1 + (v_1,v_2),v_3) ?
Not in the tensor algebra
hum ok
x^4+1=(x^2+sqrt(2)x+1)(x^2-sqrt(2)x+1) has no real roots
$\langle x^p\mid x\in M\rangle$
no space before last dollar
fuck
sylow green (Yung cofe)
ok
i have no clue what this is supposed to denote
but apparently it's a characteristic subgroup of M
p is prime i think
subgroup generated by pth power of elements of M?
thats what i guess too
just admit you can't understand sylow's theorems
does anyone have any tips for understanding the proof of II
it seems so
arbitrary idk just a lot of orbits
send me some resources where I can read about subgroup counting / element order in product group (i.e. the direct product)
Honestly man
Just read it until you get it and maybe memorize bits of it
Come back later
It didn’t make much sense no matter what I did the first pass, but on the second pass it was really clear
so later as in much later after I've learned more algebra, or later as in next week?
For me it was like… 6 months lol
I think it’s just a hard proof
And one of the first ones you see in algebra if you started with group theory and went in a standard order of things
ok haha thank you for the advice
ya i feel like im just not quite enough comfortable with all these concepts atm
Thanks! Will try along these lines
the first proof of sylow 2 i read felt very arbitrary, but one of the latter one was much much nicer.
the main idea is that if a p-group G acts on a set X, there |X| = |X^G| (mod p). that is, size of the set and size of the fixed points under the action are congruent. this is used to get the existence of non-trivial fixed points. if you carefully choose nice G and X in the statement, all the sylow theorems will follow very naturally!
like for sylow 2, say G is a finite group, H is a p-subgroup, and P a sylow p-subgroup. we can let H act on the set G/P by left multiplication, where G/P is the set of left cosets of P. we're doing so because |G/P| isn't divisible by p, so this will give us a nontrivial fixed point gP which is fixed by every h in H.
so hgP = gP for every h in H,
this means g^-1 h g in P for every H
so g^-1Hg is contained in P. or equivalently H is contained in gPg^-1.
that was pretty much the proof of sylow 2. notice how simple minded it was, there was hardly an calculation. it shows every p-subgroup is contained in some conjugate of a given sylow p-subgroup. therefore if you actually take H to be another sylow p-subgroup, say Q, then we'll get Q is contained in gPg^-1 which by size constraints, shows Q = gPg^-1.
omg thank you--this is way nicer than what i learned!
my prof's proof was similar to that of dummit & foote. It used the same fixed point result but it had H acting by conjugation and it involved a lot more steps
you can give such short proofs for all sylow by choosing the actions cleverly 
group actions are op
so the proof flow is
(1) prove cauchy, act by Z/pZ on a necklace with p-beads and color it by elements of G such that the product of all beads is 1. probably the only arbitrary action i've seen.
(2) if H is a p-subgroup, then act by H on G/H, by the exact same calculation, this will show [G:H] = [N(H):H] (mod p).
(3) if H is not a sylow p-subgroup, then [G:H] is divisible by p, so size of the group N(H)/H is divisible by p, so we can find a subgroup of order p, it looks like K/H with |K| = p * |H|
in this step we started with a p-subgroup H and got a bigger p-subgroup K, and more over H is normal in K.
(4) the sylow 2 as above,
(5) if H is any subgroup, then G acts on set of conjugates of H by conjugation. so number of conjugates is size of orbit of H. since the stablizer is N(H), that will be [G:N(H)]
(6) finally if P is a sylow p-subgroup, then by 2, [G:P] = [N(P):P] (mod p), this gives [G:N(P)] = 1 (mod p) which shows number of conjugates of P is 1 modulo p.
part 3 shows something stronger, not only a sylow-p subgroup exists, we can in fact find normal series to a sylow subgroup. more over, every p-subgroup will occur in some series because, by staying in the p-subgroup H, find a series up to H, then look at this series in G, and complete it to a sylow p-subgroup.

In 1, are you proving Cauchy? The proof I remember used induction
I didn't get your argument
oh that's a very famous proof, so i avoided the details
these are like the prototypical types of action, act by a p group on some quotient by left multiplication
h * (gH) = (hg) * H
But H on G/H would be trivial then
why tho
Oh
H is a fixed point i agree
Right I see
i've haven't played a lot with G-sets, but i think this shows up automatically. like at least i have seen that transitive actions up to G-equivariance look like G acting on some G/H by left multiplication
Yeah I told you about that one 
Or at least it came up during the free action discussion
good morning friends
i've solved pretty much the majority of this problem
i just don't know what the notation means
in the very last part
what the hell is that last subgroup
M' is the commutator subgroup
(the last subgroup would tell me that the p-group is elementary i guess)
Everything that's a pth power 
i showed up to the part where the minimal subgroup is abelian and is a p group
oh
so its just taking everything in the group and raising it to the p^th power
and finite products of these things
Yeah, usually it's not a subgroup but solvability probably makes it so
hm hm
Oh right
They're taking subgroup generated by it
ye
Very cool
this subgroup is characteristic because any automorphism is gonna preserve the exponentiation to the p^th power right
so yea
that's fine i think
Ye
so then it's a char subgrp of the minimal normal subgroup and so there are a few cases. It shouldn't be proper because then M would not be minimal
so either the whole minimal group or trivial
one of these should lead to a contradiction.
ah so by cauchy theorem there is a subgroup of order p in this minimal subgroup
so then raising to the p power means that this char group is proper
so it has to be 1
hmmmm
what does this mean tho lol
means that raising everything to the p power in the minimal subgp gives identity
uhh
surely this doesn't just mean that the minimal subgroup was a cyclic group?
what
something is wrong here.
oops no it means that the form of elemnts is Z_p x ... x Z_p
since the lcm of orders of elemnts in this group is p
sure this is fine
does everything having order p imply this directly?
I don't see how
I think so
Oh hmm
No
I was gonna say that p-groups have no trivial centers
So you need the center to be Z_p
Then you can mod out
Center is Z_p
…
But you can’t sew it back together from that
I mean
Idk, I don’t know what happens when you need everything to be order p
I think for even n = 3 the result is true
You can classify p^3 groups
And it mimicked what happens when p = 2
right
classify groups of order d^n
well they are small, trivial and you wont stop trying to send people to its image
classify sets of finite order
upto equality 
something that always bothered me is like, this kind of question, to "classify" something. it's not a rigorous question. i wish it could be turned into a rigorous question
i think you can by induction on n if the order is p^n
why clown reaction, i think its a very valid and serious concern
it is a rigorous question though 
how?
you are finding all isomorphism classes
what does it mean to find them all? at extreme case you could just define the class of all isomorphism classes very easily, but that wouldn't be considered useful
there are infinitely many so you can't write them all
In a fixed order there are finitely many
So obviously you can classify them all in a given order
so a good answer would be an algorithm that given a order n classifies all groups of that order?
Sure
that still has a trivial answer tho: brute force all possible group structures of that order and check which ones are simple
so perhaps the question should be to find an algorithm as efficient as we can to do this
Yea it’s hard to do this quickly
Usually the better strategy is to list all the ways a finite group can be described as an iterated extension of finite simple groups and then compute the relevant ext groups
But that’s really hard too
hmm no this is harder than i thought
there might be something to do with the frattini subgroup but im not sure
Yea describing finite groups of prime power order is really hard
Carla has become the proover 
i mean we want to get explicit answers: you could do this sure but at the end of the day you wouldnt have a simple answer to everything because youd still be iterating through infinitely many orders and brute forcing everything
while at least for finite simple groups we have a list of everything, even if some families are infinite
In a given order this is obviously a finite computation
The problem is also like
Okay say you list all the possible multiplication tables for groups of order n and then sort them into isomorphism classes
This tells you very little interesting information
i'm aware we want explicit answers, it just bothers me that there seems to be no simple way to formalize what it means for an answer to be "interesting"
im still not quite sure what your problem is: your version of classifying say finite simple groups just wouldnt get you a complete explicit answer
it's not even a question of the answer being interesting, you just dont get an answer at all
how do you define "explicit answer"?
No you get a completely explicit answer just not a particularly meaningful one
yea, there not being a definition of what it means for an answer to be intersting is what bothers me
How so though: to get an explicit answer of a complete list of the finite simple groups by brute force you need to perform an infinite process
So you can never get a complete answer surely
Of course there’s no definition that’s a subjective thing
In the context of a given order I do get the point of the question then ig
But yeah it’s rather subjective
I mean mathematicians choose to care about certain things: they don’t care about certain theorems because “logic dictates they are better”
most agree that some kinds of results are more interesting than others tho
Sure
Because a result may in a sense be more powerful/beautiful/generalizable
But I don’t think these are concepts that can be made rigorous
that kinda returns to the original issue. "Classifying finite simple groups" is not a rigorous question then, in the sense of getting an "interesting" answer
In the sense of expressing the answer in an interesting way sure
That’s fairly subjective
Ignoring this, the actual classification problem is obviously a rigorous question
What separates a field from a euclidean domain?
Every non zero element of a field has a multiplicative inverse
for example Z is an euclidean domain but not a field cuz some elements of Z have no multiplicative inverse
how does isomorphism of representations imply stabilizers are conjugate?
H_2 ∈ G/H_2 is the image of some aH_1 ∈ G/H_1, and since this is an isomorphism, stab(H_2) = stab(aH_1). Try to work it out from here (you want to write the write side in terms of stab(H_1))
we do not know that G/H_1 and G/H_2 are isomorphic right? We just know that F[G/H_1] and F[G/H_2] are isomorphic. How does this imply G/H_1 and G/H_2 are isomorphic?
Hold on this is not familiar to me then
What is F[G/H]?
F a field, action is on free vector space by permuting basis?
And a(s) is in F?
a(s)\in F
ok damn
I'll have to think about this but don't expect much because rep theory is pretty new to me
Could you repost the question? The old chat is not loading for me
Others could also look at it then lol
$H_1$ and $H_2$ are subgroups of G(finite)
Prove TFAE
- Permutation representation associated to action of G on $G/H_1$ and $G/H_2$ are isomorphic.
- For any conjugacy class [g] in G, $\abs{[g]\cap H_1}=\abs{[g]\cap H_2}$
what happened to Texit?
oh its offline
can anyone tell me what this notation N^(\sigma) is?
is it the image of N under \sigma?
no

$h^g$ means $ghg^{-1}$, but if you use that definition, N is not a characteristic :/ or is it?
Looking at the context, yeah
This is not standard
yeah I have no idea why he uses that notation but it works I suppose
Does ring homomorphism preserve ordering? Like if f : R -> S is a ring homomorphism and I and J are ideals in R such that I is a subset of J then f(I) is a subset of f(J)?
Is there an easy example of a principal ideal domain that is not a euclidean domain?
dummit foote I think shows Z[ (1 + sqrt(-19))/2] is PID but not euclidean
yea
It seems kinda obviously true
like idk f(I) = f(J cap I) \subset f(J)
f(I) = {x in S such that f(a)=x for some a in I}
Also iirc in Alaca/Williams intro alg nt they show more examples, but not 100% sure
some a in I always in J
guess so, only saw it in one book, though it makes the conjugation thing act nice, like $g^h\cdot k^h = (gk)^h$
Yeah I thought this is a standard notation, seen it used in few sources, also in my course
Thank you
What on earth is the difference between a multiplicative subset and an ideal. They look like exactly the same things
nope
multiplicative subset contains 1 and is closed under multiplication of just its elements. ideal is an additive subgroup, not necessarily containing 1, closed under multiplication by any element of the ring and an element of the ideal
just put the definitions side by side
Try modding out a ring by a multiplicative subset and you'll see the difference lol
A multiplicative subset is just a submonoid
It's just confusing because they both seem to do quotient stuff lol. Maybe 'quid is right I'm gonna thinking more about what happens when modding
submonoid under what? your mom?
Hey,
Looking at some introductory notes about field extensions and there is a notation i dont quite get
So we write K for a field, we write $K[t_1,..., t_n]$ for the ring of polynomials in the n $t_1,\ldots, t_n$ variables on the field.
Now given a field extension L//K, and some elements t1, ..., tn in $L \setminus K$, we write$ K(t_1,..., t_n)$ to be the field generated by $K \cup {t_1, \ldots}$.
Now in my notes it is written that $ K[t1,\ldots, t_n] \subset K(t_1, \ldots, t_n)$ and the inclusion is proper in general.
How can this be? for me this is always an equality...
dadaurs
t is not invertible
But L is a field, so t should be invertible right?
ah wait it t^-1 isnt contained in K
I see thanks, that makes a lot of sense
lol... at work another developer was tasked with 'load balancing' incoming requests in this piece of software. Well I guess he thought he was being clever by taking the message id (which is 6 or 7 digit number) modulus the number devices to distribute the requests amongst, and route to the device based on the result. This might have worked okayish if the number of devices to distribute the traffic amongst was 7, but as it happened, there were 8 devices. Needless to say, the load wasn't very balanced. Heck, half of all requests would have been distributed amongst device zero and device 4.
I proposed instead finding a generator of the multiplicative group of integers modulo a prime p, raising the primitive root to the request's index, mod p, doing exponentiation by squaring and always taking the result of each step mod p to avoid overflowing the integer, but there was really a much simpler way of handing the routing that we opted for instead. I shouldn't require a coworker to know what a multiplicative group of integers mod p is in order to understand and make changes to my code at a later date, despite how deliciously evil that sounds...
It was the first time I was able to utilize my knowledge of abstract algebra at work, lol. And really, I still didn't USE it, but it was still fun to flex on the other devs..
Imagine taking random numbers modulus 8 and thinking the result was going to have some semblance of being evenly distributed, lol.
We had the exact same problem. 😬
Algebraic structures come up a lot in software.
Perhaps. Extract, transform, load type of business software not so much.
Thats okay, I make heavy use of mathematics in my hobby/side projects
If the business software contains a cache of some fold over a mutable set (that supports random inserts/deletes) then it better be based on an Abelian group.
I might, but that kind of stuff is already handled by the framework (C#). There is mutable collections, immutable collections and cache classes already written for you to take advantage of. But your right, if you had to write your own implementation of certain classes because the framework version wasnt cutting it (because your collection is too large, say) then you just might need to make use of such structures. For example, the Dictionary<TKey, TValue> class comes with a default comparer which is okay, but will yield too many collisions if your key is a string and you try and stuff more than 10,000 key/value pairs into the dictionary. In that case, you want to write your own IEqualityComparer for the Dictionary to use, and I have found great success using a multiplicative group of integers mod p to evenly distribute objects' hashcodes amongst all the possible values of a 32 bit integer. This dramatically improved the asymptotic performance of the dictionary to the point of hitting the limit for the ammount of memory the framework allows you to allocate for a single variable (2^31 bytes, or approx. 2 gigabytes).
just find the primitive root (a generator, call it g) for a prime p that is larger than 2^32, convert the string key into a numeric value by treating the string of characters as a base 256 digit (or use base 64 if the string is restricted to alpha-numeric characters), e.g. char[0] * 256^0 + char[1] * 256^1 + char[2] * 256^2 and so on, call that sum s. Then g^s mod p is the hashcode to return for that string. You obviously will want to make use of the BigInteger class. If you use BigInteger.ModPow method, muliplication of very large numbers is avoided and so the performance of the code is not an issue as one might suspect when looking at the size of the integers involved.
Pretty sure BigInteger.ModPow uses exponentiation by squaring, and takes the intermediate value modulus the mod for every iteration, as necessary, so raising a number g to a very large power k mod some integer m only takes $log_2(k)$ multiplications and up to the same number ($log_2(k)$) modular divisions.
Marduk
Im asked to show $\hbox{Hom}_{R}(A,B)$ the set of R-module homomorphism is an abelian group under addition. But it's not even clear to me that it is closed under addition. The summation of two homomorphism might have a larger codomain than B. What is the addition here?
fajitas
what do you mean larger codomain
let f,g:A:->B R-module homomorphism then f+g:A->B is defined by f+g(x)=f(x)+g(x)
here f(x)+g(x) is also in B because B is a module
You're right 😎
nice!
does the language you work in have any standard hashing functions in the library
idk if this is the right place but can someone explain what the identity is for the group of points of an elliptic curve mod p?
the point at infinity if you're using the usual weiestrass presentation
okay, so if i do the group operation with two points and get an intersection line that has a vertical slope, then they're inverses of eachother and the result is the infinity point i basically union to the group?
i guess so?
the invariant factors are x^2 and x^3
so any matrix commuting preserves both of the summands of Q[x]/(x^2)+Q[x]/(x^3)
not sure how to proceed next
OK I got the basis vectors for the invariant subspaces and then reduced it to commuting a 2*2 and 3 *3 block
got something like this
is this how to do it?
why do you say that the commuting matrix will preserve the summands?
If two matrices commute they should have the same invariant subspaces?
the zero matrix commutes with everything
if we call M the Q[x]-module given by that matrix on the vector space Q^5, a commuting matrix in this language corresponds to a Q[x]-linear map. that's all.
we're saying that M is isomorphic to Q[x]/(x^2) + Q[x]/(x^3) so just need to find Q[x]-linear endomorphisms of this.
Of (A{0}, x), assuming it doesn't contain 0
just a joke my friend....
Just to make sure it was clear 

Yummy
When I have to talk to other ppl about Associated primes I just straight up say Ass M
Also Catfan you never DM’d me for cool prize :(
hey
what prize
im scared
Can I dm for a prize? 👀
👀
@robust pollen So I've been sick all week, so I've not had a lot of brainpower to think about this yet in detail, but do you think the statement "If $M$ is a free module over a Hopf algebra $H$, then so is $M \otimes_k M$" that you proved can also be extended to freeness of $\Lambda^2 M$? The proof for $\otimes_k$ that you gave is a little unsymmetric in both arguments, so I'm a little wary. The action at least makes sense if $H$ is cocommutative.
Lartomato
Sorry for the lazy question! But perhaps you have an insight which makes this super trivial from our previous discussion, since you seem pretty well-versed with Hopf algebra stuff
Hah, coincidentally I was also sick for a few days last week ✋ sickbros
But so I think my proof actually also shows if M and N are free, then M tensor N is free
Ye exactly
What was unsymmetric about the proof?
I guess the first identification $H \otimes M \cong H \otimes \tilde M$ relied on having a copy of H in one of the arguments, and you can't necessarily make create that situation with the exterior algebra, since the exterior algebra of two different vector spaces does not make sense
Lartomato
But perhaps that's silly, maybe I just need to track the final isomorphism $H^{(I)} \otimes H^{(I)} \cong H^{(I) \times (I)}$ and see if that one still makes sense when $\otimes$ is replaced by $\wedge$
Lartomato
I've not gone through the details yet, but I think you plug the antipode in one of the arguments somewhere along the proof, but not in the other argument, so that made me skeptical
awww shit I really need to go grocery shopping; If anything comes to mind which makes the question trivial or so then let me know, but if you think all I need to do is write the same argument out again, then you don't need to babysit me, I've just been too lazy to try 😛
But in either case thanks for your time!
Uhh... So, you similarly have W tensor H = W~ tensor H (at least in the finite dimensional case I think, because if I'm not mistaken this requires a bijective antipode. I don't remember: does the UEA of a lie algebrahave a bijective antipode?)
Grocery shopping on a Sunday 
The Netherlands are a godless place and I love it
But yeah, antipode for U(g) is just S(x) = -x for x \in g I believe
Anyway, I'll also go for a walk soon, then maybe think about the question
Oh, we're (almost) neighbors 😬
Oh! Germany or Belgium?
Netherlandian here too
Not doxxing myself brah 
Lmao oki
Hi! So I have the following problem: shot that a module left R-module M is injective iff every f:I->M has a lifting to f_bar:R->M whenever I is an essential left ideal of R. I have the following solution for the => implication:
,rotate
is this okay, or am I missing something?
why would I need that I is essential?
I used the injective test lemma
I guess the proof for the <= direction goes the same way, but idk why would we need that I is essential
I is essential iff whenever J is a nonzero proper ideal of R then I intersected with J is nonzero
yes forward implication is trivial because the second statement is a special case of the first one
I am not sure what the injective test lemma is
makes sense then
also in the problem statement I don't think it is right to use the word lift there
you are talking about an extension
i was thinking about that too
wait in your diagram
the second one
the map at the top should still be the inclusion right
well from the first diagram I think yes, the second diagram shows what we want, we want such a g that lifts f to f-bar
and the inclusion map is a good choice by injectivity, right?
every f:I->M has a lifting to f_bar:R->M
This means that you already have a map from I to M and you want to extend it to a map from R to M, and this extension has to be along the inclusion I to R
So the inclusion map is fixed
you have to show the existence of the map on the right
wait, we are discussing the <= direction right now?
so suppose M is injective, then we have the first diagram
what you want to show is that whenever you have this situation
I → R
↓
M
then you can complete this to a commutative triangle by R → M
exactly
but you put a "there exists g" on the map I → R
the "there exists" should go on the map R → M
ahh right
but there exists such a g from R to M, by injectivity
or am I missing something?
but why would I by essential lel?
we need it only for the <= direction?
forward direction is true for all left ideals
The point of the theorem is that if you want to check injectivity, it suffices to check the special case of only essential ideals
then it is also true for all essential left ideals
rather than all ideals

I found a lemma about essential submodules that seems helpful
For any proper left ideal J, there is an ideal J' so that J ∩ J' = 0 and their internal direct sum is essential
Pretty sure this solves it
Should be doable from zorn's lemma, not sure if we need any additional hypotheses
I have the following question: Let G be a finite group, and phi some \C-representation of G, and chi the associated character of that representation. What is the ker(chi) even a kernel of(like what map?) It is obvious ker(chi) is normal in G, and that ker(phi) \leq ker(chi), but is there supposed to be equality?
in general no
as long as an element maps to a trace 0 matrix, it will be in ker(chi)
so like, consider the trivial rep of GL(2,C) or smth, and you get that matrix with 1,-1 on diagonal is ker(chi) but not in ker(phi)
So then I do not see what the kernel in ker(chi) refers to. What homomorphism is it a kernel of?
i mean its just asking when chi=0, althought it should corrospond to the ker of some homomorphism as it is normal
let me think about if it corrosponds to some nice homo or if its useful
ok sorry chi=0 is the wrong thing to say
now that i have thought about it
its chi= chi(1)
chi=chi(1) = deg of rep, yep
yeah i cant really think of any nice homomorphism this is like, the kernel of
i dont think thats important tho
we are just calling it ker so that it alligns with the ker(phi) ig
Let G be finite abelian group and chi some character on G. I want to show $\sum_{g \in G} \lvert \chi(g)\rvert^2 \geq \lvert G \rvert \chi(1)$. I'm having trouble starting this... If this was an irreducible character, we would have something easier, namely $\sum_{g \in G} \lvert \chi(g)\rvert^2 \geq \lvert G \rvert$, and this is true by orthogonality relations. The more general case also looks like some sort of inner product structure, but I'm not seeing how to use it, especially this abelian part has to come in somehow in this general case. The abelian part was used to show \chi(1) = 1 in the irreducible case
MasakaBakana
What is the meaning of the notation $\mathbb{C}_0$?
Gunther
The irreducible case is simple right?
Can you see that each $\chi_(g)$ should be some root of unity?
Noob666
Yes, I figured out that the irred case is trivial. The hard part is the non irreducible case.
Ah, cool
Hint : || |z|^2=zz* , the conjugate of z ||
Hint 2: || the inner product of two characters is the sum $\chi_1(g) \overline{\chi_2(g)}$ ||
Thanks
I was thinking of talking the trivial character that maps everything to \chi(1) and inner producting that with chi
Or even inner product of chi with itself works
I don't see where the $\chi(1)$ comes in though. $1 = \langle \chi, \chi \rangle = \frac{1}{\lvert G\rvert} \sum_{g \in G} \lvert \chi(g) \rvert ^2$
MasakaBakana
Why the "1="?
wait, nvm the 1= is only true if its irreduc
Ya
Why is the inner product defined as \chi(1)?
it is not, it is not
break down chi as sum of orthogonal irreducibles
Then <\chi, \chi> is just sum of squares of stuff
Since G is finite, every rep can be broken into a sum of irreduc rep, so characters can be broken into a sum on irred chars?
Yes, and if $\chi_i$'s are the irreducibles, and $m_i = \langle \chi, \chi_i \rangle$, what's $\langle \chi, \chi \rangle$
Noob666
its just the sum of the m_i's right
Noob666
So $\lvert G \rvert \sum m_i^2 = \sum_{g \in G} \lvert \chi(g) \rvert^2$
MasakaBakana
Yep, finish by figuring out what's $\chi(1)$ in terms of $m_i$'s
Noob666
I don't see it. We have $m_i = \langle x, x_i \rangle = \sum_{g \in G} \chi(g)\overline{\chi_i(g)}$ where $chi_i$ is irred. I don't see how this tells us something about $\chi(1)$. Is there something about $G$ abliean being used here, since this has not used that at all
MasakaBakana
So we have
$\chi = \sum m_i \chi_i$ right
Noob666
So, $\chi(1)=\sum m_i \chi_i(1)$
Now we use abelianness
$\chi(1)=\sum m_i$
Noob666
Why is the m_i in the sum. We broke chi intro irred char, so $\chi = \sum chi_i$ no?
So think of it this way
You have a vector space, (with a inner product) and a orthonormal basis, say $e_i$'s.
Then any element $v$ in that vector space is
$v= \sum \langle v,e_i \rangle e_i$
Noob666
It has $m_i$ copies of $\chi_i$ in itself
Noob666
I know that irreducible characters form a orthanormal basis for class functions of G
But here we are using that any character is a vector in the space of class functions?
its not hard to show that any character is a class function
its just trace of some matrix at the end of the day
Yes, the trace of a matrix is the same under conjugation
If this stuff seems blurry, maybe revisit the section on orthogonality of characters and all
@weak oriole So I understand the idea, but there are a couple details that make me hesitant. We seem to have equality, but I think the best we can guarantee is the following: $\lvert G \rvert \chi(e) \leq \sum_{g \in G} \lvert \chi(g) \rvert^2$, so I'm not sure why we had equality everywhere. We had $\sum_{i=1}^k \langle \chi, \chi_i \rangle = \langle \chi, \chi \rangle = \frac{1}{\lvert G\rvert} \sum_{g \in G}\lvert \chi(g) \rvert^2$. This decomposition of $\chi$ into irred characters does not use all basis elements, whereas $\chi(1) = \sum_{i=1}^N \langle \chi, \chi_i \rangle$ uses all the basis elements, and throws out the ones which are orthagonal. I'm not seeing why we don't have straight up equality based on this arguement
MasakaBakana
We have $|G| \sum \lvert \chi(g)\rvert^2 = \sum m_i^2$
Noob666
And $\chi(1)=\sum m_i$
Noob666
Yes and the $m_i = \langle \chi, \chi_i \rangle$ right?
MasakaBakana
Yep, I don't see the issue
I only get $m_i$ and not $m_i^2$. We know $\frac{1}{\lvert G \rvert} \sum \lvert \chi(g) \rvert ^2 = \sum \langle \chi, \chi_i \rangle
MasakaBakana
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Where that comes directly from decomposing chi into irred characters, and using the linearity of inner product
How did you get that last inequality?
$\langle \chi, \chi \rangle = \sum \langle \chi, \chi_i \rangle$
Noob666
that's not true
Since $\chi = \sum \chi_i$, we have $\langle \chi, \chi \rangle = \langle \chi, \sum \chi_i \rangle$
MasakaBakana
Ya, that's what I'm saying
Say you're $V_i$ is the ith irreducible representation
Then given any other representation $V$ we have
$V= \oplus V_i^{m_i}$
Noob666
We loosely follow Martin Issac's book
You get this right?
Yes
So a general character looks like $\chi = \sum m_i \chi_i$
Noob666
Yes, I understand that part since chi_i form a orthnormal basis of class fucntions of G
so $\langle \chi, \chi \rangle = \sum m_i \langle \chi, \chi_i \rangle = \sum m_i^2$
MasakaBakana
And since $\chi(1) = \sum m_i$, we have $\langle chi, chi \rangle \geq \chi(1)$, so I see where the inequality comes from then
MasakaBakana
Cool!
Also, I have another question which I think has a easy answer, but I can't see it. Is it possible to have a irreducible character of a finite group that vanishes everywhere except at the identity?
Prove that for every irred char other than the trivial one,
$\sum \chi(g)=0$
Noob666
I think I can prove that yea
MasakaBakana
thank you
Yo I'm trying to prove that a field K has only two ideals, and also find those ideals.
My buddy and I instantly found that these ideals are the trivial ideal, and the entire field.
To prove it we supposed that J is a nontrivial ideal of K which is not K itself. Since J is nontrivial it contains a nonzero element x and thus it contains all elements of K which have the form rx, and the same for the inverse of x.
This just gave me a little room to work with, so now I assumed that k was not a part of J
this means that we cannot write rx=k, for any rx in J
I finished the proof by stating that this implies that k-rx is not contained in K, which is a contradiction under the field axioms.
Just show I = the whole ring iff I contains a unit
Did I have a massive brain fart or is this okay
if it's the whole ring it contains 1 so you're gg ez
if it contains a unit, say u, then it contains uu^-1 = 1 by absorption
then it contains x1 = x for any x in R
so it's R
I think this is basically what you did but I think it's easier to just prove this general statement then apply it
Sure thing. Thanks gamer
how do i show that $x^4+9x+3$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{-2})[x]$? I have tried using the contrapositive of Gauss lemma to work in $\mathbb{Z}(\sqrt{-2})[x]$ and using Eisenstein's Criterion. But 3 doesn't seem to be a prime there.
alyosha
<@&286206848099549185>
I want to explicitly write out the group generated by (1,2,3) in S_3. I think I'm doing something stupid and I can't figure out what.
(1,2,3) --> (1,3,2) -> (1)(2,3) -> (1,2)(3) -> (1,3)(2), but (1,2,3)(1,3) = (1)(2,3), which is not the identity.
what did you do to go from (132) --> (1)(23)?
🙈
General rule of thumb, if you’re coming up with a subgroup bigger than the order of the generator something fishy is going on
In this case 3 so if you start with the identity, then (123) and then (132) you should expect there to be nothing else subsequently
lol i can kinda relate with your status... i once wrote momomorphism for monomorphism
okie so given a vector v in R^n, we need to write it as sum of something in U and something in the orthogonal complement... so what would be a good start? Is there a nice choice of the "something in U"?
ah sure... so we need to show that U + U^{perp} = R^n. so if we pick v in R^n, we need to find u and u' such that v = u + u' and u is in U and u' in U^{perp}
okie let's go to help-9
Hey guys, how do you factorize f(x) = 6x^6 +3xy^7 + 3xy^5 - 18 in Z[x,y]?
I attempted this by using the ring isomorphism : Z[y]/(3,y^2 + 1) isomorphic to (Z/3Z)/(y^2 + 1)
Then using a map from Z[y] to Z[i] which is a homomorphism with kernel y^2 + 1
not sure if this is the right way to go, and would maybe like a short pseudoproof 🙂
so a factor of 3, is clear and next it would be cool if we can show
2x^6 + xy^5(y^2 + 1) - 6 is irreducible.
so killing that y^2+1 looks like a good idea
but maybe don't kill 3
Indeed, that was my logic too
because we know that x^6 - 3 is irreducible over Z[i] by eisenstein
yes
Thats what I had once I applied the map to f(x)
and I also used Eisensteins
But from x^6 - 3 being irreducible in Z[i], meaning that 2x^6 + xy^5(y^2 + 1) -6 is irreducible in Z[x][i], can I just conclude that f(x) = 3 * (2x^6 + xy^5(y^2 + 1) -6) is irreducible in Z[x,y]?
actually I had 2(x^6 -3) once I applied the map, but 2 and x^6 -3 are both irreducible
ah, right we would need some more work
okie won't it be better to directly kill y?
then we won't need to deal with the complicated ring Z[i]
and worry how 2 factors
what do you mean kill y?
use the map Z[x, y] --> Z[x] sending y to 0
so (2x^6 + xy^5(y^2 + 1) -6) is sent to 2(x^6 - 3)
yeah but that is achieved with the map Z[x][y]->Z[x][i]
because y^2 + 1 is in the kernel of the map
@rustic crown is this enough to show irreducibility in Z[x][y]?
idts... i don't want to brute force it and otherwise it doesn't really want to be irreducible 
ok thanks anyways
Abstract algebra lectures from a Harvard guy
How can one describe injective objects in the category of finite groups? Maybe we can use Cayley's thm, but I can't write it down precisely
You mean writing every finite group as the symmetry group of some object?
yeah
Yeah let me give you a link
This is lecture 2 of an online mathematics course on group theory. It describes Cayley's theorem that every abstract group is the group of symmetries of something, and as examples shows the Cayley graphs of the Klein 4-group and the symmetric group on 3 points.
The ending describes how one does that iirc
Hey can someone help me with this problem from dummit and foote? it's 14.2.30. Here's the question:
Tau in question is just the automorphism k(t) -> k(t) defined by t(f(t)) = f(1/t)
so to start out, if L is the fixed field, clearly k(t+1/t) is gonna be a subset of L, but I'm having trouble showing that the opposite inclusion holds - which is making me wonder if there's a better way to do this
(Also, in this case the subgroup generated by tau is simply {tau,1}, where 1 denotes the identity)
I feel like this is a super simple problem, but I just need a little bit of help to get rolling
what's [k(t) : k(t + 1/t)]?
so can you think of a polynomial that t satisfies, but over the field k(t + 1/t)
I'm having some difficulties working on this field in general tbh. I'm used to fields of the form Q(alpha) for some alpha lol. So when you say a polynomial that t satisfies, what do you mean?
i see, so the general thing to know is that if G is a finite group of automorphisms of a field F, then the extension F/F^G is extremely nice
it will satisfy all the cool properties you define over a course of field theory
okie so let's make a substitution, i'll call t + 1/t = s
what i'm asking is can you write down a polynomial in k(s)[x] which has t as a root?
i.e. if you replace x with t, that will equal 0
Ah so I'm basically trying to find the degree of the minimal polynomial for t when viewing the field in this way?
yep. that's how you calculate degrees of simple extensions!
if F is a field, the degree [F(alpha) : F] = deg of min poly of alpha over F
in our case, F = k(s)
F(t) = k(s, t) = k(t)
Ah ok! I'm looking for one now!
okie, let me know if you find a nice one 
then we'll try to use some theory and see how one can get to that polynomial without really going into the wild and finding it
Great thank you so much for the help!
Wait so potentially stupid question: since t is arbitrary as well, wouldn't the only such mapping just be the zero map?
not really, we have the s to play around with
the coefficients can involve s
recall s = t + 1/t
s^2?
oh oops I meant st - t^2 - 1
yep!
so the polynomial is x^2 - sx + 1
is this the minimal polynomial of t? [over the field k(s)]
So my gut is telling me no, but I don't quite see a better one haha
lol it is actually the minimal polynomial
baited
it's degree 2, if there was a smaller degree poly, then it would have to be linear and only possibility is x - t
oh because k(t+1/t) clearly isn't k(t) so the degree is at least 2?
yep, that's also a perfectly fine reason
Ah nice!
so yea, you can conclude [k(t) : k(s)] = 2, so what can L really be?
I don't quite see the next step tbh
yea, so as you've already noted k(s) is clearly a subfield of L
yeah, but couldn't L be of pretty much any degree?
well 2 is a pretty smol number
and L is no way going to be equal to k(t)
as the element t isn't fixed by the automorphism
Oh yeah! L must have degree 2
so then by the standard tower theorem, L has to be k(s)!
L on it's own cannot have a degree 
I meant over k(t)
yep!
L must equal k(s)!

in general if F is a field and G is a group of automorphism, you can show [F : F^G] = |G|
Sick!
that proves one direction of the galois correspondence!
okie, so here this is what i meant.
say you were working with an extension F/F^G and wanted to figure out the minimal polynomial of an element alpha in F
so one thing you can say pretty easily is that, if f is a polynomial with coefficients in F^G and has alpha as one of its roots, then the polynomial f fixed by the group G! which means under an automorphism of G, alpha will map to another root of f
Yep I follow!
so you wanted to find a polynomial with t as a root, so look at all the places t can go to
here we only had 1 non-trivial automorphism
which sends t to 1/t
so t can go to one of two things, {t, 1/t}
so look at the polynomial with those as roots!
(x - t)(x - 1/t)
x^2 - (t+1/t) x + 1
in general, if alpha can be mapped to {alpha_1, ..., alpha_r}
then we can look at (x - alpha_1) ... (x - alpha_r)
the coefficients of this polynomial are symmetric in all alpha
Oh dang!
so if you apply an automorphism now, those coefficients remain fixed. another way to see is that after applying the automorphism, the factors (x - alpha_i) are permuted
but since we're working over F/F^G
anything which stays fixed is by definition in F^G
so that polynomial is over the fixed field
gotcha!
you'll probably see this theory in sometime
It's weird since I'm honestly pretty comfortable with a lot of this stuff over extensions of a field like Q, but then my brain just shuts off when we get to fields like k(t) lmao
probably just haven't done enough practice problems!
yee, you'll get good soon 
mind if I run my answers to the other parts in this question by you when I solve them?
sure!
Thanks so much!
So for the second one, much like the first one, tau (sigma)^2 has order 2, so it suffices to just find the fixed field of tau (sigma)^2. So then I defined s = t(1-t), and noticed the extension field will satisfy the polynomial x^2 - x + s, but is this the minimal polynomial?
I think it's irreducible over the field in question since s doesn't have a square root in the field, but I'm not positive
you can paste in the same reason as before
yep!
wait in general if I'm trying to find the fixed field for some <theta>, does it suffice to show that theta fixes it?
Intuitively that makes sense, but I want to make sure that's the case before I potentially waste too much time haha
theta fixes what exactly?
sorry I wasn't clear: if we have a potential fixed field L, does it suffice to show that theta fixes L?
nope
Ah ok haha
why wasn't the answer just k in the first two parts
Oh true lmao
I meant does it suffice to show that L is the fixed field of theta?
I guess the way I said it 0 would always be the fixed field of literally every subgroup lmao
0 isn't a field 
Alright switch that to "the prime field" haha
right
but it does suffice to show that L is the fixed field of theta, right?
didn't get you lol.... depends on how you choose the "potential fixed field L"
if you make the wrong choice, it doesn't suffice
So we'd use the same technique to find it as before
not sure if i understand it correctly... the way we're finding it, it's guaranteed to be fixed by <theta>
gotcha. I guess I just gotta get looking haha
dang I'm really struggling to find this fixed field ngl
so I also know from a previous problem that <tau,sigma> is isomorphic to s3, so I tried to find some relation in there to get a decent description of tau sigma, but I had 0 luck
okie so notice that this polynomial is the minimal polynomial of alpha = alpha_1
that's what we really started with
so if alpha_1 is a root, then since the orbit of alpha under G is {alpha_1, ..., alpha_r} all of these are forced to be roots!
so in this case our alpha would be t?
yep
you can look at the field k(e_1, e_2, ..., e_r) where e_i are the coefficients of f = (x-alpha_1) .... (x-alpha_r)
it's clear like last time that k(e1, ..., er) is contained in F^G
but we're not sure if it equals F^G
so alpha_1 is t and the others are functions of t?
yep
gotcha
since f is irreducible over F^G, it has to be irreducible over k(e1, ..., er)
that's a smaller field, if it breaks here, then it breaks over F^G
F = F^G(t) over F^G has degree equal to r
but we can say the same for F = k(e1, ..., er)(t)
if this is confusing, maybe try to do it concretely like the first and second part
The thing I still don't get is how we use this to figure out what our fixed field is. I'm really confused how we find the generator
oh, we get that the fixed field is generated by the coefficients of the polynomial f
in the first case it was (x - t)(x- 1/t)
the coefficients are t+1/t and 1
in the second case it was (x - t)(x - (1-t))
the coefficients are 1 and t(1-t)
since 1 is already in k, we can ignore it as a generator
oh so in this case will it just be (x-t)(x-sigma(tau(t)))?
(and we can find the tau(sigma(t)) pretty easily, I just haven't yet
what's sigma * tau? does it have order 2?
I meant the composition tau sigma
which is the automorphism we want the fixed field of in part 3 of the question
sigma(t) = 1/(1-t)
oh cool
so the minimum polynomial will be (x-t)(x-(1/(1-1/t)))?
so under tau*sigma, t is mapped to t/(1-t)
nah
wait
need to ocnfirm the order of tau*sigma
so then the generator will be found by the coefficients of that min poly?
so then the answer will just be k(t^2/(t-1))!
yup
and all that's left to do is this same exact thing but for sigma!
yee, but this time order of sigma is 3 i think
nah, sigma^3 is identity
sorry I meant sigma^2(t)
under sigma, t is sent to 1/(1-t)
and that is further sent to 1 - 1/t
so need to look at the three coeeficients
I really appreciate you helping me out with all of this!
Hey hey, I have a single question :
If p is a prime number, are the subsets of Z/pZ all distinct from Z/pZ itself ?
I still feel so insecure about this theme so it would be nice that someone ensures it for good
What do you mean by this?
Subsets of Z/pZ are distinct from all of Z/pZ unless it’s the subset which is everything
But I don’t think that’s what you’re asking
AH yes, there is only the two trivial subsets here
Yes, then indeed there’s only the trivial one and everything
n>=1
And in Z/p^nZ you have one subgroup of every order p^k with k <= n
Which is a copy of Z/p^kZ
Isn't it written kZ/p^nZ with k/p^n then ?
But like p^n is a prime factorisation, so k is only factorisable by powers of p ?
That sort of shows what elements it is inside of Z/p^nZ
But I think it’s more common to just say it’s a copy of Z/p^kZ inside of Z/p^nZ
But you’re right that in terms of concrete objects, it will look like that
What I mean here is that if you want to think of Z/p^nZ as like
[m]
Equivalence classes
Then yeah it’ll look like the subgroup formed by {[km]}
I am writing it like that because it helps me relate with the subgroups of Z being the kZ
Sure
Ice-E
By the way, since I'm talking about distinct groups here
I was looking through properties of equivalence classes
Which would make me have to know about what the inverse of an equivalence class is
But I know that not every equivalence class have an inverse
Would there always be an inverse in Z/p^nZ because p is a prime number ?
Yes
This is the content of Bezout’s lemma
Oh no
Not in Z/p^nZ no
For example, [p] will never have an inverse
Only in Z/pZ then
The things with an inverse in Z/nZ are those coprime to n
This is because of Bezout’s lemma
In Z/pZ everything is coprime to p, cuz p is prime
Maybe it would be better to discuss it in vc honestly
I actually have to leave soon
Aaaa
Do you know the statement of Bezout’s lemma?
x and y are coprimes, iff there exists p and q relative integers such that px+yq=1 ?
Yes
It actually goes the other way
If those p,q exist, then x and y are coprime
Note that if we move yq to the right
This says px = 1 mod y iff x and y are coprime
Aaaaah nice
But px = 1 mod y means that x is invertible in Z/yZ
So this is how you get the statement about inverses
Anyway, I must go
What's very confusing about Z/nZ is when you mix up additive order and multiplicative order in (Z/nZ)*
You have an easy criteria for being a generator in the additive group (with Bezout's theorem) but you know nothing about the multiplicative order when you have an additive generator
So when we are working in a ring you say ?
Yes
Have a good day !
Luckily enough, I am only working with groups
For now
Actually some cryptography is based on this (the discrete logarithmic problem)
Ah sorry I asked the question because I was having a hard time with a big homework during the whole week-end and I couldn't unlock myself from so much problems in it
Well I would have too much to ask and I would probably monopolise the whole channel, which is not a good think imo
Knowing $p$ and $q$ are prime numbers, and
[
G_1=\mathbb{Z}/p^n\mathbb{Z} ; G_2=\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}/q\mathbb{Z} ; G_3=\mathbb{Z}/p^2\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}/q\mathbb{Z}
]
I have found all of their respective subgroups, as listed up above in the previous conversation.
I now need to find all of their maximal distinct subgroups.
The real problem I am facing is for the "distinct" part.
What would be a distinct subgroup in Z/nZ in general ?
Epsilia aka Epe
I think that it probably means : find all subgroups H in G such than
- H ≠ G
- if H' is another subgroup of G such than H is contained in H', then either H'=H or H'=G
Exactly, it's just that it's never H'=H but H'=G
So that means you found one
I mean $p^{n-1}\mathbb{Z}/p^n\mathbb{Z}$ would be one ?
Epsilia aka Epe
Yes exactly ! But {0} is not
Yes, because it doesn't have any inverse
Euh wait it's probably the other way
(p) ≥ (p^2) ≥ ... (p^{n-1})
(if a number is divisible by p^2 it's divisible by p but not the other way)
Yeah sorry
The one set that would contain the most amount of number of $G_1$, while being a subgroup of $G_1$, without being $G_1$ itself
Epsilia aka Epe
Could only be $p\mathbb{Z}/p^n\mathbb{Z}$ then
Epsilia aka Epe
Yes
Here with Z/p^nZ is not hard because it's a cyclic group, with cardinal a prime power
The problem now is that it is not distinct from $G_1$ though
Epsilia aka Epe
It's a bit harder with, let's say, Z/pqZ
There would be 2 different ones then
Yes
Why ?
One with p at the "numerator" and an other one with q
Because [p] wouldn't have an inverse, wouldn't it ?
Is 1 contained in pZ/p^nZ ?
(I have to go; for this one, remember that if [p] has an inverse in pZ/p^nZ then [p] also has an inverse in Z/p^nZ)
Yes
Try to write pZ/p^nZ
I'm trying for the past 5 minutes lol
It's made of multiples of p, modulo p^n
So it would be what we had in Z/p^nZ, but multiplied with p
In terms of equivalence classes
So we wouldn't have [1]
So ||0, p, 2p, 3p, ... p^{n-1}||
Yes
(it's the answer)
Yeah, not daring is a big problem of mine lol
Anyway, have a good day, thanks a lot for the help !
Wait it doesn't make sense
Wasn't it 1, p, p², ..., p^{n-1}
?
Because yes if the groups are with the addition
Then we would have 0, p, 2p, ..., (n-1)p
Then the notaton p^n would be defined as np
The same way that p^-1 would be defined as -p
Oop, should be 3x^2+2, not the - one.
Schmoovin’
Maybe not wait
Then since when is it the case (p-2)/3 is not a square then? Feels like I’ve seen this somewhere before
who knows geometric algebra here?

I wanna know how to represent a geometric algebra as a tuple of non-empty sets and operations
you know how you'd represent a field as (X, +, *) with a bunch of axioms
how would you do that for a geometric algebra?
Is geometric algebra algebraic geometry?
That's literally what I was asking myself while typing that


oh sorry i forgot that this is a math server
clifford algebra is commonly called "geometric algebra" by physicists (and even by william king clifford himself)
you might be familiar with clifford algebra I'm not sure what the math people learn lol anyway basically in it you can add vectors and scalars and instead of the cross product there's the wedge product, if you wedge two vectors together you get a bivector, if you wedge a vector and a bivector you get a trivector, if you wedge k vectors together you get k-vectors
that's where I first saw it too lol
oh lol
I needed to know how you can represent a clifford algebra as an n-tuple of sets and operations
we all started from there
$H_1$ and $H_2$ are subgroups of G(finite)$\$
Prove TFAE$\$
- Permutation representation associated to action of G on $G/H_1$ and $G/H_2$ are isomorphic.$\$
- For any conjugacy class [g] in G, $\abs{[g]\cap H_1}=\abs{[g]\cap H_2}$
Averisera
Putting it here again
Still can't do it
For 1-->2, if I can somehow show that H_1 is conjugate to H_2, I am done and for that I need G/H_1 is isomorphic to G/H_2 as G-sets
Any ideas on how to get that?
Can someone explain to me what an isomorphism is?
Do you know what a homomorphism is?
Sounds like the exterior algebra
Is an equivalence between two objects
Okay, thanks.

i fear your power
an invertible homomorphism
a homomorphism is mapping between two algebraic structures(that are the same type like groups, rings, vector spaces etc.) that preserve their operations
like for example a linear transformation between vector spaces is a homomorphism because it preserves the operations of vector spaces (addition and scalar multiplication)
and if that mapping is invertible
it's an isomorphism
someone please correct me if I'm wrong
It is usually better to say invertible homomorphism than bijective homomorphism because there are structures in which bijective homomorphisms may not be invertible (eg partially ordered sets)
invertible means that the inverse is also a homomorphism
??
@chilly ocean this is the formal def. one should also include intuition of identification of 'same' structures
???
a < b,c, where b and c are non comparable, and a<b<c
these are 2 orders on {a,b,c}
identity map is a one way homomorphism
in general, relational structures will have this property, because "preserving relations" is defined as R(a_1,...,a_n) → R(f(a_1),...,f(a_n)), instead of an iff
urgh

