#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Ā· Page 605 of 407
lol no need to be rude when you are asking others for help, no one owes you anything š
Find all functions satisfying that equation
Functions meaning group homomorphisms here
all functions 
I guess that works too actually 
i don't think you understand the question

Why do you think that?
Deez nuts jokes are not against the rules
it's ok
Yikes
They donāt just want group homos here i think.
as it stands profanity is not against the rules
Someone post an appropriate copy pasta.
im getting unsolicited dms from them š© isnt that against the rules
Who?
Dm modmail with a screenshot
Block if reasonable
keep bugging me to help them when I told them they were rude and should learn manners before asking for help
Yeah send a screenshot
This isnāt exactly unsolicited lol
Anyhow the drama s clogging up the channel prolly move somewhere else.
Yea guess not they added me i msged them asking why

Iāve done all the parts of the hint except that psi is a bijection. I can show this for the infinite case but for the finite case I need to show (a,|K|)=1 and all I can show is (a,|phi_1(K)|)=(a,|phi_2(K)|)=1. I also see that I can pick any other aā as long as itās congruent to a mod |phi_1(K)|. I tried pigeonholing by generating successively new divisors of |K|/|phi_1(K)| by adding multiples of |phi_1(K)| and taking gcds with |K| but it doesnāt quite work. Tried other methods that donāt involve a 2-sided inverse and they donāt work either.
This question is asking you exactly what it states lol. We want to find all functions f that satisfy the given conditions. The solution simply makes use of what it means for h to be in G=<g> and what it means for the rest of the given conditions to be true.
@chilly ocean Please don't post anything if you're not going to be polite to people who are simply trying to help you.
@wooden ember yeah this is weird, cause its definitely not true that any choice of a will make psi bijective. But by using what you note about being able to choose any other a', you can always choose some other a' mod |phi_1(K)| so that gcd(a',|K|) = 1
word of advice....if their dms are annoying you can just block em especially since they weren't dming you with anything helpful and they were clearly being impolite beforehand.
But why? How do I show this
@wooden ember Convince yourself that you can reduce to the case where |phi_1(K)| and |K|/|phi_1(K)| are coprime. In that case, you can look at the system of equations x = a (mod |phi_1(K)|) , x = 1 (mod |K|/|phi_1(K)) and use the Chinese remainder theorem
Hmm alright Iāll think about how to reduce to that case
hey guys Im trying to follow this from a YT video. Could anyone help me in solving this types of proofs?
for example Im not sure how to show that all the real numbers with addition are indeed a group
Well, addition of real numbers is associative and commutative, and 0 is the identity element, and the inverse element of x is -x
So R is a commutative group under addition
?
They're saying a set with a binary operation is called a group if it satisfies all group axioms + commutativity
no
That's what the image is saying bro
'the group is called a commutative group (Abelian group) if we have additionally that'
Oh
Shit
Didn't see that sentence
The fact that they're using additive notation for a grouo that's not necessarily abelian also threw me off
My bad
yeah that's fair
If R is a noetherian ring, and A an R-Algebra of finite type, why is then also A noetherian?
Is maybe A isomorphic to some polynomial Ring in finitely many variables over R, and then by Hilberts Basissatz A is also noetherian?
Do you think you could elaborate on āreduceā? Iām feeling pretty dumb⦠
what would be the extender version of this group?
Almost. A is iso to a quotient of some polynomial ring in R
And then as you said hilbert basis theorem.
Thanks!
you can say that the real numbers by definition is a field and so is an abelian group under +
@blissful mauve
If they're learning the definition of a group, I imagine they're not allowed to use the fact that R forms a field
Ye just showing it directly is probs best
Hi guys. If we let $\mathbb{R}$ be the additive group of real numbers and $\mathbb{A}$ be a subgroup generated by an irrational number, the second isomorphism theorem says(?) $\frac{\mathbb{A}+\mathbb{Z}}{\mathbb{Z}} \cong \frac{\mathbb{A}}{\mathbb{A}\cap\mathbb{Z}}$
Brian485
the second group is obviously isomorphic to Z but im not sure if the first one is because A+Z is dense in R and clusters around 0. Whats wrong with my reasoning?
what
what do you mean?
Yeah idk, is A+Z really dense in R?
If A is, say, generated by k then A = kZ, right?
Yeah sure, I see that now ig
A + Z is absolutely dense
it's a nice consequence of compactness of the circle
how so?
ig makes sense intuitively as módulo one you'll cycle through the entirity of [0,1]
it's equivalent to saying that (the image under the projection of) A is dense in R/Z, which is topologically a circle
because x is irrational, all numbers of the form nx are distinct mod Z, and thus form an infinite set in the circle, so by compactness they must have a limit point, and then they get arbitrarily close to that limit points, so you can consider the subgroups generated by elements of the circle arbitrarily close to the identity, which get arbitrarily close to every element
Oh sweet
Cheers
Do we not have that A+Z is isomorphic to Z^2 though, which would make sense of the above thing Brian shared?
Maybe im being thick though but that's clearly at least a bijection
yeah exactly
by definition A + Z is the image of this
and if this wasn't faithful, x would be rational
yeah, sure
is that whats going on?
yes
side note
I like the fact that in abelian groups, the join of subgroups is precisely the element-wise sum
Sorry to jump in but given that weāre treating A and Z as separate groups
I think it makes it more clear to say that (A+Z)/Z is iso to A
I sort of see what you mean
by they're trivially isomorphic
we only distinguish them with respect to their embedding in R
Similarly, A/(A cap Z) is iso to A because A and Z are disjoint except for 0
even their embedding with R is equivalent up to automorphism of R, it's about the simultaneous choice of embedding of each
Im just saying that in the context of this question, (A+Z)/Z is iso to A regardless of whether or not A is Z
but your point still stands, yeah
Yes i like this way of phrasing
thanks so much guys! what still bugs me is how A+Z is dense, won't that mean A+Z/Z cant have a generator? cause you can always find a smaller element
No, as weāve established, that group is cyclic and therefore has a generator
Itās just the group A again, so whatever the generator of A is
A + Z is dense in R, but that doesn't mean that you can "find a smaller element" within (A + Z)/Z
the quotient there is very important
I think youre confused because youre trying to hold onto this āorderingā
But you cant order R/Z
yeah the ordering breaks down within the quotient
right right, forgot things "wrap around" in A+Z/Z
For example 0.25 < 0.5 < 1.25 even though 0.25 = 1.25 in R/Z
yes
You cant talk about bigger or smaller
thanks again guys
hmm
the people who asked for help wrt this question shouldn't worry about it
but
i was wondering
there's this concept of a "cyclic ordering"
essentially it's a ternary operation where [a, b, c] means proceeding from a, we get to b before c
and I'm wondering how that would interact with quotients of - say abelian ordered groups by cyclic subgroups
probably very nicely
Hmm it seems reasonable but im still maybe a little suspicious
i.e. intuitively
it should even generate the circle topologically
you can do that anyway by gluing the cosets of Z
supporting the intuition that the algebraic structure naturally induces these quotient objects
but yeah i understand your suspicion, i personally didn't bother with verifying the formal construction of the cyclic ordering, I was just like "yeah seems reasonable"
i just happened to encounter it because of some guy on reddit
and i thought "huh, I wonder if that applies here"
if anyone wants to, you can google the definition, try to verify that these quotients do naturally have a cyclic orderings, and that it respects the group operation
Hi i'm back again to check that i'm not dumb. Suppose you have a short exact sequence of chain complexes of free abelian groups
$$0 \rightarrow S' \stackrel{i}{\rightarrow} S \stackrel{p}{\rightarrow} S'' \rightarrow 0$$
Such that $S',S''$ are acyclic, and I wanna show that $S$ is acyclic.
So we know from the exact triangle that this sequence induces an exact sequence of homology groups
$$\begin{tikzcd}
\ldots & {H_n(S')} & {H_n(S)} & {H_n(S'')} & {H_{n-1}(S')} & \ldots
\arrow[from=1-1, to=1-2]
\arrow["i", from=1-2, to=1-3]
\arrow["p", from=1-3, to=1-4]
\arrow["d", from=1-4, to=1-5]
\arrow[from=1-5, to=1-6]
\end{tikzcd}$$
Where $i,p$ are the induced maps and $d$ is the connecting homomorphism. Note that since $S',S''$ are acyclic, for every $n \geq 0$ we infact have the exact sequence
$$\begin{tikzcd}
0 & {H_n(S)} & 0
\arrow["i", from=1-1, to=1-2]
\arrow["p", from=1-2, to=1-3]
\end{tikzcd}$$
So it follows that $H_n(S)=0$ and so $S$ is acyclic as required
ShiN
yep!
yay
what is a pollack group?
If |phi_1(K)| and |K|/|phi_1(K)| share a common prime factor p, then since a and |phi_1(K)| are coprime, you know that p doesn't divide a, a + n|phi_1(K)| will always not be divisible by p. Thus, you can look at |phi_1(K)| and |K|/p instead
for some reason i just cant wrap my head around why s/1 should be a unit
can i just pick 1/s to be its inverse
seems too easy
also cant i run into some zero divisor shenanigans
yes you can pick 1/s to be the inverse, but you need to confirm that s/s is equivalent to 1/1
I'm not sure what you mean by zero divisor shenanigans, the problem discusses that by saying that its a monomorphism iff no element of S is a zero divisor
So by the defn of equivalence i need to show u(s1-1s) = 0 for some u
Why doesnt this show that every a/1 is a unit in RS^-1
if a isn't in S then 1/a doesn't exist in RS^-1
sleep well
Don't let the bed bugs bite!
Is the a general "strategy" to find stuff like maximal ideals in particularly common rings? For example, on polynomial quotient rings R[x]/f(x)? Or everything is case by case basis?
there's gotta be something about rings of that particular form because they're incredibly important
especially when R is a field, and if it's algebraically closed on something
and they should be very well behaved
One strategy I can see off the top of my head when F is a field is to consider the natural projection $\pi : F[x] \to F[x]/(p)$, then for every ideal $I \subset F[x]/(p)$, we have that $\pi^{-1}(I)$ is an ideal of $F[x]$, and the last is a PID.
I think that would mean that all ideals are given by a polynomial that divides p, or something like that, I'm too tired to make sure.
Another strategy is for a maximal ideal M, consider the field that is the quotient by it. What could it be?
All groups are abelian
ohhh yeah that should do nicely when you can factorize the polynomial on something nice and simple
funny enough, like how I initially thought this would be nicely behaved on algebraically closed fields, their polynomials factor into c(x1-k1)...(xn-kn)
okay, so I've been thinking about this a little, and you asked in particular about R[x]/(p), but let's think about R[x]/I when R is an integral domain
there two important kinds of maximal ideals: those that contain a non-zero constant, and those that don't
I think that the first of these precisely consists of the ideals of the form (J, x) when J is a maximal ideal of R
And I think the second of these has something to do with fields containing R and solutions to all polynomials in R
oh, I forgot something, I was talking about ideals of R[x], what I didn't mention is that maximal ideals of R[x]/I are precisely the images under the projection of maximal ideals of R[x]
And if K is an integral domain, and we have p irreductible, then the ideal generated by p is maximal if i undertood correctly
Maybe you're right, I know this in the case k is a field, then it's because k[x] is a PID
ah yeah, in my syllabus says for integral domains "maximal among principal ideals"
but if we have PID that's all ideals
I think "maximal among principle ideals" means there's no principle ideal strictly between it and the whole ring.
yeah that's my take too
Unless we're in a field, in which case all ideals are principal no?
yes, but it's not generally true for integral domains
yup
let R = Z and p = x^2 + 1, p is clearly irreducible
but Z[x]/(p) is the Gaussian integers, which are very cool, but certainly not a field
and thus (p) isn't maximal
okay, so, let I be a maximal ideal of R[x] and let k in I be a non-zero constant. Then let J = (k, x). I think we can prove (k) is a maximal ideal in R and I = J.
let's first prove J is proper and contains I. then since I is maximal this gives I = J. We can show J is proper because 1 isn't in J. It can't be expressed as kp + xq.
J = (k, x) not familiar with that notation sorry :p but : https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/504551/image-of-a-maximal-ideal/504604
Images of maximal ideals under surjective morphism (and between commutative rings) are either maximal or the entire ring
And the canonical projection to the quotient is surjective
(k, x) is the ideal generated by k and x
ah gotcha
and I mean in R[x] with k considered as a constant
I'm trying to figure out how to prove J contains I
cause if it's not true, my theory about what the maximal ideals look like will be wrong
okay, it's not true, but in a way such that the overall proof is salvageable
Are you trying to classify primes of Z[x]?
(imma be honest, following at 80% here). But, for fields at least, gathering all i get that the ideals generated by irreducible polynomials are maximal, and their image under the canonical projection to any quotient ring is either the entire quotient ring or maximal.
not primes, maximal ideals
Ah
That takes you most of the way to classifying prime ideals
This is kinda hard
(psss: I'm just nodding my head along)
At the very least they canāt be principal
I think youāre trying to figure it out yourself so I wonāt spoil it
yeah
well, two things (1) we're actually thinking of a general integral domain, (2) I'm not looking for a complete classification per se, I just have a theory that I want to prove that classifies them into two types, shows that one is the ones of the form (k, x) in R[x] where (k) is maximal in R, and then just give a certain condition on the ideals of the other type
Honestly, I was just doing some very basic exercises about finding maximal ideals on some simple rings, and i realized that i didn't had any "main ideas". You know, like 'check this, and check this, and then do this" and had solved the few i had done because there was some easy characteristic
But this turned out to make me go ahead and review a lot so, very productive discussion xD
yeah then they asked here for general strategies for finding maximal ideals of rings of nice forms, and I started thinking about it, which lead me to what I'm doing now
This will be false
It's too vague for it to be false.
I didn't say that.
I just have a theory that I want to prove that classifies them into two types, shows that one is the ones of the form (k, x) in R[x] where (k) is maximal in R, and then just give a certain condition on the ideals of the other type
Oh, I see
I think that condition will have to do with fields that contain R
I donāt think youāll get a satisfying condition looking at trying to classify maximal ideals of R[x] over general integral domains
They could have arbitrarily many generators
Yeah, what I'm looking for is less of a classification and more of a partial description
what I think though, and don't spoil for me whether this is true
is that the ideals of the form (k, x) will be precisely those that contain any non-zero constant
So
A maximal ideal which contains a non-zero constant
Has a decomposition like (k,x)?
I think it's probably true, yes, but don't spoil it for me yet.
Ok
oh wait, not quiet
I can see that this is wrong but I know how to fix it
replace k, an element, with a maximal ideal of R
so it reduces to (k, x) when R is a PID
Iām not sure
But your initial conjecture was wrong
Dunno about the revised one tho
Yeah, I still have it all improperly organized in my head.
I think I thought of something like this earlier then lost the part where it's any maximal ideal
I am mainly thinking about polynomial rings over Z because those are easy ways to get examples
okay, so let I be a maximal ideal of R[x]. let phi : R[x] -> x be the evaluation at 0 homomorphism
But those are also maybe too well-behaved to have the results there generalize for arbitrary integral domains
We wanna see if either phi(I) = 0 or phi(I) is a maximal ideal
if there was an ideal J properly inbetween phi(I) and R, phi^-1(J) should be properly inbetween I and R[x], no?
yes okay so phi(I) is indeed a maximal ideal, but I now think that's not quiet what I should've been looking for
Set theoretically thereās no reason it should be proper in R[x]
Youād have to argue using the properties of phi
alright
yeah, just let y be outside of J
I think youāre fine because phi is surjevtive
okay yeah that's not what I want to think about right now, I think this is what I need:
The intersection of I with the constants.
If I'm correct, either it's 0, or it's a maximal ideal.
Indeed it has to be an ideal, because it's the pullback of I under the inclusion of R in R[x] as constants
okay, I think this is the idea that I'll need:
Let I be a maximal ideal of R[x] that contains a non-zero unit, and let J be a maximal ideal of R containing the preimage of I under the inclusion of R in R[x].
Can we then show that (J, x) contains I?
It contains everything with constant term in J, and R only has constant terms in J.
and it's proper since J is maximal and thus proper in R
so since I is maximal, I = J
Am I missing something?
oh no, this probably isn't true
every constant polynomial is in J, but that doesn't mean that every polynomial's constant term is in J
okay, maybe I was wrong with this statement
(i tapped out, way ahead of me)
yeah lol
I myself am struggling with trying to figure out what's happening, and apparently this is a very hard problem, I'm largely thinking out loud
if I do get a result I think you'll find interesting I'll @ you in a format that's more easily digestible than hearing me think out loud before I got it myself, if I even will figure this out
right now I'm thinking of (4, x+2) in Z[x]
I did find however that you were right on the thing right at the beginning about the ideals being by the factors of the polynomial
@next obsidian can you describe in what ways you are so mommy?
@next obsidian I think I was wrong, I actually think (2, x+1) in Z[x] is a counterexample.
I think I can show (2, x+1) in Z[x] is maximal with an argument involving (x+1) in (Z/2Z)[x] being maximal
I got assigned this by moth
but even without that
After I got āmommy mothā in some buzzfeed ass āwhat moth are you?ā Quiz we all took
Yeah
@urban acorn
even if it wasn't maximal, there's a maximal ideal that contains it
yeah
By exactly the calculation you did
the picture is indeed much more complicated than I expected
maybe it would be fun to try to classify the maximal ideals of Z[x] containing a non-zero constant.
Do you want a spoiler?
alright, hit me
They literally all do
wow
Proving this is kind of a pain
even more wow
This is the hardest part of classifying prime ideals of Z[x]
what's so special about vector spaces over fields with nonzero characteristic
apparently shit is supposed to break?
If you have char p
And you add something to itself p times it dies
It can make things kind of awkward
Iām sure thereās other stuff
whenever you have a vector space over a field of characteristic 0, you really at the very least have a vector space over Q
so a lot of structure which feels general is really just Q
so when you lose Q, you lose a lot
I think there was something with representations I don't quite remember, but I remember where to find it
There is
You donāt want to be divisible by the characteristic in order to get like⦠Artin-Wedderburn?
Altho I guess thatās group rep theory
Itās something about p not dividing |G| then some result holds
This is what makes rep theory over C for example so nice, but conversely it means rep theory is only intersetinf in positive characteristic
oh yes
that is familiar
representation theory over C is also nice because it's algebraically closed I think
Yeah
I mean itās C
casually throwing this in there at the end of chapter 1
because students will definitely understand this
I mean, it's a good pedagogical approach to just work over R and C when teaching linear algebra to undergraduates
i guess since he brought up fields he kind of had to include that
but it still could have been brought up later
or he could've developed fields like a normal person
and they are told "later you will learn that R and C are these things called 'fields', and you can in general define a vector space over any field. most of the work you'll do over R and C holds in general, except some fields that have this property that 1 + ... + 1 = 0."
big picture moment
you know R and R^2 are isomorphic as additive groups?
no i did not know that
They are vector spaces over Q.
And a cardinality argument shows that they have the same dimension.
yes
oh ok
but they still have bases, so you can say their "dimension" is a transfinite cardinal encoding how big their basis is
if these cardinals are the same, you have a bijection between these bases, and that extends to a linear isomorphism between them
ok so the general definition of isomorphic vector spaces is dimension having the same cardinal
well equivalent to the map preserving stuff
but yea
well, the definition would be the existence of a linear map that is a bijection
but that is equivalent to requiring the existence of a bijection between the bases
and by definition of cardinality, that is equivalent to saying that the cardinalities of the bases are identical
i see
where do people pick up set theoretic stuff like this at uni
because most (first year) linear alg courses aren't talking about cardinality?
because no way everyone takes a set theory course
not to butt in, but i very much dislike this fact
axiom of choice fuckery
cringe
axiom of choice is clearly the right thing to do
you don't even need axiom of choice to make them vector spaces over Q, you just need it to produce bases
but here's the thing
the reason this is icky for you is that there's more to R and R^2 than their Q-space structures
so it's morally wrong to consider R and R^2 as mere Q-spaces
for example, this additive isomorphism between R and R^2 is clearly not continuous
yo BanAnaMan is here
why do you need aoc again
LMAO
when are you taking an infinite product of sets
always
what do you mean
in the construction of the basis
like they're all just there
why do you gotta cartesian product them
where are you taking an infinite product when talking about R and Q?
it's just absurd to say that you can make a choice of element for each of a collection of set, but there is no simultaneous choice of elements out of each.
lol
lmao
i read some thing nami recently posted about if you accept ~c then there should exist an infinite product of sets which is empty
and that fucked me up
now im good tho
yes, axiom of choice is equivalent to "the cartesian product of every family of nonempty sets is nonempty"
For half a second i was like "Why is someone talking about ocasio cortez in abstract algebra"
if G is a group and H is a normal subgroup of G, is the direct sum of G/H and H isomorphic to G?
Z/4Z also works
which this is actually a special case of.
oh, that's right
I don't know how I missed that simple example.
ok. thanks guys. i couldn't think of a quick one of the top of my head
Z4 is definitely the nicest example
hmm. why does Z/4Z work as a counter example?
Z/2Z can be embedded as a subgroup, and the quotient will be isom to Z/2Z. But Z/4Z is not the direct sum of Z/2Z and Z/2Z
For completeness, if {1,x,x^2,x^3} is Z/4Z then {1,x^2} is isomorphic to Z/2Z
oh. thought that Stain meant Z and 4Z, so that Z/4Z + 4Z was not isomorphic to Z
but i guess both interpretations work, since Z/4Z + 4Z is also not isomorphic to Z, right?
Yes
the reason why Z/4Z + 4Z is not isomorphic to Z is not obvious to me : (
it just doesnt feel like they should be isomorphic
(1,0) should be an element of order 4, this wouldnāt exist in Z
whoops i need to brush up on my group theory lol
I have not shown the identity is in A
Oh I have to use the fact that A is a subset of a group

You can choose an x in A and find an a such that xa=x
Now see x and a as elements of G and you get a=1
I donāt get your question tbh
Painful sigma notation is the way to go
Just take two arbitrary elements, it has n terms
Add them and youāre fine
If you multiply you introduce higher degree stuff but you can replace that with lower degree terms using the fact that p_alpha(alpha) = 0
i dont follow this part
You can write alpha^n
In lower degree terms of alpha
Via that polynomial
Something like
Alpha^3 = 2alpha^2 + 45alpha -7 or something
This lets you just inductively take any monomial alpha^k for k >=n and turn it into some polynomial in alpha of degree < n
via p_alpha(x) right?
Yes
i guess the problem is im not fully wrapping my head around that polynomial
It just is a degree n polynomial which alph satisfies
Plug in alpha and you have like
alpha^n + lower degree terms = 0
Just move half of it to one side
Yeah
And y is similar but like with c_i
Just bash out what their product is then reduce all the alpha terms with too large a power
$x = b_1 + b_2\alpha + ... + b_{n-1}\alpha^{n-1}$
add
$y= c_1 + c_2\alpha + ... + c_{n-1}\alpha^{n-1}$
add
add
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
for representing something like this wouldnt sigma notation be useful?
i may be overthinking this but this could be represented as some double sum i think
Itās a double sum
Just describe the coefficients on alpha^i
Iāll leave you to the rest, you should be able to finish
Honestly
You donāt even need to write down the product
Just say
xy =
d_0 + ⦠+ d_{2n-2}alpha^{2n-2}
Just introduce new variables, the coefficients literally donāt matter
Then using an inductive lemma prove this can be rewritten only using alpha^0,ā¦, alpha^n-1
The exact coefficients donāt matter since they can just be whatever
Probably
that one involves bashing it out
Thatās the only way I can think to do it at least
what does bashing it out mean specifically?
Manually come up with the inverse
In terms of the coefficients of x
For that youāll probably have to manually write out the product because now the coefficients matter
oh ok
I ended up doing it differently but thanks
da moment when you see see "uh, this should be easy" and turns out you're trying to rediscover the Chinese reminder theorem (but you're a bad student and dont remember bezout )
So, is K[X]/fg isomorphic to K[x]/f x K[x]/g? if i understand things correctly, the above theorem says that's the case, no? Except maybe if fg are not coprimes?
yes that's the case
one of the conditions of the Chinese remainder theorem is that f+g must be the entire ring, which is only true if a unit is in f+g so they must be coprime
ah yes, thanks, last part was escaping my mind
Also I have shown that If the roots of the cubic equation x3 + bx2 + cx + d = 0 are
r1, r2, and r3, then b = ā(r1 + r2 + r3). where these roots may be the same as each other
since the equation has a rational root r1 = m/n and has r2, r3 real roots
then b = -(m/n + r2+ r3) is also constructible. Then must r2 and r3 be necessarily constructible since the constructible numbers are in a field? I'm not sure if this suffices
another suggestion i was given is to factor out the rational solution, but im not exactly sure what to do with that
I would give the same suggestion.
Can you show that the coefficients of the remaining quadratic are also constructible?
add
no
you shouldn't have an x in the denominator...
you're supposed to be factoring out (x-r) where r is the rational root
not just x
oh i see. x^3 + bx^2 + cx + d = 0, in factored form is 0 = (x - r1)(x-r2)(x-r3)
and lets say r1 is the rational root
then factoring it out gives us 0 = (x - r2)(x- r3)
that's right, but now i'm suggesting that you try to express the coefficients of that remaining quadratic in terms of b, c, d, and r1
$0 = x^2-r_2x - r_3x + r_2r_3$
so that you can prove that they're also constructible
add
oh
Why the "=0"?
i know that b = -(r1 + r2 + r3)
so -(r2 + r3) = b + r1
and that's the x-coefficient in our quadratic
that's a good start
what about the constant term r2r3
b = -r1 - r2 - r3
so
r2 = -b -r1 - r3 and r3 = -b -r1 - r2
that's true but not really useful here
can you express d in terms of r1, r2, and r3
im unsure
how did you prove that b = -(r1 + r2 + r3)
i expanded the factorization and looked at the coefficient of x^2
so why not just do that again?
okay, so now can you express the constant term of the new equation in terms of d and r1?
d = -r1r2r3, so then r2r3 = -d/r1
what i have so far is $x^2 + (b + r_1)x - \frac{d}{r_1}$
add
okay, now what adjective can you apply to the coefficients of that quadratic equation
(hint: it's really the only adjective we've been throwing around so far)
what does adjective mean
rational?
so rational is an adjective but not correct
all we know is that r1 is rational, we don't know anything about b + r1
but we do know that it's constructible
because both b and r1 are constructible
similarly for d/r1
constructible yeah
but now we are all set because
roots of quadratics with constructible coefficients are themselves constructible
and we could we show this using quadratic formula right?
that's right
the important thing is that square roots of constructible numbers are constructible
what about in the case when the square root in the quadratic formula turns out negative?
ohhh
so essentially each arithmetic operation on each term in the quadratic root expression yields a constructible root as well in the end
yep
the two roots of the quadratic are the two missing roots of the cubic
and they are the two roots you get when you apply the quadratic formula
and since the coefficients are all constructible, and all the manipulation you do in the quadratic formula (multiplying, adding, square root, etc) all preserve constructibility
these two new roots must be constructible as well
so yeah that is the proof :)
... or is it?????
(there is one small detail we are missing right now. one step that we did that might be illegal in certain cases. can you find it?)
that's right
(sorry for my delay)
so if r1 isn't 0, our current proof works
but what if r1 is 0? then d = 0 as well
so then what does our quadratic look like now after we factor out x?
yes, but even easier
is 0 = x^3 + bx^2 + cx = x(x^2 + bx + c)
since d = 0
and now your quadratic is just x^2 + bx + c and both b and c are constructible
so the rest of the proof still works out
oh yeah
and we can use the similar reasoning with the quadratic formula
as a justification
yep
thanks š
np
how would i show that the x_i are in the center of R[x_1, \ldots, x_r]
for r = 1 you can just use the formal definition i think
im not sure on how to multiply in R[x_1, \ldots, x_r] lol
this is the defn of a multivariate polynomial ring given
oh wait i can just use the case for n = 1
lol
like R[x_1, \ldots, x_{r-1}] is a noncommutative ring
so yeah it generalizes naturally
Yeah exactly
this is like the problem with tech support
you ask for help and then it fixes itself
thank you anyways
This is why you always keep a rubber duck on your desk
Ask the duck first
And then if that doesnt help, then you ask other people
:^)
would really be a worthwhile investment
In software engineering, rubber duck debugging is a method of debugging code. The name is a reference to a story in the book The Pragmatic Programmer in which a programmer would carry around a rubber duck and debug their code by forcing themselves to explain it, line-by-line, to the duck. Many other terms exist for this technique, often involvin...
lmao I used to mess with computers and I did that with a stuffed elephant toy
what is a $(1/2,0)\oplus (0,1/2)$ representation?
Muffin Man
what is the context
are these the weights for a direct sum of spin representations?
Is this false: "Let A be a commutative ring with unity and let J be an ideal of A. Then A/J is a field iff for any a in A, if a is not in J then for some b in A, ab-1 is in J"?
I'm thinking it fails for A=J since A/J will be the trivial ring hence it will not have a distinct unity from zero making it not a field.
And the second half of the biconditional seems like it will be vacuously true since every a will be in J.
My book says to prove it is true tho
.
I think it probably wants you to assume J is a proper ideal
Is ab-1
Supposed to be ab minus 1
Yes
Or a(b^-1)?
It is subtraction not multiplicative inverse.
Do you already know about a quotient being a field iff the ideal is maximal?
Yeah that was proved a few exercises earlier.
Actually
Scratch that
ab-1 in J
Implies that mod J, ab = 1
Aka b is an inverse to a
Yah
Oh, is your question simply about the case J = A?
I used that for one direction but reasoning towards A/J being a field at the last step i couldn't rule out that A/J wasn't trivial.
Thereās a lot of times some statements just fail for the really dumb cases
Like something is 0 or itās the whole thing
I think ppl just forget to write that condition down
Lol, yeah that's probably what happened.
Idk anything about constructible numbers but is S1 a proper subset of S2?
If so could the identity function give you that |S1|<=|S2|?
Then could it be possible to rule out that |S1|=|S2|?
(Perhaps S1 is countable but S2 is not or something?)
Just a random guess.
i dont think so, since S1 is the set of points on S where both coordinates are constrictuble, and S2 is the set of points on S where at least one of them are not constructible
So if (x,y) is in S1 then both x and y are constructible hence at least one of x or y is constructible therefore (x,y) is in S2. <- Why doesn't that work to show S1 is a subset of S2?
S2 is where one of them isnāt constructible
If both are constructible then you arenāt in S2
S1 and S2 form a partition of all possible points I think
I missed the not in "not constructible" in the defn of S2 lol.
@fickle tapir this is a ridiculous way to do it
But S = S_1 disjoint Union S_2
So for S to have cardinal out c one of S_1 or S_2 must have cardinality c
And the cardinality of either set is bounded by c
Actually this wonāt even work lol
I was going to suggest showing S_2 has cardinality c
But then S_1 could still have the same cardinality
And then youād only get a weak inequality
So you could instead prove S_1 has cardinality < c
And that forces S_2 to have cardinality c
then you get what you want
How would you prove that S_1 has cardinality < c? Fuck if I know, it probably has to do with the definition of constructible number
Are the constructible numbers countable?
If you know constructible numbers have cardinality < c, then S_1 is a subset of the product of constructible numbers by itself, and the product of two sets with cardinality < c has cardinality < c
So thatās one way to do it
Whats the splitting E of f(x) over Z3
where f(x) = x^4 - x^2 - 2 e Z3[x]?
(x^2+1)(x^2-2) is its factorization (i think unless it can go further)
so would it be Z3(alpha, beta)?
where alpha beta are roots of those factors?
i guess i, and sqrt2?
hm
i think Z3[i] has a square root of 2
i^2 = -1 = 2
so i would think the splitting field is just Z3[i] (or really, including sqrt(2) should be equivalent as well i think, Z3[i] = Z3[sqrt(2)] = Z3[i, sqrt(2)])
ah ok right
You should be able to check if they factor further or not 
You've done these kinds of problems before
Oh
I dont think they do factor
its (x^2+1)^2
x^2+1 evaluated at x = 0,1,2 is 1,2,2 respectively =/= 0 so its not reducible
so the splitting field is Z3(alpha) w alpha is the root of that ^
so i or sqrt 2 i guess?
and [Z3(alpha) : Z3] = 2
Yeah
As long as you don't mean i or sqrt2 of C
Yeah
ill just use alpha as arbitrary element thats a root
and Gal(E/Z3) iso to Z2 = {id, phi}
phi mapping alpha to -alpha?
Yep
yay tysm
[Z3(alpha) : Z3] = 2 = ord(Gal(E/Z3)) was a theorem if E is splitting field f(x) of Z3 and f is seperable i think
Yeah, splitting field of a set of separable polynomials is always Galois
So you have to prove separability of the stuff you're adjoining 
Finite extensions of finite fields are always separable
Uhh
oh seperable means all the polynomials w their coefficients are seperable (?)
i was confused cuz seperable describes polynomials
Separable means that minimal polynomials of all elements in the extension are separable
This happens iff minimal polynomials of the stuff you're adjoining are separable
So it's enough to check the minimal polynomial of alpha here
Or you can use what buncho mentions if you've seen it
All finite fields are perfect
given that i have proven that if k is an algebraically closed field then k must be infinite, how do i show that for $n \geq 2$, any nonconstant $f \in k[X_1, \hdots , X_n]$ must have infinitely many zeroes ?
xy
im thinking induction but i cant even prove the base case n=2
Well here is a hint: Let the variables be x and y. If we substitute in a particular value from k in for y ,say a, we get a polynomial in just x. If this polynomial is not constant, then this will have a solution, b. Then (a,b) is a solution. But we can do this for any a in k. (You have to be a bit careful about choosing the a so that the polynomial is non constant in x, there will be some casework youāll have to do)
ok lemme try
how can the resulting polynomial in one variable be constant? f is an element of $k[X_1, \hdots , X_n]$ and there are no additional relations (equations) imposed on it
xy
so you always get a nonconstant polynomial
Say f(x,y)=y+1.
If we substitute 0 for y, we just get 1
xy+1 if you want an example that has an x in it
ahh i see, ok lemme continue working on it
okay i cant figure it out :S
say $f(x, y) = a_1 x^{p_1} + a_2 y^{p_2}$ and $f(x, a) = a_1 x^{p_1} + a_2 a^{p_2} = \phi$ for some constant $\phi$, then we have a solution where $x$ is the $p_1$-th root of $$\frac{\phi - a_2 a^{p_2}}{a_1}$ ?
xy
say $f(x, y) = a_1 x^{p_1} + a_2 y^{p_2}$ and $f(x, a) = a_1 x^{p_1} + a_2 a^{p_2} = \phi$ for some constant $\phi$, then we have a solution where $x$ is the $p_1$-th root of $$\frac{\phi - a_2 a^{p_2}}{a_1}$ ?
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<to be read again>
l.55 ...root of $$\frac{\phi - a_2 a^{p_2}}{a_1}$
?
The `$' that I just saw supposedly matches a previous `$$'.
So I shall assume that you typed `$$' both times.
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not being a \varphi, the only acceptable phi
In any case, the answer is yes there is a solution to f(x,a) (assuming a1 is nonzero)
This is because k is algebraically closed, every non constant polynomial in one variable has a solution
and we can do this for every element of $k$, which yields the result?
xy
for this particular polynomial yes
and then we proceed by induction to prove the result for the general statement, is that right?
Well yes, but we havenāt finished for n=2 yet. For that particular polynomial we were able to find inf many things to substitute for y that gives us something non-constant, but we have to do this in general.
Do you see what I mean?
but the polynomial is of the form $f(x, y) = a_1 x^{p_1} + a_2 y^{p_2}$ which is a general form
xy
oh oh
How would you deal with xy+1? This isnāt of that form
Ok, well here is a general form of polynomials in two variables: they will look like $p_{n}(y)x^{n}+p_{n-1}(y)x^{n-1}+ā¦+p_0(y)$ where each $p_i$ is a polynomial in y
You can see this by ācollectingā all of the x^i terms and youāll see that you get a polynomial in y
Try using this
saketh
im not sure what you mean by collecting terms
ah ok
i thought you meant further collecting terms in the resulting sum with p_i(y) lol
Oh no, I meant collecting the terms is how you get things into that form. I hope that makes sense
yup
so we get $f(x, a) = p_n (a) x^n + \hdots + p_0 (a) = \epsilon$ for some constant $\epsilon$, which is a polynomial in one variable that has a solution since $k$ is algebraically closed
xy
i thought we had to split into cases where the resulting polynomial is either constant or non constant?
Well here is the catch, if p_i(a) is always zero (except for maybe p_0(a) ) then this is a constant
oh right
Ok, should I tell you the cases?
yes please š
So the first case is if f is just a polynomial in y with no x terms (equivalent to n=0 in the form I gave). The second case is for all other polynomials (that is, all polynomials where n>0)
Notice how in the first case, no matter what I substitute in for y, we always get a constant. But that is no issue because this is just a polynomial in y which will have a soln s. And then we can choose x to be anything in k, say a, and (a,s) is a solution.
So there will be infinitely many solutions. Now we just have to do the second case
and then the second case is clear because $k$ is algebraically closed and we will always have a solution, right?
xy
No, there is work to be done. Here is the soln in the second case: let $p_{n}(y)$ be the polynomial in the coeff of $x^{n}$This will have only finitely many roots, since k is infinite then there are infinitely many non roots. If a is a non-root, then $p_{n}(a)x^{n}+p_{n-1}(a)x^{n-1}+ā¦p_{0}(a)$ is a nonconstant polynomial (the coefficient of $x^{n}$ is nonzero). So it has a root b. So (a,b) is a solution. Because we can do this for all infinitely many nonroots we have infinitely many solutions to the original polynomial.
saketh
oh wow
okay i see, thank you! you've helped me for about 1 and a half hours now lol
thank you so much for your patience
No problem
How does it follow from this that if there is a finite trans basis then all trans bases are finite and of the same cardinality?
Like if I assume there is a finite basis A and some other basis B I don't really know how to show it's finite. If I show that then by symmetry it's immediate that they have the same cardinality
say A has n elements. B can't have more than n elements, as, if it did, you can just take out n + 1 elements and they would have to be algebraically dependent over F. But then this would contradict, that B is algebraically independent.
use this other way to get equality
why would that contradict that B is alg independent? B is alg dependent on A if those are bases though?
wait I think im missing something obvious
I dont get the n+1 thing as well yet wait
If A and B are both transcendence bases for some field K over some field F, then both A and B are algebraically independent, but they are also each algebraically dependent on the other one
yes
Now apply the proposition to each of the two pairs (A,B) and (B,A)
but the theorem assumes both are finite
but what if A finite B infinite
not sure how to find finite B' \subset B that can be also a basis
oh oops, i didn't mean that "on A"
The elements of A can only depend on finitely many elements of B
So choose those
And you still have a basis
Because with those finitely many elements of B, you can get all the elements of A (cuz thats how we chose that subset of B) and once you have A you have the whole field K
Err, sorry, if you picked redundant things you might not have a basis yet
But this is how you get B to be finite, and then just remove redundant elements if necessary
sorrt, wdym by ' once you have A you have the whole field K'?
like becasue K is alg over F(A) right
A is a basis for K
ok
Oh wait sorry, yeah up to an algebraic extension
Like, F(A) is contained in F(B) and also F(Bā) where Bā is teh finite subset we chose
So K is at most an algebraic extension of F(Bā)
so the point is each a \in A is given by some b's \in B and so take those b's and name the set B' and this way we get that |A|<= |B'| but we don't know if B' is a basis since it can have some alg dependent stuff. But K is definitely algebraic over F(B') because it is alg over F(A)
just trying to make sense in my head
so if K is alg over F(B') then for sure there is a basis B'' \subset B'
Im not making any claims about the relative size of A and Bā yet, but thatās what the proposition will do for us
But yes, this trick is how you turn the infinite set B into an actual finite basis Bāā which right now we dont know the size of
But then the prop tells us that Bāā and A have the aame size
Yeah, but finiteness of A just implies there is a finite B'' that's a basis
yep I think I got it now
thanks
Np and gl further
number of similar matrix of $\begin{bmatrix}
1 & 1 \
0&2
\end{bmatrix}$ in $GL_2(\mathbb{Z}_5)$
Frostbite
this is a perticular question but is there any general method for any matrix in $GL_n(\mathbb{Z}_p)$ where p is a prime
Frostbite
kinda
I think this should be a partial answer, but Iām not 100% sure about the working. Let F_q be the field with q elements. If M is a nxn matrix that is diagonalisible with all eigenvalues distinct in F_q (your original matrix should satisfy this) then we can try to find the stabilisers of M under the conjugation action from gl(n,q). So if BMB^-1=M we see that BM=MB. Now multiplying M on the right will multiply the collumns of B with the corresponding element on the diagonal of M. And the left multiplication is the same but for rows. So if BM=MB then B must be 0 outside of the diagonal, but can take any values on the diagonal. Since B has to be invertible we can choose any element except for 0 on the diagonal. So there are (q-1)^n stabilizers for M. Now to calculate the orbit of M all we have to do is take |Gl(n,q)|/(q-1)^n. And Gl(n,q) has some known cardinality as well.
Btw something similar should work even if the elements on the diagonal repeat, but you would get kxk āboxesā for an element which repeats k times where we can choose elements of B arbitrarily. So given n=k1+..+kr as the multiplicities ki of each element of the diagonal weāll get some formula for the number of stabilisers. For arbitrary matrices though I canāt really find anything nice.
Actually in the repeating diagonal entries case, finding choices st B is still in Gl(n,q) seems to be a pain, so scratch that. No nice formulae to be found I guess
Ok I think I have a formula for the repeating case too: |Gl(n,q)|/|Gl(k1,q)|Gl(k2,q)|ā¦|Gl(kr,q)|
@summer falcon
how should i think about F[u]
take an element g in F[x+(f(x))] i think
then you get g(x) = b0 + b1(x+(f(x))) + ...
but (x+(f(x)))^k = x^k + (f(x)) for all k
i think
something like that
and F[x]/(f(x)) has basis {1,x,x^2...x^n-1}
so g(x) = b0+b1x+b2x^2 + ... bn-1 x^n-1 + (f(x))
if g is in F[u]
something along lines of that
Anyone know how to show x^3 - sqrt2 is irreducible in Q(sqrt2)[x]
s, t both satisfy 2nd degree equations over F
So as long as F is not characteristic 2 you can use the quadratic equation and that basically gives you (a)
Would splitting field of
f(x) = x^3 - sqrt2 over Q(sqrt2)
be E = Q(sqrt2, w, 6th root of 2) where w^3 = 1
cuz roots of f(x) are
2^(1/6),
-w2^(1/6),
w^2*2^(1/6)
degree of E over Q(sqrt2) is 3
idk what a basis would be
though
as a vector space of Q(sqrt2) over E
I understand Gal(E/Q(sqrt2)) tho, its just isomorphic to Z3, and permutes the 3 roots in 3 ways (identity, and 2 cyclic ways)
i dont necessarily understand this part
in general, im having trouble seeing how to relate both the given equations and P=(S,t) to show s,t in F or s,t in F(sqrt(r))
im a bit overwhelmed by the amount of information
Basically you want to think about the minimal polynomials of s and t
s and t satisfy both equations and if you eliminate say s, then youāll see that t satisfies a polynomial equation of 2nd degree
Ie thereās a 2nd degree polynomial p(x) such that p(t) = 0
So that gives you a clue about the minimal polynomials of s and t
is this because of the ellipse formula?
Yep and because of the linear equation too
add
and the ellipse equation is $\frac{s^2}{a^2} + \frac{t^2}{b^2} = 1$
add
wait whoops i messed up
If anyone has time and could bless me w help from my post above whenever^ id be very grateful
Very useful lemma that you should try to prove yourself: if f is irreducible with degree m over a field F, and [E:F] is coprime to m, then f is irreducible over E
So irreducibility goes up along extensions that are co prime to degree
You can also change this slightly to get a statement about splitting, something along the lines of if f doesn't split over F, and m doesn't divide [E:F], then f can't split over E (not sure if this is correct, but there's at least a similar statement that is)
Lol I misread the problem
x³ - ā2 over Q(ā2)
Here you can just see the degree of the roots of this over Q
Then make a tower of extensions and you'll get a constraint on the degree of each irreducible factor
I figured out irreducibility
cuz its cubic
if it doesnt have a root we done
so i let a+bsqrt2 be a root and its impossible
and
i was just wondering what the
E would look like
Q(sqrt2, alpha1, alpha2, alpha3)?
w alpha1,2,3 are the roots of x^3-sqrt2?
wait this is cool ill save this and find the proof if its a big thm
Not a big theorem, it's a typical hw problem
Another way to prove irreducibility is to see that all the roots of x³-ā2 have degree 6 over Q, so they can't be contained in a degree 2 extension of Q
Over Q
O
if the Galois group is order 3
then its isomorphic to Z3 (cyclic grp)
and Gal(E/Q(sqrt2)) = {id, f, g}
f^2 = g
f*g = id
right
and they act on the roots
Yes
Must cycle the roots
There are 6 permutations
Only that the transpositions don't extend to automorphisms
so yea cycle roots
Yeah
period tysm
Is order of Galois group
of E = Q(i, 2^{1/4})/Q = 8
Q(i, 2^{1/4}) is splitting field of f(x) = (x^2+1)(x^4-2) over Q?
and since f(x) is separable over Q [Q(i, 2^{1/4}) : Q] = 2*4 = ord(Gal grp E/Q)
Do the tower thing to prove/disprove it
ill start with x^4-2
over Q
which contains 2^{1/4} root with irred polyn of degree 4
i hope its irred...
o wait yea can use RRT
err nvm
not that easy to show its irred
but anyway its degree 4
then since i is not in Q(2^{1/4})
and i is root of x^2+1 irreducible in Q(i, 2^{1/4})[x] ur done
Would Q(2^{1/4}) := {a+b2^{1/4}+csqrt2+d2^{3/4}, a,b,c,d e Q}
certainly does not contain i
O fuck i meant
E = Q(i, 2^{1/4}) over Q(sqrt2)
that would be degree 4 (?)
Here i am considering function $\phi_{B}(t)=B\phi(t)B^{-1}$\ so for continuity i showed $\lim_{h \to 0 }\phi_{B}(c+h)$=$ B\phi(c)B^{-1}$ same as $B\phi(c)B^{-1}$ , is it right to say function is continious?
TheStudent
Yeah this is continuous, follows from the fact that multiplication and inversion (hence conjugation) is continuous.
the way i proved is right? or i'm missing something? ( don't know this real analysis method of proving conitinous work for matrices)?
i mean if you proved the limit that would be enough
I fucking love conjugation; conjugation is based.
it's the most natural way for a group to act on itself
i.e. in a group with various geometric transformations, a rotation acting on a translation by conjugation will rotate the vector by which points are translated
and translation acting on rotation will translate the point about which we are rotating
it is truly an action of a group on itself in that elements act by group automorphisms
and it provides useful structure, which in some since captures the way the group fails to be abelian
Again make tower
which is already intrinsically important because abelian groups are the nice simple case
and better yet - kernels of homomorphisms are precisely those subgroups fixed by conjugation
how cool is that?
conjugation by g is like changing the "frame of reference" from which your element acts by g
and the best way to get an intuition for that is look at special cases where groups naturally have geometric actions
and it's also precisely what you need to multiply by in order to get the same result, on the other side of g
hence the relationship with commutativity
I think i got the order of Galois grp is 4
but idk if its Z2 x Z2
or Z4
I made the tower
and kinda think i get how it works
Q < Q(s2) < Q(2^{1/4})
of which none contain i so then i can ajoin i after
f(x)=(x^2-s2)(x^2+1) in Q(s2)
Canāt find your original problem... what Galois group are you calculating now?
If you are asking about G=Gal(E/Q(sqrt (2)) where E is the splitting field of f(x)=(x^2+1)(x^4-2) over Q, then G is isomorphic to Z/2Z * Z/2Z
If K is non cyclic is it always true that isomorphisms with distinct images in Aut(H) give rise to nonisomorphic semidirect products?
Actually nvm
You mean different Ļ : Kā> Aut (H) with different images define non isomorphic semiproduct of K and H?
Yeah but it aināt true
False I think
Yeah not true
I think choose a proper G and define Ļ_j: G ā> Aut (G*G) where Ļ_1(g) is the inner automorphism defined by (g,1) and Ļ_2(g)......(1,g) can give a counterexample.
Am I mistaken in saying that G is just the holomorph of H? It seems too simple...
looks good on paper but something doesnt feel right
You are correct I think
Wait, I think it should be modified to be N_H(Hol(H) not Hol(H)
How so?
Since any Ļ from Aut(H),(1,Ļ) is contained in the normalizer N_H(Hol(H))
But N_H(Hol(H)) is Hol(H)
In order to make H be a normal subgroup of G. I donāt think that H is necessarily normal in Hol(H)
Since H is normal in Hol(H)
It is by definition
Hol(H) = H semidirect Aut(H)
By definition of semidirect product H is normal in this product
Oh oh my bad yes Hol(H) is correct
why is Rm isomorphic to R/P
i tried homomorphism R -> Rm
but multiplication doesnt work
So they mean isomorphism as modules
sending r in R to rm in Rm would be a R-module homomorphism
okeeyyy
ive got it
yeah first iso works too, nice
hey i have another question
will there always exist an annihaltor in a module?
{ann(m)} will this always be non empty
how could that be empty
ok thanks
yeaa that was it
would it be E is the splitting field of f(x) = (x^2+1)(x^2-sqrt2) over Q(sqrt2) instead? or thats equivalent
Thanks a lot
idk if this is the better channel for this question or #point-set-topology (because it's like introductory algebraic geometry)
but just making sure right now, because I think I've got it, but I'm tired but who can tell
is it correct that - in $A^2(\mathbb{C})$ - $V(y^4-x^2, y^4-x^2y^2+xy^2-x^3) = {(1,1)} \cup {(1, -1)} \cup V(x + y^2)$?
All groups are abelian
and that this is the decomposition into a union of irreducible algebraic sets
well, yeah, actually, assuming this identity does hold, it obviously is the decomposition into a union of irreducible algebraic sets
but the sort of computational steps I took to get to this identity were a bit elaborate, and I'm tired right now
so just if anyone knows whether this holds, tell me
What is the largest order of an element in the group of permutations of 5 objects?
Looks good to me, hopefully I didnāt goof on the calculation
Scratch that, it is the largest lcm of things that can add to 5
So 6
It will be 2+3 cycle decomposition type permutation
