#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 606 of 407
Am I misunderstanding something? H_0 is abelian so all of its subgroups are normal, and there is a subgroup isomorphic to Z_pxZ_p
sure but im looking for a subgroup normal to P
the idea in the |H_0| = p^2 case was that since H_0 is itself of the form required and characteristic in H which is normal in P, H_0 was normal in P giving the result. But when |H_0|=p^3 im failing to find a subgroup of it of order p^2 necessarily normal in P
I see
any ideas 
Nope, I’m still thinking about it
welp ima go to bed maybe a fresh mind will help me better tmrw
Ok, I think I have an idea: Induct on the statement that P has a normal subgroup Z_pxZ_p and that Z_pxZ_p has a cyclic p subgroup that is normal in P. The case where P/Z is cyclic, ie P is abelian will work out in pretty much the same way. In the other case, by induction Hbar has a subgroup of order p that is normal in P/Z, call it T. If |H_0| is p^2 then we are done without anything related to T as H_0 works and contains Z and Z is normal in P bc it is in the centre. Otherwise the preimage of T is a subgroup of order p^2 and since all the elements will satisfy x^p=1, the preimage of T looks like Z_pxZ_p. Since T was normal in P/Z, its preimage will be normal in P. Also it contains Z which is normal in P for the same reason as before
I think the irreducible components of V(y^4-x^2, y^4-x^2y^2+xy^2-x^3) are {V(x+y^2) ,V(x,y)}, not {V(x+y^2) , V(x-1,y-1), V(x-1,y+1)}
E is a splitting field of a polynomial f over F then for any middle field E/K/F of course E is a splitting field of f over K by definition
(1,-1) and (1,1) are solutions right? Because the first polynomial vanishes obviously and the second becomes 1-1+1-1 as well. Also V(x,y) is a subset of V(x+y^2)
Yes I made a mistake he is right
Thank you that does seem to work!
Hmm. In general given a - say integral domain - R, let's define an equivalence relation $\sim \subset R \cross R$ such that $a \sim b \iff a = bu$ for some $u \in R^{\cross}$. We have a monoid structure on $R/\sim$ given by multiplication of representatives.
You need to do \sim
~
Doesn’t work
It might work if you put \ before it but I’m not sure
All groups are abelian
Okay, thanks.
So my question was, how interesting is this monoid?
like, we can tell whether R is a UFD using it, right?
I think that's equivalent to saying it's a free monoid.
what does this mean
it means the middle is an exclusion zone
either a^(n-1) in P or a in P but first one cannot be
so a in P
not sure what would that contradict but anyways you havent shown the entire pic
what if i said, a(a^n-1)
a cant be cuz less than n
then a^n-1
a non zero tho?
"there is a smallest power n, a^n in P"
so if you take a it doesnt cotradcit minimality
wait
can you show the whole thing maybe
I guess the thing is, the minimality of n is such that a^n = 0
because 0 always in an ideal
no
why
a^k = 0 which will be in P
so we just look at the least k which is in P
not 0 necessarily?
so the idea is
we know there is some a^n in P since a is nilpotent
so the set of a^k in P is non empty
so it has a minimal element(with respect to the power).
yes
doesnt need to be 0 as you said.
No
well you are saying n is minimal, and basically the arguement shows n=1
They never said 1 was less than n
Isn’t P assumed to be prime? I don’t get what you’re saying exactly
yes mmm
i also have another question
in the next section
I dont understand the contradiction there
we wanna show that P is prime?
We wanna show a is in P
They wan’t to show that the set of nilpotent elements contains the intersection of prime ideals. The way they are doing that is by taking a non-nilpotent element and showing that there is a prime ideal not containing it. So they have made a construction for something not containing a, called P, and they wan’t to show that it is prime
No, there are many elements of S that aren’t prime
it says that x,y not in P but xy is in P yes?
so P contains a power of a, a contradiction yes?
I’m confused are we on the first part of the proof?
Where we show that the nilradical is contained in all prime ideal
Oh oops
Yeah disregard what. I said then
Basically, the proof shows via contradiction that any maximal element of S is a prime ideal
And all elements of S contain no powers of a, so a maximal element of S is a prime ideal not containing a
x,y not in P then xy not in P if P is a maximal element of S
oh okey
The fact that P is maximal is important, for example if A is not an integral domain, (0) is in S, but is not a prime ideal
(ill add one thing, there is kind of easier to show if you are familiar with fraction rings. take S = {f^n} and so S^{-1}A is a non-zero ring iff f is not nilpotent, which contains a non-trivial prime ideal P (so this cannot intersect S). This is kind of just rephrasing that proof but i have always found this neater)
wtf that was a putnam problem
anyway, think of it lik ethis
say G, H are both proper subgroups of the same group and neither are subsets of the other
it is a known fact (can you prove this?) that their union is not a group
do you see why the conclusion follows from this?
hint for proving the fact: ||take g in G not in H, and h in H not in G|| and then ||consider gh||
i think the proof i suggested is more "fundamental"
in that it might help build intuition for how subgroups work
and ||how restrictive of a condition invertibility is||
Let me think..
weird seeing group theory in a putnam problem
conicidentally that's the first putnam problem I've been able to do 
Ye also that's kinda how you prove Lagrange in the first place
that proof also reminds me of showing that if U,W are subspaces of a vector space V, then U cup W is a subspace if and only if one of the subspaces is contained in the other lol
I suppose it's the same thing just because a vector space is an additive group
yup, in fact that's kinda a stronger result because of the extra structure vector spaces have
in tower: Q<Q(sqrt2)<Q(4th root 2)
basis diagram would be like
{1, sqrt2} for Q<Q(sqrt2)
and {1,4th root2, sqrt2, 3/4th root 2} for Q<Q(4th root 2)
but how would u write basis for
Q(sqrt2)<Q(4th root 2)
is it
{1, 4th root2}?
or {1, 3/4th root 2}
?
I don't know what to do with gh
suppose G U H is a group
then gh is in G U H, right?
howd it get there
from G? from H?
can you see where to get a contradiction
Oh
I can feel a contradiction, something like gh violating closure property or something but I can't put my finger on it wait a second
What do you think of this?
right thats the idea
if gh is in G, then since g is in G, g^-1 is as well
but then g^-1 (gh) = h is in G
(by associativity)
contradiction
and we get the same thing if gh is in H
hence gh cannot be in G U H, hence G U H cannot be closed, hence G U H is not a group
can you extend that to prove the original statement?
solution: ||if G U H is a group, one must be a subset of the other, but since theyre both proper, their union (which is just the larger group) cant be the full group||
As union of two groups is not a group (if they're not subsets of each other), that means the union of two subgroups isn't a group either as subgroups are groups
Idk if that's correct
union of two subgroups is not a group UNLESS one is a subset of the other
thats an important unless
but can you see why it doesnt matter here?
why cant one of the groups be a subset of the other?
Yes, I forgot to type that assumption
Because the union of those two groups become one of the groups involved if one is a proper subset of the other one
right
which means the union cant be the full group, because ||they were assumed to be PROPER subgroups||
Yep, thanks :)
so what do we think about the case of 3 subgroups? I think that's supposed to be the harder part
unless theres an easy example im missing
there is an easy example
whats the usual small group you think of when the "easy" small groups dont work?
answer: ||klein 4-group||
oh of course
a note: this generalizes, ||a group is the union of 3 proper subgroups iff it has the klein 4-group as a quotient||
see https://www.jstor.org/stable/2316854 (obvious spoilers for the answer)
What about this?
have you done the computations
From the second one I thought that |a|*|b|=|a+b| but that was wrong apparently
I tried this a long time ago, I'll try to do it again
One minute
ok minute passed i'll ask my thing cause ive been struggling with this too long. Let $F/K$ be field extension and $E_1, E_2$ intermediate fields. Show that $$|E_1 E_2/K| \leq |E_1/K| + |E_2/K|$$ where by $|F/K|$ I mean trans degree
Ledog
For a) |a||a+b|=|b|
b) |a||b|=|a+b|
c) |b|*|a+b|=|a|
Not sure what to make of this
"minute passed" 
Take transcendence bases of E_i, B_i, then E_1E_2/K(union of the B_i) should be algebraic, so |union of B_i| ≥ transcendence degree (not sure if this works)
The galois grp of E/Q where E is splitting field of f(x) = x^4+5 over Q has order 8
and E=Q(i, 5^{1/4}, w) where w^8 = 1 8th root of unity of 1
I showed all this did everything, but now im stuck
at what the group structure is
cuz theres alot of order 8 groups
One big thing I know tho based on doing the multiplication table of Gal(E/Q) = {phi1, ... phi8}
is its non abelian group
So its not Z2xZ4, Z8, E8 = {1, g1, g2..., g8 s.t. gi^8 = 1, gi gj = gj gi},
I know theres D8 which is the grp of symmetry
and i see theres this group Quarterion? group never heard of it
so i guess its either one of those
the quaternion group is basically {1,-1,i,-i,j,-j,k,-k} under multiplication
i believe
Oh ok
do you think this galois grp is that? or D8 any thoughts?
im kinda confused what root maps to what root
(i only know about groups, no galois theory, can't help further i'm afraid)
okk nps ty
what's the multiplication table like?
it's either D8 or quaternions if it's non abelian, probably D8
The only non abelian groups of order 8 are D8 and Q8: try maybe finding a presentation for your group? (I dont know anything about galois groups this is all i can really say. Maybe see if it has more than 1 cyclic subgroup of order 4?)
Could I get a hint on this one? Im thinking that I probably need to work by induction and write the group explicitly as a semidirect product and show the only possible homomorphism defining that semidirect product is trivial but im failing to find anything in that direction. For reference exercise 56 states that every finite group for which eveyr proper subgroup is abelian is solvable (and the few exercises before classified numbers n such that all groups of a certain order are cyclic iff the order is one of these n).
okk ty
ill post the multiplication table maybe in a bit if i dont figure it out
and someone can provide some isnght
Do you need to write D8 or Q8
when I learned gal thy we'd usually leave stuff in semi direct product form whenever we could, usually the small galois groups (at least the ones that usually appear in psets, like the one you posted) are semi direct products of cyclic groups
Anyway you shouldn't need to figure out the full multiplication table to identify them
Some partial information should be enough
Lilki narki already mentioned this 
Ohh
its non abelian so its not direct product of cyclic group
but im assuming semi direct product implies it may not be abelian
Yeah
the question requires me to write out the multiplication table
Enjoy 
can i get a hint on this
Induction maybe
on deg f?
Yeah
Shouldn’t be too terrible
Just do repeated division with remainder by g
Euclidean division + strong induction
thonk
thanks
ill be back if i get stuck again
yeah this is clear enough thanks for the help
if w^8 = 1
is w^2= i
and
how would you write splitting field of f(x) = x^4 + 5 over Q in terms of the factors in terms of w?
like i have (x-i^(3/4)5^(1/4)) ...
if $G$ is a group and $s\in G$, when is $S={g\in G:gsg^{-1}=s}$ the trivial group?
c squared
if s is the identity, then its the whole group
but i cant really see when it would be trivial
when the centraliser of s is trivial ¯_(ツ)_/¯
first thought I had is that s^ns(s^n)^-1 = s^(n-n+1) = s so it would have to be when s is order 2
not sure if that logic is sound or not
There probably is no good general answer to your question, there are only inferences you can make about the group. Many groups will never even have such an element that makes this true
no, i think that's the point
if g = s^-1, gsg^-1 always = s
so only the trivial group?
Huh?
i am very tired and may be making an obvious mistake
I don’t get what your logic is here, what are you showing exactly?
well if s is in S then S is non-trivial unless s is 1
but if s is 1 then the whole group is in S
so for S to be trivial, the whole group must be trivial??
no, sss^{-1} = se = s regardless of what s is
Ah I see what you are saying
no, s is in G
i just showed you that s is also in S
So your q is, when is S trivial, notice s is in S, that is what kaisheng is saying
yes
yeah, that seems right
oh fruck
otherwise you have that s^-1 in S, thus it's not trivial
wait my brain literally is not moving rn
it be like that sometimes
so s is in S regardless of what s is. and S is trivial if and only if G is trivial
yes
yup
ok. cool. thanks guys
wait what if s^-1 = s
it still works
The centraliser of s is trivial when the conjugacy class of s is G ig is important
Well that is overkill
And e is in its own conjugacy class
oh yes of course it does
So G = {e}
S should be the stabilizer of s tho right?
unless those two words are synonymous
centraliser, i think?
conjugation
He is using the orbit stabiliser relationship
then yeah that's the stabiliser under conjugation
But ye I think orbit-stab is easiest here
it is??
idk how that's overkill lol
in what world
Kaisheng’s argument was easier
:)
fun times
:)
so just to clean it up, if G is trivial, then S is trivial, trivially.
if G is not trivial, then s = e or s != e. if s = e, then S = G is non-trivial. if s != e, then s in S is again non-trivial, which proves the contrapositive
Seems good
Hey, I have a question, how would I compute the order of the group of units in Z_{3136] ?
i wanna say you need to find all elements coprime to 3136, no?
yeah i figured it out, used the euler totient function
On another note, I was going through some example proofs, and Got stuck on this particular problem, Let R be a commutative ring with 1. Assume that R has at least 3 elements and that x^2 = x for all x ∈ R. Prove or disprove: There exists a field F so that R is a subring of F. How would I prove this?
It says prove or disprove, how do you know its true?
I suppose thats my problem.. I'm unsure if its true or false
That's how it is sometimes, try doing both
Maybe try to come up with some examples of R that fit the conditions and play around with those so you can get some intuition for whether it should be true or not
Have you made progress?
Just reading up on definitions, I should be able to handle it, If I have any questions I'll ask
false
counter example?
||what are the idempotents in a field|| 
You still need a counter example to show that such an R exists, otherwise we’ll have vacuous truth I suppose
oh. i see.
how do I find the order of 7 in mod 160?
Do you know how to write a while loop 
160=32x5 and the order of 7 mod 5 is 4, the order of 7 mod 32 will divide 16, finding it out should be doable by hand.
Then take the lcm I suppose
I think the order is 4
If my calculation is correct that is
thanks
Yeah I just verified my calculations, I think 4 is the order
7^3=343=23 mod160, and 23x7= 161=1 mod160
zero divisors are not units
why does that help
it could not be the whole ring
but not completely contained in M
I'm not sure what you mean
the ideal (d) is contained in a maximal ideal, and there is only one maximal ideal in this ring which is M
why is there only 1 maximal ideal
Read the previous sentences
ok
so sqrtQ is contained in all prime ideals which are then contained in a bunch of maximal ideals, but by assumption, these so called maximal ideals are just sqrtQ yeah?
The radical of Q is exactly the intersection of all prime ideals, but since the radical of Q is maximal, there can't be any other prime ideals
What's a good introductory book on Group Theory, or perhaps a PDF from a course online?
f(x)=x^2-x can only have at most two roots in any field
right. in this situation u would have at least 3. saketh makes a good point tho. does such a ring even exist?
Yeah there are non trivial rings where everything is idempotent, they're called Boolean rings
F_2[x]/(x²) works I think
no idea what those symbols mean but sweet
Shouldn’t it be F_2[x]/(x^2-x)?
oh yeah lol mb
Yeah cause in F_2[x]/(x^2) you have x*x = 0 which isn’t x 
Btw is your name written in white😂
It's {0,1, x, x+1} where addition is defined such that a+a=0 for all a and multiplication is done distributively keeping the idempotence in mind
😂
I was thinking defining a multiplication on the abelian group Z/3Z making it have this property. I think defining 2*2=2 works right?
Never mind
2=1+1
Could violate distrubtivity I’d have to check
It doesn’t work
Yeah
Yeah it does
0=2(1+2)=2+2=1 false indeed
2 TIMES 2= (1+1)*(1+1) = 1+1+1+1 = 1 =/= 2
All Boolean rings have characteristic 2
Yeah thanks
Since 2x = (a+x)^2-a^2-x^2=a+x-a-x=0 right
Sorry a=1
sry to interrupt. is there like a fancy name for the notation you used here?
like, does F[x]/(p(x)) have a name or something?
It’s a quotient ring
Lol
vibing
lol thanks
haven’t done much AA yet. ik a lot of the standard undergrad group theory, but nothing really past that.
and ik LA, but ig that’s separate?
LA is part of AA 
I don’t know whether students should learn linear algebra especially learn linear algebra before learning algebra
When talking about one single linear transformation,or Jordan normal form or something, it seems like just special cases of finitely generated module over PID to me
I mean, they are, but modules aren't covered in first aa class anyways usually, yet lin alg has bunch of applications.
like how else would the syllabus look like if you didnt have linear algebra first? you can't study pretty much any analysis, first aa course wouldnt have as many examples as well...
Yeah makes sense.
isolated prime is when the associated prime does not contain anyother associated prime yeah?
According to Wikipedia yes
Btw I don’t think this concept matters... it’s the rest of associated primes called embedded primes that matter. Sometimes not having embedded points can induce good properties...
can a group have more than one identity element?
no
this is an easy proof
give it a shot
suppose $e_1, e_2$ are both identity elements and show that $e_1 = e_2$
Namington
big hint: ||consider the product e_1 * e_2 and apply the identity property||
classic proof
flashback to learning linear algebra from Axler before knowing any real math
I see thanks
right ok
last part, why is detB = 0?
we assuming that R is a domain?
or is there another way without R being a domain
<@&286206848099549185>
what page is this?
i'd guess it's because det B = (det B)1 = (det B)(some linear combination of v_i's) = 0
ah
but
dont we need R to be domain
page 691
i don't see where we need to assume R is a domain
ok me too

lol
same thing?
phi(I) is contained in phi(I)*S
and phi(I)*S is contained in (phi(i))
dont we need S to have 1
I think we should say that phi(I)S is an ideal already, and is the ideal generated in S by phi(I)
rngs are weird, so you're saying that ideal generated by phi(I) need not even contain phi(I)?
yea i think saketh is right
we usually define I * J to be the ideal generated by all products i*j
If anyone ever runs in to this again, the "fractional distance" in the context of reed Solomon codes apparently means the number of points that the two functions disagree on in a subset of the domain
It's also sometimes called the relative distance
I think abstract algebra was probably the wrong place to put this, it was just in the middle of field/group stuff in a tutorial so I assumed wrongly
Let p a prime, what is the minimal polynomial of $e^{2 \pi i/p}$ over $Q$?
Or x1
x^(p-1) + x^(p-2) + ... + x + 1
I thought there was a shit in polynomials theory where that polynomial is not irreducible
,w cyclotomic polynomial reducible
Wolfram Alpha doesn't understand your query!
Perhaps try rephrasing your question?
Click here to refine your query online
That polynomial won't be irreducible if p is not prime, but then it's not called cyclotomic. nth cyclotomic polynomial is the minimal polynomial for exp(2iπ/n)
Ah
okay I don't know if this is a dumb question and it's just me staying up too late or what, but this seems simple yet has me stumped. Let's say that two groups are isomorphic, and I have the isomorphism $f:G\to H$ between them. Further, both of $G$ and $H$ are finitely presented groups. If I take one of the generators of $G$, say $x_1$, and calculate $f(x_1)$... what does that actually represent? Like, yeah it's the image of $x_1$ in $H$, and it respects all the group relations in the domain, but I feel like I'm still missing something
cgodfrey
It doesn’t really represent anytbing
If you take a finite set of generators of G and then push all them through f you’ll get generators for H
And all the relations are the same, but f(x1) by itself is just kinda a guy chilling
To give a specific example, I have this isomorphism from the group on all those generators with all those relations, to the free group on two generators. And it shows the image of each generator. Is there anything significant in those non-trivial ones?
It's like, do those images convey 'the same' information as the original relations, since this is an isomorphism?
Anyone can point me what steps to follow to do this problem, i'm a bit lost on galois:
Given an irreducible quartic polynomial over the integers, given that it's galois group is S4 over Q and Y a root of the polynomial
is the extension Q(Y) a galois extension? All the definitions are swimming on my head
For a Galois extension E/F, |Aut(E/F)| = [E:F]
Try using this
Actually I am not sure if that will be useful lol
Galois means normal and separable
Well, the minpoly of Y is the original poly, so it can’t split
I assume that’s what they want
Can’t split in Q(Y), sorry
No. Since otherwise let E be the splitting field of the polynomial f over Q, then Q[Y]=Q(Y)=E. Therefore f(x)=Π{(x-P_j(Y)):0<=j<=3} where p_j are 4 polynomials with coefficients in Q, P_0(Y)=Y . By assumption there exists g_1, g_2 from Gal(E/Q) such that g_1(Y,P_1(Y), P_2(Y),P_3(Y))= (P_1(Y), Y, P_2(Y),P_3(Y)), and g_2(Y,P_1(Y), P_2(Y),P_3(Y))= (P_1(Y), Y, P_3(Y),P_2(Y)) which is a contradiction since g_1(Y)=P_1(Y)=g_2(Y) implies that g_1=g_2
this is what is done in 44
i think f_0 is just the product of all of the r_k(x_i)- terms
but i cant see how we get the bound that deg f_0 <= deg f without having a better bound that deg r_k < q
"Otherwise"
otherwise meaning we are not taking r to be independent?
got it 
i dont actually undersrtand that proof
so whats actually going on here?
isnt g just the same as f
so g is inside a ring where powers of xm are already in ?
g is clearly not the same as f ?
f may not be a polynomial in the form described in the last line
the whole point there is to have a change of variable to get something into that form
for example if f(x,y) = xy
what i mean is
f(x_1,...,x_m) = f(X_1 + xm^am, .... , xm) yeah?
now they take x_i as a coefficinet for g yes?
well g is f after a change of variables
?
g and f aren't polynomials in the same indeterminates
???
but that first ring contains the other yea?
you can inject the first one into the second one by sending Xi to xi-xm^ai and vice versa
they are isomorphic by a change of variables
ok
Even forgetting change of variables, those two rings are the same in some natural way, right?
i think so
well there are lots of isomorphisms between them
dunno if any one is more natural than any other
if you treat Xi as completely different indeterminates that have nothing to do with k[x1...xm], one isn't a subset of the other
what were you saying about this example?
ok
and so x=X+y²
and then g(X,y) = f(X+y²,y) = Xy+y³
a polynomial of degree 3 in y
whose leading term is a pure power of y
unlike f
and so when you go back to your finitely generated ring A = k[r1,r2]
this just is xy no?
you get that if r1r2 = 0 then r2 is integral over k[r1-r2²]
xy is not a polynomial in X and y
then you say g is the image of f by the isomorphism between k[X,y] and k[x,y] given by the change of variable x=X+y²
it is dangerous to say "g is just f" if the answer to the question "what is the degree of the polynomial" changes between f and g
its only changing because we are absorbing the first n-1 indeterminates as coefficients
the change of variable isn't induced by an isomorphism between k[x1...x(m-1)] and k[X1...X(m-1)]
also the next part
is says each term of m contributes a since term of y of g
i dont understand that
is it that each term of g comes from just 1 term of f ?
no it says each monomial term of f contributes a single term of the form a constant times xm^e to g
okay
if you look at a term c * x1^a1 * x2^a2 * ... * xm^am in f
after the change of variable it gives a big polynomial
c * (X1 + xm^alpha1)^a1 * ... * (X(m-1) + xm^alpha(m-1))^a(m-1) * xm^am
yeah xm witha large power with c
and it has only one monomial that is a constant times a pure power of xm
which is c * xm^(a1 * alpha1) * xm^(a2 * alpha2) * ... * xm^(a(m-1) * alpha(m-1)) * xm^am
yup
= c * xm^(am + a1 * (1+d) + a2 * (1+d)² + ... + a(m-1) * (1-d)^(m-1))
and now, each exponent can only come from one monomial term from f
because am,a1,a2 and so on are just the digits of the exponent written in base (d+1)
so given an exponent you can recover at most one possible candidate monomial in f
ok
so they can't cancel each other
and that ensures that g is of the form described
c * a pure power of xm ^ a big exponent + some lower degree terms
yeah I guess next page takes care of removing the c and make it monic
ok
thanks alot

also another question
is it common to get any transcendental elements
in a k algebra
yes
right
this was done by a computer in sage lol
i dont really understand this question
Z is a UFD itself
and Z[i] contains Z
so any integral element in Z[i] is in Z anyway
???
but it says that a UFD's are integrallly closed?
In their field of fractions
oh
okay
Is the fact that UFD's are integrally closed hard to prove?
because i dont think it was shown
oh nvm i see it
No
you basically just factor the top and bottom into irreducibles and the result pops out
so like take an a/b and we see that factors of b must divide a so its actually an element of the ring
Yeah
$(x^2 - y^3)$
ActiveChapter
does this ideal contain any powers of y?
alone
or
i can determine if an element if an element is in that ideal if theres no remainder after division yea?
You won’t be able to division with remainder in general
You can just prove it for any ring
how?
Play around with powers of x and y and stuff
alright
Just assume that f(x,y)(x^2 -y^3) is only in terms of y
You can just chop away at f and show f = 0
alright
ah so my proof was right, I didn't want to post it and spoil 😵💫
i want to prove that a transcendental element $t \in L$ in an extension $K \subset L$ is irreducible. It feels like this should be super easy to prove but i am a bit lost in formalism. I know that the polynomial ring K[x] is isomorphic to K(t) in this case and somehow want to say that since x is irreducible, t has to be irreducible aswell. What's bothering me is that to be honest i am a bit confused about polynomial rings in general. In Ring Theory one defines a polynomial Ring just as a set of mappings from $\mathbb{N} \rightarrow R$ and from the field theoretic perspective it looks more like you just append a completely new element to the Ring that is irreducible and has absolutely nothing to do with the Ring whatsoever. So a more concrete question would be why, formally x is an irreducible element of K[x]. I dont even know if this makes sense anymore.
chrisply
um what do you mean by an element of L being irreducible ??
cant be factored more right?
Cant be written as product of two nonzero polynomials in K
non unit 
who said elements of K or L were polynomials
i think irreducible is only for polynomials
but aren't K and L fields ?
It's for any ring
5 is irreducible in Z
in rings, it's not the same
sort of
yea just irreducible element in an integral domain
but i see that in a field this doesn't really make sense right?
but in fields both notion are useless cuz everything is a unit
It does, it is just trivially true 
btw what you said about new elements in fields is analagous to polynomial rings too
You take polynomial ring and then field of fractions
chrisply
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bruh im too dumb for latex
oh x^n is a prime element of K[x^n] whenever K is a domain 
hint ||quotient by (x^n)||
ah so you have fields K(x^n) and K(x) and you want the minimal polynomial of x over K(x^n) ?
yup
ook i think i see K[x^n]/(x^n) is isomorphic to K and since K is a domain we can just say that (x^n) had to be a prime ideal and thus x^n is a prime element right?

ok nice, ty then my proof shall be completed now
everyone was bad once
Let $M:K$ a field extension and $a,b \in M$, is it posible that $[K(a,b):K(a)] < [K(b):K]$?
Or x1
here $[Q(2^{1/4}:Q)]$ is 4 right?
Or x1
generally like, if you have more elements the minimal polynomial for b might be lower degree
yeah
x^4-2 is minimal
thanks
so shall i try and show that k[t] and R have the same field of fractions
and since anything integral over k[t] lies in k[t] so contains integral elements of R?
is this an ok way of doing this
or am i wrong
<@&286206848099549185>
Isn’t that k[x]—>k[x,y]/P integral and injective?
I think it is
the canonical homomorphism mapping x to x+P
maybe its not injective
x^2 goes to x^3 - y^2
x^3 to x^2 - y^2
idk
is my way totally wrong
im trying to copy these
I think it is. any f(x) from K[x] doesn’t belong to P
I can’t see how the field of fractions helps here
we need to find the integral closure in the field of fractions
if we show that they have the same field of fractions
what page is this?
definition of normalization?
703
That it is integral over a subring having the form of a polynomial ring
i thought normalization was to find the integral closure in the field of fractions?
If an integral B is integral over an integral subring A then Frac(B) is algebraic over Frac(A)
It is
I’m a little confused as to what they’re getting at, it sounds like something related to Noether normalization
He wants to find the integral closure of R in frac(R). And I think noether normalization theorem can be applied here using the fact I just mentioned.
but how does noether normalization work here
But they’re asking about the definition of normalization m
This: If an integral B is integral over an integral subring A then Frac(B) is algebraic over Frac(A)
is this the same thing
so R would be integral over a subring with <= variables
and isnt Question 4 the same as question 2
@terse crystal
Rethinking...
any idea.. ?
Yes . I think R is normal itself
R=k[x][Y]/(Y^2-x^2-x^3)=k[x,y] where y = Y+ (Y^2-x^2-x^3) Frac(R)=k(x)[y]=k(x)(y)
Any f+gy from Frac(R) if f+gy is integral over R, using euclidean algorithm we can assume that degree of f and g are both negative, then show that f+gy=0
Let a= f+gy since a is integral over R therefore a^n=Σ{s_k a^k :0<=k<n}
for some integer n and some s_k from R
Compare the degrees on both sides
isnt it easier to use the UFD property
that they are integrally closed
because i dont follow what you wrote
I don’t know whether R is a UFD
if we could show that k[t] contains R
and their frac field is same
then done right?
t = y/x
t is x/y or y/x inside the field of fractions right?
yea
Then we have different results... your integral closure would be k[t] while mine is R...
Anyway my point is in this formula a^n=Σ{s_k a^k :0<=k<n} the degrees of the coefficients of the constant term (of y) are smaller than that of the right side
Since the degrees of f and g are negative and the degrees of both coefficients of any S_k are non- negative
I used degree(f+g)>=degree(f), degree(g) ( more accurately I think degree(f+g)=max{degree(f),degree(g)} ) for any f , g from k(x)
Where is it
it says using 12 and 26.2
12 says radI = intersection of all primes contained I = radI
but how does it work?
we can do it directly instead
?
You just distribute the \cap R inside
You turn that into intersecting a bunch of primes containing IS\cap R
And by lying over stuff it turns into the intersection of primes containing I
Lying over being (2) in Theorem 26
wdym
oh right
\bigcap(P\cap R)
uhm
That turns into the intersection of all primes containing I
By (2)
Each P\cap R is a prime containing I
And you know each prime containing I shows up because of (2)
so $P \cap R = Q \cap R$ where Q is a prime in S
ActiveChapter
yeah?
i dont really know how every prime shows up
Rad_R(I) is {x from R : x^n belongs to I for some n}?
So P shows up here
yes
Oh so Q \cap R=P where P (Q) is a prime ideal of R (S) respectively then I is contained in P iff IS is contained in Q
Oh basically what he just said
yep thank you
After reconsideration, I think you are right. Just noticed that x=(y/x)^2-1 and y=x(y/x)...
is the cardinality of all finite subsets of R the same as |R|?
i tried proving it but didnt get far
What is R?
The reals
Real numbers?
I actually am seriously questioning if this set‘a cardinality is independent of the continuum hypothesis
It probably is?
Also this isn’t algebra haha
where can i ask this?
Maybe foundations?
It has the same cardinality as R
and then somehow their union also has cardinality |R|
Yeah that could work
but the only straightforward bijection i can think of is the base case of size 1, with a subset with one element
with n > 1, its not clear
Oh my god
let F be the set of finite subsets of N. you know that |F|<= |P(N)| = c
Hurb
this is an injection from R to F…
I’m dumb lol
wait why are we doing subsets of N?
oh, i thought that was assumed. i don’t think the collection of all finite sets is a set?
Take R x … x R and map an element (a1,…,an) to the set {a1,…,an}
This surjects onto a set containing all subsets of size n right?
i thought its a set containig sets
Like it will surject exactly onto the set of all subsets of size <= n
to reiterate, if we let S be the set of all finite subsets of R,
for each s in S we can enumerate the elements and map it to RxRxR
this tells us |S| <= |RxRx...R| = |R|?
Now we need to show |R| <= |S|
I mean we know the set of all finite subsets of size <= n has size |R| right?
It’s at least that big because it contains singletons
The thing with this is that im not sure how many R's there are in the cross product since you can always find a larger finite subsets
It’s at most that big because it’s surjected onto by R^n
Then S is the countable union of these so it also has size |R|
Yeah
yeah
im not sure about this one
i get the singleton part though
I proved it?
Right here
ohh
It’s surjected on by R^n
oh wait i was thinking about the set of all finite subsets as a whole
Nah
instead of set of all finites of size n
You wanna just chop it up into countable many sets
You could either pick size <= n or just size n
But I did <= n because the function I did naturally worked with that set
ok, so we have established that after chopping it up, they each have cardinality of |R|
A countable union of sets of a fixed infinite cardinal kappa has size kappa
and there are a countable number of subsets of size n
Yeah
How to prove that the cardinality of direct product of countable copies of R equals the cardinality of R?
Ughhhhhh
It’s an absorptive property of cardinal multiplication
Yes
isn't that different from c though
Yes but you can replace it <= c
Just like… prove it
It has cardinality at least c
Like
Clearly
i am given that N is the smallest infinity
Now just add in dummy sets
Until you have c many
Then you’re a subset of that
Which also has cardinality c
So you’re bounded from@below and above by c
luckily there is a theorem that says if X is an infinte set, |N| <= |X| 🙂
i thought you had to show |N| = |R| to use the lemma or something
because it said union of c sets
but R is uncountable
so that canot hapen
are you adding empty sets in the union?
until you have c many unions
not fully
yeah
wait
if |A| <= |B|
Then is |A| u |B \ A| = |B|?
i was wondering if i could use some argument like that to add sufficiently many empty sets in the union to attain c many unions like momy said
but i want to not hand wave it
which is tricky
hmm
thanks ill try thinking about it a bit more
how do you take copies of a cardinality 
ohh
Yeah
I mean…
Ugh this gets annoying
Foundations is all just like
Homotopy equicalwnt
But the exact specifics can vary a bit
On how you get taught it or construct everything
yeah i will
Let A be the set of finite subsets of R. B be the set of finite multisubsets (allowing duplicated elements) of R. Clearly R can be viewed as a subset of A and A is a subset of B. I can construct a bijection from B to positive real numbers: we know there exists a bijection g from R to (0,1). any {x_1,...,x_n} from B, g(x_i)=0.x_i1 x_i2 .... we can map {x_1,...,x_n} to (n-1).x_11 x_21 ... x_n1 x_12 x_22 ... x_n2 ...
Therefore |R|<=|A|<=|B|=|R|
should the ideal generated by some element $a$ be written as $(a)$ or $\langle a \rangle$
Pappa
i feel like ive seen the second notation somewhere but jacobson uses the first one
first usually
so the second one is generally reserved for subgroups generated by those elements?
The latter is used for modules
So technically if you considered A as an A-module you could do that
But like, no one ever ever ever ever does it
You’re more likely to see aA
hm i jus call (a) an A-module as well
Yeah, but for a module M you use <> to talk about a subsmoidke of M generated by elements of it
So you could use that notation on a inside of A
But even when you’re considering modules and A as an A-module I always still see (a) or aA
ahhh
i know that the answer will be ap_2p_3-bp_1p_4-cp_5, where p_i is the ith symmetric polynomial
how do i find a,b and c then
the ideal of any subset will be radical, so no
does a group of prime number of order is cyclic?
do you know lagrange's theorem?
wait
👀
oh, yes, an algebraic set of points
i thought you were describing the ideal as algebraic
not the points
oh
yes
the nullstellensatz only says ideals of algebraic sets are radical?
yes, given any set X in k^n, the ideal of polys vanishing on X will always be radical
no
the nullstellensatz says that if X is algebraic then V(I(X)) = X, and I(X) is radical
it also says that I(V(J)) for some ideal J is the radical of J
the nullstellensatz makes no claims about I(X) for non-algebraic sets X
does it work for non algebraic sets though
is what i mean
I(X) will still be radical, but V(I(X)) won't be equal to X anymore
it can't be equal
becuase V(anything) is always algebraic
so if X isn't algebraic, they can't be equal
For those of you who are familiar with Burnside's theorem:
Let $\rho$ be a representation of a group $G$. If $\rho$ is a faithful representation of $G$, i.e., $\rho:G\to GL(V)$ is injective, then any irreducible representation of $G$ is contained in some tensor power $\rho^{\otimes n}$ of $\rho$.
I think the converse is also true, but I'm not sure how to prove it. Any ideas?
(oh sorry, I was using V earlier instead of Z)
RiesZ
sorry but could you not interrupt an in-progress conversation?
Sorry, didn't notice..
what is the definition of a variety here?
oh, so then what youre asked to prove there is that theyre irreducible
yes
the fact that they're algebraic is automatic
yes
maybe i'm misunderstanding your question then
how can we show that they are irreducible?
by showing that I and J are prime
ok
but i dont really know how to show J is prime
shall we .. reduce it first maybe
that can be hard, sometimes you can take the quotient and work with that
i am a little confused thought cuz I dont think (uv + v) is a prime ideal?
because uv + v = v(u+1)
i dont really know either but v and u+1 are irreducible
yeah so their product shouldnt generate a prime ideal
thats what i thought ...
