#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages ¡ Page 607 of 407
oh
it's the set of points where v = 0 or where u = -1
those are each two lines and they cross each other
whats the significance of crossing each other
none
my point is just that this set doesnt look irreducible to me
becuase it has two irreducible components
oh ok
what edition is this from btw? i'm trying to look for errata
but cant find it
hmmmm
edition 3 i think
no -- you've just reduced it haha
irreducible means "can't be written as a product of two non-units"
but you just wrote it as a product of two non-units
v and u+1
idk it looks complicated and it's late (for me)
what do you mean reduce?
finding minimal generators with grobner basis
oh i see
hmm does that help you prove an ideal is prime? (also i'm wondering now if the problem is supposed to say "radical" instead)
idk hah
im also wondering
if an ideal is generated by prime elements
will it be prime?
if it's generated by a single prime element, yes
and not if by multiple?
actually i guess multiple prime elements should still be good too
oh
wait no sorry that's not true
the ideal (y - x^2, y + x^2 - 1) is not prime
(over C, lets say)
so just to pull back the curtain, im actually thinking of this geometrically
(f(x), g(x)) is the intersection of f(x) and g(x)
so the question is: "if f(x) and g(x) are prime, we know that their corresponding algebraic sets are irreducible. is the intersection of two irreducible sets still irreducible?"
hmm
and the answer is no: Take the graphs of y = x^2 and y = 1 - x^2 and intersect them
you get two points
a two point set is not irreducible
that's how I came up with that example
ah
the reason i tell you this is just to show you like
how thinking geometrically can actually help you answer purely algebraic questions
yeah .. that was nice
also I found the official errata
this problem is a typo, here's what it hsould say
sry idk why the image looks like shit
it says "Show that I and J are radical ideals that are not prime. Conclude that I = I(V) and J = J(V) and that V and W are reducible algebraic sets"
I guess we've kind of already done part of that lol, we shoed that I isn't prime
skimming through the book I saw a section on "how to compute the radical of an ideal" so I guess you could do that to compute the radical of I and then show that's just equal to I again
similarly for J
also sorry but i need to head out now
it's 4:30am 
and i'm a bad person who makes bad decisions
like staying up until 4:30am
when i have to be up at 10am tomorrow, fuck
yeah i think this is really cool math :)

@weary terrace you can come back now haha
RiesZ
Ignore, I'm not sure it's true
how did they see that the grobner basis was (1)?
im just following the algorithm the usual way
but not getting 1
we first reorder it to (x^2 - y^2,xy,-xt + 1) yes?
im getting $(x^2 - y^2,xy,-xt+1,-y^3)$
ActiveChapter
Okay, I managed to prove it:
Assume $g \in G$ s.t $\rho (g) = id$. Since any irrep $\lambda$ of $G$ appears in some tensor power of $\rho$, it means that $\lambda (g) = id$ for all irreps. But then it means that each irrep has multiplicity at least 1 in any other irrep. Contradiction.
RiesZ
if M:K is a field extension and if M:L:K implies L=M,K, then M:K is simple?
I think so? If it wasn't simple, then it has at least 2 elements alg independent over K, call them a,b, then there would be K(a,b):K(a):K?
and K(a,b)=/=K(a)
Ye, any element of K-M generates the extension
Because it generates an intermediate extension
thanks
Long question time. Let $A_$ be the dual steenrod algebra at $p=2$, which is given by a polynomial algebra $P(\xi_1,\xi_2,...)$ such that $|\xi_i|=2^i-1$ and with coproduct $\Delta(\xi_n)=\sum_{i=1}^{n} \xi_{n-i}^{2^i}\otimes \xi_i$. I keep seeing the following claim. Suppose $a\in A_$ is in even degree and is such that $\Delta(a)=\sum_i b_i\otimes b'_i$ and $b_i$ and $b_i'$ are both in even degrees. Then $a\in X$ where $X$ is the subcoalgebra given by $P(\xi_1^2,\xi_2^2...)$. I think I found an easy counterexample, namely $\xi_1\xi_2$ with $\Delta(\xi_1\xi_2)=(1\otimes \xi_1)(\xi_1^2\otimes\xi_1+1\otimes\xi_2)=\xi_1^2\otimes \xi_1^2+1\otimes\xi_1\xi_2$. Then everything seems to be in even degrees as required, and I cannot tell if I am just being very dumb
FpMaxJ/Fp+1MaxJ
@latent anvil you like graded rings
Here is (one) source, where here P=X and you can ignore all but the last paragraph
(if you think of something pls ping i dont have notifs for this channel <3)
moment
I was only doing graded ring stuff bc chmonkey wanted help on a comm alg problem lol
Is this in a hopf algebra?
Oh there's more lol
Hmm
This is strange
I agree with your calculations
@magic owl yeah I agree with your confusion
I am now also confused. Your counterexample seems to work
If youâd like the original source is Ravenel and the screenshot is from akhils blog
Maybe Iâll email Achilles
Akhil*
Akhilles
Chmonkey doesnât understand whatâs going on moment
We should separate whatever this is from algebra so I never donât know whatâs in this channel đ§
lmao
I have a question
say, lambda is an eigenvalue of some linear transformation f with multiplicity of n
that doesn't mean that there will be n vectors in the basis for the generalised eigenspace, right?
(maybe this isn't the right place to ask this)
An eigenvector gives a one dimensional generalized eigenspace
So if you have n eogenvectors, they'd all separately generated 1 dim generalized eigenspaces
wait I'm confused, isn't a generalised eigenspace associated with an eigenvalue
and it can definitely be higher than one dimensional?
It is higher when you don't have an eigenvalue, only a generalised eigenvalue
Like if you look at the Jordan blocks
When you have an eigenvalue you just have a 1x1 Jordan block
But you get larger generalised eigenspaces when you only have generalised eigenvalues
@gritty sparrow I hope I'm not saying anything wrong here 
I haven't gotten up to the jordan normal form yet so rip me
doing that soon though đ
ok let me post an actual example of what I mean
so you have this transformation, and when you compute its characteristic polynomial, it's (x+2)^3 (x+1)
for lambda = 1, the eigenvectors are (2, 0, 1, 0) and (0, 2, 0, 1)
for lambda = 2, it's (1, 1, 1 ,1)
this is the next question
so for the generalised eigenspace where lambda = 1, is it necessary that there would be 3 vectors for its basis
because lambda = 1 has a multiplicity of 3
oh I misunderstood what you meant completely 
yes 
amazing
Yeah if I recall correctly, multiplicity of the generalised eigenvalue will be the dimension of the generalised eigenspace
ah if that's the case
no that's wrong xD
I've done some arithmetic error... oh thank god
I don't wanna go through the calculations again
for the identity matrix, 1 occurs with multiplicity = size of matrix
but there are size of matrix many generalized eigenspaces
oh fuck I have actually forgotten a lot of this stuff, I might be misunderstanding the definition of a generalised eigenspace too
I'll let someone else answer this lol
@digital yoke yes, the algebraic multiplicity is the dimension of the generalized eigenspace
i love it its really pretty
but
please never make me compute it by hand ive done enough in my life
this is the way
is there a faster way than like, computing the characteristic polynomial?
yes i would love to know any faster method that would be neat
the char poly is not sufficient tho
you need more info
computing jcf is kinda fun
like qual problem style jcf computations
blech
What are you doing next year metal?
er, this year I guess
I am curious about what classes you're taking
chromatic homotopy
> metal
metal will be doing chromatic homotopy
hmm
not me
uh no but i guess in time
but as for classes
i take first of two semesters of dummit and foote algebra
then one semester fourier analysis from stein shakarchi 2
then first of two semesters of intro real analysis from abbott
then some intro math methods for physics class
noice
on the side ive also signed up for like two tiny once a week things
one of them is like
i have to present a proof to the class
its like show and tell basically
everyone gets a proof from this random book of cool proofs and they get a day to show about it
tiny once a week things can end up being your highest workload class lmao
then the other one seems to just be a problem solving class where u get like a few problems to solve every week for fun
oh
yeah it is scary if it ends up like that i will be sure to drop it
this has happened to me several times 
the amount of work a reading course ends up being does not depend on the number of units 
i see
You entering second or third year?
second 
whzup
I think there is a stack exchange or mathoverflow answer for this question
I think the answer was "it's a hard problem"
Itâs not true in general
For some groups it is though Iâm not familiar with the condition
Or maybe not, there is a decent chance I'm misremembering
If and only if for each coset aN we can choose an element g(a) being commutative with any element from N such that those elements {g(a)} themselves form a group isomorphic to G/N
whzup
i have a question about this
im confused on part 3
and the inverse of pi on an element of D-1R
how can it be disjoint from D
$\pi^{-1}{a/d} = (\pi^{-1}a/1 )(\pi^{-1}(1/d))$
ActiveChapter
Ď isnât surjective.
You canât necessarily find an inverse image of any given element of D^-1R
I donât know where you got lost. You just need to prove that ce=1 and ec=1
pi inverse on a prime ideal in D-1R is prime yeah?
Yes
second
but i dont understand why no D can be in it
So you are proving for any prime ideal q of D^-1R, the intersection of c(q) and D is empty ?
yes i want to show that
Suppose that there exists a d from that intersection, then d/dâ belongs to q for some dâ from D
Which is a contradiction since d/dâ is invertible whose inverse is dâ/d
By definition any prime ideal isnât the ring itself
So any prime ideal canât contain any invertible element otherwise it would contain 1
?
ActiveChapter
Itâs not pi inverse q that you should talk about
But c(q)
Which = {x is from R: there exists d from D such that x/d is from q}
hmf
Wait they are the same...
how
x/d is from q then x/1 is from q
So it should be simpler(/more simple?) just if there exists a d from that intersection then d/1 is from q which is a contradiction since d/1 has an inverse 1/d
If x in c(P) and D
Then x/1=Ď(x) belongs to P
which is a contradiction
Since x/1 has an inverse 1/x in D^-1R
yes
i was confused on this part but i think ive got i now
ty
NP
-I is an element of O(7)\SO(7) which is commutative with SO(7) I was trying to prove that I is the only element of O(8) thatâs commutative with SO(8) but failed... it might work perhaps...?
Oh I got it
First any such matrix is commutative with diag {-I,I,I,I} diag {I,-I,I,I} diag {I,I,-I,I} diag {I,I,I,-I}
Where I is of order 2
Therefore such matrix has the form diag{A(x_1),A(x_2),A(x_3),A(x_4)}
Where A(x) means
(cos(x) sin(x)
-sin(x) cos(x))
And easy to prove that A(x_1)=A(x_2)=A(x_3)=A(x_4)=I
can i ask another question
extending P
is generating P a/1 over D-1R when for all a in P yes?
$r(a/1)$ a is in P and r in D-1R
ActiveChapter
e(P)=P*D^-1R={x/d: x is from P and d is from D}
yea
Oh yes same
whats the point of proving the reverse inclusion
like taht
can i just not say, since P is prime, ab in P, a or b is in, so a/d will be in Q
since a/1 * 1/d
and 1 is in R
I donât get it so there are 4 steps
1, any P prime of R, P is contained in ce(P).
2,ce(P) is contained in P.
3, any Q prime of D^-1R Q is contained in ec(Q).
4, ec(Q) is contained in Q.
Which step are you considering now?
the step we any Prime disjoint from D can be extended into a prime in D-1R
showing e(P) is prime on DR
this but the second half
If (x/d)(y/e) is contained in PD^-1R then xy/de = z/f for some z from P and f from D therefore there exists g from D such that xyfg =zdeg which is from P therefore xy is from P therefore x or y is from P therefore x/d or y/e is from PD^-1R
A(x_1)=A(x_2)=A(x_3)=A(x_4)=I because this matrix with its 2i-1 th row and 2i th row exchanged for all i equals this matrix with its 2i-1 th column and 2i th column exchanged for all i
This matrix M = (M_ij) where 1<=i,j<=4 then if i doesnât equal j then M_ij=-M_ij
You can always make that happen since M is commutative with the above four matrices
The determinant should be 1 not -1
I made a little mistake but can be fixed. M=diag{A_1,...,A_4} where those A_j are I or -I but itâs easy to verify that M=I in the end
Yes
By choose any âpermutation matrixâ (permutations that arenât the identity) of order 4 and replace 1 with I of order 2 and replace 0 with 0 matrix of order 2 if you know what I mean
So step 1, M_ij =0 when i doesnât equal j , M=diag{A(x_1),A(x_2),A(x_3),A(x_4)}
Where A(x) means
(cos(x) sin(x)
-sin(x) cos(x))
Step 2 all those A(x_i) are either I or -I
Step 3 they can only be I not -I by considering âpermutations 2-block matrices of order 4â
Actually just choose one permutation of 4 elements that doesnât have fixed point will do the job
You mean there is a mistake?
In step 3 for example,MT=TM
Where T=
(0 I 0 0
0 0 I 0
0 0 0 I
I 0 0 0)
Therefore all those blocks can only be I not -I
So Whatâs the problem ? Step 1 I used that M is commutative with diag {-I,I,I,I} diag {I,-I,I,I} diag {I,I,-I,I} diag {I,I,I,-I}
Step 2 I used that M is commutative with
(0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0
0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0
0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1
0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0)
Step 3 I used that M is commutative with
(0 I 0 0
0 0 I 0
0 0 0 I
I 0 0 0)
(This is a block matrix)
Oh so M = I or - I but both are contained in SO(8)
Yes,Matrices that are commutative with SO(8) = {I ,-I}
Both are contained in SO(8)
So you canât find a matrix from O(8)\SO(8) being commutative with SO(8)
And my bad, yes step 3 can only show that all those blocks on the diagonal are equal
So M =I or -I
Oh M =diag{A_1,...,A_4} those A_i arenât necessarily of that form but they were proved to be I or -I in step 2 anyway
( canât be
(0 b
b 0)
Where b^2=1
Since those blocks are commutative with
(1/sqrt2. 1/sqrt2
-1/sqrt2 1/sqrt2)
Hellooo everyone. Morning.-.
I have a question. It's about annihilator
If I have a ring Z5xZ5. What's ann of that ring?
Eh I mean Z5x{0}, not Z5xZ5
Is it only {0}x{0} ?? Or {0}xZ5?
I don't think it makes sense to ask about the annihilator of a ring. Usually you ask about the annihilator of a (subset of) a module over a ring
What is your definition of ann?
I am guessing it is defined as an operation on abelian groups?
Ann (a) = {s | s.a = 0, a is an element of a ring R}

you said Ann(a) but also quantified over a inside the set
did you mean "s is an element of R"
a is an element of a module over R right?
So here you are viewing Z5 as a module over itself probably
or maybe as a module over Z
Actually I have no clue about what module is
Yaps
ok so ann of a subset S of a ring R is the set of all elements that annihilate all of S
ie Ann(S) = {r | rS = 0, r in R}
Exactlyy
just replaced a with S in the previous definition and changed element multiplication to set multiplication
So where are you getting stuck with applying this definition?
You have to find all elements of Z5xZ5 which "act like 0 with respect to multiplication"
ie make everything 0 on multiplication
Thhis one?
well (0,1) is an element of {0} x Z5. Is (0,1) multiplied by anything equal to 0?
Yeah, but then you would be finding ann(Z5 x 0)
instead of ann(Z5xZ5)
oh wait that was a typo 
wait was it a typo or not
uhum
omg it makes me confused. I've studied this for over 6 months lol
oh I think I know the answer. a is element of Z5xZ5, so ann a is (0,0)
it won't cause any trouble then
so I was right, I just mislead the main concept lol
oke thank you so much for your help

I appreciate it a lot
is there a name for the construction where you have a left $G$-set $L$ and a right $G$-set $R$ and you take the product by quotienting the setwise product $L\times R$ by $(lg,r)=(l,gr)$.
Feels like a natural thing to do oso cuz it appears when looking at covering spaces but idk how to put it in a bigger picture (some categorical picture or something)
ari 亲
istg seen it before in rep theory but i forgot the name
This may be completely outside the box cause I hadnât understood the concept completely but isnât this somewhat related to the central product?
hmm i feel it is somewhat related as well
edit: (gl,r)=(l,rg) because im directionally impaired as usual
yo I came across this induction proof at the end ( https://sriasat.wordpress.com/2014/10/27/transcendence-bases-an-application-of-zorns-lemma/ )and I'm not sure I follow 1 thing - when he says "Since P(1) is true..." doesn't he assume independence of t_m over k(t1, ... ,tm_1)? I don't see how can you conclude this with P(1).
@golden pasture I think this is an induction functor. I think the rep theory thing you're thinking about is induced representations maybe
@chilly ocean I feel like it's a typo and they meant to write Since P(m-1) is true
wait how does that make sense then? @mild laurel
I think this is just wrong, P(m-1) doesn't imply p_i(t1,..., t_(m-1))=0
@chilly ocean ah you're right my bad. P(1) is the correct thing. I think you're correct that this is wrong
I think the argument is overly complicated anyways. For any m, you can make the same argument as their argument for P(1) and say that t_1, ... , t_m must be contained in some S in C and so must be algebraically independent
hmm ye I see, but how do we know that all t's are in some S in C?
we take the "biggest" S and since chain all others are in it? (Like, a chain is of the form S1 \susbet S2 \subset ... and we take the furthest S ?)
I mean, we can't assume there's a biggest S cause that's what we're trying to show
But without loss of generality, if you assume t_1 is in S_1, t_2 is in S_2 and so on, and assume that S_1 \subset S_2 \subset ... \subset S_m, then S_m will just contain all of the t's
ok yeeeeeeeeee thats what I meant, ty I agree
imma message this guy maybe he will appreciate it or just ignore me
Theyre called balanced products
ahh cool thanks!
Hi, guys, R is a ring, then given a\in R, aR=Ra is an ideal. But for principle ideal I = aR, do we know that aR=Ra?
Actually idk,m
Canât you have a left-invertible element which isnât right-invertible?
If so then aR will be everything but Ra wonât be
sorry, i am not quite understand, do you mean 1\notin aR and 1\in Ra? So we dont have aR=Ra.
Yeah
ok, thank you hah
Do not even know left from right, we must be kindergartners
Hi, I'm trying to prove that all irreducible representations of a group G cannot return Id for g \in G which is not the identity element of G.
My approach is rather cumbersome for my taste:
Let R be the regular representation of G. R contains all irreps of G as a direct summand. Hence, R(g)=Id. But that's impossible since R is faithful. Contradiction.
What do you think? Is R faithful as I suspect?
Do you know another simpler proof?
(G is finite, for that matter)
R is definitely faithful.
i'm a little scared of what might happen for fields of characteristic > 0. i think you can have weird situations where there are no non-trivial representations.
err
no non-trivial irreducible representations.
Thanks đ
A book I have states the number of homomorphisms from Z/8Z to Z/24Z
is 8.
I think this is wrong; I got that there can be 4 homomorphisms.
|Z/8Z/ker(phi)| = |im(phi)|,
so we can only have |im(phi)| = 1, 2, 4, 8.
Am I missing something?
Just because the sizes of images are the same for two homomorphisms does not mean they're the same @clever mountain
Consider the homomorphisms from Z to Z that map 1 to 1 and that map 1 to -1, both of their images are all of Z, but these aren't the same maps
Oh darn true, thanks
Also, you should be careful because there can also be multiple subgroups of the same size in general (although not here since Z/24Z is cyclic)
So one could perhaps argue as follows:
Given phi from Z/8 to Z/24 such that e.g. |ker(phi)| = 2,
we can always construct a new homomorphism f from Z/8 to Z/24
such that
f(x) = -phi(x), for all x in Z/8.
This has the same kernel as phi.
So initially I had 4 homomorphism, but each gives rise to another one with same kernel.
That gives us 8. Am I sure there exist any more homomorphisms than 8? Hm no, I would have to argue that somehow...
@clever mountain Be careful. Why is it true that this new homomorphism f is different from phi?
@mild laurel Hm. If they were the same, f(x) = phi(x) for all x in Z8.
That means phi(x) = -phi(x), or, phi(x) + phi(x) = 0.
The only element of order 2 in Z24 is the element 12.
So phi(x) = 12.
Hence f(x) = 12 for all x in Z24, which is false.
@clever mountain Does phi(x) + phi(x) = 0 necessarily imply that phi(x) has order 2?
Hm I suppose no, phi(x) could be the identity
But otherwise, if phi(x) is not the identity,
if we find that phi(x)+phi(x) = 0, then 2
is a multiple of its order. And since phi(x) is not the identity,
the order must be two (2 is prime).
That's right
But go back to the original question, then why is it true that this new homomorphism f is different from phi?
I need to show their images are distinct.
If f(x) = phi(x) for all x in Z8
then either (1) phi(x) is the identity, or (2) phi(x) = 12, who has order 2.
(1) This implies ker(f) = ker(phi) is trivial, so f and phi are both trivial homomorphisms i.e. the same. No new homomorphism then.
(2) This implies f(x) = 12 for all x in Z8, including 0. This is false
so there must exist x in Z8 such that f(x) =!= phi(x)
I don't see why these cases have to hold, its possible that phi(x) is 0 for some x, and 12 for other x
Hm, fair. Need to think more carefully over this one
what do you think?
G won't be {0}
s_0 is a fixed element of S
The definition of G is that it's the set of vectors which are 0 on their s_0 coordinate
Other coordinates can be whatever
but if G is the set of vectors which are 0?
Then yes, but here G isn't that
G depends on s_0 here
So better notation would be something like G_(s_0)
And they are asking if all G_(s_0)s are subspaces
so what is in G_(s_0) is f(s_0)?
It is all the f such that f(s_0) = 0
So for example f(s_1) could be 1 for some s_1 â s_0
Then that f could still be there in G
G doesn't contain f(s_0), it contains f itself
But the condition for containing f depends on f(s_0)
Yep
Not some
in this case, for that specific s_0
I m trying to show that for any nontrivial normal subgroup $H$ of a nilpotent group $G$, then $H\cap Z(G)$ is non trivial. To do this I tried assuming there was a group $H$ such that $H\cap Z(G) = 1$ and then using the upper central series and induction, show that $H\cap Z_i(G)=1$ for all $i$, which would be a contradiction since the nilpotence of $G$ would give $H\cap G=1$ but im struggling on the inductive step
đittle âarwhal â
nah finish what you were doing im about to watch a movie anyways
đ go on?
Narwhal lives on this server anyway 
but when we take f,g in G. We take f and g such that f(s_0) = 0 and g(s_0) = 0 ?
No right?
We take the entire functions
I see, what would the zero vector be in here? a function with only one element zero?
So for any g in G, the zero vector is g(s_0)
No, the zero vector is the function g for which g(s) = 0 for all s in S
Like the vector space is the set of functions
The vectors are the functions themselves
and that function is in g because it satisfies g(s_0) = 0 since for all s in S we have g(s) = 0
Yep
I would recommend going through the definition of F(S, F) again btw
It seems that that might be the source of confusion
yeah I have it in here xd
Cool yeah, the vectors in this space are the functions, not their values at specific points
ok so now taking arbitrary f,g in G
We know that f + g in F(S,F) (because it is a vector space) and thus f + g in G
Hold up hold up
You also have to check if f+g satisfies the condition for being in G
yeah for that s_0 its 0 + 0
So a better answer would be
Take f,g in G. Since G subset F(S,F) we see that f + g in F(S,F). Now we check the predicate of G. Note that for s_0 we have (f+g)(s_0) = f(s_0) + g(s_0) = 0. Therefore f + g in G
Yep
The part of the s_0 is a bit messy
Why 
idk
Take f,g in G, then (f+g)(s_0) = f(s_0)+g(s_0) = 0+0 = 0 so f+g in G
Yeah
Itâs fine
Like it doesn't seem formal? 
Absolutely no clue what a predicate is tbh 
If thats the case then you should go step by step and figure out which part you think is problematic
I guess
Because us saying that it is fine and you just accepting that won't really be helpful 
its is
Any true/false thing
you also need to check G is closed under scalar multiplication to prove itâs a subspace
Ah ok
Nice
Epic win đđđđ
np 
The whole set of elements that annihilate on a certain set forming a sub-structure thing is really swag and general
Variety moment
Non abelian logic when
Does anybody here knows about McKay graphs?
It's a way to present a represntation via a graph for which the vertices are all the irreps and edges are multiplicities.
that doesn't sound right
If you're referring to me, it's a bit complicated than that. I just added extra info for those who might know it by other names.
For the induction step, assume that there is some h â H ⊠Z_(i+1)(G) but not in Z_i(G). Consider the function g ⌠[h,g]. Where does its image lie?
From reading the wikipedia page for nilpotent groups it seems that you should always keep this function in mind 
Because nilpotence says that this function is always nilpotent
for all h
In the whole group not just some normal subgroup H
do you mean the group of units mod 18?
in which case yes iff you can prove it by finding a single element that generates the whole group ;)
i thought i could do it without thinking about the commutator, guess ill have to anyways. Thanks ill give it a thought
How do I prove this?
U_8 being all numbers between 1-7 under multiplication function
Figure out what the 2 groups are and show an explicit isomorphism
Write down all there elements
And the multiplication tables
You should be able to do this with partially drawn multiplication tables
Just figure out as much of the group structure as you need to prove this
I think this should work:
||\phi: {1,3,5,7}\rightarrow {1,5,7,11} with \phi(1)=1, \phi(3)=5,\phi(5)=7, \phi(7)=11||
step 1 is to make sure you have the definition of U_8 correct :^)
as buncho pointed out, multiplication for all elements between 1 and 7 would not form a group: U_8 is restricted in the sense that every element must have an inverse mod 8, and similarly for U_12
is 0 the only element with euclidean norm 0 in a euclidean domain
this feels like defn wrangling
owie
im doing this
\delta(a_m) = 0 for all sufficiently large m
and then i can pick n to be the first one such that \delta(a_(n+1)) = 0
But i need a_(n+1) = 0 unless thats a typo
Ye you will get divisibility
Like try this with a couple small integers
Ah I see what you mean
oof
So yeah if delta(a_n) is 0 for some n
Then inductively the delta of a_n+1 is less than this or a_n+1 is just 0
At each step you strictly reduce delta
Yee infinite descent
I just dont see how the condition on delta(a_n) gives us info on a_n
It tells you gcd(a_n-1, a_n)
Because from a_n+1 = 0, you have divisibility of that pair
Then backtrack and prove that gcd remains the same at each step
Unless you just have 0
Np 
anyone got a good book for commute algebra?
how can i find the multiplicative inverse of a field's elements
that defines addition like (a, b) + (c, d) = (a + c, b + d)
and multiplication (a, b) * (c, d) = (a*c - b*d, a*d + b*c)
the additive identity is (0, 0)
the multiplicative identity is (1, 0)
tried doing (a * c - b * d, a * d + b * c) = (1, 0) and finding (c, d) in terms of (a, b)
is that the correct idea
:p
yeah just make it equal to 1 and 0
chat isn't this just ||complex multiplication|| chat
if it isn't then yeah you've got the right idea
If you know a good bit of algebra (like, already are comfortable with the tensor product, it helps to know some homological algebra, Ext, Tor) then Matsumuraâs commutative ring theory
If not⌠𤢠Atiyah-MacDonald
But donâtâŚ
Just use Reid
Yeah lol
I mean thereâs a like appendix
But I have never had a great experience using a little appendix for stuff that was pretty necessary
Like thereâs a lot of diagrams, the snake lemma is used, the five lemma gets used quite a bit, and once you hit depth like
only Ext and Tor ?
Itâs really really important
is needed?
I mean if you get up to Ext and Tor you probably know enough I think
Like depends what you mean
You donât need say
Chain homotopy
But like knowing the definition of cohomology is kinda basic
i see
Ext and Tor is covered in a single section of D and F
so i guess ill learn that first
and then matsumura
I mean whatâs your goal?
geometry
For Commutative Algebra
Hmmmmmmmmm
Maybe I need to go back on my A-M is bad thing
why
Well
I think ideally youd just use Matsumura
But A-M has a really streamlined thing
So likeâŚ
If you want to get to geometry fast
Just doing A-M and then going for it is probably faster
I think it just sucks 10x more
But Iâm of the opinion as I learn more and more Commutative algebra
That you need it for AG
And like itâs better to know a lot going in
And wdym local?
Like localization?
Or local rings
both
I mean localization isnât all that deep in and of itself
It just is used everywhere
So you end up kinda developing a lot for it
For local rings I think A-M does stuff about like Noetherian local rings
The end has dimension theory
I guess my thing is
realistically youâd want to do 1-9 and then 13-15 of Matsumura
But it might be faster to do all of A-M
I just cannot stand A-M and like
It doesnât work for me because I literally cannot make progress because I hate it so much
whats the name of the matsumura book?
Commutative ring theory
Commutative algebra is ancient and like, just get the newer one lol
Honestly tho
Maybe Reid is actually the best for someone who wants to do geometry
I think it covers like the same as A-M and I like the exposition 10x more
And itâs also already kinda geometric so itâs nice in that sense
Then eventually youâll need more commutative algebra then I think Matsumura is how you should continue
IMO
what is your opinion on chapter 15 of dummit and foote?
ok so i got that a = c / c^2 + d^2 and b = d / c^2 + d^2
but then i tried an example
(2, 3) * (2 / 13, 3 / 13)
and it didnt give me (1, 0)
đ¤
your a and b are wrong
that's just... the entire thing 
-3/13
-d not d
stupid question
wait how does it go
ok wait for a start if G/H is cyclic does there exist K in G such that K is iso to G/H
i want to say yes
but blanking on exactly why
i mean it has to exist right, just get gh such that h is 1 so it's basically exactly its own representative??
well that's not quite right otherwise why not do it for non-cyclic groups
but there has to be an element with the same order, or... what
jesus i'm fairly sure i've proven this before and forgotten it, it's so goddamn basic
If you look at the map from G to G/H, then the preimage of a generator under G/H must have order some multiple of |G/H|, so by raising this element to an appropriate power, you get something with order |G/H| which generates the K you want
that sounds right
lemme work it through
oh yeah it's completely obvious ty
why do i only do maths when i'm dog tired
well 1. so it can't get in the way of me enjoying myself too much and 2. so i can blame being tired when i'm bad at it when in fact i'm just bad
ok i leave now
let $P$ ands $B$ spaces with a G-action and $f:P \rightarrow B$ a map, what means that $f$ factors uniquely through the orbit space $P/G$?
Or x1
Is there any more context? I don't see how the usual idea of factoring through makes sense here
There is a natural quotient map q: P â P/G. That statement is saying that there exists a unique map g: P/G â B such that f = gq
The action of G on P/G would be trivial, so the action of G on image of f should also be trivial for this to hold, and this should also be sufficient for the existence of a unique factorisation
You mean P/G not P/B right? And I think you mean f = gq and not gp
Yes, ty
homological algebra is.... good
Hi guys, might be a silly question. R is a ring, and r\in R. what does it mean by 2r? Is it r+r, + is the group operation? Or if I say 2\in R, then 2r is 2r where * is the second operation? And whether 2r = r+r ?
It means r+r
And in some way, 2 is in every ring if you define 2 as 1+1
And in that way of viewing things, 2r really is (1+1)*r as well
Oh ,thanks!
inverse, sry
you can also define the symbol "2" when referring to an element of R to mean 1+1 where 1 is the identity of R
then 2r really is a multiplication rather than a notational shorthand
tbf you could prove without diagram chase
How do I prove that for group G and H
Which are [G:H] = 2
than for every g^2 in g than it also exists in H?
sorry for every g in G than it also exists as g^2 in H?
Quotient by H
[G:H] = 2 means that H is normal and G/H exists. What group is G/H iso to?
I don't know
Sorry if I'm being silly but what does this also mean lol
Do you mean each g in G can be written as g = h^2 for some h in H?
For all g â G, g² â H
Ah
more like h = g^2 in H
Ye sure
yeah the snake lemma took me a long time to understand the proof of the first time i read it
but it gets much easier in context because when you're talking about concrete chains and boundaries in a space rather than elements of an arbitrary module, it's easier to follow. it's just easier to parse "the boundary of sigma is in A" when you read that as a geometric statement rather than an algebraic one
is F(t)[x] = F[t, x]?
i havent seen this notation before, so im a bit confused
yeah its not
thanks
if the integers with the usual operations are not a field
(no inverse)
what are they
Ring
oh i see
a very nice ring at that
a very initial ring at that
Hey I have a question, the goal is to prove or disprove that 1 + 103x^2 is a unit in Z_2021[x], but I am leaning towards it being false because the gcd(103, 2021) = 1, is this logic correct?
Yeah. there is a general result about units in R[x]. You need the constant term to be a unit and all the other coefficients to be nilpotent (meaning that a^k = 0 for some k).
R is a commutative ring with 1.
it's an early exercise in atiyah-macdonald, I haven't seen much yet but I think that book has great exercises
I remember it being deceptively hard
like you'd think it's just "oh since x^n doesn't have an inverse it has to be nilpotent" but actually showing the if and only if is quite tricky
sorry for the ping, but I wanted to add there's a property that says there's a unique ring homomorphism from Z to any ring, so you can define unambiguously 1,2,3... etc in any ring. you can then naturally define 3a, for example. and it is equal by distributivity to (1+1+1)a=a+a+a
C[x,y]/(y^2 - x^3) is an integral domain that's finitely generated as a C-algebra but that's not integrally closed in its field of fractions
An example of an integral element that's not in C[x,y]/(y^2 - x^3) but is in its field of fractions is y/x. It satisfies the monic polynomial t^3 - y.
Question: what is the integral closure of C[x,y]/(y^2 - x^3) in its field of fractions?
I think you want to do some bullshit like
I think this ring can be rewritten as the subring of C[t] generated by t^2 and t^3 (send y to t^3 and x to t^2 to see this)
And then the integral closure is C[t] I think
This is also geometric, if you take integral closure you fix the singularity that y^2 - x^3 has and I believe it just becomes a line
If you actually care about the like âphysicalâ integral closure of this ring inside its canonical field of fractions you can try to port everything back over idfk
I think you can just write it as C[sqrt(x)]
If you want to write it "in terms of" x and y
The field of fractions of C[x,y]/(y^2 - x^3) is C(sqrt(x)) where y = (sqrt(x))^3
Hey guys , im a little stuck on this question, I've managed to mostly prove that H is a group I've proved the operation is a closed binary operation, that its associative and the identity exists and its phi(the identity in G)
Im kind of stuck on figuring out how to ascertain what the inverse of each element in H under the operation 'dagger'. Can anyone help?
As well as this the part underneath with using the above construction: since I've proven that phi is an isomorphism, in this case would phi of the star operation (which is now addition) become multiply such that the two negative x's multiply to become a positive real? (sorry if i worded that badly but thank you in advance!)
phi(identity in G) so phi(e)
okaay
I think I figured out the inverse
so you want h * k = phi(phi^-1(h) * phi^-1(k)) = e and then find k
but my math might be way off let me send lmao
??
how did you go
from 1st line to 2nd line
in last paragraph
phi(g^-1)=phi(g)^-1
like
in the proof you should like
remark that you are in the group G
(phi(g))^-1 is not an element in G
ops yea i read wrong
yea ur right
ahhh phew i thought i had to start again LOL
my brain cells were like pls no
thank you!!!
for all of the help
i didnt do much yea haha
so yea the inverse of each element
is the inverse image of the inverse of the element thats supposed to be coming from in the original image in the group
does make sense
so for the "construction" part
just find out what f^-1 is
and write out explicitly the operation
f(f^-1(x)+f^-1(y))
okay will try that! thanks so much :)
do Newton's identities extend to symmetric power series? i.e. if a power series in n variables is the same under permutation of variables is it a power series of the elementary symmetric polynomials?
Yes this is true
At least Im pretty sure⌠The fact about polynomials is true degree-by-degree so you should be able to just assemble that into a power series
The only issue would be if there was some kind of convergence problem?
But there shouldnt be since youre in finitely many variables
Yeah I think this is true
x is nilpotent
i want to show 1+x is unit
can i just do 1=1+x^n = (1+x)(x^n-1 -... +1)
@oblique river that's what I was thinking, the powers can still be separated into homogeneous terms and the usual proof would apply
Thanks :)
Itâs probably simpler to do it as 1 - x^n so that you dont have to worry about the signs on the right side. But yes thatâs fine.
Np
Oh, yeah of course, you cant actually factor like that lmao
That only works when n is odd
Sorry
Your teacher is correct
My mistake
it is still true WLOG but ugly, and better to use 1+x directly like what you originally thought
Your argument would be fine if you specified that n were odd
So that you could actually factor 1 + x^n
if i make it -x
I don't think $n$ needs to be odd to factor $(1+x)(1-x+x^2+\dots+ (-x)^{n-1}$ just be careful with the $\pm$ and it's fine
datorangeguy
Yes, but they were trying to factor 1 + x^n
Yes that is one option
The other option is to just say n is odd and then factor 1 + x^n
Either is fine.
Ok we're in agreement then
Hi, guys, according to the definition of ring of p-adic integers on my lecture note, why i can have the highlighted part?
This is just saying you pull out as much p as possible from a
Like⌠p not dividing ab just means it doesnât divide a or b
So if it doesnât divide b then you can put b in the bottom
And if it divides a then you can pull another factor of p out
thanks, the p doesn't divide ab really confuses me, is it better or at least correct to write (p^e a)/b with p cannot divide a and b
Those are equivalent
I mean it is correct
And maybe better because itâs⌠clearer?
But one is true iff the other is
Oh, thanks
ye
??
The empty set is closed as it corresponds to Z(1)
And the entire space is closed as Z(0)
So their complements are open
Which are⌠each other
alright
robin harthshorne geometry
I'm wondering about the situation of being given a polynomial equation p(X)=0 with integer coefficients (all a_i are in Z in the polynomials expanded form):
Is there a simple to compute upper bound on the (absolute value of) the largest solution p(L)=0 with L in Z, which can be computed in terms of its coefficients a_i? In the best case this avoids going through a norrmal form.
I'm thinking of something along the lines of "the largest solution is smaller than the product of the coefficients."
I haven't been able to cook up a counter-example since I don't rule out that the polynomial has non-integer solutions, say p(10/3)=0, and so form p(X)=\prod(a_i - X) isn't as useful it seems.
The motivation for the question is how the brute force solution search can be restricted, given an integer coefficient polynomial equation to solve.
The rational root theorem tells you that any integer solution must divide the constant term. So the absolute value of the constant term gives you an upper bound if thats all you want, but it really gives a lot more than that
oh, i read it as upper bound on the integer solutions
sounds more like an analysis problem đ¤
No I think that should suffice. I wans't sure if rational solution b and c in
a(X-b)(X-c)=0
could make the constant term being smaller than some other solution, but I suppose the theorem negates this
probably doable by spamming the triangle inequality very hard
like the simplest case would b smt like
say you have $f(x)=\sum_{i=0}^nf_ix^i$, and let $F$ be maxima of $f_i$
$$|f(x)|\leq\sum_{i=0}^n|f_i||x|^i\leq F\frac{|x|^{d+1}-1}{|x|-1}$$
ari 亲
vaguely like this
but what you want really is
the magnitude of f_nx^n term is bigger than all other terms
smt liddat
that gives you your bound
Okay I was really just looking for a crude bound
This seems to work
def eval(pol, x):
return sum(coeff * x ** order for order, coeff in enumerate(pol[::-1]))
def is_root(pol, x):
return eval(pol, x) == 0
def int_pol_find(pol):
c = abs(pol[-1])
candidates = (x for x in range(-c, c)
if x in [-1, 0, 1] or c % abs(x) == 0
)
sol = [x for x in candidates if is_root(pol, x)]
return sol
print("6 X^2 - 27 X + 12 = 6 (X - 4) (X - 1/2)")
print(int_pol_find([6, -27, 12]))
print("2 (X-3) (X-7) (X-9)")
print(int_pol_find([2, -38, 222, -378]))
Hey guys this ok? I could use the reasoning that 0x = 0 in W but we don't know that 0 in F (?)
That proof of 0 in W doesn't work
if 0+x is in W, and x is in W, you can't say that 0 is too
but 0 is in F yes
or well it is the additive identity of F
And you can show that (0 of F) scalar multiplied by any vector = zero vecotr
But how do you know that 0 is in F?
it is one of the field axioms
that there is an additive identity
Also you probably have to prove that if x is in W then -x is also in W
I see
So it would be much easier by just noticing that 0 in F. Since whenever a in F then ax in W and because 0 in F then 0x = 0 in W for all x in W
valid
hi
i need help again
đ
in part c) if coefficient of y^2 and xy are 0
will it be iso to ring in part a)
and iso to ring in b) otherwise
use like, the jordan normal form or something yeah
i don't remember exactly what it is
you can't always diagonalize right
ok that question is beyond me
im struggling to find subsets of algebraic sets
how is it generally done?
what are you talking about
Another question
If i have an algebraic set
idrk how to find subsets
for example when $Y = V(x^2-yz,xz-x)$
ActiveChapter
how can i find subsets?
Given a finite permutation group G of known order, are there obvious lower bounds to the size of generating sets?
For instance, if I know my group is nonabelian it cannot be cyclic, so a single generator is impossible. But how can one check whether e.g. n=2 does not work as well?
Thatâs hard
You shouldnt be able to say anything just knowing the order except in some very small cases when you can just enumerate all groups
By permutation groups, are we talking symmetric groups S_n? If so they all have generating sets size two I thought
Or like, âa group of order pq is 2-generated for any primes p and qâ
Beyond the first few lol
Finite groups
Specifically, I was wondering whether for rubik's-like groups (i.e. nxnxn) there's an obvious way to see whether the generating set of âturn a side by 90degâ can be improved
(for me, permutation group usually means subgroup of Sâ)
All finite groups are permutation groups
âobviousâ meaning ânot reliant on finding a decomposition of that gorup as semidirect productsâ or sth like that
Often people use âpermutation groupâ to mean a specific subgroup of S_n
Sure thanks
For example the klein four group can be embedded in S_4 in multiple ways, and which embedding you have can be important
Well, I was mimicking the nomenclature that treats finite group algorithms as âpermutation group algorithmsâ because you only work with such a concrete embedding â Sâ there
but fair
Yes i think thatâs standard terminology
In any case I dont think you can really say much in general
This is massively vague like, you can grab a random ass point in there and thatâs a singleton subset
If you want algebraic subsets you can always add in another equation
