#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 608 of 407
I can't think of a way other than exhaustion of all cases
16 cases.
Which isn't that much but still sucks
I was able to figure out how many operations are commutative and how many operations have identity
but I am stuck on associativity
Idk lol
I tried doing some work based on what x^2 and y^2 are
bruh so I gotta go through the cases?
smh that blows
I mean this isn't due till next wednesday so I guess I'll just go to OH by skipping a class
and ask him what the intended solution is
I mean you can try to classify it in terms of functions
Idk how that would be easier but ¯_(ツ)_/¯
given the monoid of endomorphisms of some group, can we tell whether it's abelian?
I'm currently trying to see whether the following is a counterexample: Q with + vs. the semi-direct product of Q by Z where the 1 of Z multiplies the elements of Q by 2
the former is abelian, the latter is non-abelian, and I'm not sure whether their endomorphism monoids are different. the former has Q (including 0) with multiplication as the endomorphism monoid
I'm not sure about the latter...
I think there's an embedding Endo(Q) -> Endo(Q semiproduct Z), but not sure if it's surjective or not
Alright, I tried to prove that the residue classes of integer modulo n is associative under multiplication.
This is my first time working with residue classes, so I want y'all to read my proof, rip me a new one, and then help me figure out how to improve it.
Most of my wording is probably off, so I could certainly use some help refining it.
I think I realized near the end that since equivalence classes are sets, we can just show that each set includes the other to show they are associative.
Here is a comparison between my first and second attempt. I feel a lot more confident in attempt 2.
This kind of thing is where I feel like just developing the idea of quotients for rings and showing that this lines up with Z/(n) is the cleanest way to do it lmao
Well, we are in the preliminaries of abstract Algebra. We just started the class. Although you may be right, I can't say it is within my toolbox at this point.
have you proven that multiplication of residue classes is well-defined?
like, (a+nZ)(b+nZ) = (ab + nZ) doesnt depend on the choice of a and b?
Sorry that wasn’t a suggestion on how to do it, more like this is annoying and it ends up being easier to do once you know more
(for the record I think your second proof is good, but there's no reason to limit a, b, and c to be less than n.)
It’s like proving associativity for the multiplication on elliptic curves. You can do it with elementary methods but there’s a higher tech way to do it that’s so much cleaner I feel like it’s better to just take on faith it’s associative then once you know enough to do the nice proof just do it that way
When I'm asked to prove in intro algebra that a binary operation is associative, I like to just pretend to do it
Lmfao
I just wanna say that this is so much better than what ive seen before
when i TAed abstract algebra, there was a student who had to prove that addition in Z/4Z was associative
so he wrote out all 64 triples of the form [(a + 4Z) + (b + 4Z)] + (c + 4Z) = (a + 4Z) + [(b + 4Z) + (c + 4Z)]
:(
Was this on paper?
no
i saw what he was doing and how many pages it was and just wrote a little note
I think I gave him like 6/10 or 7/10
maybe 7/10
Was this the entire problem?
oh hmm good point, maybe the problem was to prove Z/4Z was a group under addition
I feel like I’d give 10/10 because I mean… idk it is a perfectly rigorous proof of the stated fact
so he probably got like 8/10 or something
No. Choosing an element of End(Q) is equivalent to choosing an element a of Q such that the image of 1 is a . Choosing an element of End(semi direct product of Q and Z) is equivalent to choosing r,s from Q such that the image of (1,0) and (0,1) are (r,0) and (s,1) respectively.
Just a god-awful proof
i mean, the point of math homework isn't to produce technically correct statements
it's to practice and apply techniques youve learned in class
Idk. I think if you get the job done using stuff up to what you’ve learned you did it
But maybe that says more about me than anything else
another example from later in the class was during galois theory
they were asked to find all subfields of Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3))
and the student did it by hand like
"let me calculate what Q(a + bsqrt(2) + csqrt(3) + dsqrt(6)) is for a, b, c, d in Q"
using really bad linear algebra
and he lost points
I guess for me I just feel like if you don’t have a clever idea and you just go to town and do what you can to make it work then you did it
If you specified to do it using some specific method then sure
if youre supposed to be practicing using the fundamental theorem of galois theory
and you dont do that
then you havent met the requirements
if this is an exam i would be more lenient
Who knows
I guess the thing for me is that on an exam you don’t have time for that
So I’d write down like “okay you did it, but you want to be doing ___ instead”
Because you won’t be able to do this for everything
But I guess I’ve never really thought much about what purpose HW serves lol
For me it’s just been problems to do and prove lmao
i mean, you can tell me if this isn't accurate, but i would imagine that most students (including you) would find it odd/confusing if you had a homework assignment in a group theory class that asked you to prove the heine borel theorem and youd probably complain about it
"why is my algebra class making me prove analysis theorems"
Yeah that’s true
so clearly homework should have some relevance to the class and isn't just a list of random true statements
Yeah that’s true
Like
I think the argument for scoring less than 100% for a technically correct solution that missed the point
i'm going farther than just saying the statements of the problems should be relevant to the class, and im saying the proofs should be too
Is that you want to make them use the things they learnt to like get practice with them
But I don’t see how scoring less encourages them more than say, giving 10 and writing a note down saying to avoid excessive force and to try to use relevant theorems and stuff like that
And then maybe down the line if they keep doing it to like tske points off
If nothing else can stop them
I just as a student feel slighted if I get marked down on a perfectly valid solution
people dont read comments if they get a 10/10
Like I had to prove the theorem about flatness being able to be checked on ideals
Oh I do
xD
I like seeing comments on what I wrote
this isn't about the exact number but more just the existence of a number
And I had a long complicated proof because we couldn’t use Tor and i tried my hardest and this was super hard and I finally got a proof
but in studies about grading work it's been found that whenever a piece of work has a numerical grade on it, students overwhelmingly dont read comments, or if they do, they dont internalize them
And I got 7/10 and the TA said “it would take a lot of time for me to verify all this”
And I was like bruh
Huh
I guess I can only speak for myself
i mean, yeah, like I kinda agree with the TA here? i would at least skim it and see if it looked reasonable
but I would take off at least a point
if you gave some nasty proof which missed the point
I mean I literally don’t know how you could make a good proof without Tor
It wasn’t nasty it just is a hard problem lol
I don’t know I haven’t had to grade a bunch of proofs in a week as a TA
So maybe I’d be more inclined to agree after I have
But I was annoyed because I spent like 15 hours making that proof and checking all the details
And it was like “sorry too long”
i mean i would try to leave something more detailed than that
honestly like I think the most optimal thing would be to just return it with a hint for the shorter proof and say "try it again"
To be fair, excessive force is a terrible approach to proving something...
I don’t think there is a shorter proof though
Or at least anytbing significantly shorter
did the TA give everyone a 7/10 with that same comment?
if so then you have a point and the TA just sounds bad
Ouch, that's rough
Like I’ve thought about this problem a lot and have tried to shorten it and I can’t come up with anything
I can reduce to fg easier now because of direct limits but I didn’t want to prove that commutes without tensor
i mean, going back to your point from way earlier, sometimes it's nicer to use more advanced stuff to prove something simple. i dont mind if students do that as long as what they write is understandable to another student in the class and doesnt completely circumvent the problem
then you have to reduce to a principal ideal by doing a bunch of quotients
i get that that doesnt fly in all classes
cuz different instructors have different feelings about it
Yeah I mean that original comment wasn’t about like doing it for hw
I just was expressing I think these things don’t really teach much like
Proving associatibity of modular arithmetic doesn’t feel like you learn anything lol
So I’m annoyed stuff like this always get assigned as hw
you learn that proving things are associative is really shitty
but yeah @lethal cipher i think your proof is fine
like i said i dont think you need to restrict to a, b, c < n
i think it kinda obfuscates your point
and makes me (the reader) ask "wait why are they doing this? is this necessary?"
oh @next obsidian maybe this will make you unhappy too but starting like halfway through the semester
i started taking off 1 point whenever someone proved something by unnecessary contradiction
like their proof of A implies B was
Bruh I would be mad
assume A is true and B is false
[insert direct proof of A implies B]
therefore B and not B, contradiction
therefore B is true
I guess there's also another version which is
Like sometimes I write a contradiction proof because it gets me started
Then I realize I have an idea that can work for a direct proof
But I’ve already written down a proof that works
So I just say whatever
assume A is true and B is false
[insert direct proof of the contrapositive not B implies not A]
therefore A and not A, contradiction
therefore B is true
again I think HW is more than just "find a logically correct proof of this"
but part of it is learning how to write math
I mean sure but like
I have finite time
And I don’t want to spend it rewriting a proof that’s totally valid to a proof that’s the same thing but not contradiction
i guess i think like, HW should be 80% logic and 20% composition
Like the above is kind of stupid
chm doesnt use tex moment
I do
I literally Tex everything
I mean if it’s as bad as your examples
Then like I will rewrite it since it’s so easy to
But like sometimes I find that like doing a minimal counterexample works easier
Like assume that x1,…,xn are such that X, then show that x1 isn’t X
And the idea could be used to directly prove it
i'm not saying that writing down counterexamples to statements is bad lol
i'm literally talking about the two forms which i described above
I mean yeah
That ones really dumb and I agree there
But sometimes people extend past that and say “this can be proven directly so proof is bad”
but i dont really buy the "i dont have time" argument cuz like, that's literally how any other class which requires writing works. if you write an english paper and you have a sound thesis but you cant communicate it cuz your writing is shit and full of nonsense and unrelated facts youre not going to get an A
learning how to write math well is an important skill
and I personally think HW is the best place to reinforce that
and as long as the instructor is very clear about the standards ahead of time
I think there's really no excuse to being lazy and writing bad math
I really don’t like stylistic stuff being done as a grade, I think math is pretty much about getting a correct proof and having it readable.
I’ve read plenty of weird proofs with a random unnecessary assumption in textbooks I feel like holding the students to higher standards than their textbook is silly
This holds for even things where a TA says not to say a statement is obvious and you can point to your textbook doing it over and over
i mean i think the abc conjecture is pretty good evidence that most mathematicians dont agree. even before SS published what they thought the error was, large parts of the community had basically already written off the proof, and mostly because mochizuki's writing is impenetrable and he went through no effort to try to explain it to people
I mean that’s at a point it wasn’t readable. I meant understandable by readable in that context
Or meant readable to mean understandable?
i mean i guess this is just getting down to some kind of philosophy of math stuff but like, i dont think that mathematics is just about finding facts. there is a community aspect to math which i dont think you can ignore
and part of that is communication and learning to write and talk in a way which other mathematicians can understand clearly
Oh well I disagree haha, like there’s a community around it but to me doing math and the actual content is just proving stuff
but proving something is useless if you cant (or dont) communicate it to others
Yeah that’s true, but I don’t think an unnecessary proof by contradiction inhibits that
do you watch sports at all
Yeah
basketball? football? baseball?
so like, in basketball, you can get penalized for taking an action which could have inhibited another player, even if it didn't actually inhibit them
if i foul you when you shoot a basket, you get free throws even if you make it
Yeah
I think there's room to correct bad behaviors even if no actual abuse occurred
Yeah but as a grade? Maybe the idea of grade is different in our head but to me a grade is something like insanely valuable
Like I stress about grades more than anything in my life
i mean... that's not good...
So being penalized for that when I feel like you’re doing something that is harmless
Is incredibly infuriating
Like it’s just some random stylistic subjective choice the person decided on
i mean, yes. losing points because you used the wrong width of lined paper is infuriating
or because you wrote your name in print instead of cursive
or because you printed on yellow paper
but i'm saying that i think that "doing math" is so much more than just "find a logically correct statement"
Like I got marked down for not putting an equation on a separate line and I can point out dozens and dozens of published things that have the same length equation in-line
Like “put equations on their own line” and it’s a string involving two equals signs
whether or not my students like it, i am very clear about what my standards are, and i also dont take points off on the first offense, and i take time in class to talk about what good proofs look like and why it's important to write succinctly
i make it a part of the class, not just some extra thing which gets tacked on at the end like
I’m way more okay with that now
"oh btw sry you forgot a period -5 pointslmao"
Like if you’re clear about it
And gave warnings
Like that seems fair to me
I can swallow that a lot more
My experiences have been like
“You will be graded on style”
In the second quarter (not in the first)
First hw I lost like 5 points because I didn’t put equations on different lines
And they didn’t like that I have long sentences
And like the first hw “wasn’t graded on style so you can understand what the TA wants”
And we turned in the second hw before the first was graded
so your issue is with bad course management then lol
So I literally had no idea what the TA wanted and then got assblasted for it
I guess haha
lost 5 points
got assblasted
It felt like it
I mean okay that’s definitely hyperbolic lol
But like I said my grade is what I’m worrying about the most
I mean I won’t give a duck in grad school
well learning and growing is what i care about the most
But thinking about not getting into a school because some TA thought my sentences were too long and marked me down
Pisses me off
sorry but like if you actually think that losing a few HW points is going to make or break your grad school admission you have been really really misguided
I mean it probably won’t
But I lived my life until uni getting a 4.0 so I could not worry about it
Like I worked my ass off to be perfect so I couldn’t have that be a liability
Like none of this is logical I guess, but this is what I’m dealing with
maybe you have done this but like, if single points give you that much anxiety, i think you should talk to a therapist about it
I mean it’s not like I get anxious I just get really annoyed
If I feel like I fucked up
Then that’s on me and I should try harder
But if it feels like it wasn’t a good call / justified then it really really annoys me
but saying "i dont value what my instructors value and therefore i get annoyed when they tell me i dont meet their standards" sounds more like a you-problem than a them-problem
I guess but to me it feels like your English teacher marked you down because you didn’t write on the topic they wanted
To me it seems completely irrelevant to what the course should be graded on
like, what youre saying isnt this egregious, but ive had a student tell me before "why should my grade be penalized for not doing any homework"
Lmao
like, i'm sorry that you dont value homework, but I do value it and I clearly communicated that
as long as the instructor is transparent, and as long as the work aligns with the course goals, and is assessed consistently, I dont see a problem
Yeah I mean I have to agree there
and on the issue of style, I do think it's actually a relevant skill for being a mathematician. (many) journals care about this stuff and (many) referees will ask you to do revisions if your proofs are a mess
I just haven’t had it be outlined before that these are things you’re graded on
It’s been randomly just thrown in
yeah i mean i think that's just bad course management
Besides one time I guess and I dropped the course for other reasons
All stemming from the TA’s grading but whatever
like, for a similar but maybe more cut-and-dry example, randomly taking off points because students dont use tex is not fine (imo), but saying "becoming proficient in tex is an important skill for a mathematician, it's something we're going to work on and i'll give you guidance in, and by week 8 all homework must be submitted in tex" is fine (imo)
Yeah I agree
(as long as that's appropriate for the course, if you did that in calc 1 that wouldnt be appropriate hahaha)
I man if you’re outlining it in the course syllabus and clear
You can say that your students need to do your hw upside down and I think that’s in your right but I’ll think it’s fucking ridiculous and drop the course and complain
Okay maybe not that bad
But like if you’re clear what the expectations are and they fall into a reasonable territory I’ll say it’s within your right
hahaha i mean yes, course goals should be relevant and meaningful
it's not just about being transparent
Okay well
I guess the final thought on this I can say is
I’ve seen people been overly anal about this sort of thing and mark down small points on hw and you can argue there’s room for improvement so no 10/10
But if your course is graded so you need like constant 9 and 10s out of 10 to get a 4.0 this seems trash
If you’re lenient on how the course is finally graded it’s a lot easier to swallow that pill for me personally
I think I’m just coming from the wrong place on all of this at this point because I care too much about the grade at the end lol
Yeah you're right. I was initially planning on doing something more cumbersome which would want that requirement, but this ended up a lot cleaner and that restriction is not a necessary inclusion.
i think it's always good once you finish writing a proof to kinda go back and "clean it up" a bit
because sometimes this happens when you write a proof -- you'll start out thinking you're going to take one path but then end up taking another
if you leave some of the relics of the original approach in there, it can be confusing to the reader
I think subconsciously a lot of people reading proofs sort of assume that every step they read is going to be important, "because otherwise why would it be there" and so if you accidentally leave some extraneous step in, then the reader can be like "wait, is this necessary? what goes wrong if I take this step out? everything seems ok even if I remove this... wait am I going crazy?"
@lethal cipher
hi
so a is not in Pi for i <= n-1
so there exists an xi in a not in pi
what do they mean by when j != i
They are saying that by the induction hypothesis, they can pick xi in a such that xi is not in p_j for all j, except when j=i
i dont understand
a is not completely in Pi for i <= n-1
so some xi in a not in pi
Yes that is also true, but that is not what he is saying
Ok let me be a little concrete, take i=1 and n=3
So he is saying there is x in a such that x is not in p2 and not in p3
And you are saying that there is an x in a such that x is not in p1
also not in p1 then?
Different x’s
Just because there exists an element of a that is not in p1 and there exists some element that is not in p2 and p3 doesn’t mean that they are the same element
apply induction hypothesis on this first step itself
a is therefore not in the union of any n-1 of the P_i
can we n=3 and prove for n=4
so you can pick x_i which is in a but not in the union of everything except P_i whbich is what saketh is saying
a is not in p1,p2,p3 so not in union of p1p2p3
now a is not in p4
so a is not in union of p1p2p3p4
yeah and by similar reasoning, a is not in the union of p1p3p4, of p2p3p4 and of p1p2p4
That reasoning doesn't work, {1,2} is not in {1}, not in {2}, but is in the union
ok
i dont understand this
is this clear?
No
So your assumptions are:
you have some n prime ideals P_i
a is not in any P_i
whenever a is not in any n-1 subcollection, it is not in the union of that subcollection
The last line is the induction hypothesis and how you phrase it is important because notice that we are assuming this for every n-1 subcollection
not just P_1,...,P_n-1
subcollections of n-1 things huh
Yeah
So that induction hypothesis together with a not being in any P_i tells you that a is not in any of the unions (except possibly the union of everything, which is what we have to prove now)
this should be clear now
what about p1p2p3
that is also true by induction?
Yes, you already mentioned it so I didn't 
inside which P_i? all of them?
p1 atleast
It is not in P_i because n-1 of its summands are in P_i and the last one isn't
the ith one isn't in P_i
oh no
we aren't doing that
we're doing x1x2x3 + x1x2x4 + x1x3x4 + x2x3x4
in the case n=4
omitting each x_i exactly once
Then you should be able to see that the ith summand here is not in P_i but is in the rest
i see
So the whole sum can't be in P_i for any i
so we assume that a is not contained in any p_i for i <= n
by induction we know that a is not contained in any n-1 subcollection
for the n=3 prove for n=4 case
a is not completely contained in P1,P2,P3,P4
are we calling x4 the element not in P1 cup P2 cup P3
yep
yeah, you can say the same for x1 x2 and x3

ive looked at a variation of this proof
and it said we dont need all primes
2 ideals can be non prime
so how would that work
Ye you can do something like that, its a simple modification of this argument
ok
ye
No modification mecessary
*necessary
Oops, I got it wrong, modification is necessary
it feels weird using a lower case a for an ideal
not so simple 
can't recall
while finding units of a eculidain domain does norm is nescessey, and if we change norm does it effect the units?
nop
you could have different euclidean functions
and it turns out that it is 1 precisely when you input a unit
<try proving it, isnt too hard!>
ok i will try
Hi, i am going over some abstract algebra notions for my research project, and I came across this one: https://encyclopediaofmath.org/wiki/Transformation_group. Specifically, it is written that: "if M is a vector space over a skew-field, then groups preserving this structure are called linear groups (cf. Linear group)". Why does it specifically give as an example skew-fields? what about fields? are there transformation groups that preserve a field structure, which are not linear?
fields are skew fields
i have to show that $F$ is isomorphic to $Z_{p}$ for some prime $p$, where $F$ is a field and there is a ring homomorphism form $Z$ onto $F$, I think here mod P will work because by isomorphism theorm we will have $\frac{Z}{<pZ>} \cong F$ , but the problem is iam not getting how to prove it is onto ( mod p). Please help
Algebra
is that isomorphism given?
no , homomorphism is given
You can't prove that it is onto, because it need not be
u can show pZ is prime
thats great idea
And I mean there are fields which are not isomorphic to some Zp 
is't it should be maximal?
oh nvm the homomorphism is given to be onto, yes it should be maximal
wait but how can this help me to show Z/<pz> iso to F?
first isomorphism theorem
so map will be mod p, and image will be F. and kernal will be <pZ>?
Yeah you just have to prove the last part that kernel is <pZ> for some prime p
but one more thing how to show mod p is onto,
(wapis wahi a gaya)
forget mod p for now 
You are given an f, onto, from Z to F
first isomorphism theorem says that F is isomorphic to Z/ker f
Compare this to what you have to prove and you see that it is enough to show that ker f is pZ for some prime p
Excuse me for butting in, as I wait to ask my own question, but why even formulate a problem like that. They basically want you to show that the factorgroup by a ideal made by a prime is a field, which is just proving few properties. Either showing that you can "solve" in the field or you have no zero divisors with some other properties I cannot remember.
got it
example application of the first isomorphism theorem 
.
I guess, I saw that exact statement you are trying to prove in the book I read now, sorry for being this abrupt.
I read in Russian, so I am not sure I even translated correctly 😢
No problem 
can I do mine question?
sure
I am having a trouble understanding a bit more advanced problem. I am reading der Warden's Algebra to get to know modern abstract Algebra.
In a paragraph about determinants it is defined elegantly as a polylineal antisymmetric form of vector space over a given field o. And one of the intermediate equalities puzzles me, specifically that it always equals 1 for the vectors of the basis, i.e. $D(x_i) = 1$. However I am struggling to prove this without using the representation as list of elements of o, in which case proof is trivial as a sum $\sum \pm x^i y^j z^k\cdot \ldots$ has only a single non-zero term. Is there a way to prove this without going to this representation? I have troubles with this because it gives a circular dependency since you assume that determinant will be the same for in any transformed basis, but you use this property (det=1) to prove basis invariance. Thank you!
Artej
+I wonder if circular proofs A->B & B->A are that bad
yes if you accept circular proofs then you can prove anything
0=1 → 0=1 → 0=1
point taken
By D(x_i) do you mean the determinant of the matrix which is x_i in the ith column?
But then that is not true
because if you take your basis to be (2,0) and (0,2) for R^2 then the determinant of the matrix with these is 4
you didn't put $ signs around the x_i 
I did it around the whole expression
the first x_i
oh!
Artej
ic! works 🙂
well, in 'own' representation basis vectors $\mathbf{p}_k$ are just $\mathbf{e}_k={0,\ldots, 1, \ldots}$ at k'th position
ah
Artej
So you're talking about the identity transformation in every case
because in any basis, the identity matrix represents the identity transformation
so $D(\mathbf{p}_k)$ is 1 in that basis, and by theorem it is invariant and should be 1 everywhere else, here D is a form and not an operation on matrix
Artej
I wondered if you could prove it in arbitrary basis by the symmetries of D
Yeah, its matrix with respect to any basis looks the same
The identity matrix doesn't change if you use other bases to represent it
Do you know any change of basis formula for matrices?
oh, because $A^{-1}IA$=$I$
Yep
f
I commutes with anything
Artej
😌
I should just English der Warden somewhere to just check over English terminology. I learned non-abstract algebra before, just my pet project to understand stuff better.
basically now you use the derivation of matrix transform to prove invariance for special case of det over basis, which lets you extend it over any group of vectors. Neat!
They should have included it like that in book originally 😦
Yeah it's really nice 
hello ❄️ E

hey @rustic crown long time
what are you doing these days?

what is a group abelian?
asking doubts to keep discussion going on
did i do it right?
You're gonna be told to move to chill 
you can fail enough so that they demote you to second sem?
Some one should try
#groups-rings-fields is the best place to chill 
I'm TAing alg1 and 2 review sessions for first years 

det owns this channel
I wish I had TAs as based as you
Moldi and Saketh took it from me 😛
guess who owns det 


isomorphism theorem
lol you're still trying
You took 4 semesters of algebra
bro we did galois theory together 
ok guys lissen I improved the notation
no one thought of it before
how do u denote trans degree?
2 of them online 🌻
trans.deg()?
you just T pose to show that you have transcended
yea pretty nice
are you grading python?
@hidden haven dont thonk homie
[E:F]_t should also be good? like some people use it for separable degree
i should right now, but 
[] is for vector
@hidden haven what are you doing nowadays? (except for reacting to msgs, ofc)
t!catting
awesome
emote artist asked for it to be removed

tr. deg_k(L) is what I’ve seen for the transcendence degree of L over k
If that was what ppl were talking about earlier
That looks like you’re talking about the degree of the extension to me
Yeah I feel like that’s what you’d mean if you wrote |L/k|
no
ofc if you dont define it then ye ure not gonna guess, if we popularized it then it would be better
Could we just like use ordinals and combine normal degree and transcendence degree ?
Or something like that (I don't think ordinals work exactly)
We need a new set of numbers that describes how big an extension is
you usually use cardinals for transcendence degree
i guess you could do it w ordinals idk. but a transcendence base should not really be ordered.
Like how would you describe how big Q(pi, sqrt(2)) is over Q? Something like "omega times 2" ? (This is not right as an ordinal because order of pi and sqrt(2) don't really matter I think, but also not right as a cardinal since we then the degree would be the same as if we included just pi)
(I don't really know any transcendental field theory, maybe I am saying dumb things)
I feel like another argument for using cardinals rather than ordinals is the fact that if two purely transcendental / algebraically closed extensions of a field have the same cardinality of transcendence basis, then you can find an isomorphism. So having an ordinal structure will probably differentiate too much
I feel like you shouldn’t really be using ordinals in most situations
Yes, then we should make a new number system
hei, can I ask a question?? if I have 4 statement that have to be equivalent, how many statement should I prove?
so it looks like this.
The following statements is equivalent :
a
b
c
d
should I prove all of them? or just some of them?
what do you mean "prove all of them"?
a iff b, a iff c, a iff d. isn't it enough?
Yeah
yes, that is enough
You can also prove a => b => c => d => a
Hi, can anyone tell me how to simplify a ring like $\mathbb{Z}[x]/(4x-1, x+1)$
jm
you’re dictating that x = -1 by wuotienting by x + 1
And then 4x-1 turns into -5 so then you’re quotienting Z by (5) which turns into F_5
You can prove this directly now by taking a map Z[x] -> Z by evaluating a polynomial at -1, and then by quotienting by (5)
You should find that the kernel is (4x - 1, x + 1) I think
I think
Right. That makes sense. So, for $(2x-1, 4x+3)$, then $2x = 1$ and then = $(4x-1) = (5)$
jm
Yeah
Perfect.. Thanks so much!
And this is easy to see like… with your hands
2(2x - 1) + 4x + 3 = 1
And that’s in the ideal
are Z[x] and Z[x,y] free Z-modules?
yes
wait so are Z[x] and Z[x,y] isomorphic as Z-modules
yep
bruhhhh
do you believe that there's a bijection between N and N x N?
yeah
because that fact is essentially exactly the same as this one
take your favorite bijection f: N --> N x N; write f(i) = (a_i, b_i). Now define a map Z[x] --> Z[x,y] by x^i --> x^(a_i)y^(b_i)
there's your isomorphism
i see 
a weird somewhat related fact is that the power series ring Z[[x]] is not a free Z-module
is that because you can't write every element of Z[[x]] as some finite Z-linear combination of elements or something?
it means that there's not a Z-basis, yes
there isn't a set of elements s.t. every element of Z[[x]] can be written uniquely as a finite Z-linear combination of the elements of that set
ahh ok. bery cool
it's not too hard to see (imo) why {1, x, x^2, x^3, ...} is not a Z-basis for that ring
yeah
but it was surprising to me that in fact no Z-basis exists
hmm
hi
yeah, you might sort of expect that because we fail to create a basis in the obvious way for F[[x]] for exactly the same reason that we fail to do so for Z[[x]], but F[[x]] still does have a basis, just weirder.
Also it's kind of immoral to talk of R[x], R[x,y], R[[x]] or such when you only care about the R-module structure
these things inherently have more structure
Yo
$a \in R - N$ so $1-ay = (1-ay)^2 \rightarrow x(-3y+xy^2) = 0 \in N$ x is not in N so $y(-3 + xy^2)$ y is not in N so $-3 + xy^2 \in N \rightarrow x\in N$
ActiveChapter
is this ok?
i can say that y was not in nilradical because y could be anything so choose something outside of nilradical
I don't understand your argument at all 
okay, suppose the jacobson radical was not equal to the nilradical, then it has to properly contain it. therefore, by hypothesis, we have idempotent non-zero x in the jacobson radical. So 1-x is a unit. But then x(1-x) = x - x^2 = 0, so 1-x is a zero divisor, a contradiction.
I couldn't follow it either with all the algebraic expressions with numbers 
-3 = -1-1-1
so we can say not in nilradical
and y isnt
so x must be
was my thought
-3 = 1 + 1 + 1 in characteristic 2 or 3 😎
char 0
-3 will be in the nilradical in Z/9Z
i was kinda assuming char0
char0 is based
this is better though
THAT CHAR 0 IS DEF A CHMONKEY MOMENT
😆
write perfect algebra textbook
write "characteristic infinity" instead of 0
no one will read it
lol
You know
It wasn’t until I was taking grad algebra I found out why we call it char 0 lmao
It’s because of the map Z -> R
yep
Which just happens to agree with the order of 1 for all but char 0
Lmfao
I mean “just happens to”
Isn’t quite fair
It does by like construction
i don't follow
Wdym?
the map agrees with the order of 1 (order of 1 is the characteristc?), but what does this mean?
the logic for characteristic 0? it's the (non-negative) generator of the kernel of the map Z -> R given by sending 1 in Z to the identity of R
The order of 1 as an abelian group
For char n
Is n
Also I mean that characteristic agrees with the order of 1
When the characteristic isn’t 0
But to understand why we call it char 0 and not char infinity is because we actually define it as the generator of the kernel of Z -> R
oh
Not as the order of 1 as an abelian group
i'm still not sure i like the name characteristic 0, despite that there may be a rationale behind it
yeah lol
and also "characteristic infinity" feels a bit unnecessarily esoteric
I think that’s because it’s not common
yeah
If we called it that then I think char 0 would feel esoteric
sounds cooler imo than characteristic 0
that's how conventions work
also there's something less formal about it, 1 + 1 + ... never becomes 0 after finitely many sums so we say it takes "infinity" for it to become 0?
Well here’s a property that we have
For there to be a map R -> S it’s a requirement that char S divides char R
Actually
Nvm
If you say everything divides infinity
It still holds

but you have to make this non-obvious choice for it
it feels sort of more analytic minded, like inf{n: 1 times n = 0}
with 0 you get it as a consequence of ordinary arithmetic
Yeah
if jacobson radical = nilradical then all primes are maximal right?
No
Any finite type integral domain k-algebra has this property
Almost more generally a ring like this is called a Jacobson ring
i see
But actually that requires that sqrt(I) is the intersection of all maximal ideals containing I
Z[x] is like that
So it’s like that property about nilradical = Jacobson but for all R/I
nilradical and jacobson radical are 0, but (x) is a non-maximal prime ideal
Jacobson rings are nice though, I think maps between them with some slight assumptions maybe added on top have the property that the inverse image of a maximal ideal is maximal
inverse image of maximal ideal is maximal
yo that's actually really awesome
If you’re curious the Stacks Project has a page on it
I've actually been interested in functorial max spectra
Consider a compact Hausdorff space X, then consider the ring of continuous maps X -> R with pointwise operations, I believe the maximal ideals correspond to points of X
which gives us a contravariant functor
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
so I've been interested in finding a functor going to the other way
this says if R is Jacobson and R -> S is finite type
Then S is Jacobson and closed points map to closed points on Spec
Which says maximal pulls back to maximal
it's "almost represented" by R, kind of like how Z "almost represents" the identity functor on Ab
shouldnt this be $Z_i(D_{2^n})=D_{2^n}^{n-i}$ where here $Z_i(D_{2^n})$ is the ith component of the upper central series, with $Z_0(D_{2^n})=1$ and $D_{2^n}^i$ is the ith component of the lower central series with $D_{2^n}^0=D_{2^n}$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
@wooden emberwhat does ${D_n}^x$ denote? the x-fold direct product of $D_n$?
All groups are abelian
as i said it is the ith component of the lower central series
defined inductively by $D_{2^n}^0=D_{2^n}, D_{2^n}^1=[D_{2^n},D_{2^n}], D_{2^n}^{i+1}=[D_{2^n},D_{2^n}^i]$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
oh, okay
this isn't the kind of thing I typically think of, but I think you could know whether $D_{2^n}^{n-i}$ or $D_{2^n}^{n-1-i}$ are the right choice by looking at the nilpotency class
All groups are abelian
yeah exactly my point
$D_{2^n}^{n-n}=Z_0(D_{2^n})$ since $D_{2^n}$ has nilpotency class of $n$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
and the general result follows easily from $\left|Z_{i+1}(D_{2^n}) : Z_{i}(D_{2^n}))\right|=\left|D_{2^n}^{i} : D_{2^n}^{i+1}\right|=2$
I think you're right, but I'm gonna wait for someone else to look at it
aight, thanks though
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
whats going on here
after seeing det(matrix)(xi) = 0 for all i
$\phi$ is a root of $det(xI - (a_i_j))$ ?
ActiveChapter
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Yeah
but my next question is ..
Like where are you stuck exactly
what does that det expand to
Some polynomial with coefficients in a, doesn't matter what polynomial
Monic polynomial
sorry i like pikachu better
ok
hmmmmmmmmmm
why did they say that det was the zero endomorphism
Because it's an endomorphism of M that equals 0 
This is happening over the ring of endomorphisms of M
That's why you can take phi as an entry in the matrix
constants of A embed into this ring because they act by multiplication
ok mmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
So when you expand out the det it is an element of this ring
ie an endomorphism of M
Putting phi = identity in the previous expression you get exactly the expression he writes for x
ye
And you know that that expression is 0
As an endomorphism
So applying that endomorphism (which is just multiplication by that element) makes everything 0
@novel parrot this is actually wrong, this won't work in that ring because it is non commutative (multiplication is endomorphism composition). This is in the subring of End(M) that contains all elements of A and phi, and that makes a commutative subring so you can work with determinants and adjoints
There might be a simpler way to resolve this actually, I didn't think about this properly earlier, maybe it's just something obvious that I'm missing
I think maybe the way to look at it is that we’re upgrading M from an R-mod to an R[t]-mod where t acts by the specified endomorphism phi. (this is same sorta thing that’s used to get jordan/rational canonical form from fundamental theorem of finitely generated modules over PIDs)
Gathmann’s notes on commutative algebra might have a tiny bit better explanations?
You can check out the module chapter here (check out the “cayley-hamilton” prop in particular for this) https://www.mathematik.uni-kl.de/~gathmann/class/commalg-2013/commalg-2013-c3.pdf
Here’s a link to the whole thing
https://www.mathematik.uni-kl.de/~gathmann/class/commalg-2013/commalg-2013.pdf
yeah no problem!
ok
ill look back at it
I like the fact that every non-zero element of a finite field solves a polynomial of the form x^n - 1
with this really nice one-line proof
let n be the order of the permutation x -> ax
order of that permutation - 1 I think
Otherwise take x^n - x and remove non zero as a requirement
no, pretty sure it's not -1
try an example, i.e. 2 in F_3
Wait what is a
The proof of this that I've seen is to take n = |F|-1 because Lagrange
Are you allowing n to depend on element chosen?
In that case you can also use pigeonhole
and then take LCMs to get a uniform n but you won't get a bound
yes, this works as well, and is actually more elegant
are non-commutative rings really that interesting? hearing about stuff like the difference between right and left ideals is just yucky
but I guess in theory I see why one should care about them
they're the objects that act on abelian groups
which is really neat
My unpopular opinion is that “all rings are commutative” and that “what people call non-commutative rings are really just algebras over commutative rings”, i.e., algebras dont have to be commutative
The only part of studying noncommutative rings I cared for were free modules over said rings. I thought the weirdness of no well defined rank was pretty cool
The best rings don't have a (multiplicative) identity either

😔
Poonen
Poonen embodies 
He is pure
energy
I don't get the hint
shouldn't it say that h * g = g => h = e?
why do we care about g * g specifically?
this should be the right hint i think
yeah that looks like a typo to me
why may we assume $G''' = 1$? Ive figured out the rest under this assumption (after resolving the fact that $G/G''$ was probably a typo and should have been $G/C_G(G'')$) but I cant figure out why we may assume $G'''=1$. The structure of the question screams 3rd isomorphism theorem but I cant figure it out
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
Is G > G' > G" > G''' with everything normal?
yeah since $G^{(i)}$ is characteristic in $G$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
also the DF errata says it should conclude $G''=G'''$ not $G''=1$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
and again ive managed to prove it for the case G'''=1 but i cant see how to reduce to that case the rest of the time
Yeah then hint makes sense
Quotient all numerators and denominators by G'''
Nothing changes because isomorphism theorem but now your new groups are G/G''' > G'/G''' > G''/G''' > G'''/G''' = 1

and then G''/G'''=1 gives us G''=G'''
Yep
so you'd just call a non-commutative ring a Z-algebra
TIL there are two interesting important groups which we don't know whether they are isomorphic
the absolute Galois group of Q, and the Grothendieck-Teichmuller group.
I don't understand the details, but a rough sketch is this:
The absolute Galois group is the group of field automorphisms of the algebraic closure of Q that fix Q itself.
The absolute Galois group is given in a certain way, and there are particular relations that we know must be satisfied, but it is unknown whether they generate all relations.
The Grothendieck-Teichmuller group is given in that way, but only with these relations. If these relations do indeed generate all relations for the absolute Galois group, then they must be isomorphic.
You don't need to say "that fix Q", all field automorphisms fix the prime subfield (subfield generated by 1) because they fix 1
In fact all field homomorphisms fix the prime subfield for the same reason
oh, true
Yes, but they could have more structure than just a Z-algebra. For example, the matrix “ring” M_n(R) is an R-algebra
Sure.
It's like how abelian groups are Z-modules, but you could also have abelian groups that are R-modules for a more particular ring
Yeah
getting nowhere with part a of this one, any help would be appreciated. I only showed $\overline{N_G(P)}\subset N_{\overline{G}}(\overline{P})$ since that's pretty easy but im really struggling with the other inclusion, and especially where frattini's argument comes in
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
from what im seeing online I need to work with PN and ive tried doing so but cant figure out what to do
okay i think ive got it
can you classify the subgroups of Z^n? It feels like there should be some that are not free abelian but I can't seem to come up with a simple counterexample
nvm turns out it's always free abelian lol
I can think of a proof for that on top off my head
you just need to show that they're all finitely generated, then this follows from the classification of finitely generated abelian groups and the fact that Z^n is torsion free
nevermind though, I lost my train of thought for showing that they are finitely generated
you show that they're finitely generated with SNF
it's part of the usual proof for the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups
Let $(A,m)$ be a regular local ring. Let $\nu$ be the valuation obtained by letting $\nu(a)$ be the maximal $n$ such that $a \in m^n$. If $f \in m$ is non-zero, how do I show that $\nu(f)$ is equal to the multiplicity of $A/(f)$?
Chmonkey
I got a reference for the result, but there’s two ways to define it
For a finite module M, if dim A = d then you can define it as $\lim_{n\to\infty} d!/n^d l(M/m^nM)$ where l is the length of the module
Chmonkey
The other way is, if you know what the Samuel function is, it just is l(M/m^nM), for n >> 0 this is a polynomial which you can write as
e/d! n^d + [lower degree shit], then the multiplication of m on M is that number e
The other definition is basically just a formula you get from this definition here, the other is probably more useful but it’s helpful to know both
Hi, guys, why it says R is an integral domain here? 0=deg(1)=deg(fg)=deg(f)+deg(g), why R needs to be an integral domain?
2x*3x = 0 in Z/6Z[x]
Thanks, and sorry maybe i didn't say it clearly, i mean how R is an integral domain implies 0 = deg(1) = deg f + deg g, i didn't see any relation here
Since the leading terms can't cancel when you are over an integral domain, you get deg(fg) = deg(f) + deg(g)
The leading term of fg is just the product of leading terms of f and g
which gives you the equation
Oh, thanks
If f is a group homomorphism f(0)=0. I know why. But what about f(1)=1. Why is this not possible
neutral element addition, neutral multiplication
like why do they say in fields f(1)=1 but not in groups
a group just has one neutral element
because groups are only required to have one composition law
for which the neutral element may be called 0,1,e, or any other letter you fancy
if you have rings with unity, then f(1)=1 should be in the properties of ring morphisms
usually
If I have a ringhomomorphism from a ring to a field, it doesnt havr to be injective compared field to ring. Is it because 1=0 is allowed in a ring? And in field its not.
that field morphisms are injective is a theorem, and it has a proof using the field axioms.
and it uses some axioms or properties that rings don't have so you can't turn it into a proof that all ring morphisms are injective
also there are lots of examples of ring morphisms that are not injective
and I'm not sure how 1=0 being allowed or not has anything to do with any of that
And morphisms from rings to fields need not be injective if that's what you're asking
Because Z → Z/2Z is not injective from a ring to a field
Yes. The proof I read used the fact that 1 is not equal 0 in fields: let f(z) =0, 1=f(1)=f(z^-1z)=f(z^-1)f(z)=0 so in fields the contradiction works.
But not in rings is that the intuition.
most rings have 0 different from 1
You need 1≠0 because if you don't then the 0 field becomes a thing and then yeah the proof doesn't work
But 1≠0 isn't the only reason that field morphisms are injective
This example holds even though 1≠0 in both rings
the difference between rings and fields isn't that 0 has to be different from 1
it's that in fields, all nonzero elements are invertible
Like multiple field axioms are being used to prove invertibility, and one of them is also the existence of inverses
The proof fails for rings maybe because I can do f(z^-1)=f(z)^-1 which doesnt have to exist?
Or is 1<>0 in rings is enough to be injective
Both
the proof fails for rings because z^-1 often doesn't exist
ok. Even there it fails already.
If D is an integrally closed domain with field of fractions F,is any irreducible polynomial from D[x] still irreducible in F[x]?
I want to say that you can't. This is known as Gauss's Lemma for polynomials and is known to hold for UFDs. In fact, if Gauss's lemma holds, then your ring must be at least a GCD domain. Thus if you take D to be an integrally closed domain that is not a GCD domain, then this fails
@terse crystal
This is true if your polynomial is monic
See exercise 9.6 of Matsumura Commutative Ring Theory

moment indeed
Thats neat though
Basically you just assume it factors as f = gh in the field. Roots of g are roots of f, and thus integral over D, then you can express the coefficients of g as a product of those so the coefficients are integral over D. Do the same for h, now all the coefficients of both are in D
Technically there’s some “extend to a splitting field of g and h” snuck in there but w/e
You use that thing about like “if D is an integrally closed domain, for an algebraic extension of its FOF an element is integral iff its min poly has coefficients in D”
IIRC
Yeah
But those roots belong to an algebraic extension of F not F itself
The integral closure of D in this extension field is not necessarily D
There’s a theorem that gets you past that like I said
Namely this
Thanks. Got it.
Hi, guys, is this I ideal? I think it is not even a subgroup of Z cross Z star. The zero is (0,1). But (0,2) has no additive inverse.
Huh, yeah, this addition is really weird. It's not at all immediately obvious that this forms a ring.
where is this from?
it is from my lecture note...
am i correct in saying that all of these are trivial (Phi is the frattini subgroup)
You can induce a ring here. As a set it’s the quotient of ZZ# over the equivalence relation ~ where (a,b)~(c,d) iff there exists (e,f) from ZZ# and non-zero integers u,v such that (a,b)=(eu,fu) and (c,d)=(ev,fv)
It’s easy to prove that this is an equivalence relation and the addition and multiplication induced from it are well defined, independent with the choice of equivalence classes.
The zero in this ring is the equivalence class of (0,1) and the additive inverse of equivalence class of (a,b) is the equivalence class of (a,-b)
Yes all of them are {e} by considering F_i in S_n and intersection of F_i and A_n in A_n where F_i is the subgroup of S_n containing permutations that fix i.
Yeah thought so, thanks for checking 🙏
I have two definitions of Ideals of rings: One is: I subset of R is additiv subgroup of R and RIR is subset of I. and the other one just requires second part ri is element of I.
are these definitions equivalent?
for me RIR element of I is kinda a stronger definition.
And the other one is just looking at one side...
Yeah the first one defines a 2 sided ideal, the second one only a left ideal. They are the same when you have a commutative ring
yo if B1 is trans basis for E1/K and B2 for E2/K then why can we find set S \subset B1 \cup B2 such that S is a basis for E1E2/K?
The union of the bases should have a maximal algebraically independent subset, and that has to generate everything in the union, else the things that aren't generated could be added to it
'should have' is some zorn argument?
Yes
if R/M is a field, R a commutative ring and M an ideal of R, why 1 cannot be element of M? the book says 0!=1 in fields, but that doesnt help me.
If M contains 1 then in the quotient you will have 1 = 0
If M has 1 in it, then M = R.
where is the problem if M = R? What quotient?
we defined additive classes like R/I = {r+I|r element of R}
with addition (r+I)+(s+I)=r+s+I, and multiplication (r+I)(s+I)=rs+I ;_; I just dont see a problem with R/R being a field rn.
oh true r+R would not make disjunct classes. So there is only one class?
I got it thxx
Under what conditions on $\xi$ are the vectors $(\xi, 1, 0)$, $(1, \xi, 1)$, and $(0, 1, \xi)$ in $R^3$ linearly dependent?
vik
vik
beta = -gama*xi
so alpha*xi - gamma*xi = 0
so (alpha - gamma) * xi = 0
if xi = 0
does the system have infinite solutions?
I’m pretty sure you can throw the three vectors into a matrix, then they’re linearly independent if that has non-zero determinant
The determinant should be a cubic in \xi
i havent gotten to that part of the book yet
Well rip
matrices and determinants dont exist in my brain
If xi=0 then two of the vectors are identical and so in particular linearly dependent
If $\xi \neq 0$ then $\alpha = \gamma$, subbing in you get
$$1-\alpha \xi^2 + \alpha=0$$
So you can solve this polynomial in terms of $\xi$
ShiN
Or actually you wanna solve for alpha probably, and see when it's not 0 depending on xi (Cuz you only have 1 degree of freedom since beta is determined by alpha, so if alpha is 0 all the coefficients are 0 and therefore the vectors are independent)
Anyone got any favourite books on group theory topics like the nielsen schreier theorem (subgroups of free groups are free) or presentations of abelian groups (the smith normal form stuff)?
Do you not get the definition?
It’s taking a map M -> N say? And then composing with v to get the composition M -> N -> N’’
So let’s assume that v-bar is injective, this means that different maps M -> N give different maps M -> N -> N’’
Oh rip I was describing what happens in (5)
For (4) you’re precomposing sorry so a map M’’ -> N gives you a map like M -v> M’’ -> N
ok
So really what’s happening here is this is saying that surjevtive <==> epimorphism in R-mod
and we could precompose becuz m to m'' surjective
But I really don’t think that’s gonna make you go aha!
So let’s just prove what’s stated there
No you aren’t assuming that. you can precompose because these are functions
So here’s how to go
Suppose v wasn’t surjevtive, then let L < M’’ be the image
Consider N = M’’/L and then the projection map pi:M’’-> N
Now note that v-bar(pi) = pi•v = 0, because if you do v(x) for x in M, then this lands in L, and then pi will kill it because you reduce mod L
But wait!!
V-bar is a map between modules because Hom-sets of R-modules are actually R-modules
And pi is a non-zero map, but v-bar sent it to 0
So v-bar is not injective
If you don’t want to appeal to linearity of v-bar, note that both the 0 map and pi get sent to 0 by v-bar


