#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 581 of 407
An automorphism of the splitting field of a polynomial can be viewed as a permutation of the roots of the polynomial
thats an injective homomorphism from Gal(splitting field/Q) to Sym(set of roots)
because if 2 automorphisms agree on the roots of f, and the roots of f generate the extension, then they agree everywhere
and a root can only go to another root
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/315413/galois-group-as-a-subgroup-of-s-n I hope you're right lol. Here's where I found someone saying something different
The answer that says that f needs to be irreducible has comments correcting it
oh shit sorry lmao
that's why proof by math stack exchange prob isn't the best method
he says that if polynomial is not irreducible then it would have repeated roots (which you may have with irreducible f anyway) but that is not really a problem
proof by "but it looks legit!"
is there are repeated roots you get galois group as a subgroup of S_k for a smaller k but that obviously embeds into S_n
in this case the only way you could have a repeated root is if r = s in the notation you were using, or any of them is 1
neither presents an issue
Ah great! Thanks for clearing that up
np
yup
you definitely know fields are integral domains
and for the other direction, you need to show that every nonzero element x has an inverse
you want to find its inverse
keep multiplying x with itself, eventually you gotta get 1
otherwise you contradict the ring being finite or that the ring is an integral domain
When it says the "set of pairs {i, j}"
I'm guessing it's implied {i, j} = {j, i}
Drawing up a rough solution, it would look something like this right?
mudhi
no because there is no x since it's being quotiented out
technically we probably should simplify it further but fractions are fine
-1 = 2 mod 3 so really it's just plain alpha^2
since Z_3 is a field you can always divide by nonzero elements to get 'fractions'
yes
and merosity is saying that -alpha^2/2 is equal to that, so your original thing is correct
and about fractions, they are just shorthand for inverses
1/2 is notation for 2^{-1}
and you know that 2^{-1} is 2 itself in Z/3Z
Hey could anyone point me in the right direction with this problem? If I let $\sigma$ be the image of $g$ in $S_n$ then $\sigma$ can be written as a product of disjoint cycles (which are commutative). However, im unable to show that I can write this as a product of specifically n/d, d-cycles. I'm trying to relate the order of $\sigma$ (which is d) to the fact that a d-cycle has an order d but im not really getting anywhere
Saintscratch
By Cayley embedding do you mean some particular embedding, like something the book has defined?
Because if you take the embedding that is defined by the action of G on itself by left multiplication then it is false
I assume G is the subgroup of Sn that some group of order n is isomorphic to
I think we used the right multiplication definition to define the embedding
dont know if that changes much
Then it seems false, because that's a transitive action
Actually I think my reasoning is wrong
Nvm
the fact that it's a cayley embedding must be the trick, im trying to find some fact about the decomposition of a group element of order d into a product of elements and try imagine the images of those elements in G
Yeah I think I got it
So the image of an element g under the embedding tells you what multiplication by g looks like in G
Because it tells you how right multiplication by g permutes G
Find an element g of order d
Pick an element, say identity, of G, then look at its orbit
||You can divide the group into sets {Ga_1,Ga_2...},where G=<g>||
It would also contain g^2
Orbit means set of all elements where your element could go under the action of g
And by action of g we really mean action of subgroup generated by g
So it will be {1, g, g², ..., g^{d-1}} where d is the order of g
Do you agree with this?
looking at this definition, when you say I take the identity im assuming you mean fix x = e. Then O_e = G right?
ah ha, gotcha
And the orbit just becomes <g> itself
right, that makes sense
So on this orbit, how is g permuting elements?
As in, can you see what the cycle decomposition is?
Yeah, which is exactly why you wanna take <g> orbits
Now G is partitioned into <g> orbits, we've found one orbit of size d, can you say anything about the other orbits?
Try to relate other orbits to thee orbit of identity somehow
sup

Doesn't this mean that A(p) is union of cyclic subgroups of order p^k where k \in N
I thought it'd be bs but actual algebra 
But union of subgroups is a group iff they are contained in each other so wadda fuk
This is not true
Union of all subgroups of a group is always the group itself
like A(p) = set of all elements k such that p^n k = 0, and so p^n (k + k) = 0
If I fix s in G, then the <g>-orbit will be {s,sg,...sg^(d-1)} which is an orbit of size d. This works for any s in G so I have n orbits each of size d
Exactly
hrummm
i feel like this is untrue
Like
Can you stop being a Minecraft villager for a sec
if you consider proper subgroups
Take a non cyclic group. Then every g in it is contained in <g> which is proper
This is only true for 2 groups, not necessarily for more
are we saying that the image of g in Sn is defined by its action on the other elements of G? So that I can split g up into how it acts on each element of G, which happens to be a bunch of disjoint d-cycles
Ah i see
Yeah that's the Cayley embedding
That makes more sense then
Doesn't my reasoning for why it's false work for non cyclic 2 groups
hmm that makes a lot of sense, ill have to go think about that. Our lecturer showed us cayley embeddings without using the word orbits haha
thanks a million for all the help
Ah I see, np
not sure what you mean. If you have 2 groups their union group iff contained. but if you have more their union can be group without contained i think
oh lol
if we suppose that $|G:H|=2$, does the fact that $\forall g \in G$, $g^2\in H$ follows from : $G/H$ is 2-torsion so isomorphic to $Z/2Z$ and contains $eH$ and $gH$. But, as $gH$ is of order 2, then $g^2\in H$ from definition of quotient gpe? And as $gH=g'H \ \forall g' \in G$ the $g^2 \in H \ \forall g$
Dаniil
Yes
thx .)
(the last line isn't correct... gH isn't g'H for any g'... this is just saying all cosets are same so [G:H] = 1)
(if you mean g' = g^-1, then you shouldn't be saying for all g' in G? more like for all g in G, its correct but weird?)
Hi, i have some confusion with seperable polynomials, I have seen the fact that every polynomial over a field of characteristic 0 is separable. But (x-2)^2 does not have distinct roots and this contradicts the definition of separability?
Every irreducible polynomial over a characteristic 0 field is separable
Oh right! My bad. Thank you!
(there are some weird people who define a polynomial to be separable if all its irreducible factors have no repeated roots)
then constant polynomials are separable
is that so wrong?
yes every polynomial over char 0 becomes separable
I thought it's this + no irreducible factor is repeated
i don't like it... (but my prof did
)
for him x^p - a is separable over k(a^1/p) where a is not a pth power in k and char k = p
yea this is the usual definition
this is nice because it doesn't depend where the polynomial lives. and you have nice criterion gcd(f', f) = 1
it s very uh gucci
but you almost never use it lol, i only ever used it when f is irreducible 
but there both definitions agree we just have f' = 0 to be an easier criterion
I only use it rarely when it's like obvious
often times when 0 is a root of the derivative or some shit
which works out nicely
But as G/H is of order 2 then there are only 2 cosets: eH and gH but as we don't know the order of G, then for each g' in G/{e} gH=g'H, it is true, no?
if g' in H then g'H = eH
on the space of functions on a group(which can be made into a vector space using pointwise multiplication and addition),we can introduce two structures:the convolution and the inner product
are they related somehow? or they are two different structures?
first one is the convolution,the second one is the inner product
What kind of functions? groups dont have a pointwise addition and multiplication
any functions defined on the group
let f:G->C, (f_1+f_2)(g):=f_1 (g)+_{complex numbers} f_2(g)
yes
G is finite
sloppy physicist not precising things 
so G is finite,the above 2 products are defined and my question is whether there is a relation between the two structures
this makes the space of functions on the group into a vector space, together with a multiplication (lambdaf)(g)=lambda_{complex numbers} f(g)
we can equip this vector space with a convoltion,i.e. first picture(which eats two functions and spits out a function)->this makes the vector space into an algebra
and we can put an inner product on the vector space, as the second picture above
is there any relation between the inne rproduct and the convolution?
or they are separate structures
yes i'm not sure if there is i was just curious cause in mathematics we usually put structures compatible with each other
(idk what compatibility in this case would mean)
yes,that makes the vector space into algebra
but the vector space a priori does not have an inner product
what my concern/doubt was, whether we need specify an inner product
or the convolution immediately induces one
idk,that's my question if this even makes sense
or maybe this question is pointless(idk)
i'm new to abstract math(physicist here)
right that I see
that follows from the convolution
no?
the inner product is important for the space of class functions(orthogonality relations)
but idk if has relation to convolution at all 
okay,so there is no relation between the inner product and convolution product

ohhh i see something
but it's ill defined
if we evaluate the convolution at identity,we get 1/|G| times the inner product
it's not exactly the same

i'll double check if the definition of inner product is correct
or def. of convolution
they don't seem to match,the definition seem to be right 
now i'm confused how these two are compatible,if there's a factor difference
but there's some factor not working out
is that not a problem?
nothing
just curiosity,filling in extra interesting details in my lecture
I am trying to prove associativity,but I fail,can someone help a bit please?
$((f_1 * f_2)f_3)(g)=\sum_{h} (f_1f_2)(h) f_3(h^{-1}g)=\sum_{h} \left( \sum_{h'} f_1(h') f2(h'^{-1} h) \right) f_3(h^{-1}g)=\sum_{h} \sum_{h'} (f_1(h') f_2(h'^{-1} h) ) f_{3}(h^{-1}g)$
ProphetX
while $(f_1*(f_2f_3))(g)=\sum_{h} f_{1}(h) (f_2f_3)(h^{-1}g)=\sum_{h} f_{1}(h) \sum{h'} f_{2}(h') f_{3}(h'^{-1} h^{-1}g)=\sum_{h} \sum_{h'} f_{1}(h) (f_{2}(h') f_3(h'^{-1} h^{-1}g))$
ProphetX
what is a basis of C[x] / <x^3> ?
every element in this ring is written in the form
a + bx + cx^2 such that a, b, c \in C
does that just make {a, b, c} a basis?
Rather {1,x,x^2} I think.
and because every element can be written in unique way*
Wait going off of that question, Q[x]/<a,x> is just Q by that logic right? if a in Q is gonna be the basis?
If a is a non zero element of Q, that ideal would just be all of Q[x] so the quotient would be the trivial ring
hmm ok that makes sense
yes
prankd
What is the free object in the category of commutative rings? (i think i know the answer just want to confirm)
Z[S]
Where S is the set
as in Z-polynomials with variables indexed by S right
Yeah

what is R?
oh the real numbers
but yeah
<x> is a bigger ideal that contains <x²> and isn't the whole ring so <x²> is not maximal
Oh I see, and that's because x^2 is reducible right?
since x² is reducible, it is the product of 2 non constant polynomials. since they are not constant, the ideal generated by either of them is not the whole ring, but its bigger ideal than original one bla bla hope you get the idea
Yes, that makes sense. Thanks a bunch
Why are people deleting questions after they're answered 
very suspicious

why is $\delta_{g}(h)$ a basis on the vector space of functions on a finite group?
ProphetX
where $\delta_{g}(h)=g$ if $g=h$, 0 otherwise
ProphetX
how does this guarantee that the dimension of the vector space is the same as the dimension of the group?
i don't even see how $\delta_{g}(h)$ maps $G \to \mathbb{C}$
ProphetX
cuz you can write any function from G to C as linear combination of them
uniquely
ur basically evaluating at each point
ProphetX
cause if g is a group element,then how is the image in C?
i'm confused about the notation 
cuz ur working with functions from G to C?
in order to represent functions from G to C,my basis needs to be functions from G to C
or?
and i can't see how this is a function to C
\delta_{g}(h)=1 if g=h,0 oterhwise?
so delta_{g}(h) not equal g
yikes
my prof wrote g
Is this in a book?
im so used to delta notation i didnt even look at the definition lol
Oh
lecture only
and if it maps to 1 or 0,how can we prove that any function can be written as a linear comb of these?
i.e. i can't see that the number of basis vectors would be equal to the number of elements of the group
I think there are related things you do in homological algebra or something, where you consider the set of homomorphism into G from some other group, but presumably this is unrelated to what you are doing
here we only have the functions on a group,i .e. $Fun_{g}:={f| f:G \mapsto \mathbb{C}}$ and this can be made into a vector space using pointwise product
ProphetX
and the claim is that this delta fns form a basis of this vector space 
so I should be able to prove that $f(h)=\sum_{g \in G} \limits f'(g) \delta_{h}(g) \forall f in Fun_{g}$
Is there any requirement as to how the functions interact with the group operation on G?
the product between functions you mean?
or the vector space structure
I mean like does f(xy) equal to, say f(x)+f(y)
Yes (and assuming there are no requirements on f/weird complications) you should be able to quickly think what f'(g) should be
Yeah
ProphetX
Yeah, you also swapped g and h on the RHS
right,my bad sorry
ok now it makes sense,this is a basis
thanks @chilly ocean @chilly ocean 
there is also a claim that on class functions,i.e. specific functions satisfying f(hgh^-1)=f(g) forall g,h in G there is a basis provided by the delta functions "evaluated on conjugacy classes"
why do we need the "evaluated on conjugacy classes" part?
if delta function forms a basis on the space of all functions,in particular,it forms on the space of class functions(which are specific functions)
sounds like a quotient
whats the name for the notion that if a set carries two operations + and * with identity and the commution law holds then + = *
What's the commution law 
its eckmann hilton argument
but its (a + b) * (c + d) = (a * c) + (b * d)
i couldnt place it because i knew it wasnt eckmann-hilton duality 
also hi john 
hi moth
yes i bullied brofibration into telling me the name
kek
interesting property, what context were u using it or w/e
showing that the operation on [\Sigma^k X, Y] is well defined
oh huh interesting
regardless of which coordinate u chose

and also that pi_n is abelian for n >= 2
i can see that roughly lol, v cool tho
loop space time 
what book/resources are you using these days for topology, still hatcher?
tom dieck
nice

this prob-methods book is like, actually the hardest thing i have done lol
no, was expecting to start AT with this book 
did u learn cat theory for dieck moth
fair lol
it hasnt been a problem rly
I tried hatcher and didn't like it tbh, too visual and not formal enough. Like hatcher is great for the visual intuition but since I was trying to formalize everything, reading hatcher was kinda hard 
but some time passed since I first tried, maybe I should give it another shot, idk
eh having the visual as a backup is v good
the visual intuition is important 
rather than abstract nonsense kek
No I like to have something visual, I just disliked the part "not formal enough" 
thats fair, some stuff in hatcher was a bit sus
Same happened but that was when I was reading chapter 0 
i dont think people really benefit from their first exposure to covering theory being an equivalence of Cov_B and Tra_B 
house with 3 room 
Chapter 1 is formal enough I think
oh I was also speaking of chap 0 lol, wasn't able to go any further kek 
to be fair i think ch 0 is suppose to be super quick and cannot hence be formal
just chatty
Bruh dieck defined a cover as universal if a certain functor was an equivalence of categories
yea lmao
I had no idea what that meant intuitively at the time
Then what do y'all recommend to start AT ? Like is hatcher really the best intro book ? 
well be patient with it ig lol
Yeah Hatcher is really good I think
its p good
it ends up working out in the end because for p: E -> B the associated functor A(p) is an equivalence of Aut(p)-Set and Cov_B iff the transport functor is or something

plus i can give u a series of lectures that v faithfully follow hatcher (look up lectures by pierre albin) helps fill in some more intuition
Yeah it probably does work out but I don't remember what the functor was lmao 
there r 2 functors
will check it, thanks
one takes a cover p with right G-principal action on E and sends a set F with a G action on it to like
Oh yeah all that bs
Moth In Shambles
I remember working through those definitions bit it was all so formal I forgot all of it 
I did have some intuition for G principal actions so could probably decipher given enough time 
lol
and then the other is like you have a functor T: Cov_B -> [Pi(B), Set] that sends a cover p': E' -> B to the functor T(p') which sends points of b to their fiber and paths to the function F_b -> F_c given by like lifts and shit
lift ur path v to v_x at x in F_b and then T(v)(x) = v_x(1) 
and T is an equivalence iff you have a universal p: E -> B w/ right G-principal action on E simply connected 

yeah it probably is elegant
the payoff is that classification falls out immediately
I just wanna have some proper intuition first
otherwise its a struggle to even remember the definitions
feel like u need to spend quite a bit on each defination figuring out intuition
u probably will im slow 
well i finished ch 3 and then i didnt do anything for a while
cause i was doing AM
better than me quitting math for a few months and doing bio lol
AM = ? @maiden ocean
atiyah macdonald
imagine doing bio tho 
thanks 
Sanity check, $\text{SL}(n,K) \hookrightarrow \text{Isom}(K^n)$ right
mirzathecutiepie
I don't think so, for example [[2, 0], [0, 1/2]] is determinant 1 in, say SL(2,R), but this is not an isometry
hmm fair
I think the reverse is true though, isometries are determinant 1
I see i see, fair
Or determinant -1?
Is this the metric space isometry? 
yeah ? 
What's the metric on K^n 
Well idk I assumed mirza had one, in the case of my example over R, I was thinking about the metric induced by the euclidean norm 

euclidean normal
How I can find the degree of the splitting field for p(x)=x^3+3x+1 over Q??
I know that the degree must divide 3! = 6, but dont know how to decide over 3 or 6
<@&286206848099549185> ?
since it's a cubic it has at least one real root a, but since p'(x)=3x^2+3 > 0 it's always increasing and so has 2 complex roots b and b*
so now you can look at [Q(a,b):Q] = [Q(a,b):Q(a)][Q(a):Q] = 6
also, I'm assuming it's irreducible but you can prove it's irreducible with eisenstein looking at p(x+2)
@waxen hollow
I think I was a little terse, Q(a) is only a real extension so contains no complex roots, that's how we know it doesn't contain b and b*
(Rational root theorem is also pretty good here)
oh nice, that is better
Also generally I go mod 3 first then decide the shift, like here going mod 3 gives x³+1 = (x+1)³
But I get sad if the constant is then divisible by 3² :p
but how i'll know that b inst something like +-a+-ai?
It doesn't matter even if it is that
I am confused, because I thought that in this situation we would have degree = 3
One simple test for irreducible cubics is to just calculate the discriminant. If that's a perfect square the galois group is A3, else its S3.
Lol I don't remember but yea something like that
I just write the cubic on wolfram and it gives me the discriminant
Okay this one thing is driving me up the wall
here is the uni property
And in the existence proof it states this
is the $R_{G_1} \cup R_{G_2}$ supposed to be a disjoint union?
mirzathecutiepie
I guess i didn't give enough info for it to be helpful
to anyone wanting to help
We are trying to construct a group G such that the uni property is satisfied, each of the \alpha_j are the same as in the uni property
And G = G_1 * G_2
or well, that's what we're trying to show lol
The issue here is if
i free product a group with itself then
$G_1 * G_1 = \langle {x_g | g \in G_1} \sqcup {x_g | g \in G_2} \mid {x_{\alpha_1(a)} x_{\alpha_2(a)} \mid a \in A} \cup R_{G_1}}$
mirzathecutiepie
This allows for free mixing of each of the two disjoint groups
*sets
inside the free prod
like if we have
$x'_1 x_1$, we can reduce this if there is a relation between $x_1$ and $x_1$
mirzathecutiepie
I thought this was contrary to what the point of the free prod was 
or well what the idea behind it was
and plus doesn't this mean that there's no point to disjoint unioning the generators in the first place? If each x'_g behaves the exact same way as each x_g
Am i overthinking this too hard
or is this like implied or sth
maybe the tagging has something to do with this, does that always force the union to be disjoint? I mean set theoretically definitely not, but maybe that's implied?
I guess if the union was not disjoint,\beta_1 and \beta_2 may not be unique or smt
I don't see why else disjoint union might be useful here
The thing is one of the problems in the book requires this same thing, and if we assume a kind of nondisjointness then we get a completely out of the world answer
here
Consider $\mathbb{Z}/2 * \mathbb{Z}/2$
mirzathecutiepie
By the given expression
$\mathbb{Z}/2 * \mathbb{Z}/2 = \langle x_0, x_1, x'_0, x'1 \mid R{\mathbb{Z}/2}\rangle = \langle x_1, x'1 \mid R{\mathbb{Z}/2}\rangle$
mirzathecutiepie
And $R_{\mathbb{Z}/2} = {x_gx_h x_{gh}^{-1} \mid g,h \in \mathbb{Z}/2}$
mirzathecutiepie
And so since $x'_1 \in \mathbb{Z}/2$ and $x_1 \in \mathbb{Z}/2$ we can do $x'1 x_1x{0}^{-1}$
mirzathecutiepie
stuff like this
and so doing this we eventually reach the presentation $\langle x_1,x'_1 \mid x_1 x'_1 = x'_1 x_1, x_1^2, x'1^2\rangle$ which gives that $\mathbb{Z}/2 * \mathbb{Z}/2 \cong {e}$ but the problem was to show $\mathbb{Z}/2 * \mathbb{Z}/2 \cong D\infty$
mirzathecutiepie
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
So kinda funky
Differentiate the 2 Z/2 groups
Yeah that's the issue i think
there needs to be some form of distinction between these two guys
But set theoretically i mean, here R_G_1 = R_G_2 so 
Ideally it would but we can indeed do x'_1 x_1 x_0 since with x'_1 we have 1 \in \mathbb{Z}/2
Yea,It feels like that should be disjoint union
So you have x_1^2=e and (x_1)'^2=e
Instead of doing a disjoint union say G_2 is always a distinct group from G_1
tho even if it was disjoint union it wouldn't work out now that i think about it
If G_2=G_1 identify G_2 with a isomorphic group
Yeah but it isn't tho 
Like i guess yes we want distinction
how do we achieve that without doing sth really gimmicky tho 
So this is what i was saying when i was asking whether this was implied 
bcs set theoretically definitely R_G_1 = R_G_2 and we can do this, so i guess yeah we have to treat them seperately
And if we do that, then this is automatically a disjoint union i think 
am i wrong
I think that that is a kind of disjoint product
wdym 
If A and B have a common element, identity B with a isomorphic group
So,set theoretical this new isomorphic group has no common element with A
is it necessary that there is an isomorphic group that is not itself
like is it necessary if i have A \cong C where C \neq A and A \cap C = 0
You know that given a set ,you can always find a set bijective to the original set
indeed
Define a group operation on the new set so that it obeys the homomorphism rules
i see where this is going
okay sure
yeah makes sense
But then again this is sorta a gimmick no 
Hrm
Hi dear fellow numberbrainiacs I need some help in understanding a polynomial long division of two polynomials over a expanded Galoisfield GF(8). I don't know the result but I know the remainder and I am not able to recreate it. The division is: $5x^{6}+4x^{5}+3x^{4}+2x^{3}+x^{2} / x^{2}+3x+2 =$
doodlejump007
The suposed remainder is: 5x + 4
And my field generating polynomial is: $x^{3}+x+1$ from which I derived the multiplication table
doodlejump007
Can someone calculate this division so that this remainder results?
Isn't GF(8) the field with 8 elements? In which case you have characteristic 2 and both the polynomials become really simple (and you get remainder x which is the same as 5x+4)
Can you guess what the conjugate of a+b√D is?
use the last part where it says "In particular if K/F is Galois this is ..."
(K/F is indeed galois in that case if char F is not 2)
i dont actually understand that part
if K/F is galois, why are the representatives in Gal(K/F)
Because you're taking embeddings of K into the alg closure of F. The image of all such embeddings has to be the same as K is galois over F, so you can just view these embeddings as isomorphisms onto the image
And then prove that there's a 1-1 correspondence between these isomorphisms and the elements of the Galois group
i see
thank you
i understand
:D
but this wont work if F did have a characteristic of 2 tho
If characteristic is 2 then it seems a+b√D has no conjugates since it's minimal polynomial is non separable? In that case the norm should be itself but that just seems wrong so idk
oh
looking at the Wikipedia definition, the definition given in the problem seems wrong
only the case of Galois extensions seems correct
or equivalently you can say that the extension isn't separable so you can't even contain that in a galois extension. so the definition doesn't work
oh L isnt the algebraic closure 
yea lol
but L isnt being used in the formula is it
you take product over cosets of H
H is the corresponding subgroup of Gal(L/K) so you are using L.
ah right lol
but i think you can define norm in this case as well... if the extension isn't separable. just muliply all the conjugates and raise the product to the inseparability degree.
this matches with the determinant definition
inseparability degree would be the same as the multiplicity of alpha in its min poly right?
oh I was taking that to be the generator of the extension 
yeah i was taking the subextension lol
but that would change norm
there are many definition... one i like the most is this.
K/F is finite define L = {elements in K separable over F}
then L/F is separable and K/L is purely inseparable
separable degree is [L:F] and inseparable degree is [K:L]
so that definition can be seen as a special case of property of norm
N_{K/F}(a) = N_{K/L}(N_{L/F}(a)) = (N_{L/F}(a))^[K:L]
purely inseparable means that every element satisfies a polynomial of the form x^(p^n) - b
oh epic
this was a long exercise in Aluffi lol
N_{K/F}(a) = N_{K/L}(N_{L/F}(a))
this property holds for any extension tower. Norm is just too cute.
lol the point is that the definition given in the problem doesnt work in characteristic 2
Yes but the thing is I need to get the 5x + 4 as a result because the congruent over GF(2) is not enough. For context I'am programming a reed solomon decoder and 5 and 4 would be symbols later used in the decoding process.
because there is no choice of L
oh I have no clue then
but doesnt division over GF(8) only given an answer upto congruence mod 2?
yep
oh ok
GF(4)/GF(2)
when did this happen? this new reacts system looks pretty nice.
yeah i noticed, i like it too!
It look good
how can I get GF(n) 
I'm on discord beta 
(btw i have been wanting to ask you something... which anime is your dp from? @.Yes)
It's just an irl picture of a cat.

i was asking to @.Yes >.<
oof
lol
Okay beta 
:(
she is the little sister, the coolest person imo
abstract algebra is so fun 
How I can find Gal(Fp^10/Fp)? 
Pls help x.x I don't even know how to miss
I dont know

Do you know the cardinality of the group?
Have you seen that over char = p, (a+b)^p = a^p + b^p?
Yeah
so Frobenius is an automorphism right. what is its order in the group Gal(Fp^10/Fp)?

can we react on a react? 
try to see the definition... how many times you do compose Frobenius with itself until you get the identity?
We're asking the smallest n such that x^(p^n) = x
pwease dun cri >.<
Sorry, but I really dont know how to figure out the order
try looking at the group (F_p^10)\{0} under multiplication... what's its order? what does lagrange theorem say?
when I try to check the definition I can only think of my mediocre existence
Well, the order of any finite subgroup of G divides G
yep, so if you take any element in (Fp^10)\{0} then its order should divide the the order of the group which is p^10 - 1
which means for any non-zero element x, x^(p^10 - 1) = 1
try to take it from here?


No I'm Ledog

Does anyone have any good intuition for fields of characteristic p?
I thought so too. But maybe this is some kind of weird engineering math I have no clue 😂
I understand algebra from the point of view of thinking of rings as rings of functions, and thinking of fields as being C
I like examples to get an intuition for things lets take for example characteristic 2. You have the obvious Finite Field with two elements 0, 1 (basically binary) and then you have expansion fields with $2^m$ elements where m is a natural number. The expansion field 2^2 has the elements 0,1,2,3 and so on. The characteristic is often helpful since it can be used as a primitive element in the expansion fields with which you can then generate all the other elements in the expansion field.
doodlejump007
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
i mean they are just Z/pZ 
Those are the most common finite fields i think 
And to do this expansion nosense your characteristic has to be prime. There really is not more to them
No 

Fp^10/Fp is the splitting field for x^p^10-x, so the order must be 10. 10=2*5, so all groups of order 10 is Z10 and D5. Since Galois group is abelian, Z10 must be Gal(F_p^10/F_p)
there's something wrong?
The only finite fields are those with char p, and hence that have orders p^k for k \in N, p prime
How do you know galois group of this is abelian?
The most common of these are like Z/pZ 
I think I've seen a demonstration of something like that
what does "most common" even mean
Tf is more common mean
like occurrence in UG textbooks? 
Well if you can assume that then it seems fine
And characteristic 0 ist also interesting this occurs in no finite fields. Like the field of rational numbers.
I saw a result like this but I think it is for Q, could you suggest any other way?
Galois groups over Q are also non abelian in general
So you know order of the group is 10
And you know one non identity automorphism
Which is the frobenius map
If you can figure out the order of the frobenius map, you will get a pretty good idea of what the group is
If you are doing, say Fp^2, then you are also secretly doing Fp because Fp is inside Fp^2. So it must be the case that Fp is most common
So can you figure that out?
You already know it divides 10
Counterpoint they are all countably common 
Most of the time it's literally just F_p
the norm 1 subgroup of F_p^2 is used a lot
i cee
Im trying to understand the proof of Nakayama's lemma on wikipedia by using Cayley-Hamilton's theorem, but I'm struggeling, If someone could help me I would appreciate it
check atiyah macdonald ch2 if it helps
iirc they proved with cayley hamilton as well
i don't understand your argument for order = 10 and it being abelian...
Their proof is a 1-liner, and its that line im struggeling with ;-;
i was hinting you torwards showing that order is 10 as the degree of the extension F_p^10/F_p is 10. And frobenius is the generator
If the Galois group is abelian then it follows, because as they said there are only 2 groups of order 10 and only 1 is abelian
But we don't know a priori if galois group is abelian 
Yeah
which one specifically?
bim
Any example of a*b=c which a,b is transcendental and c is algebraic?
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$
nani?
bim
1/root 2 is algebraic
yeah i just realised XD
Any transcendental times its inverse 


No, too much algebraic geometry for today. Time for the next algebra!
Given two distinct primes p < q, I am interested in exhibiting a nonabelian group G such that x^pq = 1 for all x in G. If q = 1 (mod p), then the nonabelian group of order pq works.
I thought of taking r = p - 1, and taking a semidirect product of the elementary abelian groups of order q^r and p
Is there a slicker approach?
Or, more importantly, does this work?
I have a question about irreducible / reducible polynomials
If f(x) is irreducible how do we rewrite it as f(x) = g(x) h(x)
I mean, if f is irreducible then it cannot be written as product of two nonconsant polynomials.
How do we show that it is irreducible, it says either g(x) or h(x) must be a unit. But like there's infinite ways to write that.
I don't quite understand what you're asking, the definition of and irreducible polynomial is that if you have such product f = gh then g or h is a unit.
For an example, 5x^2 +25 = 5(x^2 + 5)
or 2.5(2x^2 +10)
It depends on the ring.
I think it works... the automorphism group of $\mathbb{F}_q^n$ is $GL_n(\mathbb{F}_q)$ which has order $(q^n - 1)(q^n - q) \cdots (q^n - q^{n-1})$ and for a a nice choice of $n$ we can guarantee this is divisible by $p$. So by Cauchy there is an element of order $p$ in $GL_n(\mathbb{F}_q)$, which would give us a Group homomorphism $\varphi:\mathbb{F}_p \to \text{Aut}(\mathbb{F}_q^n)$. Which could be used to get a semidirect product $\mathbb{F}q^n \rtimes\varphi \mathbb{F}_p$.
det
If q!=1 mod p,there is no nonabelian group
i still need to verify though that x^pq = 1 for every element in the group
No nonabelian group of order pq, sure. But there should be one of order p q^r yaing det's argument (and Fermat's theorem).
yea but that is easy so no need to worry
Yeah, that's where I am stuck. I think we can let C = <x> and consider its q-Sylow subgroup Q..
Yes but like you could have f(x) = 25 x^2 + 50x + 25 = 5 (5x^2 + 10x + 25)
@chilly ocean For example in Z there are only 2 units, so there aren't 'infinitely many' factorizations
And like its not irreducible but I wrote it to match the irreducible definition
You need to state the ring you're working with.
you have the explicit representation... so just use that
(a, b)^p = (something, b^p) = (something, 1)
(a, b)^pq = (something^q, 1) = (1, 1)
I guess my question is saying it can't be rewritten as f(x) = g(x) h(x) is enough to say its irreducible?
Neat, thanks!

What definition of irreducible are you using?
Every polynomial f can be rewritten as f=gh if you don't assume anything on g and h
Exactly, so a polynomial is irreducible if in any such product either g or h is a unit.
im just confused about how to show something is irreducible, so lets say i need to show x^2 +1 is irreducible over Z_3
Well over Z_3 it's easy, you can just see it doesn't have any roots by checking all 3 elements.
If it was reducible then it would be of the form (x-a)(x-b) for some a and b in the ring.
x^2 + 1 = 1 (x^2 + 1) and one is a unit so its irreducible?
not enough, you need to check all possible factorisations
No, in the definition there is implies g or h is a unit for any factorisation.
assume x² + 1 = gh
show that either g or h is a unit
suppose it's not the case
then g is atleast of degree 1
but it can't be of deg 2, because then h would need to be of deg 0 so that the product is of deg 2, and a deg 0 polynomial is an unit in Q (or in any field)
so g and h are of deg 1
yeah can't be deg 2 typo srt
sry*
so write h = a(x-x0) and g = b(x-x1)
you get x² + 1 = ab(x-x0)(x-x1)
now if you want to check it's irreducible over Z3, you need to prove this is absurd. How so ? Show that x² + 1 doesn't have any root in Z3 but ab(x-x0)(x-x1) has x0 and x1 as roots

i see thank you!
I have never seen the proof for it, my professor just says polynomials are irreducible without much justification but in the exam we are going to have to show a polynomial is irreducible
Well, take example on your prof during the exam
just say it's irreducible without much justification

showing that a polynomial has roots is using a reducibility test and not just the definition. but in case he gives a degree 4 polynomial or something then i cant use the test lol
yeah, depending on the polynomial it gets harder
there's no general method, just "a bag of tricks" to know
ya makes sense
lots of different cases
ya but i think i got this! thank you guys 💗
Yeah, in finite rings you can do it manually like above, it's not as easy for infinite ones.
i hope for a finite ring, or a deg 2 polynomial then i can just use the quadratic formula lol
A lie algebra is a vector space with a lie bracket, pretty much that means we require
[x,y]+[y,x]=0
[x,[y,z]]+[y,[z,x]]+[z,[x,y]]=0
Do we get any interesting structure or use out of extending this to higher cycles?
[x,[y,[z,w]]] + ... =0 for example
is this actually true when A is not an integral domain or when S contains 0?
im pretty sure the proof they describe should not give you an equation of integral dependence for bt
it gives you like
Moth In Shambles
so if S does not contain zero and A is an integral domain then i think this works out
but otherwise 
I'm not sure I follow your point
if A isn't a domain or S contains 0, what that means is that "more things in S^(-1)A are identified with each other than what you might expect at first"
so what could go wrong in a proof is if you are trying to prove that something isn't equal to 0 but it might accidentally be anyway. Here, we're trying to show that something equals 0, but if more things equal zero than we expect, that's not a problem
I'm not seeing where you got your u from
In S^(-1)A, it's always true that s*(a/s) = a/1
my brain is hurting
you should see a doctor, Yes
proof: to show that a/b = c/d we need to find some u in S such that u(ad - bc) = 0. In this case, that means we need to find some u in S such that u(as - as) = 0. take u = 1.
@maiden ocean
oh wait as soon as I ping... let me re-think this.......
maybe I do see your point?
no exactly like
we're trying to show that if x/s is integral then x/s is in S^{-1}C which is equivalent to saying that x is in C, or x is integral over A
you're right, I was thinking about the other direction
ya
so i think we're still going to be fine, essentially i want to include the u in the definition of t
one sec
okay yeah so I'm gonna write this out for a quadratic just so I don't have to deal with indices. suppose we have (b/s)^2 + (a1/s1)(b/s) + (a2/s2) = 0
combining this into a single fraction we get (b^2 s1 s2 + b a1 s2 s + a2 s1 s^2)/(s^2 s1 s2) = 0
i.e. (b^2 s1 s2 + b a1 s2 s + a2 s1 s^2)u = 0 for some u in S
multiply this by (u s1 s2) and distribute everything
(b u s1 s2)^2 + (b u s1 s2)(a1 s2 s u) + (a2 s1^2 s2 s^2 u^2) = 0
which shows that (b u s1 s2) is integral over A and therefore is in C
now let t = (u s1 s2) which is in S, and then b/s = bt/st in S^(-1)C
yeah
so I think AM is wrong here because they ignore this point
but i think the proposition is still true
so in general you would multiply by (u s1 s2 ... sn)^(n-1)
so that you could get a leading term of (b u s1 s2 ... sn)^n
so really the proof structure should be like:
b/s integral over S^(-1)A; coefficients have denominators s_i
=> (b s1 s2 ... sn u) integral over A for some u in S. call t = (s1 s2 ... sn u)
=> bt in C
=> b/s = bt/st in S^(-1)C
mhm
bye 
why is it necessary for it to be in an algebraic closure? i dont get this part
also
i know that when H is normal, every embedding of E into an algebraic closure of F is just an automorphism of E, but not sure exactly why from this G/H is seen to be isomorphic to Gal(E/F)
PhysWiz
Sorry about the formatting😩 Here's the question directly
Here's the solution I found. I understand the part bout 7C4 but why 6 & why do we have 3! ways instead of 4! (which makes more sense to me)
i'm not understanding the last line of this proof
"This contradiction shows that |G| = 1"
shouldn't it be that |G| = 2?
They’re saying as a result of the contradiction
We can conclude that in actuality |G| = 1
|G| = 2 is the contradition, which would imply |G| = 1
how does the contradiction show that |G| = 1
and if |G| = 1
then 1 = 2[N:C]
so [N:C] = 1/2 ?
i'm confused
shouldn't the contradiction show that |G| = 2?
you help too much in this channel
Oh wait, |G| should be 2 I think I think I was getting ahead of myself
yeah that's what i thought
i was assuming the proof went something like
"Suppose BWOC that [N:C] > 1"
which is equivalent to assuming that |G| > 2
if a G is a p-group with order > 2, then we should be able to construct a maximal subgroup of index 2 in G
Yeah, then you’re supposed to get a degree 2 extension of C I think
which then leads to the contradiction
Yeah
so is it a typo in the text
I think so yeah
I mean there’s even a typo earlier when it says T the fixed field of M
I think that should be fixed field of P lol
does the isomorphism extension theorem guarantee that if you have an irreducible polynomial f in F[x]
and K is the splitting field of f
then for each pair of roots a, b of f, there exists a sigma in Gal(K/F)
mapping a->b
is this true?
Isnt that the statement of the theorem?
Yeah you can ensure what you are saying from this
because you can take F(a) and F'(b), and an isomorphism of F and F' extends to this with a -> b, and then you apply the theorem on this
ah okay
right so
If we have $\mathfrak{a} + \mathfrak{b} = R$ then they claim that $R(\mathfrak{a} \cap \mathfrak{b}) \subseteq \mathfrak{a}\mathfrak{b}$ implies $ \mathfrak{a} \cap \mathfrak{b} \subseteq \mathfrak{a}\mathfrak{b}$ but how this this possible? I mean, the defn of an ideal $c$ is that $R\mathfrak{c} \subseteq \mathfrak{c}$
So we can't just apply the defn
oh wtf
that k is so ugly
wtf is R
mirzathecutiepie
Oh
R has 1
chomsky moment
yeah
Therefore Rc = c
wait 
c is an ideal
Okay wait the defn given was Rc \subseteq c in general for c being an ideal, where did the inclusion c \subseteq Rc come from
Because R contains 1
hm
Why is everyone repeatinf me
why is everyone repeatinf me
Thank you poros
i guess that works 
x = 1*x for any x in c
Yeah i got it i think 
the classification of the sharply k-transitive groups
Yeah
If mn = 0 then m or n = 0 where you interpret a natural number k as the element of the field 1+...+1 (k times)
So characteristic can't be mn where m and n are >1
yo quick question what degree can splitting field have for a polynomial of degree n? I know it's at most n!, but can we say more, for example, what degree can't it be?
it has to divide n!
aight that's what I thought
(definitely true when the polynomial is separable)
I'll try to show it, can't be that hard
ye
the galois group embeds into S_n, so ez reasoning why degree must divide n!
ye
"The degree of an extension is 1 if and only if the two fields are equal. In this case, the extension is a trivial extension."
What if you had the field {b*i \mid b \in \mathbb{Q}} and where i is the imaginary unit
isn't this a field extension of the rationals with one basis element i ?
Is this a field?
bi*bi = -b^2 isnt of the form ci for some c in Q
oh closure
I see
I think I just thought that
since a + bi was a field extensions of Q
bi should be as well
so this doesn't seem as obvious then
it does
if you think about degree of extension as degree of minimal polynomial
In case of finite extenstions
ok I have to read up on the connection of fields and polynomials to understand that first
i won't get far in algebraic number theory without knowing that
I mean another thing wrong with your original example is that Qi does not contain Q. I think an easy ish way to see that the sentence is true is to view things as vector spaces. If something is a subspace of something else, and they have the same dimension, then they’re equal
so the definition of field extension, say A extends B, is that A is a field on the same operations as B
does this imply B is contained in A
or is that an extra thing in the definition
ok so this is true then
but not the definition
same operation?
oh wait
like * and +
sub+anything in abstract algebra usually means subset
i forgot about this
sub+anything usually means subset + some of the structure is maintained
and generally that means the inclusion map is a "nice" map
yo are you an inclusion map?
generally
it's just a subset of the original structure that is closed for all the (restricted) original operations
(that is generally not enough... take Ring for instance Z/6Z is a ring, consider the subset {0, 2, 4}... under the same operations. 4 magically acts like a new identity and this is isomorphic to Z/3Z)
it's not closed for the "multiplicative identity" operation
what is identity operation 😶
it's a nullary operation
subrng moment
ah well
if you consider all the operations it works
f: R⁰ -> R where f(empty) = 1 where 1 is identity of R
I mean if you necessitate the identity existing, then {0, 2, 4} is indeed a subset closed under the operations but isn't a subring, "multiplicative identity existing" isn't really an operation
yes but det was trying to give an example of an algebraic structure where it fails
it does fail there, the operations succeed
in rngs it's not a problem
but it aint a subring
in rings it is
no
but not really an operation
it is a nullary operation
for a simpler example of a monoid. it's a set S with 2 operations: some associative binary operation * and a nullary operation 1
you might want to check this https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Universal_algebra @old lava
Universal algebra (sometimes called general algebra) is the field of mathematics that studies algebraic structures themselves, not examples ("models") of algebraic structures.
For instance, rather than take particular groups as the object of study, in universal algebra one takes the class of groups as an object of study.
@chilly ocean Can I dm you?
yea and you don't need to ask anyone can dm me
i wish more people were told that for example obtaining the element 1 in a ring is a ring operation. i think its much prettier and you don't have to worry about different homomorphism definitions
yea pretty neat 



