#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 582 of 407
do you know about quotient groups?
(or quotient rings)
(yea but if they know that they prob do q geoup too lol)
i think so
what makes you think that
ok I know what they are now
Z/nZ is just that
any idea how to find ker f? I am not too sure about the answer. Mine came +-1
You are right
The kernel is the set of elements x such that f(x) is the identity element
in this case, the identity element of the group C* is 1
(because 1*x = x for any complex number x)
and so to find the kernel we need to answer the question "what are the complex numbers x such that f(x) = 1"
i.e.
"what are the complex numbers whose square is 1?"
and the only numbers x with x^2 = 1 are x = 1 and x = -1
cuz C* is an integral domain and x²=1 <=> x²-1=0 <=> (x+1)(x-1)=0
ah you are right, thanks!! :D
Carla I'm not sure if they know what an integral domain is
given that they're asking a qusetion about the kernel of a group homomorphism
is this C* algebra
:^)

C-star algebra, more like Beastars algebra amirite @chilly ocean
(sorry if this joke has already been made i'm behind on the memes
)

if I have a bijection f
and I know that A is contained in it's image f(A)
does this imply that A = f(A)
?
f(x) = 2x; f((0, 1)) = (0, 2) contains (0, 1) but is not equal to it
wait
C isn't a Galois extension of Q right
because the algebraic closure of Q is a proper subset of C
and the algebraic closure is the splitting field of every irreducible polynomial with coefficients in Q
correct
Let R = {a, b, c, d}. Define a suitable addition + and a suitable multiplication · so
that (R, +, ·) becomes a field.
I have no idea how to do this....
so first you need to chose some element to be the additive identity
and also choose an element to be the multiplicative identity
right ?

choose one of the elements from R?
yes
okay so I choose a for additive and d for multiplicative
right
so now you now that you need to have:
a + a = a
a + b = b
a + c = c
a + d = d
and also the reverse, i.e:
b + a = b
c + a = c
d + a = d
same thing for the multiplication
hmm yes
ok now you also need to choose additive and multiplicative inverses
(note that there's a faster way to do this, but I think doing it by hand is a bit more interesting to start with
)
So a is it's own additive inverse, 'cause it's the zero of the field
i like doing things the slow way :
yup
now what could be the additive inverse of d ?
it would be a, yes?
hmm, no ? the additive inverse of is some element x such that d + x = a
but d + a = d
so x can't be equal to a
so x € {b, c, d} 
so x can be any one of a or b or d?
so it shouuuuuld be d
Can you explain why ? (it is true
)
hmm i said d because we didn't get into b or c yet so it couldn't be one of them 
Fair enough lol.
Ok so let's assume d + d = a, and see how things goes
let's recap what we know for the moment
$R = {a, b, c d}$.\
We said that $0_R = a$ and $1_R = d$.\
\begin{align*}
a + a &= a\
a + b &= b\
a + c &= c\
a + d &= d\
d + d &= a\
d \cdot a &= a \
d \cdot b &= b \
d \cdot c &= c \
d \cdot d &= d \
a \cdot a &= a \text{ Because multiplying by $0$ gives zero in a ring, and a fortiori in a field}\
a \cdot b &= a\
a \cdot c &= a\
a \cdot d &= a\
\end{align*}
And all of that commutes

that's understandable
some part is missing 
that's alright!!
Shika-Blyat
yup! where do we go now 
we're gonna look at the additive inverses of b and c, which are the only inverses that we don't know yet
the nice thing is that we know that the multiplication is distributive over the addition
we know that the inverse of b is either b itself or c
Can you tell me why exactly was d the additive inverse of d?
Just because you said so, we're just trying stuff for the moment
if we ended up with something absurd in our laws, we would just have shown that d can't be it's own additive inverse and we would've restarted with another additive inverse for d
Could you help me understand...the faster method 
Yeah 
do you know what the characteristic of a field is (or more generally the caracteristic of a ring) ?

smallest number of times i have to use the multiplicative identity to get the additive one, yes?
yes
well the characteristic of a finite field is always a prime, do you know why ?

hmm i don't 
a finite field, sorry*
yes
that's exactly that
so now do you also see why the characteristic has to divide the field's cardinal ?
i can't remember the cardinal term 
all fields*, (0) is a prime ideal, hence 0 is a prime

i can see why it would have to divide the field's cardinal
because for each time i use the mult iden to get to the additive one, i am moving through each element
it made sense in my head, i figure it should give 1 upon division, no?
oh
okay then why
I could give you an example, but the simplest one is exactly the field your exercise is asking you to define, so that'll wait lol 
check that {n 1_F, n € N} is an additive subgroup of (F, +) (for (F, +, .) a field)
and then use lagrange's theorem

i never thought of using Lagrange smh
Anyway so, I'll leave checking that to you, but the important part is that in our case, R = {a, b, c, d} contains 4 elements, so there isn't a lot of prime that could divide 4, in fact only one
so we know that the characteristic must be 2
and thus that 1_R + 1_R = 0_R, or in our notations, d + d = a, meaning that d is its own inverse
yup, the char is 2

Ok so continuing with the less painful way of solving this, there's also something you can think of, if you already know it:
there's only 2 groups of cardinal 4 up to isomorphism, so our field must be one of them
what are these groups

the set in my exercise has 4 elements
its klein four and Z_4
Shika-Blyat

Z_4 it is then because we never did klein four in class 
klein four is just a fancy name for (Z/2Z)²
Now you can probably try to define a multiplication on both groups
and see for which one it works
Hint: Z/2Z must be a subfield of your field
because it has characteristic 2
and the {n1_R, n € N} is not only a subgroup but a subfield, isomorphic to Z/2Z
it's physically impossible to have done basically any group theory and not have come across Z/2Z x Z2/Z
the thing is, i am not exactly sure what i am supposed to do when the question asks me to define a multiplication or an addition
i did come across it, i just didn't know that specific name
just try defining a law that respects the field structure
like, because of the field structure you already know what a x b must be equal to for some a's and b's, like you know that a x 0 must be equal to 0 etc

does defining the cayley table count as defining the multiplication 
an insanely tedious way of doing it, sure
you can technically define the multiplication by writing out the entire cayley table (making sure it's all correct and works)
that's pretty much what I was trying to do initially
(by writing everything and deducing stuff step by step)
that's a bit tedious but that works and it's probably the easiest way if you don't see any slick way of doing it (and you can do it faster by thinking of all these few things, like characteristic etc, that enforces some identities, like 1+1 = 0 in our case)
lemme check

All good 😎
you sure ? 

No 😎
which part makes you sus 
iirc in F_4, the 2 nonidentities elements aren't their own inverses
did you check that the distributivity works with that law ?
i haven't defined the addition yet so i can't 

ya, this would be the F_4 multiplication table
yeah ok I'm not crazy
fields are weird ngl
they're like a group, and then another group in that group with one less element
interesting 
so that's half the thing done
F_4 addition is really obvious
now on towards the addition table 
just treat \alpha as a variable
add things normally
if there's a coefficient of 2 on anything
remove that term
it's that easy
Ok so that conversation leads me to asking myself something 
if I have a field (not necessarily finite) $(\mathbb{K}, +, \cdot)$
Shika-Blyat
And another field $(\mathbb{F}, +', \star)$
Shika-Blyat
if $(\mathbb{K}, +)$ and $(\mathbb{F}, +')$ are group-isomorphic, are $(\mathbb{K}, +, \cdot)$ and $(\mathbb{F}, +', \star)$ field-isomorphic ?

Shika-Blyat
if it's finite field, then I'm 99% sure it's true
when you said remove the term if 2, what would i be putting in the box of (1,1)?
for finite fields it's obvious yeah
for addition
i bet it breaks down for infinite fields tho
since group isomorphic implies same number of elements implies isomorphic field
complete guess
since there's only field of card p^n up to iso
for infinite fields, ya, there's probably some shittery happening
like Q(a) and Q(b) are in general not isomorphic as fields for different a and b, but I think they are group isomorphic
if you map a to b
oh yeah
(looking at the additive group)
there are deep theorems which you dont have to know to solve these intro-finite-field-theory questions
but they make them really easy
theorem 1: there exists a finite field Z/pZ for every prime p
theorem 2: any other finite fields are constructed by "stapling together" copies of Z/pZ
so the field of 4 elements is Z/2Z "stapled to" another copy of Z/2Z
didn't know this was a theorem, I always visualized it this way
corollary: all finite fields have order p^k where p is prime, and finite fields of the same order are isomorphic.
^
por que no los dos
(here, the field of 1 element is not considered "a field")
sadge
(we usually count it as a ring but not a field)
you don't need to know how to prove that @chrome mirage, but just knowing it's true really helps 
also you can add that every field of order p^n has Z/pZ as a subfield
just 1, 1+1, 1+1+1, etc
^
the {n1_R, n € N} subgroup/subfield I was speaking about
well it is a ring but not a field

yes
definitions are conventions
i am really confused from when you said if there's a coefficient of 2 on anything, to remove that term 😭
our field R has 4 elements, so it is of char 2
so replace every instance of 2 with 0
rip, my internet is lagging
(1+a)+a = 1+2a = 1
a+1+1 = a+2=a
0 days since someone has mentioned the field with one element
for example

how do you show they aren't isomorphic ?

sqrt(2) satisfies x^2-2, no element of Q(sqrt(3)) does that
can't map sqrt(2) to anything in Q(sqrt(3)) in a field homomorphism
Also, can you jsut show they arent isomorphic by showing sqrt2 mapsto sqrt3 isnt isomorphic?
oh ye sniped
no, you have to show sqrt(2) can't map to anything
but obviously cant map to anything in Q right
there may theoretically be some random element that might work (there isn't, but there might until you prove otherwise)
why not
I mean it feels obvious
still gotta prove it
cause that would be weird 
that's not a proof technique
it is for me 

I mean ye, same contradiction applies for any sqrt2 mapsto q in Q(sqrt3) Im pretty sure
Oh wait maybe I was thinking something of the way: only ismorphism of Q is identity and I guess that implies the only chance for those to be iso is sqrt2 mapsto sqrt3 no?
no, please leave this mindset
of thinking that the natural option for the map is the only map that could work
But can't this arguemnt work: assume phi iso of those fields, then phi_Q is iso to phi(Q)=Q since only automorphism of Q is identity?
Asking cuz not sure maybe I dont get this
But that I think implies sqrt2 has to map to sqrt3 for it to be surjective then
that's just not true
okay my final question for the day
i don't see them having multiplicative inverses...isn't that necessary for a field
why don't you think the function which sends sqrt(2) to 1 + sqrt(3) is surjective?
Yeah I just realized
according to your logic, we might conclude that $\bQ(\sqrt[8]{2}, \sqrt[8]{2} \exp(2 i \pi /8))$ is not isomorphic to $\bQ(\sqrt[8]{2}, i)$ because the second generators cannot map to each other
F[x]-module
which would be very wrong, since they're the exact same field
ye
you cannot just look at the generators and conclude the possible maps that work
that's just completely faulty logic
don't try to use it like ever again
for your own good
learn to read multiplication tables I guess lol
So in field iso generators dont have to map to generators?
I mean, the image of a set of generators will be a set of generators
in general
but maybe not the set that you had already chosen
like yes, generators will map to generators, but a specific fixed set of generators won't map to another specific fixed set of generators
So they do map generataors to generators
each nonzero row will have a 1 in it, that tells you the thing in that column is its inverse
but not necessarily the ones I thought about
every single element of Q(\sqrt(3)) that is not in Q is a generator for Q(\sqrt(3))
so there's a lot of generators, which is why your logic of only looking at the map to sqrt(3) was faulty
I see, thanks for correcting.
for a metric space (X,d) if we know supX and infX exist, is saying for all x,y in X infX <= x < y <= supX implies d(x,y) < d(infX,supX) sufficient?
we also know that (X,d) is compact so I think we can assume inf and sup exist/are defined since its bounded?
nevermind i see what youre saying, i'll have to rethink how im doing this problem then
Are you trying to show X has finite diameter, ie d(x, y) is bounded among x, y in X?
Also this seems more appropriate for #advanced-analysis
or maybe #point-set-topology
yes, given that (X,d) is compact. and okay i'll keep that in mind, its a metric space topology class so im not quite sure where it'd fit in since its pretty entry level
thanks to both of you
metric space topology class
not sure where to post it
there is literally a channel called topology



my prof said that $(\alpha,\beta)=\frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g \in G} \limits \bar{\alpha}(g) \beta(g)$ is an inner product on the space of class functions on a finite group
ProphetX
I am trying to prove that it really is,and I do not seem to use anywhere that $\alpha,\beta$ are class functions. Is this an inner product also on the space of functions on a finite group?
ProphetX
This works for the set of all complex-valued functions on G. It does not even require that G be a group, just a finite set.
thanks @compact needle 
this might be trivial, but then: it is true that the functions on a set ( to C) form a vector space using pointwise multiplicaiton and addition, right?
just test the vector space axioms
Yup
how can I conclude that the character is a root of unity aswell?
the character would be the sum of the eigenvalues of the rep matrix,but the sum of roots of unity is not always a root of unity
@sinful mirage the matrix corresponding to \rho(g) has finite order and therefore is diagonalizable
\rho(g^{-1}) is diagonal in the same basis
ohhhhh
and then the eigvals of $\rho(g^{-1})$ are $\lambda_i^{-1}$ and I can use $tr(rho(g^-1))=sum_i(\lambda_i^{-1})=\sum_i \bar \lambda_{i}=\bar \chi(g), right?$
yes
ProphetX
why can one think of the group algebra as linear combinations $\sum_{g \in G} \limits f(g) g$?
ProphetX
in the group algebra there should be functions,no?
what is f?
my prof defined it like this: $f \in \mathcal{C} G$(the group algebra), f=\sum_{g \in G} \limits f(g) g$
ProphetX
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the coefficients are functions 
i'm super confused cause I understood the algebra of functions on the group before
and i don't understand what the definition of the 'group algebra' is
from this
that's the definition of the group algebra
formal linear combinations
of elements of G
I defined the group algebra differently actually 
how
I dont think so
for finite groups it will I think
Because a function G -> C can be veiwed as a C-linear combination of elements of G
if the algebra of functions on a finite group and the group algebra are two totally different concepts then it's ok
sure
but i can't see how they are related
but is the multiplication the same
how?
send f to sum_g f(g) g
a function G->C needs to eat an element in G and return a number
okay I think it works
ahh f(g)=\sum_{g} f(g) g?
yeah multiplication is the same actually
ye
why could I not just say f(g)=\sum_{g} f(g)?
f(g) is an element of C
the RHS is a formal linear combo
{functions on G} <-----> {formal linear combinations}
that's the correspondence we're talking about
not as written
oh
tho whats written is also wrong
yes this is what i'm confused a bit about
can't see this correspondence(it was stated in the lecture)
$f \mapsto \sum_g f(g) \cdot g$
so a function on G is just a map G->C
Brofibration
what does it mean to eat a function and send out a c number?
or is f not a function here?
f is a function
RHS is not a complex number
rhs is an element in G, sorry
no
nope
C[G]

formal C-linear combination of elements of G
f(g) is a complex number right? and g is an element in G
you cant multiply elements of g by complex numbers
ok so i understood this,but why can this viewed as a function?
here we map a function to a linear combination
not with that attitude you cant /s
You can view a formal linear combination as a function on G, it eats g and gives the coefficient of g
easy to see that this is the inverse of map from functions to linear combinations
ohh ok
it makes sense now 
sorry i was mega confused
pure math is new to me im a physicist
physicist 
Why can't you grow corn in Z/6Z?
it's not a field? idk
top notch comedy
This is the type of content we were missing
nathannerd for honorable
brofibration for honorable
No selfroles matching honorable.
See ,selfroles --list for the list of valid selfroles.
I thought that was going to have something to do with kernels
this is wrong for noncommutative rings right? it doesn't seem like it is in general closed for right multiplication by elements of the ring but seems tedious to construct a counterexample
what do you mean wrong for commutative rings?
Do you maybe mean noncommutative rings?
In a general context this is a left ideal generated by S, but for commutative rings left and right don't matter
Okey so Im dumb, but I really dont understand the proof of Nakayamas lemma.
Well Im quite stressed so everything is just a mess in my head.
But first the existence of the monic polynomial
Existence of p? That is proved later
The first part is giving the idea of the proof
bim
you see how $\sum_{j=1}^n(\varphi\delta_{ij} - a_{ij}) x_j = 0$?
Moldilocks
@minor badger
This is a system of n linear equations in n variables
so you can turn this into a matrix equation,
$A \cdot [x_1 \quad ... \quad x_n]^T = 0$ where $T$ means transpose and $A$ is the $n\times n$ matrix with $ij$-th entry being $\phi\delta_{ij} - a_{ij}$
Moldilocks
multiply this equation by Adj A on the left, and for a commutative ring, (Adj A) A = det A so you get (det A) [x_1 ... x_n] = 0
so you get the equation from this since this gives det A = 0 (or M = 0, but if M is the zero module then the whole thing is trivial anyway)
ok so I managed to prove that there is an algebra isomorphism between the functions on a finite group and the formal linear combinations CG
however,I still would like to ask again what do we mean by formal linear combinations(if the multiplication between c numbers and group elements is not defined)
I can give CG an algebra structure by just defining addition and multiplications between elements of the type $\sum_{g \in G} f(g) g$, but I do not know how to interpret these elements,since f(g) g is not defined
ProphetX
the algebra structure of CG is inherited from C and G,but I do not see what do we mean by its elements,even though I proved there is an iso between this and the algebra of functions on the group
this would be the proof
but I can't interpret the elements of CG because in the strict sense there is no multiplication between f(g) and g,why would this not be an issue?
so i see that the algebra CG and the algebra of functions on a finite group are isomorphic,therefore I Can think of them in either way. I just don't comprehend/see what would be the power of doing it in the CG picture or how CG elements "exist at all"
bdobba
@sinful mirage
I didn't use the dual of the group algebra at all
are you not talking about linear functionals from k[G] to k here?
if not, where are your functions on $G$ mapping to?
I meant the functions from G to C, i.e. f:G->C
bdobba
in order to have a dual,I need a vector space structure on G
I do not have that is my issue
functions from $G$ to $C$ form a basis for the dual
bdobba
more specifically, the coordinate functions $\delta_g$
bdobba
can you elaborate what do you mean by dual please?
for me a dual is a map from a vector space into the field it is defined over
sure, so are you familiar with duals in vector spaces?
but I do not have vector space structure on G
right, yes you do - because you have an algebra
the algebra is not on G,rather the functions on G,or?
the functions on G form an algebra,not G itself
an algebra in your case is just a vector space equipped with a multiplication map
hold on, you can also form an algebra from $G$ itself
bdobba
and in order to have a dual in this sense,i'd need a map,which eats a function on the group and spits out a number
ok slow down
this is what i don't see
bdobba
yes,I think I made it
here
but i can't interpret the word 'formal linear combination' because my issue is that there is no multiplication or anything defined between f(g) and g, so I do not know how to interpret these elements
but defining the above addition and multiplication,I can make these elements into an algebra,yes
are these your notes or course notes?
because we can make a vector space $k[G]$ with basis ${g_1, g_2, \dots \g_n }$, which is just ${ z \cdot g_i \colon g_i \in G, z \in \mathbb{C} }$,
bdobba
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ProphetX
there is no multiplication defined between complex numbers and group elements
that's it, that's all you need
you're just treating it as a set
let me give you a different (silly example)
Given a set $S = {a,b}$ , I can make a vector space out of $S$ just by declaring elements to be of the form $z_1 \cdot a + z_2 \cdot b$
bdobba
what is z_1*a here?
$z_1 \cdot a$ doesn't have to be evaluated
I can't see what is $\cdot$
why would we not need to evaluate it?
if $z_1$ were a real number, it's just the same of saying we have $z_1$ copies of a vector
bdobba
because the structure of a vector space says we don't need to
it just happens that in a Euclidean vector space, say $\mathbb{R}^n$, you can
ohhhhhh shoottt
bdobba
a vector space is simply a set equipped with 2 laws
and if these 2 laws are ok,it is a vector spcae
yeah it's an incredibly simple structure
oh lol
ProphetX
you can put a bunch of stuff on it like multiplication, inner product etc but you don't have to
right, it's just saying that you have $f(g)$ copies of your vector $g$
bdobba
explicitly $g,g,g,\cdots g$ f(g) times?
ProphetX
sure, that's not a bad way to think about it
at it's most basic level, a vector space can just be a useful way to keep track of stuff
like how many of object $a$ I have, how many of object $b$ and how many of object $c$
bdobba
you mean the linear combinations are these?
this is a bit wishy washy, but it's a helpful way to think about it if you're used to euclidean vector spaces
yes
i have x number of e_1,y number of e_2, etc.?
right
oh lol,this makes sense
*formal linear combinations
I guess not having a math linear algebra course hits back hard now 
but now it makes sense 
my linear algebra was taught by a physicist and not def theorem proof style but rather application oriented 
and now i have a grad rep theory course with math people 
that's alright, the group algebra $k[G]$ is actually quite a complicated thing even though it might seem simple
bdobba
once you start putting extra structure on it
sorry if this is a burden,but could you please check if the proof for injectivity is correct/written down okay in the proper math sense?
phi is this
I was trying to prove that the map phi is an algebra isomorphism between the functions on the group and the CG algebra, and I managed to show it is a homomorphism,surjective,but i'm not sure whether my proof for injectivity is ok 
hmm, what have you been told about the map $( \star )^{-1}$ ?
bdobba
nothing
since obviously we have an inverse map on the group but that doesn't generalise in a very straightforward way to the algebra. It does exist but I won't talk about it if you haven't covered it
specifically, how the map $(\star)^{-1}$, which I'll call $S(g)$ works in $k[G]$
bdobba
but in order for this to hold,G has to be finite and bijective,which I'm not sure the injectivity proof is ok
bdobba
yes,exactly
that is my issue
this is how I tried to prove it but i'm not sure it works 
or rather not sure I wrote it down in a proper math language
$phi$ does have an inverse, but it actually turns out to be quite a technical thing
bdobba
basically on single elements $g$, $\phi$(g) = g^{-1}$
bdobba
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I defined it as the algebra of functions on the group
linear functionals $f \mapsto \mathbb{C}$, right?
bdobba
they are maps from G to C
from the group to the complex numbers
but the group itself doesnt have a vector space structure
no
i can only put a vector space structure on the functions on the group
ok, so can you think of a way to extend your functions on $G$ to the vector space $\mathbb{C}[G]$?
bdobba
also, what are your functions on $G$?
bdobba
actually forget that for a second
yes,this what I proved here that there is an algebra homomorphism between the space of functions on the group and CG
any function f:G->C
I want to prove this is an isomorphism but I'm not sure whether my argument for injectivity holds
in order to have an algebra homomorphism you need a vector space first
yes
so how can you use the functions on $G$ in this way?
bdobba
I equipped the functions on the group with a vector space structure by pointwise addition and multiplication inherited from C
ah ok
and made it into an algebra using the convolution
you can also do it a different way - by first linearly extending the functions on $G$ to $\mathbb{C}[G]$
bdobba
since the set $G$ is a basis
bdobba
what does it mean to linearly extend?
hmm
ok, i'd really recommend studying some linear algebra if you're doing representation theory
I tried putting algebra structure both on CG and functions on G and tried proving they are isomorphic
to linearly extend means to take a function on a linear combination of basis elements , say $f(a x_1, b x_2,\dots c x_n)$ and then simply apply it to each basis element in a linear fashion
bdobba
you're going to have a really tough time in rep theory if you don't brush up your linear algebra
it's like 80% linear algebra
not trying to scare you lol
i'll try to do it the way you showed me
then my attempt doesn't work,right?
putting algebra structure on both and trying to show they're iso
possibly not, sorry I haven't had the time to read it thoroughly - currently trying to make my way through a paper my advisor sent me
no worries
whats a general way of showing two fields are not isomorphic?
what im trying to do is
find two pairs of roots of $x^4 - 2x^2 - 2$ that generate non isomorphic extensions
是的
depends on fields, there isn't really 1 algorithm to determine if fields aren't isomorphic
you can prove fields aren't isomorphic in lots of ways depending on which fields they are
in your case, could just try to construct a homomorphism between the two fields
and show no such homomorphism exists
$\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{1+\sqrt{3}}) \cong \mathbb{Q}/\langle x^4 - 2x^2 - 2\rangle \cong \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{1-\sqrt{3}})$
this is what i am confused by
\langle \rangle works better than < >
是的
\sqrt{1 + \sqrt{3} } and \sqrt{1 - \sqrt{3} } are both algebraic over Q and x^4 - 2x^2 - 2 are their minimal polys
so are they isomorphic or not?
they are roots of the same irreducible polynomial so they should be isomorpic
hopefully this would make it clearer: they are isomorphic as fields, here we explicitly selected a different embedding into some algebraic closure
have you touched galois groups yet
yes
i think what they want you to show
is that say the roots are r_1,r_2,r_3,r_4, then Q(r_1,r_2) not isomorphic to Q(r_3,r_4)
aren't those the same?
I guess find complex root
and maybe try to show Q(real root) isnt iso to Q(complex root)
Where?
oh, well there are 2 more roots right?
but they are the same?
in the same fields
maybe question error
because the polynomail is irreducible
all extensions should be isomorphic

yup
there's a difference here
what should r1 r2 r3 r4 be then?
wait so why are those isomorphic? Because they are roots of the same irreducible polynomial?
yea
As a simpler example, consider the polynomial $x^4+1$
煮豆燃豆萁,豆在釜中泣。本是同根生,相煎何太急?
its roots are $e^{\frac{(2n+1)\pi i}{8}}$
煮豆燃豆萁,豆在釜中泣。本是同根生,相煎何太急?
but lets say i choose the root $e^{\frac{\pi i}{8}}$ and $e^{\frac{5\pi i}{8}}$
煮豆燃豆萁,豆在釜中泣。本是同根生,相煎何太急?
oops the field i made is the same as when i only chose the root $e^{\frac{\pi i}{8}}$
煮豆燃豆萁,豆在釜中泣。本是同根生,相煎何太急?
but even considering pairs
of roots
theres no pair that will be not isomorphic?
$\pm \sqrt{1 \pm \sqrt{3}}$
是的
choosing pairs we get the exact same field or isomorphic??
nope
ok maybe in more detail
the 2 pairs would have 1 element in common
not 2 disjoint pairs
oh
maybe that was where the confusion was haha
haha yea wording for the qn could have been better
wait so what did they mean I dont get it
So there’s 4 roots
Show that taking 2 pairs of roots we can generate 2 non isomorphic fields
Pairs can intersect :D
So what are those pairs
Sqrt (1 + sqrt 3), sqrt (1 - sqrt 3) and sqrt(1 + sqrt 3), -sqrt( 1 + sqrt3)
Is one
but isnt Q (Sqrt (1 + sqrt 3), sqrt (1 - sqrt 3)) = Q(sqrt(1 + sqrt 3), -sqrt( 1 + sqrt3)
)?
I dont see why Q(root) =/= Q(other root), I thought they are all isomorphic if they are all roots of the same irr polynomial
okay yeah so any pair will be of the form Q(r,r1), Q(r,r2)
Yeah
But I don't see how they are non iso 
$\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{1 + \sqrt{3}}, \sqrt{1 - \sqrt{3}}) \ncong \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{1 + \sqrt{3}})$
i wanna say this is true
是的
all you need to prove
is that $\sqrt{1-\sqrt3}\notin\mathbb Q\left(\sqrt{1+\sqrt3}\right)$
煮豆燃豆萁,豆在釜中泣。本是同根生,相煎何太急?
i feel like theres a very straightforward proof
but the only one i can think of
Let M be the splitting field of the poly
it is the field extension genned by adding all the roots
can we actually do it by considering degrees
now lets look at Gal(M/K), then the gal group must have some element that does $\sqrt3\to-\sqrt3$, $\sqrt{1+\sqrt3}\to-\sqrt{1+\sqrt3}$, $\sqrt2\to-\sqrt2$
煮豆燃豆萁,豆在釜中泣。本是同根生,相煎何太急?
is there a way to show that if the convolution commutes,then f is a class function without choosing a basis? i.e. $f*f'=f'f \implies f$ is a class function ( here the convolution is defined as: $(ff')(g):=\sum_{h \in G} \limits f(h) f(h^{-1}g)$
I know how to do the proof if I choose a basis,but i'm curious if it can be done without choosing one
ProphetX
managed to do it 
try to show that S_k * S_{n-k} stablizes the subset S = {1, 2, 3, ..., k}. Can the stablizer be any larger? Now what can you say about stablizer of a subset in the orbit of S?
so if alpha is in stab(S) then alpha = (sigma)(tau) where sigma takes S to S, and tau takes S^c to S^c
so we can identify sigma to be something in S_k, and tau to be in S_n-k, but i'm not sure how
i'm still confused
yep that the idea... Take A to be the subgroup of permutation of elements of S and B to be subgroup of permutation of elements of S^c. A is isomorphic to S_k and B is isomorphic to S_n-k.
Now like you said the stablizer is the subgroup AB. Since both A and B are normal in AB and A and B intersect trivially AB is isomorphic to A x B which is isomorphic to S_k * S_n-k
i've managed to show part i) and ii). for iii) i think i need to use the first isomorphism theorem but i'm not sure which homomorphism to pick
there's only two groups of order 6 up to isomorphism
Z/6Z and S_3
prove that S_4/V_4 isn't abelian, and you're done
quick question - can galois group of polynomial of degree 3 be Z/6Z? I'd say no, cause it would seem like you need degree of the polynomial to be 6 or sth (permuting roots of poly deg 2 and poly deg 3), but not sure
Yeah, but not quite sure why, any proper argumentation for that (or maybe my reasoning is enough)?
hmm maybe I could consider factorization of poly deg 3?
because any galois group of a degree 3 poly must be a quotient group (I think it's a quotient) of S_3

I think in general it's galois group of a degree n poly is a quotient (or is it a subgroup) of S_n

but ya, whatever it is Z/6Z isn't a subgroup or a quotient group of S_3
considering they're the same order and obviously not isomorphic
Galois stuff is pretty neat so far.
it is pretty cool
independent of lattice stuff
S_n only has three quotients (for n > 4)
itself, the trivial group, and Z/2Z
so if you ever find yourself saying the phrase "quotient of S_n" make sure that's really what you mean haha
I mean the quotients appear at the "top" of the lattice, while subgroups at the bottom
and that's how I normally think of it
so I got a bit mixed up since the lattice of subgroups and the lattice of field extensions are like flipped and I'm not too familiar with it yet
yes but I'm not talking about lattices
i'm talking about groups
and S_n doesn't have many quotients as a group
which could have been a hint that "quotients of S_n" is not what you were looking for
for this question what was the point in doing division with remainders
true
That is the whole proof, how would you do this without division with remainders?
i was just wondering whats the intuition behind this like how did they know to use division with remainders
You want to show that the lowest degree polynomial in the ideal generates the ideal, ie all other polynomials in the ideal are multiples of the lowest degree polynomial
Then it's natural to divide by the lowest degree polynomial and prove that the remainder is zero (if it weren't, it would have lower degree than the lowest degree polynomial in the ideal and will be in the ideal, contradicting "lowest degree" of f)
so this whole proof was just to show it's in some form f(X), there is no need to show that it's an ideal
I didn't get that
It's given to be an ideal
You have to show every ideal is (f(X)) for some f
Yeah
the mathieu groups
are all local rings localizations of some ring?
yes, every ring is a localization of itself with respect to the multiplicative set {1}
Sorry, I should say "ignoring the trivial case"
I'm not sure what counts as trivial. if R is some ring and S any other thing then R is the localization of R x S wrt the multiplicative set {(1,0)}
there's lots of ways to make a ring a localization of something
if you want to localize at a prime, any local ring is the localization of itself at its maximal ideal
but the multiplicative set here is just the set of units of R, so is that trivial?
I guess in my mind, trivial is just taking S={1}
perhaps non trivial = "natural map into the localisation is not an isomorphism" 
well then the R x S example works
what'd you say for 2a?
when you quotient out by m, you're basically saying x^2-4=0
so you can say x^2 = 4 and then raise both sides to the 5th power to get x^10 = 4^5 and then you have x*x^9 = 4^5, divide by 4^5 and you have (x/4^5)x^9 = 1
i argue the gcd of m(x) and f(x) ~ 1 for 2a
that was so helpful for 2b though thank you, i was pulling my hair out trying to run the extended euclidean algo
you're welcome, yeah it can be easier to just mess with the algebra with these kinds of things
might even be tempting to say x=+-2 if that's useful, but probably not since you can't fix a sign on it
That's not the reason it's not helpful
When you say x² = 4 you really mean [x²] = [4]
But with ±2 you can't make any such statement, because [x] is a completely new element independent from both [±2]
By independent I just mean different equivalence class
omega is a pth root of unity? w^p=1, and (w-1)(1+w+w^2+...+w^{p-1})=0, so w^{p-1} = -1-w-w^2-..., ie w^{p-1} can be written in terms of the lower powers
oh word
hm
this is funky bcs the book says this
Doesn't this imply that 1, w, w^2,...,w^{p-1} should be linearly independent over Q
no look at this factorization
we are factoring out (w-1)
since 1^p=1 is not a root we're adding
to put it another way, the minimal polynomial is $\frac{x^p-1}{x-1}$ which is degree p-1
Merosity
yeah
i see, since we already have the root of x- 1 in our field
yup
And we can repeat the same exact thing if p is not a prime as well 
okay this makes sense 
thank u
sort of
the cyclotomic polynomials are simple if it's a power of a prime
have you heard of mobius inversion?
ah, well I'll give a quick sketch then to give you an idea of stuff that's involved if you want to derive a cute formula
if you multiply all the cyclotomic polynomials that are at divisors of n, you end up with all the roots of $x^n - 1$ $$x^n-1 = \prod_{d|n} \Phi_d(x)$$
Merosity
this product can be inverted if you take its logarithm, you need something called the mobius function which encodes inclusion-exclusion over divisors
$$\log(x^n-1) = \sum_{d|n} \log \Phi_d(x)$$
$$\sum_{d|n} \mu(n/d) \log(x^d-1) = \log \Phi_n(x)$$
$$\prod_{d|n} (x^d-1)^{\mu(n/d)} = \Phi_n(x)$$
Merosity
I guess just to explain enough to confirm it works, $\mu(n)$ is -1 raised to the number of distinct primes dividing n, if it has repeated prime factors, it's 0
Merosity
so if we try n=p you can confirm $$\Phi_p(x) = (x^1-1)^{\mu(p)}(x^p-1)^{\mu(1)} = (x-1)^{-1} (x^p-1)$$
Merosity
hmmm
i'll look into it 
this looks interesting
one more thing, the fourth root of unity adjoined to Q should be iso to Q(i) right?
however
we have that 1,i,i^2 should be linearly independent over Q, but i^2 = -1 so 1,i,-1 is independent over Q but you can write -1 as a linear combination of 1 and i 
err no

what am i doing
write what you think the minimal polynomial is for i
maybe try explaining to me why if f is irreducible and deg(f)=n that we have 1, a, a^2, ... a^{n-1} and we exclude a^n
yeah, what's the trick for reducing a^n into a linear combination of 1, a, a^2, ..., a^{n-1}?
(a-1)(1+...+a^{n-1}) = -a^n - 1
nope that isn't the trick
that's just because x^p -1 is not irreducible, it factors into (x-1)(1+x+...+x^{p-1})
we are starting knowing that f is irreducible, so that won't work
ah ok good I'll show you
like for instance x^2+x+1 we know is irreducible and has the roots w and w^2 right
we have that 1, w, w^2 doesn't give us a basis because we can always reduce with the polynomial like so:
w^2+w+1=0
w^2 = -1-w
yeah
so w^2 is a linear combination of -1 and -w
and this will always work for a degree n polynomial if we have its root adjoined
maybe a more concrete example, let's say you have a degree 4 irreducible polynomial, might look something like $$x^4+Ax^3+Bx^2+Cx+D$$ with root $a$
Merosity
then $a^4+Aa^3+Ba^2+Ca+D=0$ so we can just rewrite $a^4 = -(Aa^3+Ba^2+Ca+D)$
oh wait, we just factor out x-a
Merosity
no never
oof
it is irreducible from the start
Ah 🤦♂️ true
the root plugged into the polynomial gives us a relation to the lower powers
I think you're still stuck looking at the wrong thing
yeah, makes sense
yeah sorry im just restarting looking at this stuff so this is very fuzzy for me 
you have nothing to apologize for
this is just how learning goes, trying to clarify what's in your mind like this, you're good lol
alright quick test
let's pretend x^7 + bX^3 + 1 is irreducible with root a
what is a^7 in the basis {1, a, a^2, ..., a^6}
well then $a^7 + ba^3 + 1 = 0$ and so $a^7 = -1-ba^3$
uoft
right
yup, you got it
but what if this is reducible
does that cause any issues?
i wouldn't think it does right
totally changes the problem
yeah
So we only consider irreducibles bcs every case just boils down to this
yeah I guess you could say that
might not look so clean as this
adjoining a root of an irreducible polynomial doesn't necessarily get you the splitting field of that polynomial
simple example, if we take x^3-2 and think of Q(cbrt(2)), we are missing out on complex roots
even though x^3-2 is irreducible over Q
but Q(cbrt(2)) is a field with basis {1, cbrt(2), cbrt(4)}
hmm
i see
like we'll have to adjoin all the roots then?
directly or indirectly
well i guess "directly or indirectly"
doesn't make sense
if we want x^3-2 to split completely into linear factors, yeah
you can factor x^3-2 over Q(cbrt(2)) and you'll get a new irreducible quadratic times a linear factor
and then adjoin a root of that to Q(cbrt(2))
maybe try finding what that quadratic is
well you just divide x^3 - 2 by x- cbrt(2) 
Actually the whole reason im thinking about this was i was under the impression that Q(i) could be written as Q(w) for w some n-th root of unity
that's a fun question, it won't be possible in general
hrm, i'm not sure how i'd go about it other than saying for the fourth root of unity $\mathbb{Q}(w) = {a_0 + a_1w + a_2w^2 \mid a_i \in \mathbb{Q}}$
uoft
there are a lot of "obvious" cases where you can definitely do it
let's say w is a 12th root of unity, can we make i?
there's a super explicit way to do it
how so?
with just one term
w^4 mebe



