#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 580 of 407
i have this crackpot thing
atleast physics has a story behind every fucking discovery
You just crushed my dreams
And there go my mathematician dreams too 
you should've given up a long time ago loser

You don't even have active role mirza
and mathematically
You don't get to talk back

cna u check out #advanced-analysis
Don't remember much tho 
lollol
Yeah can you repost those, discord isnt even properly loading that far up
@north widget u know func anal?
idk analysis 
olayel?
what
arabic
Let a and b be two elements of S_76 . If a and b both have order 146 and ab = ba, what
are the possible orders of the product ab?
the answer is 73 right?
ab = ba implies (ab)^n = a^nb^n
yes and that tells us that ord (ab) | 146
a and b have to be a product of a 2 cycle and a 73 cycle
yes indeed and as a and b commute these cycles have to be same for both a and b right?
if the cycles were the same wouldnt a=b?
yes. but t seems to be the only possibility. also the problem doesn't mention a cannot be same as b
so idk
a could also be b^-1
It could have any power of the order 73 cycle
(yea i was just saying that a need not be b)
Yo, if $G,H$ are groups, how do you show properly that $Z(G\times H)\cong Z(G) \times Z(H)$? Literally Z(G\times H)=Z(G) \times Z(H)$.. Can we simply use an identity application to show that they are isomorphic?
Dаniil
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Yes
Where Z(*) denotes a center of *
yep you can.
What's identity application?
identity map from Z(GxH) --> Z(G)xZ(H)
But should I verify something? Or simply using an identity application it's done?
Thank you!
I'm confused lol how would you use that? And isn't that already assuming one inclusion?
like i think they're asking to show Z(G) x Z(H) is isomorphic to Z(G x H)... can't we just show they're equal.
Yeah
You're assuming one inclusion, then using identity map and showing it is surjective?
It seems much easier than that
yea show both inclusions if (g, h) in Z(G x H) then it is also in Z(G) x Z(H) and vice versa
i assumed that that they proved the two things are equal and then asking identity works as an isomorphism. kinda like "am i missing something" question
Multiplication in the product is defined componentwise, so an element in the product commutes with everything else iff its components commute with everything in their respective groups
Ah
I see
how do you define submodule 😶
closure doesnt 'touch' the axioms
wau first time i see blo here
CTRL-F from:blo in:abstract-algebra
i hope you mean closed under multiplication by elements of the ring. But from this can you verify all the axioms for W to be an R-Mod?
Why to show that $Z(S_n)={e}$ it is sufficient to construct a transpotition which doesn't commute with $\sigma \in S_n$? I know that $S_n$ is generated by transpositions but still I don't really see why if it doesn't work with one of them then it certainly won't work with other transpositions
Dаniil
might be stupid question but still don't get it 😦
For any sigma, you have found an element of S_n that it doesn't commute with
So that sigma can't be in the centre
I think you're thinking from the other direction, ie that the transposition is not in the centre
Oh, okey
Yes thats what I was thinking about
thank you!
bim
is there a general formula to calculate Tchebychev polynomial of grade n?
(to the previous question) I think you can apply nakayama's lemma
There is one for Chebyshev's polynomials
.
Take X = (a), this is a finite generated module
I claim MX = X
Since X is principal, this just says MX contains a
but we know ma | a, so a is in (ma) = MX
i cant find
This is the definition right?
this is recurrence
to get the 10th, i need the 9th
This is the general formula.
but ye, thats how they are defined
where did u find it?
ive been looking for a while
i found eveything but that
Wikipedia.
...
The Chebyshev polynomials are two sequences of polynomials related to the sine and cosine functions, notated as
T
n
(
x
)
{\displaystyle T_{n}(x)}
and
U
n
...
can u tell me where exactly?
so this implies that if $ma\mid a$ only if $a=0$, i dont see it
bim
Do you know nakayama's lemma?
No
Ah okay, it's a more general statement that I was using to prove your question
I'll think about how to do it directly
Because its just a small detail of an exercise and my brain dont wanna do math today.
So if ma | a then a = max for some x in R. Then a(1-mx) = 0
Yeah?
What can you say about the element 1 - mx?
Where does it say we're in a domain?
Oh i didnt write it, but in my assignment we are in a domain
Hm okey let me think
well if we aren't in a domain couldnt just a(1-mx)=0 without mx=1 or a=0
Yup, that's true
But if your assignment says it you might as well assume it
And continue the proof you were thinking of
I'll tell you the idea I had after
Okey so mx=1 is impossible since then mR wouldnt be a proper ideal
so there exists no such x
Oh okay, what is it?
But you're still using that R is a domain here
That's what lets you cancel from both sides
Do i use that its a domain, like if a=ak then either a=0 or k=1
because k works as an identity
so in this case mx=1
No, it's possibly to have a = ab and a ≠ 0 and b ≠ 1. In Z/6Z we have 2*4 = 2
okey, so what am i missing?
So in any local ring, if y is in the maximal ideal then 1 - xy is a unit for all x
In our case we had a(1-xm) = 0, and this tells us that 1-xm is a unit, so we can divide by it and get a = 0
It's a good exercise, try to prove it!
Hm maybe later, if you feel bored would you like to help me with my exercise ?
Sure
Okey so $R$ is a noetherian local domain, $\mathfrak{m}$ maximal ideal. Im suppose to show that $\mathfrak{m}$ is principal if and only if $R$ is a discrete valuation ring.
bim
What's your definition of a dvr (discrete valuation ring)?
That $R={0}\cup v^{-1}(\mathbb{Z}_{\geq 0})$
bim
I'm not sure that makes sense, the valuation on R won't a priori be valued in Z
Ah okay, ignore my comment
bim
Is (ra^i, sa^j) denoting a fraction here?
yeah, so K* is the field of fraction of R
Yup
or K is
and K* = K \ {0}
and i have checked, and v defined as above should behave as i want it
You're requiring that r, s be units (ie not divisible by a) right?
bim
yeah
so basically every a that is in an element x in R i put in a^j, so x=ra^j s.t. a does not divide r
Alright, so x + y = (a^(i+l)rq + a^(j+k)ps)/(a^(j+l)sq)
this is how far i get on the v(x+y)
I think you might want to recheck the definition of a valuation, v(xy) = v(x) + v(y), not v(x)v(y)
no
huh
ah
yeah since a+1 is not an element in the ideal i can write
v(a+1) = v(ra^0/a^0) where r=a+1
I have been stressing so much over this, i wish i could give you a cookie
🍪
can someone read this
and tell me, on (4), what is f(xi, yj) please?
i am missing something
this does not seem like abstract algebra
I don't know about yesterday
what I do know is that specific research paper does not seem to have literally anything to do with abstract algebra
then tell me where
that doesnt help so please, dont flood this chat just in case someone can help me, thanks 😄
How would I go about proving that i isnt in a certain field?
I'm genuinely not sure.
the field in question is Q((5)^1/3,a), where a is the primitive third root of unity
I guess gross way is write i = linear combination of basis elements, then square it, to get -1, then show that the equations you get in Q for the coefficients on that basis are not all solvable
yeah that's how I'm gonna try it, but I was making sure there wasn't a simpler way
there probably is using like field norm or trace
also alternatively since 2a+1 = i*sqrt(3) if you show there's no sqrt(3) in your field that would also prove there's no i
oh, what's the degree of the field extension?
well it's the splitting field of x^3-5, so I think 3
right, and what's the degree of an extension containing i?
oh it'll always be even?
yeah
haha that's brilliant
I would have spent so freaking long on this problem lmao
thanks
haha you're welcome
oh wait it has degree 6
yeah you're right damn lol
that woulda been such a cool solution haha
I think we can use a similar approach though
like show [Q(i, a):Q]=4 and 4 doesn't divide 6
Is that true though? intuitively it seems strange
it at least brings down the number of basis elements to work with
I'm reasoning off the multiplicativity of the degree
I mean if i were in Q(5^(1/3), a), then Q \subseteq Q(i, a) \subseteq Q(5^(1/3), a), so mero's approach does work I think
and you can then prove that [Q(i, a):Q]=4, since it can only either be 2 or 4
if it were 2, it would imply i in Q(a)
which you can disprove
but wouldn't proving it isn't in Q(a) be similarly difficult itself?
easier than proving it isn't in Q(5^(1/3), a)
well it's a smaller basis to work with than Q(cbrt(5),a)
we would need to have i = q + b a, since that's a basis, for some q, b \in Q
and I suppose you can find a contradiction from there
maybe by multiplying by the complex conjugate on both sides?
6=[Q(cbrt(5), a):Q] = [Q(cbrt(5), a, i):Q] = [Q(cbrt(5), a, i):Q(a, i)][Q(a, i):Q] = [Q(cbrt(5), a, i):Q(a, i)]*4
writing it out in full so it's maybe a bit clearer
Ah ok I see what you mean
ya, multiplying by the conjugate on both sides gives -1 = q^2 + b^2
which is like not possible
over rationals
you multiplied by the conjugate of q+ba?
since i = q + b a, conj(i) = conj(q + b a)
and ya, you can multiply both sides
oh wait, it's 1 = q^2 + b^2
oof lol
which also I think has limited solutions over the rationals however
wait I just realized this problem isn't prove, it's "prove or disprove"
yeah same
oh you can look at a = 1/2 + sqrt(3)/2 i and the conjugate to get a system of equations for i in terms of a
and see that it has irrational coefficients
or I wrote it earlier
ya, it works for either a = 1/2 + sqrt(3)/2 or a is the other root
1/sqrt(3) + 2/sqrt(3) a = i
we could just solve directly without the system
since they share the basis vector 1 in common lol
wdym?
well it's not enough what I said since it pushes the burden to showing sqrt(3) is irrational
I stepped out for a bit, I think I might just be saying what F[x] was saying
oh I mean that's pretty commonly known tho tbf haha
I'm saying we can represent i in the basis {1, a} as 1/sqrt(3) + 2/sqrt(3) a = i, but since representations are unique, it means we can't represent i with rational coefficients in this basis
we could also go through and square it and show the solutions aren't rational to the system of equations there too but
wait what theorem are you using that "representations are unique?" what about, for instance, 0?
yeah 0 has a unique representation
and the proof of other things having a unique representation can be pulled through with this fact
1-1,2-2, etc. I think I'm misunderstanding something lol
huh. I'll be damned
is the unique representation
Q(a, i) is a vector space over Q, and in a vector space, every element has a unique representation as a linear combination of any basis
I guess that makes sense the more I think of it
so if you had say, two representations that weren't the same like x+ya = x' + y'a you could subtract one to the other side to get (x-x') + (y-y')a = 0
and so the coefficients must be x-x'=0 and y-y'=0
so they are actually identical
ah I see
since the basis of 2 elements doesn't work, that means the vector space must have more than 2 elements, so Q(a, i) must be of degree more than 2
which forces it to be 4
by degree considerations
and then you can use mero's original argument
from there on
Nice! Thanks so much for the help!
you're welcome
i wonder, given a nonconstant poly in Z is there always a p such that the poly is same degree in Zp and splits into linear factors in it?
yes, this is true
also you can assume the poly is monic and then drop the "same degree" assumption if you want
if you prove only for monic is there simple way to then generalize to nonmonic?
you can prove that not only is there one p, there are infinitely many p
so as long as p doesn't divide the leading coefficient you should still be fine
the monic version and the nonmonic version mod p will have the same splitting behavior
the only proof i know of this uses some algebraic number theory
actually now that i think about it the proof only works for irreducible polynomials
err, my proof
it involves looking at Q(a) for a root a of f
squirtlespoof
what did you try?
squirtlespoof
how do you know that f would be a degree 1 polynomial?
(Also the assertion t = t^p for every t in F is false, especially false when t is the indeterminate in F[t])
squirtlespoof
if each a_i is a multiple of p, then its same as saying each a_i = 0
which may not be true
consider 1+t^p
what's the derivative?
this is a non-zero polynomial with derivative 0
may not be p^n
could be any multiple of p
yep
maybe try to write it nicely now

(subrings without 1 are so sad)
What do you get if you multiply 0 by any quaternion?
Yeah
So it's never 1
So it has no inverse
(this is true in any ring where 1 ≠0, so all nonzero rings)
If i have a discrete valuation ring, does it always exist an element r in my ring R such that v(r)=1 ?
you can always normalize a valuation to make that happen
What does it mean to normalize? I am unable to find a definition on google
pick the minimum positive valuation and divide by it
essentially, given any valuation v, I can define a new valuation v' = 2v and this wont have that property
But i dont have division in the range
Just a guess is that every positive valuation will be divisible by this minimal positive valuation
yes
How are you defining discrete valuation ring?
bim
That isnt given in my notes
So, there's an element in the valuation field such that v(z)=1
ic
again, as you can renormalize
assume you have some element of minimum positive valuation q
then for any other valuation n
write n = bq + r
r < q
prove r is 0
bim
dont spoil D:
im thinking
well dosnt that follow directly since if such a r exist, then q wouldnt be the minimal positive valuation
you need to show that r is the valuation of something
well
bim
n = v(n) isnt right unless the second n has nothing to do with the first
but yeah you almost have it
it should be mult
not addition
well thats the abuse of notation no?
oh ok
ah yes
I would not recommend abusing notation this way
well i only did it now because i dont have my snippets here, so writing latex is pain
to much to keep track of
i was thinking of doing like $\tilde{n}$ but nah
bim
bim
tilde n is also a weird choice
yeah, but i like tilde so i put it on everything
alright, so now you can divide out by that minimum positive valuation to get a new surjective valuation
that's what I meant by normalize
thanks so much, asking question here is actually really useful. Usually when I study with people it feels like im cheating and they work ahead, but now I get just the right amount to figure it out myself, I love it
If we have $H\le S_4$ such that $H\not\subset A_4$ and we consider $(12)A_4$, does it follow that if I take $g\in H\cap (12)A_4$ and $x \in H\cap A_4$, then $gx \in H\cap (12)A_4$? Clearly $gx$ is of sign $-1$ and it is in $(12)A_4$, but I'm not sure that it is in $H\cap (12)A_4$. And if I take $x\in H\cap (12)A_4$ and $\tau=(12)$, then $\tau x \in H\cap A_4$?
Dаniil
if both g and x are in H then so is gx. and you already said that is odd.
Nice, thank you!
Alright, thank you!
could you think of one polynomial which alpha has to satisfy?
squirtlespoof
yep!
now say f was the minimal polynomial.
f will have to divide that polynomial!
could you tell me all the divisors of the polynomial?
(I'm assuming that char = p)
yea you're right... so the divisors are (t - \alpha)^m for m = 0, ..., p
f must be one of these!
it cannot be the one with m > 1, cause those are inseparable.
so the minimal polynomial is t - \alpha
which means \alpha lives in the ground field
just knowing 0 <m < p actually works. because then (t - \alpha)^m = t^m - m\alpha t^m-1 ....
if this polynomial is over the base field, then m*\alpha in F(\alpha^p), and so must then be \alpha, as m is non-zero.
you can't define separability of alpha, if the extension isn't algebraic
we say the element alpha is separable if its minimal polynomial has no repeated roots in its splittting field.
what if there is no minimal polynomial to begin with?
am i misreading the statement or if we just take F=Q, K=Q(sqrt(2)), α=sqrt(2), p=2, isn't it false?
oh
ahhhh
(i assumed that char F = p)
else we won't be able to do this
(btw just to confirm, do you know that char F = p, or just that F is a finite field?)
(there are more than one primes 😶 )
what is an exact definition of order of left cosets? For example if I take $G=Q_8$ and $H=\langle -e \rangle$, then $G/H={{i,-i},{-k,k},{-j,j}{-e,e}}$, what is the order of each coset in $G/H$? Is it simply the number of elements of a coset?
Dаniil
This is a confusing terminology in this case... when you say order of gH in G/H, it should mean the order of the element gH in the group G/H. that is the smallest positive n such that (gH)^n = g^nH = H which is same as saying smallest positive n such that g^n in H.
Hm, sorry, not sure to understand... The goal then is to show if G/H isomorph to Z/2Z x Z/2Z or to Z/4Z
What I was thinking is simply to look at the size of each coset in G/H and as Z/2Z x Z/2Z is 2 -torsion then G/H isomorph to Z/2Z x Z/2Z
how does knowing size of the coset tell you anything about G/H
it tells nothing I guess that's why i asked that question x)
But I think I see what you told me before I'll try to check it, thank you
H is the image of phi.
so any element of H looks like some sigma in Gal(KF'/F') restriced to K
right
which has to fix F'
its daijobu

damage the purity of 


I need some help to understand what my teacher means by his text
"Show that the sets $r+I^n$ for all $r\in R$ and $n\in \mathbb{Z}_+$ form a base of a topology of R"
bim
seems wrong as this doesnt contain any sets of diameter smaller than 1
wait whats I^n
oh, I is an ideal
R is some arbitrary ring?
yeah
or the exercise above has R=K[T] and I=(T) but i dont know if it is the same R and I or if it is general now
Ah so r+I^n probably generate a topology by unions
like T = {unions of sets of the form r+I^n}
is a topology
I dont understand if the sets are $B_n = { r + I^n \mid r\in R}$ or $B_{r,n}={r + I^n}$
bim
so a set for each r and each n
yeah
okey thanks!
Show that $\langle H \cup F\rangle=U(3,k)$ ($U(3,k) \le GL(3,k)$ a group of unipotent matrices, $k$ a field). To prove the statement I could proceed by double inclusion. I just have a question for the $\langle H \cup F\rangle\supseteq U(3,k)$ direction: to show that $h\in U(3,k)$ is in $\langle H \cup F\rangle$ as well, could I discuss about $h$ scalars and then show that there exists $k_1,k_2$ such that $h=f^{k_1}\cdot g^{k_2}$ for $f \in H, g \in F$?
oups
Dаniil
sorry for a long message I just wanted to pass my idea as clear as possible
By scalar discussion I mean if we have $h=\begin{pmatrix}1&k&w\0&1&m\0&0&1\end{pmatrix}$, I would like to show that I could express each case ($k=0 \ m \neq 0 \ w\neq 0$ and so on) in function of $f^{k_1}\cdot g^{k_2}$
Dаniil
How do I begin proving that D3xZ/4Z is nonisomorphic to D4xZ/3Z?
you can look at orders of elements
how many elements of order 2 does each group have?
@oblique river so I think in D3xZ/4Z there are 3 elements of order 2 and in D4xZ/3Z there are none?
neither of those is correct
omg
but that's the right idea, yes
wait i think i forgot the ones were its (_,0) so like is it 6 elements of order 2 for the first one and 4 for the latter?
closer but still not correct
then i have to take into account the (0,_) i suppose
yep
ok then i'm done right
that will get your answer for the first group correct, but you're still miscounting something in the second group
em in Z/3Z there's nothing of order 2 correct?
correct
so all elements of order 2 are of form (r^ks, 0)
like (r^2,0)
yep
so I think you should find that teh first group has 7 elements of order 2 and the second group has 5
yeah i think so! that solves the problem
yep :)
So I have a question, I think Im close but not sure how to finish this off. Suppose $\alpha, \beta,\gamma \in \mathbb{C}$ satisfy $\alpha + \beta + \gamma = 3$, $\alpha^2 + \beta^2 + \gamma^2 = 5$, and $\alpha^3 + \beta^3 + \gamma^3 = 12$. We want to show that $\alpha^n + \beta^n + \gamma^n \in \mathbb{Z}$ for all $n \geq 4$. Using Vieta's formula and some algebraic manipulation I was able to show that $\alpha$, $\beta$, and $\gamma$ are roots of the polynomial $f(x) = x^3 - 3x^2 + 2x + 1$ and the expression we are interested in is a symmetric polynomial. Then there is a theorem in my book (Cox's Galois Theory) that if you evaluate any symmetric polynomial at the roots of a polynomial $f \in F[x]$, then $p(r_1,r_2,...,r_n) \in F$. The issue is $\mathbb{Z}$ is not a field, so I don't think this applies. I think this only tells us that $\alpha^n + \beta^n + \gamma^n \in \mathbb{Q}$. So I guess is there anyway I can "upgrade" this result to apply to $\mathbb{Z}$, or am I just completely off?
fubini
monic integer coefficient polynomials in Q only have integer roots @fresh vessel
rational root theorem in action
Let $K \subseteq L$ and $K \subseteq L'$ be two field extensions and $a \in L, b \in L'$ two algebraic elements over $K$ I'm trying to prove that if the minimal polynomials of $a$ and $b$ are equal that there exists an isomorphism $\phi: K(a) \longrightarrow K(b)$ such that $K(a) = b$ and $\forall x \in K K(x) = x$.
now i think this looks suspicously familiar to the universal property of the polynomial ring and i also already know that $K(a) \cong K[x]\(p) \cong K(b)$ where p is the minimal polynomial so my gut tells me that this is all i really need to construct the isomorphism but i am struggling on the explicit construciton
chrisply
every element of those fields can be written as a linear combination of a few powers of a root f the polynomial
whats the most obvious map to try?
identity i guess ?
its similar to an identity
yea i mean its just K(a) =b and K(x) = x if x is in K, right ? but i struggle to prove that its bijective
or rather still a homomorphism and bijective
Doesnt that only tell us that alpha, beta, and gamma have to be irrational?
irrational?
Well if the polynomial had an integer root, it would have to be 1 or -1. But neither is
Do you know that {1, r, ... , r^n} forms a basis for the vector space K(r) over K when minimal polynomial of r over K has degree n+1?
Ahh my mistake, that polynomial should be f(x) = x^3 - 3x^2 + 2x - 1. The issue still stands though
Doesnt the rational root theorem rule that out?
i was looking at one you wrote before nvm
yea i know of that, so would it be correct to just first map from K(a) to K[x]/(p) via $r \mapsto r + (p)$, then just map from K[x]/(p) to K(b) with $x^k + (p) \mapsto b^k$ and compose the two maps ?
chrisply
you can do it directly from ka to kb
ye true
so the assumption that the minimal polynomials are identical just plays a role to have the dimensions of the vector spaces K(a) and K(b) be the same, right ?
yea sry my answer was stupid i didnt read your question correctly
All good
guys i am not understanding something
When calculating the
Legendre moments of a MxN array (image in this case)
many sites say it is this way
https://gyazo.com/04423e0600a12dd9513df531eb162b30
So
for the pixel[0][0], the legendre moment is L_00?
i mean, does each pixel have its own Legendre moment?
Can someone help me find the splitting field of sqrt(8+sqrt(15))?'s min polynomial?
I ended up with x^4-16x^2+49 for the min poly
but idk how to find the splitting field
I know it's roots will be +-sqrt(8+sqrt(15)) and +-sqrt(8-sqrt(15))
but how do I prove that Q(sqrt(8+sqrt(15)),sqrt(8-sqrt(15)) is the splitting field
Well it definitely is the splitting field because every root is contained in that field. I guess the question is whether Q(sqrt(8+sqrt(15))) = Q(sqrt(8+sqrt(15)),sqrt(8-sqrt(15)))
That should be enough actually. Thank you!
you can simplify the proof of irreducibility because if it factors, it factors into a linear and quadratic, so you can check it's nonzero for 0, 1, 2 mod 3
second one looks fine but there's an easier way to do it
$\alpha^3+\alpha^2+2=0$ factor the left two terms as $(\alpha+1)\alpha^2 =-2$ now you can divide to get $\frac{-\alpha^2}{2} = (1+\alpha)^{-1}$
Merosity
but it's good you know the euclidean algo, yup
you're welcome
yeah pretty much, I didn't look at your proofs too closely, just skimmed them but they look right
yeah you're welcome
Is there some quick argument why $Q(\omega_3 \cdot \sqrt[3]{3}) \neq Q(\omega_3^2 \cdot \sqrt[3]{3})$?
Ledog
Was thinking about setting up some equations of basis elements but maybe there's something quicker?
hmm if it were, then it'd contain both elements so you'd have their ratio w^2 cbrt(3)/ w cbrt(3) = w but since this generates a degree 2 extension of Q but 2 doesn't divide 3, we have a contradiction
oh yeah that makes sense, thanks.
can someone explain how i could prove that <15,x-7> is an ideal in Z[x]? My professor just assumed it and i was wondering whether it's that trivial
Our definition for ideal was: for all r in R and for all i in I, I is a left ideal of R iff ri is in I
analogous for right ideal, and then the ideal is defined as it is both a left and a right ideal
Yes, but what you wrote is by definition “the smallest ideal containing 15 and x-7”
So it is an ideal
so are you saying that you can multiply any polynomial (a+bx+cx^2+....) with something generated by 15 and x-7 and you'd still be inside <15,x-7>
because that was the nonobvious part to me
Yes that is the definition of <15,x-7>
isn't the definition of <15,x-7> that any element in it can be written in the form 15a+b(x-7)^c
You dont need the c
And yes that is correct
Where a and b are polynomials
a and b are allowed to be any polynomial. You dont need the c.
oooh ok i confused myself and though a and b were constants
tysm
i have an exam in two days and was so overwhelmed in the last part of the course
you are a lifesaver
you don't have anything to do?
are you a prof too
Yes
i feel like all my professor does is answering questions 24/7 and i don't wanna bother him more lol
i wonder when you all have time for research
no prof can know I ask questions here lol, i feel like they would be offended as they always encourage us to ask endless questions
Yeah i also pray that none of my students figure out that im here
Because then i would have to clean up my act
And be “professional” 
you seem pretty professional on here though
no one cares about the occasional smiley
haha
i mean my prof sends us drag memes
it's not sex jokes but still no one ever complained about it lol
I really doubt any student is going to mind their prof acting non clean in a casual conversation lol
Oh i should send my students drag memes more often
I do say things like “what’s the tea”
I think i described the fundamental theoremmof calculus as “this is the real tea” a couple years ago lmao
Why are splitting fields normal extensions? Just hint if possible, im dumb
What definition of normal extension are you using?
anyone willing to help me out with my question in question channel 9?
it's galois theory
you can post advanced questions in the advanced channels, you'd get quicker answers
ah ok I didn't know
i replied in that channel, it should follow rather simply by plugging in x=y^-1
thank you. I assumed it was more complicated.
If the splitting field is E/F with the roots of the polynomial you split being a1,...,an, you look at automorphisms of cl(E)/F (alg closure). Any automorphism of cl(E)/F must permute the a_i's and since those generate E/F, the image of any automorphism must lie within E. Now suppose you have some x in E, which has a conjugate y in cl(E). Then there is an automorphism of cl(E)/F that sends x to y, so y must also be in E
assuming the definition is that conjugates of elements in E should lie in E
idk what conjugates are
my definition of nornal extension is one such that every polynomial that was irreducible, if it now has a root then it splits linearly
ye
so a splitting field
y is a conjugate of x if x and y are the roots of the same minimal polynomial
so normality is equivalent to "the conjugates of any x over the base field are also there"
if all irreducibles with a root split, then for x in the extension, any conjugate of x must also be there because min(x) splits
no. this definition of normal is quantifying over all base field irreducible polynomials
if all conjugates of x are there, then min(x) splits
why does min(x) split for other x in the extension?
because all conjugates of every element are there
why are they there?
thats the assumption
the statement im proving is equivalent is that "for an algebraic extension E/F, if x is in E, and y in cl(E) is a conjugate of x over F, then y is in E"
so its saying conjugates of all x are there
@chilly ocean yo did you come out?
how is that an assumption?
im confused and stupid ugh
Im proving that "E/F is normal" is equivalent to that statement
so there I have assumed the latter and proved the former
Ideas to find all non-abelian groups of order 20?
Sure, I'll try
Then more generally if I have a problem for any group, I'll use Sylow's Theorems and Semi direct products?
Maybe it’s just easy to show something like no simple groups of order p^2q or something
That’s certainly where I’d start
You might have to get more creative, but often those let you begin cracking the problem
In particular, I think Sylow instantly implies you have a normal Sylow-5 group
For 20
And that lets you begin doing a lot of semi direct product stuff
Like, actually I think the two completely kill the problem
You have a normal Sylow-5, and a Sylow-2 of size 4
The product of the two must have size 20
Because they intersect trivially
This tells you G is the semidirect product of a size 5 and size 4 group
Only one group of size 5
Only two of size 4
Then you just go from there
these questions are clumsy for me. proposition 2.3.2 is properties of field. lets say if I want to proof addition and multiplication are associative on F[x], shouldn't I just proof normal associativity operation ?
Yes, because you want to show the operations are associative and commutative on F[x]
😄
And then you have F as a subring of F[x]
And you just want to verify that it acts like it did in the normal field
So, to be clear
this is extremely cringe to do
It means multiplying constant polynomials is just like multiplying them as if they were in the field
imagine proving associativity of functions 👀
It’s not under composition omegalol
but ya, polynomial multiplication being associative amounts to (discrete) convolutions being associative, and it's just cringe symbol bashing
It’s under multiplication
leave server -> rejoin server
Cuz their eevee pfp is eevee butt
chmonkey, if I ever do anything related to comm alg
I wanna let you know
it's entirely your fault
Omegalol

Oh oh, I have an abstract algebra question - well, a sanity check
it's been a lil while so I just wanna double check, given a character table of a group - idk, lemma find a fun one
Character table
It’s like sudoku

Sadly I forget the orthogonality relations sadge
I remember the orthogonality relations, they're actually really neat xD
My last hw in my algebra class in the winter last year was to compute a character table
Given partial info
It was fun, I just sat down on the floor and it felt like a sudoku problem
It was easy
Took like an hour

idk, here's a random group I picked
SL(2, F5) given I've been working with PSL(2, R) lately
just wanna double check, to find the normal subgroups, I just union the conjugate classes C_i
where ρ_i(x) = ρ_i(1) for x in C_i right?
So here:
ρ_1 gives SL(2, F5) normal
ρ_4 gives C_1 ∪ C_2 is normal (which is just the cyclic group of order 2)
any obviously the trivial group is normal
when Z_p isn't a field, how come K is a subfield of Z_p?
Z_p doesn't have multiplicative inverse
is Z_p integers modulo p with p prime ?
yes
it is always a field, then
but anyway, you can speak about subfields of a ring
For example, $\bQ$ is a subfield of the ring $\bQ[X]$
Shika-Blyat
but $\bQ[X]$ isn't a field
Shika-Blyat


can I ask why ?
Do you know some condition on $n$ and $k$ so that there exists some $q$ such that $kq = 1 \pmod n$ ?

@chilly ocean
Shika-Blyat
we can have an element in a set with mod n that is invertable but not all of them
If p is prime
Everything but 0
Is invertible
Which is exactly what you need for a field
In general it depends in coprimeness

let's say p=3, which number is invertible in that set ?
Alright I've made no progress on the problem I asked earlier, is anyone here good with galois theory?
only 1 is invertible. 2 isn't
by euler's theorem, $a^{\varphi(n)} \equiv 1 \mod{n}$ for every $a$ coprime to $n$
F[x]-module
for n = p a prime, every a from 1 to p-1 works
as a number coprime to p
so you can easily see using euler's theorem why every nonzero element is invertible
the inverse of any nonzero $a$ is just $a^{\varphi(p) - 1}$ (and since $\varphi(p) = p - 1$ for $p$ prime, the inverse is just $a^{p-2}$)
F[x]-module
I didn't consider 2*2=1 under modulo 3. thanks for your answer
Another way:
Saying that for some $p$ (just an integer, not necessarily a prime) there exists some $q$ such that for $pq = 1 \pmod n$ is equivalent to say that there exists some $k$ such that $pq = kn + 1$, or $pq - kn = 1$.\
By Bezout's theorem, this is only possible iff $gcd(p, n) = 1$.\

Shika-Blyat
ya, that also works well
for a more understandable reason
euler's theorem does give a nice constructive way to find the inverse however
which is why I like that approach
I mean, bezout is also constructive ?
I mean true
it's just euclid's algorithm ?
cool, thanks
hmm yeah, fair enough
This approach works in any finite group, btw
(I mean yours, not mine)
Could someone help me with this: we have that for every root y of f(x), y^-1 is also a root, and that the polynomial is 4th degree. We have to show that the size of the galois group divides 8
Im pretty lost
I know it must divide 24, but I'm not sure how to get that it must divide 8
(we have the specific polynomial too, I just wasn't sure if it's relevant since we used it to get the thing about y^-1)
why not give the specific polynomial too
wanted to simplify as much as possible haha
Try showing that there are no elements of order 3 in the Galois group
what happens if you have a 3 cycle of roots?
I've been trying that but haven't been able to find a contradiction
Notice that the last root will have to remain fixed under this isomorphism
what do you mean by the last root?
the root that is not being cycled by the 3 cycle
Ah ok so really think of this in terms of S4?
yeah you would pretty much always think of the gal group as acting on the roots
but then what's the issue with the final root being fixed?
what happens to the inverse of that root?
so say the roots are r,s,r^-1,s^-1
r->s,s->r^-1, and r^-1-> r
wouldn't this be valid?
ah ok I changed it
in that, s^{-1} is fixed
I guess what I'm missing is why that turns into a contradiction
but you have the equation ss^{-1} = 1
ah I see! So basically I do this for all the possibilities?
you can do it in one go
if r goes to x, r^-1 has to go to x^-1, so its clear that you cant have 3 cycles
alternatively what i did was show that if s is fixed by an automorphism then so is s^-1
Ah ok. Thanks so much!
if a group A has some element of order 2, why does that automatically mean that Aut(A) is of even order?
because Aut(A) also has an element of order 2, then @oblique leaf 
Z_2 has an element of order 2 but |Aut(Z_2)| = 1 isn't even?
I understand Aut(A) also has an element of order 2 but I still don't see it ...
literally the most trivial example of a group with an element of order 2 fails
no like we don't consider the trivial group and Z/2Z
it states it in the problem that those are the exceptions
yeah that doesn't work only with these cases
like if the group has atleast three elements 
my proof works

so using lagrange works right? i think it does
yes 
(and it doesn't work with Z/2Z because there's no reason for the said element of "order 2" (the interior automorphism induced by the element of order 2) to not be the identity, but if there's atleast one element different from the identity and the element of order 2, it can't be the case
)

np (and thanks F[x] for correcting my mistake
)
and thanks @chilly ocean for clapping your hands ! 👏
Shamrock is a psyop
Actually, what is the order 2 automorphism? (Order 2, or just even order?)
I said it lol
take a an element of order 2, consider axa^{-1} 
a the 
Ah, right
a an 
its order divides 2, and if the group isn't trivial or Z/2Z, the order can't be one 
wait
actually is it true that the order can't be one 
that sounded so obvious in my head
But now I'm doubting
yeah right

so huh
@oblique leaf actually what I said doesn't work, there's still some work ig 
Wow, you should have said this from the start
sorry

In abelian groups, all inner automorphisms are identity
yeah, so what I said doesn't work at all in that case, oopsie doopsie 
so, i have another question: why is the division ring (\mathbb{R}\0) a ring at all? (Sorry this is prob super dumb but it's 4 am and my exam is in two days and i just started now bc family crisis)
and i'm screwed
yea like the reals minus 0
Yeah
it's called the division ring? yea exactly i was confused about that
how is it a ring without 0
Are you sure you don't mean R
R is a division ring
oh so with the zero in it is a division ring
Mhmm, it's a field
ok everyone who helped me today, tysm!!

For the abelian group problem, first try to prove that that is the case for Z/2^nZ for any n
Then use the structure theorem for finite abelian groups
Perhaps 
yea i got so far i think, like all finite abelian groups where all elements except 0 are of order 2 are all of the form 2Zx2Zx...
and then for all other groups you can also find elements of order 2 in aut(G)
i think you guyses proof should work!!
hmm 
no
I didn't understand what you did there
Z/2Z x Z/2Z isn't isomorphic to Z/2²Z = Z/4Z
no like that's not what i mean
That has an order 4 element
Oh sorry, I misread what he said
*she
But I don't get how you used that claim
she*, sorry
i'm sorry i just like bro K @final pasture lol
(Thought she was speaking about all abelian group of even order, that's why I said that, don't mind me
)
@hidden haven i think that if you have a group where not every element is of order 2 then you can still find an automorphism a-->-a of order 2 always
and then when every element is order 2 you can also construct such an automorphism of order 2
That is what you want to prove 
Well that is possible, since the exercise claim it is 🤷♂️
-(-a) = a
^^
I feel dumb 
I'm confused what everyone is confused about
i feel somewhat confident the proof works?
why is it wrong
Where does an element of order 2 come in? 
oooh sorry i should have written f(a)=-a instead of a-->-a lolol
Lol this is just true for all abelian groups then?
all finite abelian groups
Other than the 2 exceptions
I mean
in the infinite case
it's not clear Aut(A) is finite
so speaking about even order doesn't quite make sense
oh right
no but if it's infinite you can't assure that 2Zx2Zx ... are the only groups where all nonzero elements are order 2 right
so the argument falls apart?
no but I mean you don't need all that machinery
Not if every element is its own inverse
wooow i'm so confused first of all why isn't Aut(A) finite? A is finite after all
So you handle that (Z/2Z)^n case separately
By an exchange of coordinates automorphism

For infinite A
@final pasture true but the argument requires that 2Zx2Zx... are the only groups with all order 2 els cuz finitely generated abelian groups right
forget what I said
Seems like I'm too tired to think tonight, I'll let moldilocks help you


i think we can safely conclude that what you came up with initially was correct given finite and Abelian @final pasture
and goodnight!
you meant the axa^{-1} thingy ?
lmao what??
that's the order 2 automorphism I was initially thinking about
Tragic

'cause if the group is abelian, it literally always is the identity 
so well, that's not quite of order 2
close enough, I guess 
"Aut(A)'s order is close enough to an even order"
I mean, I just concluded while working on some proof that $\varepsilon < 0 < \varepsilon$
Shika-Blyat
I think I'm a funnier joke than your brain 
lmao
you know sometimes you just need one day in a year where the brain isn't a joke
in two days for me
but i'm pretty sure that most days you don't have this issue lol
Anyway so if I sum up:
- If every element of G is its own inverse, handle the case separately (by using that G ~= (Z/2Z)^n for some n, and using an exchange of coordinates automorphism as moldilocks said)
- Else, take f: x |-> -x. It's not the identity (because there exists a such that a != -a), and its order is 2.
In both case, that gives you an order 2 automorphism, and lagrange's theorem allow you to conclude that Aut(G)'s order is even
I think I didn't say anything wrong here ? 
Is good 
right so exhange of coordinates like the first and the 2nd one right? cause if you take n\geq 2
Yeah
and yea i think all that looks great
yes, that's why you want n >= 2, 'cause else you can't quite exchange coordinates 
Anyway now I should definitely go to sleep, good night alyosha and moldilocks 
goodnight! and thanks @hidden haven @final pasture
Good night
Is every subgroup of the permutation group S_4 normal?
No, order 2 elements aren't in the center, so their conjugates are not themselves
@hidden haven I just realized Im not sure it actually divides 24. RIP lol
I need the poly to be irreducible
doesnt that proof work regardless of whether polynomial is irreducible or not?



