#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 555 of 407
is <(123),(456)> cyclic?
no
how do i show it
Show that all the elements generated by those permutations have order 3
how does that help
If all the elements have order 3, and you have more than 3 elements in your group, then your group can't be cyclic
Why does g have order 6?
No. For example, in Z/4Z, 2 is not a generator, but 1 and 3 are generators
what does / mean
quotient, those are the integers mod 4
we havent done that yet
maybe an easier example is in Z, where 1 and -1 are generators but 2 is not a generator
so what does it mean for an element to be a generator?
H=<g> if H is cyclic
so if H is not cyclic and H=<g,h> then what are g and h of H?
I feel like you might want to review your notes for these definitions
if H = <g,h>, neither of these necessarily have to be generators of H, although they could be
Sorry, you're right. I was talking about being generators of a cyclic group
A group is cyclic if and only if its generated by one element
ah that makes sense
Which is what I meant when I said that neither have to be cyclic generators of H, although they could be
if H=<g,h> and H is cyclic, then isnt it true that atleast one of g and h is the cyclic generator?
so like <i, -1>
i^2=-1 so i is a generator and <i, -1> is cyclic
no
Consider that like Z = <2,3>, but neither 2 nor 3 are generators of Z
oh true
so here in iii) they mean that the individual ones dont have to be generators, but they as a collection are considered generators
yes
that statement seemed vague
One way to do it is to observe that a cyclic group has a unique element of a given order, but here there are two elements of order 3.
Yeah
I was wrong
What is not wrong is that every cyclic group has a unique subgroup of every possible order.
In G = <(123), (456)> there are two (distinct) subgroups of order 3, so again it's not cyclic.
Is a flat A-algebra just an algebra over A that is also flat as an A-module?
yes
yes
how do i prove this?
i)
The second part is using Lagrange, the first isomorphism theorem
we havent done those yet
Then do it as a set theoretic quotient
Also I realized that HK won’t in general be a group so you can’t do it anyway
You can define a relation on H x K
Saying that two elements are related if they map to the same element via phi
Then you can form H x K /~ as equivalence classes
This is in bijection with HK
Then you can show that each equivalence class has |ker phi| elements
So that the size of H x K / ~ is |H||K| / |ker phi|
And you know what ker phi is by the first part
the order of an element is the number of elements in its equivalence class right?
There's a simpler way to formulate this, I think: Constructing a bijection between |H cap K| and the preimage of an element.
Also I can’t think of a relation for which that would be true
it's for the very first part
If we have g = hk then (hr^-1, rk) also has image g, where r is in H cap K. This way of associating preimages with H cap K gives a bijection.
for every element a in H cap K, hk = (ka^-1)(ak)
oh i see
it's for each g in the statement that's putting me off
what do they mean by |phi^-1(g)|
the order of (h,k) right?
how is it a bijection?
i can see that we have atleast |H cap K| elements in the equivalence class of hk
but how do i know its exactly |K cap K|
No! It's the cardinality.
oh so |phi^-1(g)| just counts the preimages of g?
now the question makes sense lol
Half the battle ;)
so |phi^-1(g)| >= |H cap K|
can i somehow argue that |H cap K| <= |phi^-1(g)|?
then they'd be equal
As I said above, I think a simpler way is to construct a bijection between them. This has the advantage of still being true even when H cap K are infinite and we don't assume the axiom of choice
but i dont see why it's a bijection
If (hr^-1, rk) = (hs^-1, sk) then r = s. On the other hand, if h'k' = hk,
then h' = hr^-1 and k' = rk for some r in H cap K.
oh so if hk=h'k' then (h')^-1h=k'k^-1 \in H cap K
this is the r
the next part was easy
can someone explain the notation in the wilson's theorem proof?
in the last line when they split the products
essentially pair each element up with heir inverse
say in mod 7:
1 <-> 1
-1 <-> -1
2 <-> 4
3 <-> 5
the product of each pair is 1
but {1} and {-1} are singletons
so you end up with -1
it honestly feels like a "hack"
it's IMO the first major example a student typically sees of field theory actually simplifying something
ah makes sense
If dim A = 1, is Spec A just the set of prime ideals under the cofinite topology?
Hmmm..
V((n)) is the set of prime divisors of n, right?
Which is always finite
So it seems to me like closed = finite in this case
Well, with the exception V((0)) = Spec Z.
I guess I missed the fact that (0) is distinguished, unlike in a generic space with the cofinite topology
precisely
dim 1 has such minimal ideals
Yeah..
how do i prove the second part?
im trying to show that K is closed
so if x is in H and y is in gH then y=gh for some h in H
then xy=xgh
how do i show that this is in K
oh it's the same G from before
nvm
how do i prove the next 2 bits?
i can imagine why this is true but idk how to word it
how do i prove ii)?
Let's say ($g_1,g_2$) is in K,let $n=\vert G_1 \vert, m= \vert G_2\vert.$
na+mb=1 for some integers a,b
Then $(g_1,g_2)^{(mb)}=({g_1}^{(mb)},e)=({g_1}^{(1-na)},e)=(g_1,e)$ is in K
DrunkenDrake
If you prove 3, then 4 follows easily by induction. To prove it you may use the fact that H and gH are disjoint..
prove that there is a counterexample?
or does it never hold if |G_1| and |G_2| are not coprime
Consider Z_2xZ_4 and let K be the subgroup generated by (1,1)
H_1 will be {0} and H_2 will be {0,2}
But (1,1) is not in H_1 x H_2
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=c6FlpordfDk&list=PL8yHsr3EFj53Zxu3iRGMYL_89GDMvdkgt&index=5
Starting at 24:33, he starts talking about how to find all degree 6 irreducible polynomials over the finite field Z/2Z. I understand GF(p^n) is a subset of GF(p^m) iff n divides m and the venn diagram he drew of the finite fields GF(2), GF(2^2), GF(2^3), GF(2^6). However, I don't see why elements in GF(2^3)\GF(2) satisfy irreducible polynomials of degree 3, elements in GF(2^2)\GF(2) satisfy irreducible polynomials of degree 2, and GF(2^6)\(GF(2^2) U GF(2^3)) satisfy irreducible polynomials of degree 6
This lecture is part of an online graduate course on Galois theory.
We use the theory of splitting fields to classify finite fields: there is one of each prime power order (up to isomorphism).
We give a few examples of small order, and point out that there seems to be no good choice for a standard finite field of given order: this depends on t...
@chilly ocean GF(2^3) has dimension 3 over GF(2) so all elements in GF(2^3) must have minimal polynomials of degree 3 or leess
$$ X^{2n}-2X^{n}*cos(n\theta)+1 $$
Shura
why is that?
GF(2^6) has dimension 6 over GF(2) but not all elements of it have minimum polynomial of degree 6
Which is why I said "of degree 3 or less"
Ah
If you take an element x in GF(2^6) for example
Then since it has dim 6 over GF(2), you know that 1, x, x^2, x^3, x^4, x^5, x^6 must be a dependent set
since there are 7 elements and the dimension is 6, just by linear algebra
so you have some non-zero coefficients such that a_0 + a_1x + ... + a_6x^6 = 0
and that is your polynomial yes
The minimal polynomial must divide this polynomial
yeah
And why is that?
well their minimal polynomials can't have degree 1, otherwise they'd be in GF(2)
also, the degree of the minimal polynomial must divide 3
so it must be 3
Well if a has minimal polynomial of deg 2 over GF(2) for example, then GF(2)(a) must be degree 2 over GF(2)
But you can't have a degree 2 extension in between a degree 3 extension
Due to how dimensions multiply in towers of field extensions
Ah
That is smart
So using this argument you can find the number of irreducible polynomial of any degree
Well, there are much easier arguments than using all this galois theory to see that the number of irreducible polynomials of degree n over GF(q) is
Ah ok
Well I do know the main theorem
About how the subfields of a galois extension corresponds to the subgroups
$$(X^{n}-e^{i\theta}) = \prod_{k=0}^{n-1} (X-e^{i\frac{\theta+2k\pi}{n}})$$
shall anyone tell me why is that true?
i know that $$X^{n}= e^{n\theta} ==> X = e^{i\frac{\theta+2k\Pi}{n}}$$
Shura
$$where k \in [IO,n-1I]$$
somebody?
idk what you're asking
the things on the right hand side are the roots of the polynomial on the left hand side? So it factors like that?
(it appears they in fact did understand what you were asking)
Anyone know how to prove that if a map $\mathbb{E}: M_{n}(\mathbb{C}) \to M_{m}(\mathbb{C})$ which is positive and $\mathbb{E}$ maps to an abelian subalgebra of $M_{m}$ then $\mathbb{E}$ is completely positive?
SU(n)
I think if we find a nice form of E, then when we have the tensor we can use commutativity to cancel stuff out and result in the basic positive map. I'm just not sure which sort of representation i am going for
I was going to say we can apply stinespring's thm

@lethal cipher kk thx
So boiz here is my question
I need help coming up with a specific example of a group G and subgroups H and K s.t.
Do you know about direct products of groups?
@latent anvil ?? Not sure
do you understand what G × H means?
yes
I don't know, I've been working on this for over 2 hours
well my hint would be to think about products
hmmm
I think I know where this is going
So is the choice of (Zmod10)^2 for the group is good?
wait maybe Z20 x Z50
yeah
it does but it's not obvious I think
So H can be like {m(1,0) | m is an integer}, and K = {m(0,1) | m is an integer}
yup!
AHHHH
Or even simpler, H = Z20×0 and K = 0×Z50
Thx for the hint, I wasn't thinking about products
The fact that we couldn't even process that 😆
If H, K are normal in G then HK (the set of products of h in H and k in K) is a subgroup and is isomorphic to H × K
Over an hour and that wasn't even on our radar.
This is only if they're normal and intersect trivially though
Ok, thank you very much. Dackid, thanks for the brainstorm session too. Glad we got this resolved
What does isomorphism mean with respect to groups?
an isomorphism f between groups G and H is a bijective function G-> H such that f(ab) = f(a)f(b) for all a, b in G
note that the product ab is computed using the group operation from G
since theyre elements of G
wehreas the product f(a)f(b) is computed using the group operation from H
since theyre elements of H
^ we still haven't gotten to that yet but I think that would have been very useful
Interesting, that is very different from the topology variant
its kind of the same thing
homomorpisms are "structure-preserving maps"
the structure of groups is their group operation
the structure of topological spaces is their continuous maps
the catch is that topological homeomorphisms explicitly require continuity to work in both ways [i.e. for the function and its inverse]
in groups, you get that "for free" from one direction
Ahhh, so the key here is that f(ab) on H isn't some crazy new element, but it is directly related to a and b on G
yeah
the point is that
when we compute f(ab), we apply the group operation of G and then apply f
wen we compute f(a)f(b), we apply f and then the group operation of H
so if f(ab) = f(a)f(b), that means f "preserves" the "structure" of the groups under their respective group operations
Speaking of, I had a question in my topology test (it's over, don't worry). Would it be possible to steal one of you in that channel momentarily? I really want to understand what I didn't catch
just ask
Is it true that every abelian group could be realized as a subgroup of (Q/Z)^S for some large enough set S?
I can see that $\text{Hom}{\mathbb{Z}}(A, \mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Z})$ can be realized as a subgroup of $(\mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Z})^A$ by applying $\text{Hom}{\mathbb{Z}}(-, \mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Z})$
det
this Z^n is the direct sum or direct product?
direct sum
okie
so we can embed in Q^n/K
which I thought for some reason should be injective
why did I think that 
cause its divisible
no I mean, why is Z^n/K -> Q^n/K injective?
I think you can just look at elements
yeah
the difference is in K
or it's not
doesn't matter about the bigger group
yea the kernel of Z^n --> Q^n/K is just K
right
so now I am thinking
K is free
submodules of free modules are free over a PID
(i only know the finitely generated case of this)
we should(?) be able to extend the elements to a scalar multiples of a basis for Z^n
(sorry, inf generated case is harder)
wait
no
the statement is immediately false, sorry
take any nontorsion group
or wait
is (Q/Z)^S a product or a sum?
I assumed sum
product
ahhh
so you can have nontorsion
tricky
anyways
here's what I'm thinking
so you should be able to pick a basis for Z^n such that K has a basis given by scalar multiples of those things
I would need to think harder to see if this is true
but I think it is
can we do zorn on the finitely generated proof?
hmm, maybe. Iirc it's pretty to show submodules of free modules are free and we're asking for even more
anyways
it seems plausible to me
which is good enough for me 😛
let's roll with it
now what does Q^n/K look like?
it looks like a direct sum of some number of Q's and some number of Q/nZ's
yeah?
because of how quotients of direct sums work
makes sense assuming that
well it suffices to embed each summand into a product like you want
because direct sums embed into direct products
do you agree with this?
yep
the factors Q/nZ are easy
so the whole problem reduces down to embedding Q into such a thing
ah wait I think i have a much simpler proof
do you know that any abelian group A embeds into Hom(Hom(A, Q/Z), Q/Z)?
nope
yea
sorry you said something related but I didn't notice
well uh
try to prove this
sorry
oh this is very much like the double dual situation
yeah!!!!
if I call A* = Hom(A, Q/Z)... then for any a, we have a map A* --> Q/Z (evaluation at a) which is just an element of A**
i don't see an easy construction... if a is a non-zero element of A, then consider all maps B --> Q/Z where B contains a and doesn't let it die. this is non-empty as we can define <a> --> Q/Z easily. Not to hard to see zorn is applicable and so we have a maximal element M --> Q/Z. need to show M = A. so if b in A\M... then probably can extend to M+<b>...
sorry, give me 1 sec
sure so you have the right idea
there's a map <a> -> Q/Z nonzero on a
what do you know about Q/Z?
what properties does it have?
yea i think this works
. consider the ideal {n such that n*b in M}. If this is zero, then i can send b to anywhere we want. else this ideal is dZ. So we already know where db goes, and want to see where b should go
we can divide by d as its Q/Z
yea looks very similar
oh, the book i'm reading defined divisible only for principal ideals... so an R-mod D is divisible if r*D = D for every element of r of R
I've only ever heard it defined for PIDs
In which case it's the same
(Baer's criterion is more general though)
is it sufficient to say that because $20^\circ$ is not constructible (via angle trisection) then neither is $40^\circ$, thus, $\cos(40^\circ)$ is not constructible, completing the problem?
panoramatopia
I feel like this is the correct logic but also under this logic that would imply that $20^\circ\cdot18=360^\circ$ is not constructible which does not make sense
panoramatopia
can someone help me with real analysis
in this case it isn't a problem, because A is constructible if and only if 2A is constructible.
but in general you need to look at the degree [Q(e^iA):Q]

Since every abelian group can be embedded in a divisible group (say the injective hull), you can reduce to this case. Then you can use the structure theorem of divisible groups..
Dunno about the structure theorem...
but EShamrock's proof was pretty neat. embed A in Hom(Hom(A, Q/Z), Q/Z) which I think is called the Pontryagin double dual. So A can be embedded in (Q/Z)^Hom(A, Q/Z)
Well, essentially, it says Tor(G) can be embedded in the direct sum of copies of Q/Z.
Magic
oh, so handling the free divisible part... which must be Q^(n) needs the direct product
Yes.

Ohh.. Now I understand why this is the double dual lol
This was essentially my original proof
The thing with Q^n/K is an injective group which you embed into
and we have an explicit decomposition of it as a direct sum of Q/nZ's and Q's
So you just need to embed those
(also just shamrock is fine)
oh okie 
And Hom(G, Q/Z) is the pontrayagin dual for finite G but in the infinite/topological case you want to map into the circle S^1 = R/Z
Q/Z is the finite order elements of this
(i don't really know this stuff, something about Fourier analysis on locally compact topological abelian groups)
Sounds very fancy 
Yeah haha I've wanted to learn about it for years
But I haven't even gotten around to properly learning the usual Fourier transform
shamrock, thought you went to sleep
Well, I saw it in an intro analysis course but didn't understand
dead shamrock lies sleeping in the sunken city of rleyh
Let $k$ be an algebraically closed field of characteristic $p$. There's a famous theorem by Boseck which says that if $E/k(x)$ is a function field extension of degree $p^n$, then all totally ramified points are Weierstrass EXCEPT when $E=k(x,y)$ where $y^p-y=\frac{ax+b}{(x-\alpha_1)(x-\alpha_2)}$. Can someone explain why the theorem fails in this case?
Have a Banana, Bitch
Let E be a vector space on K, p and q projectors of E such that p ◦ q = 0. We consider r = p + q - q ◦ p.
- Show that r is a projector of E.
- Show that Ker (r) = Ker (p) ∩ Ker (q).
- Show that Im (r) = Im (p) + Im (q). What is Im (p) ∩ Im (q)?
Someone can help me with that pleas ?
I have no idea how to be helpful here since you just pasted an assignment without further context, like where specifically you're stuck on
also #linear-algebra 
most of these should follow by definition, maybe evaluating r^2 turns out to be r
high out of my mind with sleep dep but i'm here to tell you that the commutator subgroup is a little bitch
at least i got there
commutator subgroup is based tho
promise not to laugh
does not make promises he cannot uphold
forgot how to prove it was normal and got stuck on it for ages
maybe 2 hours
g-1[x, y]g = g-1 x-1 y-1 x y g = (g-1 x-1 g)(g-1 y-1 g)(g-1 x g)(g-1 y g) = [(g-1 x g), (g-1, y, g)]
and then g-1[a, b][c, d]g = (g-1[a, b]g)(g-1[c, d]g) trivially so it all works out
the fact that the set of commutators is not always a subgroup is pretty neat
okay
so
I've done this many times
actually
Do you want to know the secret, based way to do this tho
Let x be in the commutator subgroup
Then look at
g^-1xg
Write out
g^-1xg = xx^-1g^-1xg = x[x^-1,g^-1]
then this is a product of two commutators so it's in the group
When someone showed me this I wanted to k-word myself since I've proven this twice and both times I did it the way you did by doing a shitty shitty computation
yes
i remembered that that way existed but i couldn't remember how to do it
fuck
😭
honestly i like this notation for permutations
i always forget which way
the other one goes
but the only one that's a cycle there is the third one
the way the other one goes is merely a matter of convention
haha
I am team left to right
the first picture is my question and 2nd is my work
yeah and
1st is blue
2nd is purple
3rd is green
4th is yellow
only the third one is a cycle
the question is asking which is not a cycle
3 of them
i can only chose one
first one is a cycle
also 4th
i see your point
yeah, 3 of them are cycles
yes okay these are all cycles after composition
my bad
thank u kaisheng
so the 2nd one isn't
ok why isnt the 2nd one
as you can see
it's two cycles
if you remove the single-element parantheticals
you are left with one cycle
for all but one
oh lmfao
i missed it 2
I feel really dumb tho hahaha
lmao did i catch something you fancy folk didn't
ok time to take that to the bank and go to sleep
yeah
I'm too smart for easy things
scrubquote
like the guy who complains he's too good at fighting games
which is why he loses to scrubs

oh i think i know who ur talking about
oh im thinking of a specific person
ok maybe im still not understanding how does it being (123) and (56) not make it a cycle
who became famous
I bet you're thinking of Lowtier God tho
maybe
Idk how to explain this, what's your definition of cycle?
this is just like saying words tho haha
u can tell its a cycle by the way it is
Amazing
they represent the identity permutation
so you can ignore them
(if you didn't then being a cycle would not be well defined)
like
we agree (123) is a cycle
but (123)=(4)(123)
so if the left hand side is a cycle
the right hand side needs to be for this notion to make any sense
because they represent the same element of S_4
I don't think so
no i got it
see
thanks
np
ok another question does the operation matter when you are talking about isomorphism. Say i have two groups G and H. Here is my definition; G and H are isomorphic if you have a bijective homomorphism. But what if G and H have differenet operations does that change anything?
i was thinking how would you check group sturcture to show they are isomorphic
The theorem you want to think about is
If G and isomorphic
you can take two elements in G
and send them to H
multiply them in H
bring them back to G
and get the right answer
so in some sense
they have the same multiplication
(if you have an isomorphism)
Well
sorry
you need to be able to do this in both directions
otherwise you just get monomorphism
mirza this is just the homomorphism condition
the condition im refering to is different
$f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))=xy$
max
ah i see I thought you were converting what i said into symbols
trying to think of a way of proving it without picking an example
to prove that something is not isomorphic can you just show a case where it isnt
whaaaaaa
we can't call Z and R having teh same operation
You can obtain Z
as a restrictino of R's but...
I mean I guess I see what you mean, but I don't think that's relevant
sure
but there's a much deeper issue with Z and R haha
Anyway BigWall
until you obtain invariants it's hard to distinguish things as being isomorphic
the like coarsest way is just if the sets are different sizes
sincea bijection would imply same size
yeah
Like, it can be hard to show two things are not isomorphic
You could check if one of them is abelian, and the other isn't
compute the size of the center
look at subgroups
etc.
thats what i was thinking cardinality right
what was the answer you wanted me to answer to that question
No i think i got it now
any tips on how to solve this? I don't see how order plays into the 2nd homomorphism theorem
just consider both sides of the isomorphism in the 2nd homomorphism theorem
since everything is finite, both sides must have the same order
got it thanks

{1,2,3} and {a,b,c} are isomorphic but like i can desin function not matching this
but this does not show that they are not isomorphic
the typical way to prove two things arent isomorphic is to prevent an isomorphism invariant that they differ on
such as cardinality, maximal order, whatever
"isomorphism invariant" here is jargon for "thing that isnt changed by an isomorphism"
so for example, isomorphisms (since they are bijections) shouldnt change the cardinality (size) of your structures
so if your two things have different cardinalities, they must not be isomorphic
thats a fairly easy example, typically they'll be a bit tougher than that
but theres no general technique; you'll have to give us more specifics if you want more specific help
[this isnt the ONLY way to prove two things arent isomorphic, fwiw; another common approach is to assume they are and then apply some other theorem interchanging the structures to derive a contradiction]
[if that sounds vague, it's intentional; again, these really have to be tailored to the situation]
[but for example, if you want to show something is not isomorphic to a certain quotient group, you could try looking at the isomorphism theorems for groups and seeing if you get a contradiction if you replace the quotient group with your other group]
[i'd look for differing invariants first, though.]
My response was badly worded. I was trying to ask if cardinality would be enough to justify not an isomorphism. I understand now. They explained it well last night and @scarlet estuary comment helps as well.
Why is it that if ord(a,b)=mn, then ord(a)|m and ord(b)|n?
That's called Lagrange theorem
Order of an element of a group divides the order of that group
You are looking at "a" as a member of Z_m
Doesn’t “a” have to form it’s own subgroup under Z_m for lagrange to apply?
Oooh got it! Tysm
Do quadratic residues fall into AA?
so you have the vector space of binary cubic* forms
and you define a GL(2) action on it
linear substitution of variables
wait why is this a binary quadratic form
this looks like a homogeneous cubic polynomial
i meant cubic sry
oh ok cool continue
so a binary cubic form can also be represented as a 4-tuple
then the action of a matrix
will be as follows
should I be reading this as a 2x2 block matrix of 2x2 sub matrices
also the (g.x)' makes me think this is the derivative of something not g.x itself or, well ok
nah its actually g.x
I guess I can wait til the end to ask questions or we'll stop too often to get anywhere exciting
okay so you have a discriminant function for binary cubic forms
and then you can verify
i mean that's pretty much all I wanted to say for now
I verified that in Sage
The the orbits of GL(2) in the vectorspace of binary cubic forms actually parameterize cubic number fields
so that's cool
but i have to understand that stuff better
I'm writing some notes on this stuff if you wanna check it out after im done
@chilly ocean go ahead
what makes this binary cubic form interesting in particular
the orbits parametrizing cubic number fields seems cool though
its exactly the parameterizing cubic number fields that's interesting
if you can understand the orbits, you can understand various counting questions of cubic number fields
,tex I'm taking a course on cryptography and we covered quadratic residues and non-residues. I know that $\mathbb{QR_N}$ is the set of quadratic residues, and that $\mathbb{QNR_N}$ is the set of quadratic non-residues. I also know that $x^2 \equiv q (\text{mod} p$, and therefore the set $\mathbb{QR_5} = {1, 4}$, since $1^2 \equiv 1 (\text{mod } 5)$ and $2^2 \equiv 4 (\text{mod } 5)$, but what's the calculation for the set of quadratic non-residues? I know that that set is the set of numbers that aren't in $\mathbb{QR_N}$ but how is it calculated?
Dark Angel
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
such as how many cubic number fields do there exist with discriminant bounded by N, asymptotically as N -> infty?
Oops
you can actually give an asymptotic formula for this count
using this parameterization
ooh neat
this is not the only space which parameterizes numbe fields
for example, you can consider binary quadratic forms under a GL(2) action
this parameterizes not only quadratic number fields, but also ideal classes of quadratic number fields
Gauss used this to prove the class number formula for quadratic number fields, i think
interesting, does this generalize to quartic and quintic etc number fields?
yes
basically yes
quintic is the highest we've gone i believe
Manjul Bhargava is famous for considering the quintic case
there's still a lot we dont know
,tex I'm taking a course on cryptography and we covered quadratic residues and non-residues. I know that $\mathbb{QR_N}$ is the set of quadratic residues, and that $\mathbb{QNR_N}$ is the set of quadratic non-residues. I also know that $x^2 \equiv q (\text{mod } p$, and therefore the set $\mathbb{QR_{5}} = {1, 4}$, since $1^2 \equiv 1 (\text{mod } 5)$ and $2^2 \equiv 4 (\text{mod } 5)$, but what's the calculation for the set of quadratic non-residues? I know that that set is the set of numbers that aren't in $\mathbb{QR_N}$ but how is it calculated?
I guess it becomes pretty laborious to try to do any of this work without a computer
Sorry for the interruption, there's the question I had when you guys are finished
no worries
well computing one necessarily means you've computed the other
since it's the complement of the other set
so it's a waste of time to "compute" them both
that make sense? @chilly ocean
Dark Angel
Well, kind of. I understand it, but I thought there would be a formula for the set of quadratic non-residues like there is for the set of quadratic residues
I don't know why LaTeX thinks a 5 is that weird symbol it seems to have replaced it woth though
what do you mean formula
it's more of an algorithm
square the numbers from 1 to (p-1)/2 mod p, that's the set of quadratic residues
remove those from the set of 1 to p-1 and that's the set of quadratic nonresidues
,tex Like, you know how the set of quadratic residues is the set of solutions to the equation $x^2 \equiv q (\text{mod } p)$? Like that but for quadratic non-residues
Dark Angel
just write $x^2 \not \equiv q \mod p$
Merosity
I guess a worse way to get them would be to take the quadratic residues, pick a single quadratic nonresidue, then multiply it by every quadratic residue and that is a bijection onto the entire set of quadratic nonresidues
there's nothing holy about having a formula, I wouldn't worry about it
I was trying to compute the two sets and I came up with this:
,tex
\begin{displaymath}
1^2 \equiv 1 (\text{mod } 5) \
2^2 \equiv 4 (\text{mod } 5)
\end{displaymath}
Dark Angel
meaning that 1 and 4 are quadratic residues, and that what isn't there, i.e {2, 3} are QNR. But for that, I had these inequalities, and I can't see where the 2 and 3 are coming from like I can with QR
,tex
\begin{displaymath}
3^2 \not \equiv 9 (\text{mod } 5) \equiv 4 \
4^2 \not \equiv 16 (\text{mod } 5) \equiv 1
\end{displaymath}
Dark Angel
What's the bot got against line breaks?
quadratic residue just means it's a square
quadratic non residue means it's not, so there is no way to write it as x^2=q mod p
the N in QNR means it's not the formula x^2=q mod p
Oh, so because 1 and 4 are square numbers, they're in QR, and because 2 and 3 aren't squares, since sqrt(2) and sqrt(3) are irrational, they're in QNR?
sort of
And you only focus on the range 1-4 since it's modulo 5
sqrt(2) and sqrt(3) don't really exist here
sqrt(6) could be considered to exist though, cause we're working with equivalence classes
What does exist mean?
Oh, I see
My brain went into philosophy mode and I was wondering if any numbers exist
but it might not be a really good idea to try to do that, or at least there has to be a lot more discussion
like for instance should sqrt(4)=2 mod 3 or should sqrt(4)=sqrt(1)=1 mod 3?
so it's more sane to just think in terms of what squares rather than square roots
So, if I want QNR, it's easier to just compute QR and look at what isn't in that set?
Rather than trying to compute QNR first
since after that you are getting the negatives
like mod 5 you do 1^2, 2^2 but then 3^2 = (5-2)^2 = (-2)^2 = 2^2 which you've already done
similarly 4^2 = (5-1)^2 = (-1)^2 = 1^2
So it's pretty much pointless to have a formula for QNR?
I suppose you could write {x | x \in Z_N}\{QR_N} for that though, since you're computing the set Z_N and removing all the quadratic residues
Thanks for explaining that. I never really considered whether there might be an actual formula for QNR before, since it's just whatever isn't in QR
look into Legendre symbols and quadratic reciprocity if you're interested in this more, it will give you a way to determine more about these
but it's not as efficient if you're just determining all of them like that
I believe we covered Legendre symbols in my course so I'll have to look back at the material.
I think the word „formula“ is too vague to be helpful here (and adding „actual“ doesn't make things more precise). It's not clear whether you mean a declarative description of some sort or an algorithmic way of computing things.
We had to use Legendre symbols for the Goldwasser-Micali encryption system
here check out: https://brilliant.org/wiki/legendre-symbol/
they give an example of computing if 74 a quadratic residue mod 131
I mean more like an algorithm, like how to determine if a number is in QR, we just solve the equation x^2 \equiv q (mod p)
this would be more precise if you're wanting to determine a specific number
I'll check that out, thanks
rather than the entire set
I think my programmer brain is taking over lol. I just applied the algorithm to compute a specific number multiple times to get the whole set
It was really inefficient
also this is more #elementary-number-theory than #groups-rings-fields for future reference
idc lol
Does representation theory (well, mostly the basic stuff for finite groups) go here?
Yes
Before this part, there was an exercise on when a conjugacy class of G splits in H (which I was able to do), but I am not sure how to use that for this, whether I should try computing inner products of characters with Frobenius reciprocity or something.
Yeah it should be frobenius reciprocity
would this be the place to ask about taking quotients of Z-modules? it's for homology computations
ooh nvm i got it
what does it mean for a cyclic R-module to have order r, where r is in R?
It means it's probably R/<r>
ah yea, found our definition. its basically that
Alright I have a question that seems super simple, but I can't quite solve it
Let K be an algebraic extension of F. Let σ : K → K be an injective homomorphism of
fields so that σ(a) = a for all a ∈ F. Prove that σ is surjective
So I took some element y in K that isn't in F
clearly there will be a polynomial with it as a root
but then after that I'm stuck
@restive star do you see how to handle the finite case?
Where [K : F] is finite I mean
yup
then yeah I think I get that part
but I don't see how it generalizes to the general case
I'm not actually sure this helps, it's just the first thing that jumps out to me
Since any algebraic extension is sort of built out of finite ones
So let's follow this chain of thought
You have y in F
Which you want to show is in the image
It satisfies some f in F[x]
yeah?
yep
so then I thought to plug it into such an f
and then take sigma of both sides
that's a great idea!
unfortunately it doesn't seem to work unless I'm missing something
It doesn't work exactly, but it tells us something really useful
If y has minimal polynomial f then σ(y) also has minimal polynomial f
right?
oooh yeah
I think you can combine this with our discussion of the finite case above to get a proof
(but let me know if you need more help)
Yeah I'm not really seeing where to look for the final jump
Sure
Can you think of a way to rephrase this in terms of the image/preimage of an extension of F under σ?
hello Brofibration
hello EShamrock -> BShamrock
What's the rofibration group anyway?
Sorry Randle, maybe this is too much of a jump
yeah sorry I'm really thinking haha
sigma takes roots to roots, f has finitely many roots
Oh, that's a more direct way too it
ooooooooooh
Although you want "roots in K"
yes
so then the finite case pretty much applies?
I was thinking of taking the extension of F by all the roots
But brofib is saying something even simpler
If R is the set of roots of f in K then σ restricts to a function R -> R, yeah ?
yep
Well, this is an injection between finite sets of the same size
ty haha I have a lot of practice working as a TA
is TAing fun?
Yes!
I love it so much
One of the worst things about the pandemic for me is that TAing online is just awful
I'm going to try it again next quarter for the first time in a year
I really love explaining things to students and seeing it click
It's also really helped my public speaking skills
I got comments when doing my practice talk on dold kan that I sounded like I'd really practiced my lines and spoke with confidence
noice
I had not practiced at all 
they don't let undergrads TA over here I think
which is a good thing ig?
more jobs for grad students
¯\_(ツ)_/¯
There's only two TA positions for undergrads in math at uw
For honors calc and honors analysis
But cs has a crazy huge TA program
Like a majority of the hours worked by course staff in uw cse are undergrads
Or something crazy
(cs has insane funding so this isn't coming at the cost of grad student ta positions or anything)
how tensor product???
Tensoring changes your base ring/field
does tensoring change my life
Its gives you more perspectives
tensoring doesn't necessarily do that tho
You just take bilinear product and divide by two
like if M,N are R modules M\otimes N is still an R module
Right so I was referring to extension of scalars
Yeah it's just one of many
Oh yeah well
Actually M (x) N is an abelian group
you need them to be bimodules

Alright I have another question haha
Prove that $F_{p^n} = F_p(α)$ for some element α
randleS
I cant seem to find such an element for a general field
whereas in the original field, every element satisfies x^p-x, right?
yes 0 satisfies that equation too, so every element satisfies it
oh wait I misread
elements of F_p satisfy x^p - x, yes
but that may not be very helpful
anyway, try to figure out what happens when you adjoin a root of x^p^n - x to F_p
alright I'll try that. Thanks!
hmm perhaps what I had in mind isnt the best way to do it
@chilly ocean simply tensor the modules together
and that's the tensor product
if you have two things just ask yourself "what would these look like if they were one thing?" and that's the tensor product
it's like those websites where you upload two pictures of people and it tells you what your baby would look like
that's the tensor product
If G is a finite abelian group of order n such that there are at most d elements of order d for each d dividing n, then G is cyclic
How are we defining $\bF_{p^n}$ in the course? e.g. $\bF_p[x]/p(x)$ for some irreducible degree $n$ polynomial?
Icy001
That's not quite a definition
unless you prove theorems about existence and uniqueness of such fields
ah well typically we do use Fp[x]/p(x)
so you'll just have to prove that x generates the field
I just realized that we already proved in class that Fpn is the splitting field of Fp
so I can literally just use that to get that Fp(r) is Fpn for any root r of x^p^n -x and just be done lol
oh shit yeah I'm a moron haha
could I say it works for any nonzero root though?
no
1 is a root
and it doesnt work for 1
but again, like icy said, show that X generates it
if X did not generate it, it would sit inside an extension of lower degree
and this is a problem
wdym by x? Im sorry I can tell Im asking stupid questions. I'm really bad with this stuff.
cause wouldn't that just be some root of x^p^n - x?
resulting in the same issues with it potentially being 0 or 1
no worries, F_p^n = F_p[X]/(f) for some irred poly of degree n right?
yep
by X, I meant the equivalence class X + (f)
ooooh ok
in F_p[X]/(f)
thx
why am I being whyd
Oh right
smh
I thought it was a very good explanation
why is why
I think of tensor products as sort of transferring the structure of one thing onto another I guess
Change of scalars, tensoring with A/I, tensoring with a localisation, tensoring an algebra with a polynomial ring
I feel like understanding tensor products was a real mathematical reckoning for me because of that
like, on the one hand
lots of examples where you can encode some operation as tensoring with the ultimate example of that operation
tensoring is a symmetric operation
right
but on the other hand it's not
That's a really good observation haha
like in those examples, with base change or like tensoring A with k[x] or something -- those two things aren't playing the same roles
X \otimes_K L
the tensor and the tensee
tensor product with a larger ring can act as "extending" the ring of scalars (e.g. complexification), and it has the property that bilinear maps on the cartesian product correspond to linear maps on the tensor product
this is about all i know
other than the definition
petthewolf
i can't, nitro ran out
damn
you gotta find another simp
Anyways yeah tterra a tensor is a section of the tensor bundle
smh
You should know this
what other important things should i know about the tensor product (of modules)?
genuine question
There's a bunch of rules
this time its not a shitpost
M (×) A/I ≈ M/IM

tensoring with a field kills torsion
M (×) (N (+) L) = (M (×) N) (+) (M (×) L)
yeah so actually shamrock's description of "transporting one structure onto another" is really good i think
torsion tensor divisible is 0
more generally tensors commute with arbitrary direct sums
things like his example of M x A/I = M/IM
Concretely: Tensoring with Q over Z kills torsion
transferring the structure of A/I onto M is how I think about it
whoops lol
I just did a 3 hour review session with a classmate for my analysis final
for me, when I'm tensoring things, it's usually something like, tensoring one field extension with another
I'm a little woozy

french exam on a saturday? 🤢
wee wee
I get 48 hours and can choose 2 to do it in
So it's not so bad
but having it on the weekend is annoying
why is everyone taking french
je ne sais pas
to read ega/sga/fga
AGoomer chat
je ne connais pas ? idk
i took french because i lived in texas and everyone spoke spanish and i wanted to be different
also because im gay lmao
lol
ah is it time for me to take it as well 
I took Japanese in high school and everyone was a weeb and it was so fucking embarrassing
oui !
voulez-vouz parler avec moi, ce soir
(that's a reference btw)
(for those of you uncultureds)

a translation project for Grothendieck's EGA
no
Idoit
online killed my interest in learning russian 
Perelman
privyet
cyka blyat
yuo are dso funy

is that russian?
i am not convinced language courses are very fun in an online format
I have evidence to support this view
My prof isn't teaching next quarter so I need to adjust to a new french prof
Scary
just whip out your 🥖

Another interesting tensor product: $B\otimes_A B$ for a ring map $A\to B$
Icy001
also restricting sheaves to subschemes
Lol
I spent today working out Galois descent and comonadic descent and I had to deal with objects such as $V_\bR\otimes_\bR(\bC\otimes_\bR\bC)$
Icy001

