#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 554 of 407
nvm i figured it out

you're welcome
does two elements creating the exact same coset mean the elements must be identical?
Well there’s 1 and 3 in Z/2Z
🤔
I'm trying to see if xH=yH (identical left cosets) implies x^2H=y^2H
I was thinking that maybe the first statement implies they're equal but it might not be that easy 🤔
Should be okay if H is normal
hm, what would happen if it wasn't
Then it may not be true
D20 might be a counterexample, if I remember correctly.
you're basically asking if y^-1x in H isit true that y^-2x^2 in H
If you can find a subgroup H such that there are two elements of order 3 with xy in H, but yx not in H, then that's probably a counterexample.
Up to minor fixes
Is there a website where I can divide two polynomials (one of them has variables for the coefficients) and get the remainder and quotient?
Hello! So I'm reading this proof and I am confused with two things which are marked by red in the image. Why is $(h^q)^{p_1^\beta} = 1$ just because $o(x_1) = p_1^\beta$ which $\beta$ as large as possible? (Here I am assuming that $o(x)$ is the order of $x$). Also, how do you know that $o(x_1 x_2 \ldots) = o(x_1)o(x_2)\ldots$? Why does the group have to be abelian for this to happen?
おねえちゃん
if x is an element with order that is a power of p1, say o(x) = p1^z, then by definition of beta, z <= beta, and so x^(p1^beta) = (x^(p1^z))^(p1^(beta-z)) = 1^(p1^(beta-z)) = 1
they apply that with x = h^q
not exactly but it is true that if the orders are coprime and G is commutative then o(ab) = o(a) o(b)
I mean, in Z/4Z, 1 and 1 have order 4 but 1+1 has order 2 which is different from lcm(4,4)
absolutely not
that's probably a result that is proved earlier in the course
I'm not part of that course
it's not obvious I think
I have read the whole paper and nothing is mentioned about this
so you want to deduce x1^n = 1 from (x1x2)^n = 1 ?
if you have proven the chinese remainder theorem, the result follows from (Z/mnZ) ~= Z/mZ x Z/nZ for coprime m,n
I haven't really read about the chinese remainder theorem...
I think you're forced to use Bézout's identity somewhere
like, if the order of ab is strictly smaller than o(a)o(b)
then o(ab) = xy with x dividing o(a) and y dividing o(b)
then you say y has an inverse mod o(a)
say yz = 1 mod o(a)
slimvesus
what if o(x1x2) is not a multiple of o(x1) nor o(x2) ?
no, you showed that if (x1x2)^np = 1 then q divides n
no
wait
(x1x2)^ o(x1x2) = 1
so (x1x2)^o(x1x2)p = 1
okay I missed that you apply it with n = o(x1x2)
you used that in the proof that if (x1x2)^np = 1 then q divides n, yes
then I have no idea how your proof is supposed to work
oh right you wrote that
let me reread
it's all good
I'm dumb
But why does this need the abelan fact?
Oh yeah, you use it recursively right?
slimvesus
Okay I think I get it now. Thank you so much guys, I really appreciate the help, seriously!
Oh I wasn't thinking about that. It shouldn't make too much of a difference which one you start with. My bad.
In a dihedral group, how do you know that there are n number of reflections?
I mean for example a square has 4 reflections, 1 vertical flip, 1 horizontal flip and 2 diagonal flips.
Okay. I think a good start is to figure out how many reflections there are if the shape has an odd number of vertices
If there are odd number of vertices, then the reflections all are from one corner to the opposite side
And that should be it right?
For even number n/2 corner to corner and n/2 side to side
Ah ok, I just wanted to make sure 😅
Seems like you answered your own question. Glad I could exist 😆
Haha
anyone have any tips on how to do this?
for part a, we just know that r cannot be a multiple of p since p is prime
I'm not sure, I'm still new to this abstract algebra stuff
wide liberty time
H is the set of all elements whose order is not divisible by p
oh lmfao
I thought H was generated by some element of order coprime to p
whoops
Thanks drake lol
Yes this problem is true, @glacial bloom what have you tried
oh, right
my bad I went afk
I honestly don't really know where to start, is cauchy's theorem relevant?
@magic owl
Assume order of G/H is divisible by a prime which is not p,now use Cauchy's theorem to arrive at a contradiction
Is there any connection between an algebraic number and an algebraic set?
By algebraic set I mean this https://mathworld.wolfram.com/AlgebraicSet.html
I'm kind of stuck at having to prove this
I think the idea is that if you have a root p / q
then you know that p | a0, and q | a3, using the assumptions
Then you need to use the fact that a3 + a2 + a1 + a0 is odd, somehow
but I'm not sure what much useful you can get?
Like, you can conclude that exactly one of a2, a1 is even
but I'm not sure where to go from there
Ok, Here's another approach
Let's say f is reducible in Z[x]
Now,assume f=gh where deg g=1,this implies f=(ax-b)(px^2+qx+r)
Since f(0) is odd and leading coefficient is odd this implies a,b are odd numbers
But f(1)=(a-b)k contradicting the assumption
So if f is reducible ,f=c g where c is a constant and g is irreducible polynomial of degree 3,which implies f is irreducible in Q[x]( by properties of UFDs)
Vieta’s formula also says that the sum of roots is -a_2/a_3 so that a_2 is a multiple of a_3 by an odd number, so that a_2 is odd
So you can conclude a_1 is even
Dunno if that helps but
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Well, I understand Drake's approach
So by gauss lemma it suffices to look at irreducibility in Z[x]
The given conditions state that the constant term is odd and that the sum of the coefficients is odd
So one of the remaining coefficients is even and the other odd
Now looking mod 2 wins
right, cause if mod p, you have the same degree, and are irreducible, it's also irreducible
yeah, exactly
Oh yeah
no it's substantially different
I dont think you can assume that the polynomial is primitive
you need to use the fact that exactly one of the coefficients is even, and the rest are odd
which implies primitivity
because there's nothing in common at that point
right?
true
Maybe you can show it's a constant multiple of a primitive polynomial?
But my argument should still hold i think
I don't think so?
like, how do you conclude that because f has no roots modulo p, that it has no roots at all
without assuming primitivity?
oh, you mean for any integer input
Yes
have you shown that though?
you get x^3 + x + 1 and x^3 + x^2 + 1 modulo 2
which are irreducible in Z/2Z
but uh, they do have roots
oh wait, not integer roots
In Z?
nvmd
never heard of the intermediate value theorem for integers bro?
it's an advanced algebraic geometry technique

The thing that you need to note in my argument is that 2 does not divide the gcd of the coefficients
Just put integers in between the other intgers ez
Is that a real AG technique?
no I'm memeing
you should be able to show primitivity though
given that you end up showing it's irreducible
Okay I have genius plan
Just WLOG the leading coefficient to be 1
By dividing by it
This also won’t work
Nvm
I mean the oddness stuff just dies if you make it monic
Yeah
Actually hold up
Can you divide by the GCD
That won’t change irreducibility in Q[x]
Will make it primitive
And keeps it in Z[x]
Lol true that works
Do the other assumptions still hold?
Idk if they do
And don’t want to think about it lol
Yeah I was thinking about it
You couldn’t make anything even by dividing
Lmao
I was worried about going to 1 or something but 1 is odd lol
:D

Indeed
right so like, the line of reasoning is that
Q[x] irred => Z[x] irred
so go ahead and take the liberty of dividing out a gcd
Right
which doesn't change the assumptions about the polynomial being in Z[x], or having the right odd coefficients
then, look at the polynomial mod 2
this doesn't change the degree, and you get either
x^3 + x^2 + 1
or x^3 + x + 1
both of which are irreducible over the Z/2Z
just by trying both elements
hence, the modified polynomial is irreducible in Z, so also in Q
so the original polynomial is irred in Z
Yup
neat
I remember my TA told me about this mod p trick
this one feels nicer than drake's version which does more manipulation of the coefficients
Except his was like
To show something was reducible which doesn’t work but he went
“Check it mod small primes, if it’s reducible the same way each time it’s probably reducible”
And I checked and it was, and it gave me an idea as to how it factored lol
yeah Aluffi mentions this iirc
But it’s a neat thing to keep in mind
where it gives you a likely factorization
I remember using this on some comp math problems
That makes sense
this is sort of because Z[x] reducible => Z/pZ[x] reducible
provided modding by p doesn't change the degree
Yeah
It’s just a necessary condition that it would be reducible in each quotient
right
So if it is, chances are it might be in Z[x]
if you do cryptography tricks like this become important
Sounds a bit like some local-global
because you make heuristic algorithms that cheat and then correct things
Kinda. Idk if there’s like a rigorous thing for it, like over all p
Obviously at some point p gets larger than any coefficient
But I don’t think that implies it alone
I'm sure you can find pathological examples
Isnt hasses principle the posterchild for these types of results
I don’t really know number theory
Haha
If you turn your head to p-adics you get Hensel’slemma
If you assume some stuff
I mean yeah aren't p-adic numbers about this?
I think there’s a local to global for like
Special cases
Something like quadratics or sometbinf?
I know it fails for elliptic curves
Ah but that’s about solutions
Also it’s not about quadratics I realize
I think it’s about how many variables you adjoin
Once again my noob number theory knowledge strikes again
I must be missing something, cause I don't really see how you can use the criterion here?
like, you need a prime ideal containing 1 and 4
so that leaves you with (1)
but then that contains the top coefficient
substitute x+1 into x
umm, and then multiply out?
yeah I see
you don't have to multiply everything out
just realize that all the middle terms end up with 2 as a factor
and the last term is 2
the top term is 1
so you can use (2)
so uh, what's a nice and neat proof that f(x) irred <=> f(x + 1) irred
actually this is simple
ye
sub
f(x) = g(x)h(x)
f(x + 1) = g(x + 1)h(x + 1)
in the other direction
f(y) = g(y)h(y)
f(y - 1) = g(y - 1)h(y - 1)
I don't think so unless you can divide out a
just btw the same trick can be used to show that the pth cyclotomic polynomials are irreducible
you need it to be an invertible operation I think
are there more general invertible functions?
I wonder how far you can stretch this reasoning
I think the general formula is that
if phi is an isomorphism of rings, then f(x) irred <=> f(phi(x)) is irreducible
using an abuse of notation 😛
Can someone help me interpret this notation?
The original definition I was given was this
Does $V(f,g) = {(x,y) \in \mathbb{C}^2 | f(x,y) = 0, g(x,y) =0 }$?
snypehype
yes
what's the third part
according to you
and the first part I guess
If first part is |xy| divides the lcm
and the third is that |xy| is not the lcm, then no
|xy| could be smaller
yeah i got it instantly for some reason i thought it was just saying the opposite of the first part
well that's a fun time
oh haha
i was told to ask the question here
why is Q not isomorphic to R
and why is Z⁴ × Z⁴ not isomorphic to Z¹⁶ (4 and 16 as a subscript)
what have you tried
I'm on the introductory part of isomorphisms at the moment
i guess I'm not exactly sure where to start
i haven't really... tried? anything
the last one i did was really easy, since M(R) isn't communtative so it couldn't be an isomorphism anyway
so what is isomorphism, isomorphism means everything about the groups behave the same way
and all their elements
right
so what are some ways in which elements can be different
so like if one is abelian and one isn't
i don't know what that means
are these structures groups
i feel like that hasnt been answered
the question is very different if these are vector spaces
or fields or w/e
rings
uhhh a group is abelian if for all x, y in G xy = yx
okay, then abelian is a different criterion
ok well that's not a thing here then
no, abelian rings are a thing (and also an isomorphism invariant), it just means something else
should i be looking at the irrational elements of R?
if there are elements of a certain order in one but not in another they can't be the same
similarly if orders of the groups are different it's a no-brainer, but that's not incredibly helpful here
anyway, if ℚ and ℝ were isomorphic, that would mean a bijection exists between them
are you familiar with infinite cardinalities?
in particular countable vs uncountable
this is a fairly standard diagonalization argument if so
not particularly, at least we haven't talked about it in class yet
i mean that stuff's more basic set theory
hm
if you dont want a cardinality argument
i guess you could reason something like this
they're both uncountable, right?
if we had such a bijection f from R to Q, then we must have f(2) = f(sqrt(2) * sqrt(2)) = f(sqrt(2))*f(sqrt(2)), but also f(2) = f(1+1) = f(1) + f(1)
they are not
oh?
by definition of a ring homomorphism, f(1) must be 1
Q is countable
so f(1) + f(1) = 2
that's interesting
hence 2 = f(sqrt(2)) * f(sqrt(2))
it needs to be from Q to R
meaning there must be some rational number f(sqrt(2)) that squares to 2
i mean intuitively it's just like N^2 right
but this is impossible, hence a contradiction
"show that the first ring is not isomorphic to the second"
the existence of an isomorpism A -> B implies the existence of an isomorphism B -> A
and vice versa
if one way can't work the other way can't work
we call this map an "inverse"
that's
a good point
i don't really understand this class and neither does anyone else, i just feel behind at all times
so thats the non-cardinality-based argument id use
i like your argument
it makes a lot of sense
could we talk about the cardinality as well?
2 = 1+1 = f(1) + f(1) = f(1+1) = f(2) = f(sqrt(2) * sqrt(2)) = f(sqrt(2)) * f(sqrt(2))
but we know the square roots of 2 are irrational
so this is impossible
so Q has same cardinality as N
why?
and N has different cardinality to R
ahhh i can't really be bothered
there's things all over the web
that'll explain it better
you can think of it as sort of "Zigzagging"
except fiddly
now apply this sort of process
why?
so f(1) = 1/1, f(2) = 1/2, f(3) = 2/1, f(4) = 1/3, f(5) = 2/2, f(6) = 3/1, f(7) = 1/4...
oh i see
except theres a problem: some rationals will appear multiple times
for example, 1/1 = 2/2 = 3/3
1/2 = 2/4
etc
true
(in fact, all rationals will appear infinitely many times)
but tehres a "fix" to this
if a rational already appeared in the list
just "skip" it
like so
if we apply this process infinitely, we've given an explicit bijection between the natural numbers and all positive rational numbers
now to extend this to the negative rational numbers as well
just "intermix"
so rather than having:
f(1) = 1
f(2) = 1/2
f(3) = 2
f(4) = 1/3
we'd have:
f(1) = 1
f(2) = -1
f(3) = 1/2
f(4) = -1/2
f(5) = 2
f(6) = -2
f(7) = 1/3
f(8) = -1/3
and this gives us all positive and negative rationals
alright, well, this is definitely over my head now, if it wasn't before
Ahahah
now all we're missing is the only rational number that is neither positive or negative
i.e. 0
but we can just make f(1) equal to 0 and "shift over" everything else
none of what you're saying connects to the original idea, to me
so f(1) = 0, f(2) = 1, f(3) = -1, f(4) = 1/2, and so on
this is a bijection
i don't see the relationship
i'm demonstrating a bijection between the rationals and naturals
and one-to-one
He is showing that there is a bijection
why?
be more specific
why what
so?
how is Q countable?
so that grid is Q
and you can go over them one at a time with N
Q is countable
You cannot write down all the R numbers
tfw no one pauses except you
i would like to see you write down all the rational numbers
We want to show it's impossible for ℚ and ℝ to be isomorphic as rings.
In order for two rings to be isomorphic, they must have the same cardinality; that is to say, there must be a bijection between them.
One way to show ℚ and ℝ are NOT isomorphic, then, is to show they CANNOT have a bijection between them. (This won't always work for all pairs of rings, but it does work in this case).
To do this, we can do the following:
- Show ℚ and ℕ have a bijection between them.
- Show ℕ and ℝ do NOT have a bijection between them.
- Conclude that ℚ and ℝ CANNOT have a bijection between them.
Yes @chilly ocean good definition
that makes some sense
not entirely lost but i still think i need to tape a baseball glove on my head
then i could catch it if it goes over
my argument was a way to show that ℚ and ℕ have a bijection between them
we construct a way of "listing" the rationals
i see
again, still not entirely following, but following more than 0
now, the fact that ℕ and ℝ do NOT have a bijection is very well-known
and due to Cantor
this means that ℚ and ℝ cannot have a bijection either
since otherwise we could simply go:
ℕ → ℚ → ℝ
each step being a bijection
giving us a bijection ℕ to ℝ, which we know cant exist
how about part 2 of my question? Zmod4 × Zmod4 to Zmod16
so there's a list of things
f(1) = 1
f(2) = -1
f(3) = 1/2
f(4) = -1/2
etc.
so this gives us a bijection map bc we can do
1 -> 1
2 -> -1
3 -> 1/2
4 -> -1/2
etc.
everything in Q is covered
and nothing is covered more than once
for that, ℤ₄ × ℤ₄ and ℤ₁₆ actually have the same size
so we cant use a cardinality argument there
but we can use some other facts which an isomorphic should respect
so this is an opportunity to just think very simply about the order of elements thing i was talking about
oh?
so what's the largest order of an element in z16 gonna look like
for example: there's an element in ℤ₁₆ called "5" such that none of these:
5
5+5
5+5+5
5+5+5+5
are equal to 0
can you find such an element in ℤ₄ × ℤ₄?
it's the largest element
no
the class containing 15
nope
No what
stop guessing
kaisheng i think its clear theyre unfamiliar with what "order" means
so the order of an element x is the smallest n where x^n = 1
uh
wait, rings
remember
urgh
we're working with rings here
no
right, so ℤ₄ × ℤ₄ and ℤ₁₆ cannot be isomorphic
But how do you prove that there is none
I'm missing the intermediate step there
if there is an element with order n in one group and no elements with order n in another, then they can't be isomorphic
arghhh
where 0 is the additive identity in both rings
are you familiar with that result?
yes
okay, so this means that
for any element a in ℤ₄ × ℤ₄, we have that
a + a + a + a = (0, 0)
so f(a+a+a+a) = f((0, 0)) = 0
does that make sense?
yes
but then f(a+a+a+a) = f(a) + f(a) + f(a) + f(a) = 0
if it were a bijection, right?
yes, if f were a bijective isomorphism
but thats actually a contradiction
since we KNOW there's an element in ℤ₁₆
so since that's not the case in Z16, it can't be an isomorphism
since it can't be a bijection
am i jumping the gun
(specifically 5)
Ahhh i get it
such that 5 + 5 + 5 + 5 is NOT equal to 0
which means that 5 CANNOT be in the image of f
since for all a, f(a) + f(a) + f(a) + f(a) = 0
this means f is not a surjection
hence f cannot be a bijection
a contradiction.
[the only catch here is that i "skipped" actually demonstrating that a + a + a + a = (0, 0) for all a in ℤ₄ × ℤ₄]
i think it's obvious since Z4 is small
[this can be done by hand; in fact, it follows from the analogous property for ℤ₄ alone]
yeah, its easy to check
basically, the general principle at play here is that
isomorphism means the rings are "the same", just with elements relabelled
so we want to look at rings and find something thats "different"
so i understand and follow the logic, though I don't exactly know how to phrase that in an argument. here's what I've got so far:
in this case, i found that every element of ℤ₄ × ℤ₄ satisfies a+a+a+a = (0, 0) the additive identity
but this is not true for every element of ℤ₁₆
so i found a difference between the two rings, and now it just fell on demonstrating why this means there cant exist an isomorphism
f(a+a+a+a)= 0 for all a in Z4. In Z16, there is an element 5 for which this is not the case. thus f is not onto and thus not a bijection, therefore it cannot be an isomorphism
youre skipping the intermediary there
yeah i know
it feels like I'm missing something
like i said, I'm a fucking idiot
mood
f(1)
must be the identity (1,1) in Z4 x Z4 since f is a homomorphism of rings with identity
assume f is an isomorphism from Z_4 x Z_4 to Z_16.
a + a + a + a = 0 for all a in Z_4, and hence a+a+a+a = (0, 0) for all elements a of Z_4 x Z_4.
since homomorphisms map additive identities to additive identities, we must therefore have f(a+a+a+a) = f(0, 0) = 0.
but then 0 = f(a+a+a+a) = f(a)+f(a)+f(a)+f(a) for all a in Z_4 x Z_4.
since f is an isomorphism, it should be surjective; that is, ANY element y of Z_16 can be written as f(a) for some a in Z_4 x Z_4. in particular, this means ANY element y of Z_16 satisfies y + y + y + y = f(a) + f(a) + f(a) + f(a) = 0.
but this isnt true! for example, take y = 5. then 5 + 5 + 5 + 5 = 20 = 4, which is not the additive identity of Z_16.
thus we have our contradiction; f cannot be an isomorphism. 
does that argument make sense?
let me go through it slowly
i skipped a little bit of reasoning in this line:
a + a + a + a = 0 for all a in Z_4, and hence a+a+a+a = (0, 0) for all elements a of Z_4 x Z_4.
the in-between step is:
we can write all elements of Z_4 x Z_4 as pairs (a, b) for a, b in Z_4. but (a, b) + (a, b) + (a, b) + (a, b) = (a+a+a+a, b+b+b+b) = (0, 0) for any a, b in Z_4.
and again, i still havent actually justified that "a + a + a + a = 0 for all a in Z_4"
but this can be done by hand: 0+0+0+0=0, 1+1+1+1=4=0, and so on up to 3
yes, thats a more concise way to phrase my argument
Ah you are amazing man
"additive order is an isomorphism invariant. Z_16's maximum additive order is 16, attained by, say, 5. Z_4 x Z_4's maximum isomorphism order is 4."
QED
but that's "skipping" some steps of the justification
it's the kind of argument i'd accept late into a ring theory course (since all the verification is mundane), but not in the first month
i wish i understood algebra
no you don't
abandon sanity, all ye who enter here
first month?
well idk how long youve been working with ring isomorphisms specifically
mood
i left this server a while back because i felt so stupid every time i got on here
i ended up dropping that real analysis class like an hour before the first test
i asked my teacher if we could talk after class and she literally just walked away without saying anything except sorry I'm busy
anyway, irrelevant
i wish i understood math
man i started algebra in 7th grade
also yeah, in hindsight, looking at f(1, 1) specifically is a bit quicker/simpler of an argument
not by much
it's the exact same idea
but theres less reasoning required
hey, I've been trying to ask a question here but saw that the discussion kept continuing, can I ask it now?
Man
ask
I feel stupod at
0 = f(0) = f(4) = f(1+1+1+1) = f(1)+f(1)+f(1)+f(1) = (1, 1) + (1, 1) + (1, 1) + (1, 1) = (0, 0)
thats a far faster version
of my above argument
Differential geometry
though i still like my above argument since i think it demonstrates more general principles
anyone got any tips for this one?
yeah
consider the order of G/N, and all the groups of that order?
hmm
yeah
it doesn't have to be cyclic
i think it has to be either z9 or z3xz3
oh right and i see how to get H now i think
sorry this is an aside, but did i mention I'm taking this class as part of a high school math education sequence? fucking insane
i don't see why I need ring theory to teach calculus
but uh yeah
Sylow theorems ?
<-slow brain
I got no idea how to do this one I'm so lost
Bruh
i gave you a hint
alright lemme think for a second
q8/1
What if you loon at the normalizer of the intersection of
two subgroups of order 9??
Does that help lmao
jesus no wonder only a third of americans have a degree
Nah bro
I'm gonna follow up with more questions after Mx. cs31 is done
i despise you
Yea ahah
bad fucking pun
Well stem degrees are great
maths degrees are bs
stem is overrated as fuck
Nah
what is this abstract algebra tomfoolery anyway
actually I'm getting a BA
spending years messing around with Q8 and R/Q and crap
BA is just a BS with foreign language, BAs are strictly better
Trade schools are better than shitty college degrees
how is that useful
Idk
not if you're a teacher
answer: it really isn't
Ahh teaching is nice
not unless you're literally going into maths
you need a teaching license to teach, which requires a degree
They pay mathematicians very well
usually an education degree
huh
oh
Actuarial maths
hmmmmmmmmmmmmm
well is relative
Well in the US
32g/yr is the minimum in my state
but giving a number is good
Ahahaha
LOL
meth in indiana
we had an hiv outbreak in southern indiana when mike fucking hitler banned needle exchange program overnight
Jeez
Why r they banning
Needle exchanges

Anyone can quickly prove the navier stokes for me?
mike pence? electric fence pence?

because he's a piece of shit that's why
Lmaoo
more like marks and spencers amirite?
@chilly ocean namington casuall solves the riemann hypothesis
and i get to look forward to less than 40 grand a year! yippee!
Casually
oh well at least I'm making a difference
Terence Tao learnt from namington
have you tried giving up and becoming a personal tutor
We need namington memes
TAO
mirzathecutiepie
tau > pi 
$\psi$ moment
[daddy]Adika
$fuck$
b1gchungu5
Same
you're welcome
Looks badass
um?
mirzathecutiepie
you are not blessed
b1gchungu5
mirzathecutiepie
[daddy]Adika
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
xi
epsilon
$\xi$
b1gchungu5
Yess xi
$\Xi$
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
习
$\frac{\underline{\overline{\Xi}}}{\overline{\Xi}}$
Chmonkey didnt get into Columbia
$\frac{\overline \Xi} \Xi$
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
aw Im too slow

$\frac{\overline \zeta} \xi$
b1gchungu5
big chungus in lowmath!?!?!?
i have to finish this fucking algebra
what do u have to do
and then ed psych to read
unlike analysis where you do the things
but then it doesn't work
this meme brought to you by: I am not as good at analysis gang
R is an integral domain. assume the division algorithm works fine in R[x]. prove R is a field
It implies R[x] is a euclidean domain
So like
if you know a lot of theory you get that R[x] is dim 1, so that R is dim 0, and any dim 0 ID is a field
wayment
dim
krull dimension
Algebra is 100x easier than geometry for me
longest length of prime ideals
oh nvm
Anyoen else hates differential geometry
yes i do
yes please
If you have the division algorithm
am i right about units
then it's a euclidean domain, so in particular a PID
euclidean domain
it's literally
it's where euclid lives
oh
Okay so
yeah I'm gonna guess I'm not allowed to use that
You want to show that every ideal is principal
so every ideal is generated by 1 thing
"1+1=2 because 2=1+1"
that's not what the divison algorithm is hahaha
i am aware
sol ike
if you can show that every ideal is principal
holy crap
they really want you to do this like
without any theory
RIP
yes
that's the point of the class
Lmao
an ideal is a subring closed under multiplication from the rings elements
an ideal is principioal if its 'generated' by one element
it's not a ring if you require rings to have 1
okay so
that what it means to be generated
wetterbern's theorem is neat
you need to show every element has an inverse okay so
let's try it this way
okay so
do you think you could show that
And there is a 360 page one
the degree(f(x)g(x)) is the sum of the degrees of f and g
Some idea of the scope and comprehensiveness of the “Principia” can be gleaned from the fact that it takes over 360 pages to prove definitively that 1 + 1 = 2. Today, it is widely considered to be one of the most important and seminal works in logic since Aristotle's “Organon”.
because of the integral domain-ness
unfortunately the syntax is absolute trash
ha, he spelled octagon wrong
Lmao
how does that make it a field
then this tells you the inverse of any degree 0 element must be another degree 0 element if it exists
So now
Umm
now I wanted to apply the division algorithm to somehow like
get that every constant has an inverse inside of R[x]
then the thing I said above
yeah i have no fucking idea why the DA matters
that's why i have nothibg written
I'm not really following
Okay so
let c be a constant
aka an element of R
let's just say we knew c^-1 exists in R[x]
well what if c^-1 wasn't a constant?
what if it includes liek an x term or something
the thing I said above says that's not possible
so that c^-1 is a constant
then c would have to be deg1
deg 0
oh right
if it had a linear term
so the point is my little thing I said means
which we said it wasn't
right
so you can try to find inverses to elements of R inside R[x]
so now you probably have to do some clever shit with the division algorithm
so I think you want to
divide 1
by c
so like
you can write
1 = cq(x) + r
that's what the division algorithm says
Show that r = 0
r(x)
right
But if you can show r(x) = 0
then q(x) is an inverse inside of R[x]
which we just argued has to be a constant
how can i guarantee r is zero
Idk, probably something like
1 is degree 0
like
r is supposed to be degree less than the thing you divided by no?
or like
c is degree 0
so shouldn't r be degree < 0
aka has to be 0
or something like that
wait so q(x)=c^-1 right
so r(x) has to be deg0
well no
q(x) is only c^-1
after you show that r(x) = 0
because if it weren't then
well...
q(x)c = 1 - r(x)
we're supposing that q(x) is the inverse right
what are we supposing
you aren't supposing anything
we have to let something be something
you apply the division algorithm
to get the statement
1 = cq(x) + r(x) for r(x) like having degree < degree(c) I think
then show that r(x) = 0
then you get the equality
1 = cq(x) so that q(x) = c^-1
so is also in R
then c is invertible in R
yeah
interesting
I'm like 75% following
but that's so you can even apply the division algorithm
Like what is your statement of the division algorithm
you should be able to make this work
Anyway I have to do stuff so I can't explain anymore
This probably works
so do what you gotta do to make it work
bro
c is in R
by division algorithm
you get
1 = cq(x) + r(x)
right?
that's what it says?
you haven't supposed anything other than c is in R and I guess nonzero
then you prove that r(x) = 0
this proves q(x) = c^-1
so that q(x) is in R
you shouldn't be assuming anything about q(x) really
yeah
I mean
probably, I don't know what your definition of DA is
but if it's anything like the one I know
you should be able to get that
i see
anyway gtg

