#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 556 of 407
and if you tensor over Z
then Z[G] \otimes _Z M with the left G action is isomorphic as G-modules to Z[G] \otimes _Z M with the diagonal G-action
I thought this was pretty weird when a friend pointed it out
but this seems to be an instance of a general fact about hopf algebras
This smells analogous to the fact that any G-torsor trivializes itself
the proof is that you have this shearing isomorphism
which sends g \otimes m to g \otimes g^{-1}m
or something like that
Is there a way to translate this in a purely module-theoretic context? Like with S subs. R
Or does this phenomenon work only for group modules
you definitely want something that looks like a group ring
otherwise this wouldnt make too much sense
Ah, right, else e.g. doubling on the left vs. Doubling on both sides cannot be the same
My B \otimes_A B thing shows up here in disguise!
When we look at Z acting on things eg
$\bZ G\otimes_\bZ M=(\bZ G\otimes_\bZ \bZ G)\otimes_{\bZ G}M$
Icy001
I believe $\bZ G\otimes_\bZ \bZ G\cong \prod_G\bZ G$ too (nope this isn't true)
Icy001
I don't know where I'm going with this by the way
lol
but yeah, it has got something to do with the fact that Z[G] is a hopf algebra
with comult g to g\otimes g
and antipode g to g^{-1}
Hmm I'd have thought that it being a Hopf algebra gives the reason for why $\Spec \bZ G$ is a group scheme
Icy001
I can't immediately see how co-stuff proves the original thing
The map looks like $g\otimes m\mapsto g\otimes gm$
Icy001
it's a g^{-1} on the right
From the module with only a left G-action to the module with the diagonal G-action
I checked h times that for both sides and it works though
The inverse would have g^-1 maybe
and you do have it since ZG is the group algebra for a group G and groups have inverses (!)
yes
Hmmm
What is this geometrically
Pullback definitely somewhere
Well Spec ZG only makes sense when G is an abelian group
that's a slight bummer
I still have a possible interpretation in terms of [*/G]
iirc affine group schemes/k are dual to commutative hopf algebras/k, so you're smelling something right
Hopf algebras are a mystery I'd also like to understand at some point :> glad that it actually seems to be something people talk about
What the fuck
it pretty much follows from the definition
This might be a stupid question but if n|2m and m<n, why does n have to be even?
so n|2m means kn=2m right? for some k
yeah
(or if you like, if n was odd, then n|2m => n|m)
Yeah, that makes sense to me
so almost never zero
I was thinking of how J ≈ Z in Z
So it'll be R/J always
(but this isn't true in general rings)
Aluffi Corollary 2.8 in chapter VIII
The formula I said
Oh lol
Juggabalooga
Yeah, but I didn't know how to "restrict" it
Ohh nevermind
randleS
what does ptr mean?
randleS
maybe "pth roots always exist in a field of characteristic p"?
er
no, maybe this is only true for finite fields
Let F be the field F3(x), and consider the extension K of it by adjoining a square root of x.
Oh, nevermind. I was hoping to construct a clever counterexample
hm, not entirely sure if the details of this works but
you have that a satisfies the polynomial f(x) = x^m - a^m, which has coefficients in F
since m = p^t * r, this factors as (x^r - a^r)g(x^p)
So g here is not a separable polynomial, but since the extension is separable, this must mean that the minimal polynomial of a divides (x^r - a^r)
and this should imply that a^r is in F I think
I'm sorry I don't quite get the final step
yeah I'm not sure it works
I think it uses some weird property of the characteristic, but even looking through my notes from the class I can't find it
I think it does
Formulated slightly differently: If a^r is not an element of F, but a^pr is, then F(a^pr) is obtained by adjoining a pth root, which should not yield a separable extension.
(We can take t = 1 for the moment)
Then F(a^r) is...*
(can we not say that [K:F] divides deg(f)!)?
okay ig thats wrong then
ig this works
so say a1, a2, ..., ap are the roots of the f in K
and we know K = F(a1, a2, ..., ap)
What can we say about the degree [F(ai):F]?
the idea is [K:F] divides the product.. hence p has to divide one of [F(ai):F]
This means degree of minimal polynomial of ai, is atleast p. but the minimal polynomial has to divide f, which shows f is the minimal polynomial, which in turn means it is irred.
i hope this is right... i need to confirm that [L(alpha):L] divides [F(alpha):F] if L is an extension
hmm from what my prof said I think she expected us to do it roughly the other way
assuming it's reducible, then showing some contradiction comes when considering the fact that each of the components have to divide it
okay that works too, and maybe it also avoid the thing i'm not sure of...
So say f was reducible...
and again a1,...,ap are roots of f in K
Now look at [F(a1...a_{i-1}, a_i):F(a1,...., a_{i-1})] <= [F(a_i):F] < p
but the product of the things on the left is precisely [K:F]
but none of the factors are divisible by p... and so is the product
(for the second part... could you remind me what did separable 'over F' meant?)
I think there’s a more succinct way to do this without roots. Separable means that it has no repeated roots
^
(to the second part. your proof is better than what I could come up with haha)
Let F be the splitting field of f
You can get to F by looking at the splitting field of g over K, then taking the splitting field of h inside that
So you can write [F : K] = [F: L][L: K]
L is the splitting field of g over K
Then both [F:L][L:K] cant contain a factor of p
Because they have to divide deg(h)! and deg(g)!
But both those degrees are < p since we assumed f wasn’t irreducible
Yes
Or err
Yes you need to divide that
Because maybe h reduces down a bit inside of L
But either way the degree of the thing you take should be <= deg(h)
And so this is like saying n! < m! If n < m... I think?
Let me think a second haha
Maybe not a strict divide actually
It might split weirdly and you keep just kind of going through one more splitting field in the irreducible components
But at the very least, at each step the poly has degree < p
So a factor of p could never appear
yea
So I feel like for the other part you want to show inseparable => t = 1 so that the extension is deg p
Since f is irreducible, this says the splitting field is generated by one of the roots
Idk why that would be tho I’m bad at field theory
yea that part is easy... because irred, insep => derivative = 0
p is assumed to be prime if that helps
We’ve been using that the whole time hahaha
lmao oops haha
I hadn't looked at what you wrote and so I was responding to this. thought you meant one of p's factors
No haha
so derivative can't be 0 if characteristic wasn't p. And if char is p, then the polynomial is forced to look like x^p - a. now just adding one root is enough to get the splitting field, as if b was the root, then this splits as (x-b)^p
Does irreducible plus inseparable imply f’ = 0 as a polynomial?
I thought f and f’ sharing a root was equiv to having a repeated root
Or something like that
yea because insep means that f and f' have a non-trivial factor but since f is irred that can't be true
(unless f' = 0)
How do they share a non-trivial factor? Is this following from them having the same root?
gcd(f, f') would be a polynomial over the same field, and it will have that repeated root
Ummm hmmmm
So if we calculate the gcd up in the splitting field I see why it must have that root
But I don’t see why the gcd in the base field has it
This might be me being dumb
Oh wait nvm
yea this is a bit awkward, but the way to find gcd doesn't depend on the base field... like a hand wavy argument would be to say doing euclidean algorithm in both fields should give the gcd...
Hmm
I was thinking something like
Look at the min polynomial
Actually this suffices
As long as you know the min poly divides any polynomial of which this thing is a root
Since dividing f’ means it has deg < p
Then it also divides f
So as long as f’ isnt 0 then you get some non-constant poly dividing f and it has deg < p
yep, this is nice too
I see yeah
Now it’s x^p - a
And then it’s generated by like a^1/p*primitive root of unity
Actually yeah what you said about it factoring
and we can do weird things like (a-b)^p = a^p-b^p
Yeah, that’s preferable
I don’t like “root of unity”
Since I forget if those even exist
Lmao
lol
yea ig in this case the only pth root of unity is 1
btw are those 2 things true? [K:F] dividing deg(f)! or [L(a):L] dividing [F(a):F]?
in the first one K is the splitting field of f in F[x] and in the second one, L is just a field extension of F
these things 'feel' true but i can only easily see the "inequality" instead of "divides"
I thought it’s divides
But maybe it’s <=
I was thinking about it and couldn’t convince myself of it either like
I think it could go like...
6,2,2
I guess that still divides 6! haha
proof by lack of counterexamples 
I don’t think it divides
Haha
I think I just made that up LOL
I think it’s true for deg 3
Maybe for deg 4?
By like size concerns
its true if the extension is galois
Right
Yeah I’m almost certain it’s false
But you’d need to go up to not so small degrees to find one I think
alright thanks so much for the help!

2nd is definitely false lol... take a = cbrt(2)*w, F = Q, L = Q(cbrt(2))
ig k bar is algebraic closure of k and G_k is Aut(k bar/k)?
yeah, each of the x_i in k are sent somewhere by some isomorphism in G_k is all
Oh thank you, that's what I needed
vov&sons
Is this correct reasoning for determining size of orbits?
oh, that should say |Stab(x)| != 49, not 40
No, a nontrivial action could act trivially on one of the x's
It just can't act trivially on all of the x's
So it's possible that |Stab(x)| = 49 for some x, just not all of them
hm, but we know that orbits are disjoint sets right
so the other possible sizes for orbits are 1 through 6
but only 1 and 7 divide 49, so this forces the other orbits to also be 1
contradicting that the action of G is nontrivial
Yeah, that works
also no orbit has size 49 lol
since there aren't 49 elements in V
so orbits necessarily have size 7
Dont exactly understand this
I dont see how both of those cases are the only two possible cases
p either divides index of subgroup or it does not
I'm curious now. In what context are you reading this? Seems unusual to do this before learning about group theory.
a shorter proof is using group actions
Hello! I have a very short question. Is every polynomial of the form $x^5 + ax +b$ solvable by radicals? I have tested a few polynomials and all my examples have been not solvable by radicals
おねえちゃん
if a = 0 or if b = 0, then it clearly solvable by radicals... there are example such as a = -5, b = -1 where this isn't the case.
Okay, but if a or b are not zero and the polynomial is irreducible?
I'm not too sure... but i remember this result that if the polynomial has 3 real roots and 2 complex roots, then we would get that the galois group contains a transposition (which is the complex conjugation) and it would also contain an element of order 5. This would be sufficient to conclude that galois group is S5 and that isn't solvable...
(in general degree a prime p, p-2 real roots, and 2 complex roots)
Yeah I heard about this as well. But what if x^5 + ax + b has exacly one real root then? Then the rest four complex roots are conjugates, so the Galois group contains two transpositions and an element of order 5. Does this imply that the Galois group is S_5?
Well if one transposition and an element of order 5 is sufficient to show that the Galois group is S_5, then the case where we have two transpositions must also imply this, right? Or am I missing something?
no so you don't get 2 transpositions... you get a product of 2 transpositions
if I label the roots 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 then and say 2-3 and 4-5 are the complex conjugate pairs
so conjugating is same as the permutation (1)(23)(45)
you probably just need to check if a 5 cycle and the permutation (23)(45) can generate something of order less than 60
But if 2-3 and 4-5 are conjugate pairs, then isn't (23) and (45) permutations in the Galois group?
but the conjugation flips both 2-3 and 4-5 simultaneously
Why simultaneously? Why can't I just conjugate 4 to get 5 and just stop there and not conjugate 2 to get 3?
so lets say F = Q(r1, r2, r3, r4, r5) is the splitting field of f(x)
you're basically saying that you can find an automorphism T that fixes r1, r2, r3, but T(r4) = r5 and T(r5)=r4
and I'm saying, look, we know one automorphism which is complex conjugation which swaps r2-r3 and r4-r5
Oh yeah, that's true. So the conjugation is of the form (23)(45)?
yep
i'm not an expert at this... so there maybe a lot of people who have something nice to say
So the question now becomes, does a permutation of order 5 and a "double transposition" (like (23)(45)) generate S_5?
(you can say that permutation of order 5 is a 5-cycle)
Oh okay, so something like (12345)?
there are a lot of 5-cycles ... so idk what to say
Yeah I know, but something of the form (abcde)?
So it generates a group of order 60?
the specific (12345) does
Maybe we can just run through all 5-cycles and see if we ever get a order smaller than 60
I proved the formula using observation and applying it in general

I didn't use galois theory
I just use the same observation and used inclusion and exclusion
for arbitrary number of sets
but this is bound to fail
in the sense that we already know that 5th roots of unity have 4-complex and 1 real root
ah but that is not irred
lesse what happens
but their galois group doesn't have a 5-cycle
okay already failed
But by cauchys theorem there is an element of order 5 in the Galois group of x^5 + ax + b
isn't that the dihedral group of order 10
like if all were >=60 we could have surely said that the group is always in solvable
now that you say... why did this give 60?
because that was A5
imagining a pentagon labeled with 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
oh oops
to make it D10 it should be labeled something like 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
I’m reading a brief intro to algebraic geometry. The screenshot I sent was something similar online
yea but the problem with this is that even if we get small cardinalities, that wouldn't guarantee that the corresponding group is indeed a galois group of something. another problem is that we only know that the galois group contains atleast these many elements
I haven’t taken a course covering group theory or anything
So I have a lot of holes in my knowledge of this stuff
yeah that's true. But maybe there's some sort of restriction somewhere (for example a restriction of the element of order 5) so that the 5 cycle and the double transposition generates a group of order greater or equal to 60
It really feels like x^5+ax+b, with only one real root, should be unsolvable by radicals
doesn't x^5-1 only have one real root and is solvable by radicals ?
but when a and b are not zero
and the polynomial is irreducible
That really feels like some sort of theorem
Okay never mind. I just read about quintic polynomials on wikipedia and they present the polynomial x^5+625/4x + 3750 which is solvable with a and b not zero, one real root and is also irreducible...
Does anyone happen to know this? https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4063444/677593
I am trying to compute Z(G) where G is the (nonoriented rubiks cube group)
As the comment says, it's far more efficient to just calculate the effective permutation (i.e. permutation of the stickers) the superflip corresponds to and then check that this permutation commutes with each generator
that can even be done visually, since you don't need to know how the superflip is composed as a term, but what it does all at once
what does it say about the ring R and a proper, nonzero R-submodule I (that is, an ideal) if I²=I?
Hm, that feels almost illegal
Maybe an idea: this sound like it would be true for I a minimal ideal (do these things usually exist? Something something artinian ring?)
Does this work if the ideal is finitely generated?
PID should be out of the question due to (r)² = (r²) if I'm not insanely stupid
This does not have to be the case if we look at idempotents btw
Take ℤ³ and the idempotent (1,1,0) for instance, it certainly is not minimal
Of course we're not talking about domains anymore in that case
Also, appearently the following holds: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/255885/91103
(Finitely generated idempotent ideals in a commutative ring are generated by an idempotent)
It says R can't be local, for one (I guess this is only in the case I is f.g.). I think you need a pretty messed up ring for this to ever be true, it's certainly rare
I did this exercise lol
maybe cursed amendment, but what if I replaced ring with associative unital local algebra
context: I was wondering when Ω_{B/A} = I/I² is trivial for a map of rings A→B
This exercise in Atiyah-MacDonald is probably not very useful, but is interesting: R is absolutely flat (that is, every R-module is flat) if and only if all principal ideals are idempotent.
(If this holds, then every f. g. ideal is principal).
In invariant theory, say we have a group action $G$ on a vector space $V$ with dimension $n$), we can identify each $x_i$ in $F[x_1,\dots,x_n]$ with $(0,\dots,1,\dots,0)$ in $V$ (I think choice of basis doesn’t matter), and this extends to a unique mapping from $F[x_1,\dots,x_n]$ to itself, which corresponds to $(gf)(x)=f(g(x))$. This to me feels like the more natural definition than the usual $(gf)(x)=f(g^{-1}x)$ for $g\in G$ and a polynomial $f$. My question is, is the reason why we define it to be $g^{-1}$ because this will result in a group action and the theory stays the same (in the sense that same group action will result in the same invariant using either definition) ?
tina
What you described is not a group action unless G is abelian
At least, the formula (gf)(x) = f(g(x))
https://youtu.be/RYPt7kGdo7s i’m watching this video btw
This lecture is part of an online course on commutative algebra, following the book
"Commutative algebra with a view toward algebraic geometry" by David Eisenbud.
Reading: Section 1.3
Exercises: 1.6, 1.7
Try to look at how a product gh acts on some polynomial f
Yeah that’s why I said mapping instead of action
my question is is it because reason we define it to be g inverse
Oh, sorry — in that case I think that’s your answer, yeah
We want it to be a group action because then we can do things with the group
Otherwise this function doesnt respect the group operation and so it might as well not even be a group
I dont know all the details but yes it should, in general these kinds of things are more just for “bookkeeping”
oh wait not necessarily
but thank you!
hang on
so let $(f\times_1g)(x)=f(gx)$ and $(f\times_2g)(x)=f(g^{-1}x)$, then we have $f\times_1g=f\times_2g^{-1}$, which means that if a polynomial is fixed under $\times_1$ by all $g$ then it will be fixed under $\times_2$ by all $g$, and vice versa. This is what I meant by it will result in the same theory
tina
@oblique river
Yeah that seems reasonable to me
Also im going to bed now — sorry for the abrupt ending!
Np!
is there any general way of finding sylow subgroups of any group?
I am not sure what do you mean exactly by "finding," but factorization is a special case of this problem (take Z/nZ).
ok
Let $G$ be a group of order 294. Show that G has exactly one Sylow 7-subgroup.
Yes
So 294 = 2 3 7^2
and then
49 divides 294
i dont know how to show that the number of left cosets the normalizer of P makes with G is 1 tho?
so $n_7 = [G : N_G(P)] = 1 $ mod 7
why does it need to divide 6 ?
That's part of Sylow theorems
Does anyone have any idea why the statement in the exercise here is true?
wdym why it's true
I mean why is $\mathbb{A}^1(\mathbb{C})$ is irreducible.
snypehype
well, suppose it were reducible, then 𝔸¹_C = V₁ ∪ V₂ for algebraic sets V₁, V₂. then, one of the V must be infinite
now what do you know about the number of roots of a polynomial in C[x]
They are finite. Oh I see!
yeah
This wouldn't work in $C[x,y]$ right?
snypehype
yeah it wouldn't
(you can prove that an algebraic set is irreducible if and only if its ideal is prime)
I see, I think at some point my book will introduce this so for now I want to stick with more elementary methods
Hi. Can someone give me an example of a ring R and a subset X, such that the ideal generated by X is not the same as the subring generated by X
R = Z, X = {2}
(i hope that subring generated by X, means that smallest subring containing X, also that your rings contain 1)
yes its the smallest subring containing X
(so the argument is subrings must contain 1... but then it would be all of Z)
I think an easier example that doesn't rely on "do you contain 1 or not" is R = Q, X = {1}
the ideal (1) is all of Q
but 1 generates the subring Z
ooh nice
That guy is good
i guess it's okay, cuz there is no such a condition that 1 shouldn't be contained
thanks a lot guys 🙂
If $a^n = 0$, $aaaaa\cdots aaa = 0 \Rightarrow (aaaaaa\cdots aaa)a = 0$
Yes
so we do the same thing to the inner part of the brackets
until it itself is 0
and then call it b
then b^2 = 0
like that?
idk
seems weird
hmm?
only true if you have no zero divisors
oh
isnt X that element?
what element
b
oh ok ye what young smasher said tho
well
Sup
we dunno about zero divisors
do you know what a domain is?
what kind of domain
integrla domain
yes
Someone know about Octornion number?
yeah so you can only make the conclusion that Xa = 0 \implies X = 0 in an integral domain
for example you can find nonzero matrices which multiply to 0
i see
but you're on the right track for the problem
i'm not sure if the problem is stated correctly but i think it means that you should assume that a^k \neq 0 for all 1 \leq k < n

i see
Bany, um futuro phideas
Here
a^n-1 I guess
a^n-1 isnt 0?
a^n doesn't work cause a^n = 0
oh yes
ok
ok
$a^n a^n = a^{2n} = (a^{2n-2})(a^2) ~If ~we ~let ~b = a^{n-1}, b^2 = (a^{2n-2}) = (a^n)(a^{n-2}) = 0a^{n-2} = 0$
in integral domain I guess, yes
Yes
ok actually its fine if you added that for all k <n a^k isnt zero
yes i added the restriction
@unique juniper how you put a white background
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hi guys, i posted my question on linear algebra but maybe that channel isnt for that since noone replied. i will ask here
working on the vector space of polynomials, i am given p(t) = 1+t
the dot product is defined as <p, q> = SUM(ak * bk, k=0..max(n,m))
ak are the coeficients of p and bk from q
i am asked to find the orthogonal subspace generated by p(t)
This is simply all polynomials whose constant coefficient and linear coefficient are negatives of each other
well
i got that
are all plynomials that the sum of their coefficients is 0
because what i have is
@chilly ocean is this correct?
I'm not sure what you are doing, it looks weird
mmm
Inner product of p(t) and 1+t should just be a0 + a1
first line is the definition of my dot product
2 polynomios are orthogonal if dot product is 0, right?
so i need <p(t), 1+t> = 0
Yes
cuz 1+t is the one i am given
and p(t) can be any
so a0 + a1 * t + a2 * t^2 + ... and so on
the definition of my dot product is the sum of the product of the coefficients
so the coefficients of 1+t is b0 = 1 and b1=1
and the coefficients of p(t) are a0, a1, a2, etc
so basically after the dot product i have twice each coefficient (?)
and since it has to be 0, i can divide by 2
o.O
How do you get twice each coefficient? This makes little sense to me
a0b0 + a1b1 should be a0+a1, right?
And the rest of a2b2+ ... Are 0
cuz i have ak * bk (ak is a0, a1, a2) and (bk is 1 and 1 (the 1 from 1 and the 1 from the t)
so i have [a0, a1, a2, a3] * [1, 1] = a0 + a0 + a1 + a1 + a2 + a2
why?
why?
Because b0=b1=1
Because b2=b3=...=0
alright xd sure
oooooooh true true
I'm not sure what is happening here
mmmm i have 2 polynomios: p(t) = a0 + a1 * t + a2 * t^2 + ... + an * t^n and q(t)=1+t
and i have to do the dot product, which is SUM(ak * bk)
But how do you get a0 + a0 + a1 + a1 + ... ? I thought you might be confusing it with polynomial multiplication, but that is not right either
because my ak's are [a0, a1, a2, a3, ...]
so far so good?
No, I am not following what you are saying
and my bk's are [1, 1]
does this make sense to u?
Sure
okey
and my bk's are [1, 1]
Why not [1,1,0,0,0,...]?
okey, yeah
1,1,0,0,0,0..... until n (the grade on my p(t))
right?
Yeah
ah true, i was doing every ak with 1, and then the same again
i wasnt doing k with k
i was doing like a double loop
aaaah my bad
so i have a0 + a1
a0 + a1 = 0
is this my orthogonal vector subspace?
Yeah
So "constant coefficient and linear coefficne tshould be negatives of each other"
okey
and the second part is
prove this inf-dimensional
just because ak belongs to R?
I guess ak belonging to R can be thought to be a part of it, but I wouldn't say this is really the main point
then which one is?
Do you recall a condition for a vector space to be infinite dimensional?
not right now, let me search
okey i have that
for any n € N, we can find any vector linearly independant (sorry if terminology sucks) of dimension n
Yeah
so, how does this apply here?
Can you find n linearly independent vectors (polynomials)?
1/2 - 1/2 * t, 1/3 - 1/3 * t
and so on
this?
But these are linearly dependent, the second one is 2/3 the first one
no no no
yeah
ehm
can i?
i dont think so
since a0 = -a1
Er, you're looking at polynomials of any degree, not just linear, right?
yeah
So as long as a0=-a1, it can be any polynomial
ah,yeah, but thats because a0 € R
no?
no
i mean, i know why but idk how to say
I guess I'm not sure what you mean by that, I agree that a0 can /must be in R, but this works in any field
is because for any n i will get equation = 0 with n terms
like, imagine if my p(t) was 1 - t + 1/6 t^2 - pi * t^3
i will get a0 - a1 + 1/6 * a2 - pi * a3 = 0
and i can make this happen
What does this equation mean? (a0, a1,... Are supposed to be coefficients? But then why not eg a2=1/6,etc?)
what?
sorry i didnt understand that
I don't know how you got that equation
before we did a0 + a1 = 0 cuz my p(t) was 1 + t
Overall you are saying some weird things that I don't understand
what if my p(t) = 1 - t + 1/6 t^2?
Oh, as opposed to 1+t?
yee
no
HAHAHA
But why are we talking about changing 1+t?
finding the orthogonal subspace to 1 - t + 1/6 t^2
instead of the orthogonal to 1+t
This should be infinite dimensional too, if thats what you are saying
yeah
i know
so the same way with 1+t we get a0 = - a1
for this new case coefficients remain like a0 - a1 + 1/6 * a2 = 0
no?
Sure
okey so the reason is this
for any n-degree polynomio
i can do this
but idk how to write it properly as a prove
I'm still not sure what you are trying to say, I don't see what this says about the 1+t case
it has nothing to be with 1+t
it was a new example
why for 1+t, the orthogonal vector subspace is inf-dimensional?
But 1+t case is the one we are interested in, right?
yes we are, but i wanted to generalize it
this ^
@chilly ocean u here? uwu
I am here, but I should technically not be on discord, I am at work
ups sprry
if someone else can tell me i will appreciate ^^
slimvesus
oh
is that called direct sum or something?
so k[t] is inf-dimensional
and 1+t is 1
so inf = 1 + x
so x inf too?
this works here? nice nice, ty 😄
yeah, the dimension of the orthogonal
okey okey
thanks ^^
no no
i think we saw this but i forgot
we are working
on a prehilbert space
so yeah, it is
cuz pre hilbert are closed, right?
oh u edited ur msg
this one
yeah, here the norm is induced by inner product
slimvesus
sorry is the claim that the orthogonal complement of the span of 1+t is not finite dimensional?
if so, you can see this more directly. Let B = {1-t, t^2, t^3, ...}. By direct computation, each element of B is orthogonal to 1+t. Also clearly B is linearly independent. I claim B spans (and so is a basis for) the orthogonal complement of span(1+t). Say f(t) is orthogonal to 1+t. Write f(t) = a + bt + g(t), where g(t) has no degree 0 or 1 terms. Then a+b = <1+t, f(t)> = 0, so a+bt = a + (-a)t = a(1 - t). Clearly g(t) is in the span of {t^2,t^3,...}, so f(t) = a(1-t) + g(t) is in the span of B
I like this a little better because you get an actual basis for the orthogonal complement
I should note that by basis I mean Hamel basis, not Schauder basis
not finite = infinite
i guess this is harder for me than the direct sum
Are U and V subgroups of G and u is a homomorphism from G to some other space? Overall I'm not familiar with this notation
And HK={hk: h in H and k in K}?
Hopefully I am not doing anything wrong, but I think it's something like: that subgroup of U/u is the set of cosets au (a in U) such that there exists x in au with x in U cap V. Then this condition boils down to something like a in (U cap V)u, which is should be(?) equivalent to u(U cap V), I think
What is even V/v cap U/u? This is like a compilation error, makes no sense
Also (U cap V)/u is also a compilation error, unless we can show U cap V contains u
What do you mean by "homomorphic to some subgroup of G"? Homomorphic=isomorphic?
Er, sorry, sec
I guess you meant homomorphic as in, is a homomorpic image of a subgroup of G
But yeah, surely I think it is saying that U/u is the homomorpic image of U, under the canonical map
And "subgroup of U/u consisting of blah blah blah" is cosets au such that au cap U cap V is nonempty
They mean something like "the subgroup of U/u consisting of images of elements x such that x in U cap V" right?
Or I guess maybe "consisting of cosets au such that au=bu for some b in V"
But so b should be in U, so this should be cosets bu with b in U cap V, right?
So this is something like (U cap V)u/u, and probably something like (U cap V)u=u(U cap V)
Or maybe there was a commutativity error somewhere
I think the "right" explanation is via some isomorphism theorem, relating subgroups of U/u to groups A with u < A < U, I'm not sure I can recall the details off the top of my head.
Something like that, (U cap V)/u is illegal in the first place, the top group doesn't need to contain u
Yeah, I guess that's true
I think there are just some annoying details to work through in terms of what precisely is meant by these notations, and it will make sense
if R doesnt have identity, then the subring cant?
so we assume R has identity?
??
yes, we dont talk about rings without identity
Imagine assuming rings do not need to have identity
idk i feel like it was emphasised that we should assume that rings dont have identity and if they did, it would be explicitly said
Does it say at the top of the exercises list or the beginning of the chapter? I recall d and f usually put it in those places
Hey, I have to show that $wx^3 + zy^3 = 0 \in \mathbb{C} \mathbb{P}^3$ is irreducible but not exactly sure on how to proceed. Does anyone have any idea?
ah yes it does
i didnt see lol
snypehype
like, show it has solutions?
I think that's what is meant. Alternatively, we can interpret it as "contains the identity if it exists."
Let E be the set of all identity elements of R. What is said here is thag Z(R) contains E. Sometimes E is empty, sometimes it's not.
@delicate bloom oh sorry I forgot to fully write the question
The actual question is:
Hey, I have to show that $wx^3 + zy^3 = 0 \in \mathbb{C} \mathbb{P}^3$ is an irreducible surface but not exactly sure on how to proceed. Does anyone have any idea? i.e. the polynomial is irreducible
snypehype
Use Gauss's lemma and the Eisenstein criterion or reduction mod a certain polynomial, probably
yo quick question cuz Im blind: how do they expand this f_p(x+1)
looks like binomial theorem
As a polynomial in x, it is primitive, and then it is an Eisenstein polynomial at the prime z
Would Axler be better to ask about in here than in #linear-algebra since it's not a "row reduce your way to the promised land" book? 😛
is that what you think #linear-algebra is? 
I know when it was shoved into Calc II at Georgia Tech aaaages ago when I took it, that's what it turned into, lol.
(to phrase tterra's response in a different way, arguably Axler is more "linear algebra" than matrix operations are)
And when I used to tutor students in it before they finally separated the classes.
either way it would be fine to talk about axler in #linear-algebra
@magic owl is your name an lgbtq joke?
okay okay
Ah. I just didn't wanna clutter the room for people who need more computational help.
sorry ashura I'm just meming
i was about to have an aneurysm if not
LOL it's fine 😛
I agree that you could talk about it in #linear-algebra
Cool cool.
honestly is it worth making separate channels
someone the other day came in and asked max if his name was supposed to mean that there are only 2 genders
because 2 is the only even prime
and "2 only" means "there are only 2 genders"

yeah lmao
that is a stretch that can't even be detected by homotopy
hahaha
yeah that was really off the wall
they said some other really questionable things
huh moh tuh pee
or
hoe moe toe pee
(Alternatively if anyone wants to tackle it in here feel free since it's been like half an hour 😛 And it apparently it's much harder because it's not true over all fields?)
I do know why F₂ is a counterexample to it always being true ... Because if you consider F₂², then the union of the spaces generated by <1,0>, <1,1>, and <0,1> gives you the entire space of a whopping four points.
what is "it"
homo top YUH
Sorry, what's the original problem?
Ahh okay
If a group is a union of three subgroups, then each of them is of index 2. But that's probably even harder to prove than this problem.
@oblique river I'm thinking about geometry
And how like
This feels like a statement you could overcomplicate with AG

It's lines in space!
oh boy yeah hahaha
Actually I feel like
It's a dimension thing
At its heart
I tried to use inclusion exclusion
(this is only in the finite dimensional case ofc)
yeah
and what is inclusion-exclusion but combinatorics
and what is combinatorics but AG over F_1
So like, $\dim(U+V+W) = \dim(U) + \dim(V) + \dim(W) - \dim(U \cap V) - \dim(V\cap W) - \dim(W \cap U) + \dim(U \cap V \cap W)$
Oh no
I've tricked myself
Into doing combo

hahaha
s_n -> Shamrock weakly
The formula I wrote above?
Hmm, you might be right. I don't see how it can be true over a finite field...
I thought it was true for some reason
So we have an exact sequence
No, any field
Hmm
y = 0, x = 0, y = x
Yeah
So like
You have a complex
0 <- V+W+U <- V (+) W (+) U <- K <- 0
But I guess K is complicated
yeahhh
shakes first sygzygys
Wait hmm
So if v+w+u = 0
Then v+w is in V+W cap U
Right I see
Intersection doesn't distribute over sums
Oh no, it's cech stuff
So I'm going to bullshit
And say
It works in general position, somehow
And that this condition is equivalent to solidangles' thing failing
Now I'm curious lol
Yeah ik, I thought it might be some weird formula that fails if stuff is a power of two or something
ah ic
Also yeah I'm assuming we're in finite dimensions
I'm just looking for like
A geometric proof
It feels like a statement about dimensions to me
yeah that would be satisfying
👀
it is not true for all fields of characteristic 2 but there are infinitely many fields of characteristic 2 where you can do it
Hmm
Lol
So the complex in that post is exact iff U cap (V+W) = (U cap V) + (U cap W)
I have decided this is not a productive use of my time the night before my analysis final
But that I should think about it Later
Will do
i have decided this problem is Out of My Wheelhouse
,w define wheelhouse
it seems pretty straightforward, the LHS is the set of vectors which are mutually orthogonal to all P_i, since $$(\sum P_i) x = \sum P_i x$$
SU(n)
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
yeah nvm i guess i get it
lol
i think my struggle is
at
concluding a_ng(x) = 0
but ig that gp = 0 shows a_ng = 0
I wouldn't say a_ng=0 is about gp=0, that sounds like a weird thing to say
they don't ask you to show that a_n g(x) = 0
they ask you to show that a_n g(x) p(x) = 0
oh wait nvmd
but
i mean
$(a_nx^n +\cdots)(b_mx^m + b_{m-1}x^{m-1} + \cdots ) = \cdots + (a_nb_mx^m + \cdots a_nb_0) = \cdots + a_ng(x) = 0$
Yes
is this about why a_n g(x) = 0?
yes
Did you get a_n b_m=0?
atleast why i think it is?
yes
so do you get why b_m a_n = 0?
What's the degree of a_n p(x)
- a_n g(x)
<m
But m is the nonzero polynomial such that if a polynomial satisfies that condition, degree of that polynomial >= deg(m)
See minimal degree
Yes
*atmost
since multiplying by a_n "knocks out" the top coefficient
i see
so that means
theres no other nonzero polynomial that has degree less than g, that it multiplied by p, equals 0
*nonzero
yes
So that implies a_n g(x)=0
yeah
i can do the rest
the last part implies that b_mp(x) = 0 because its commutative right
Yes
cool, thank you
Guys does there exists a commutative simple ring which is not a field?
wikipedia seems to think that
In particular, a commutative ring is a simple ring if and only if it is a field.
suppose the ring doesn't have Identity
The zero ring has an identity, is commutative and simple, and is not a field 
can you divide (x^2 +2x +3) by (6x+4) modulo 8
(I'm in the middle of the euclidean algorithm and this is an intermediary step)
if not, how would i find the gcd?
Call them f, g
In Z, we have f = qg + r. We can then reduce this equation to get the result.
i don't think I'm picking up what you're putting down
would you be a little more specific
6x isn't ever gonna go into x^2 (IN MOD 8)
so what do i do?
6x=1mod8 has no solution
also true
We want to find q, r so that f = qg + r, such that r has degree at most 1?
let me show you my work so far
ignore the top part
the other division
gcd[(1,4,1,6,3,4,3),(1,2,3)]
so i got to what i asked, (1,2,3)÷(6,4)
now I'm stuck, since 6x=1mod8 has no solution, I'm not sure how to find the gcd
(this isn't for hw or a test or anything, just test prep with random polynomials and modulo)
I don't think you really need to divide here actually, you can just go through all the possibilities for the gcd
oh?
the gcd must divide 6x + 4 so it must be degree 1 or less
you can just list out the polynomials that divide 6x + 4 and check which ones divide the other polynomial
so what, they're relatively prime?
yeah
so gcd=1
as a polynomial
now comes a bigger problem
how do i make them a linear combination?
You can't always do this in Z[x]?
For example, if you take the polynomials 2, x, their gcd is 1, but there's no such linear combination that makes them 1
shit, you're right. is that because ZmodX is not relatively prime with the leading coefficient of the given polynomial? or is it because ZmodX is not prime?
what?
Can someone help me interpret this question?
What is F here? I'm struggling to understand why the domain of phi* is the function field K_v.
what book is that from
F is just an element of the function field? I'm not really sure what you're asking
it seems phi* is a pullback from functions on the variety to functions on the ground field
Algebraic Geometry: A problem solving approach
Thanks, that's what I thought. So an element of a function field acts on a point on the variety?
In other words, by $F \circ \phi$ we simply means the polynomial in the function field evaluated at a point (a,b) on the variety?
snypehype
@chilly ocean unfortunately the author doesn't define what k(t) is, but he consistently uses the letter k[x1,...,xn] to denote a ring of polynomials with coefficients in field k
k(t) is just the function field on k, or the set of rational polynomials in one variable
So I'm not sure what your interpretation means
I see this as saying that an element of the function field of V can be viewed as an element of the function field of k = A^1
@mild laurel what I mean was that $\phi(t) \in V$ so $F(\phi(t))$ is a function with domain in V?
snypehype
I mean, F is a function with domain in V yes
but F(phi) is a function with domain in k = A^1
Ok I see now. So essentially phi* allows to "call" functions in K_v via the function phi right?
I'm not sure what you mean by call
It allows you to transfer functions on K_v to functions on A^1
has anyone used zariski's commutative algebra? The list of topics seems intriguing and a preliminary examination of a pdf seems extremely promising too, but I'm afraid if the treatment is too old. Is that the case?
... Zariski has a commutative algebra text? O_O
sure thing, it just got a dover reprint so it's cheap!
2 volumes, by zariski and samuel
haha
I think this is one of the classical classical texts
yeah that that's exactly what scares me: is it too classical, to the degree of ignoring much of the modern development
Glancing at the first volume
It covers a lot of like... basic abstract algebra it seems
yeah first chapter does have. I mean eventually it gets to the more advanced levels of CA too, specially with 2nd volume
Looking at the first volume, and its table of contents
It seems to not have any focus on modules
Which is like... a pretty big shift in how commutative algebra went IIRC
It used to be more focused on ideal theory, and the rings itself
Then it shifted to being more about modules
Idk, I don’t see a mention of say associated otimes
Primes*
Which I think was like a more modern replacement for primary decomposition and primary ideals
Hmm okay
The other main thing I got looking at both volumes
And again, maybe this is hidden away in a chapter not with that title
It seems to not make use of a lot of homological machinery
I don’t see them mention depth, Cohen-Macaualyness, etc
Maybe this is in the local algebra part of Volume II
But this could be because of the age, homological algebra developed a lot in like...
The 50s,60s,70s
But this is moreso like a “second course in commutative algebra” material anyway
hmmm, possible
I know I've seen depth for certain. But idk if this book includes the homological treatment
It could work?
It might very well have everything
But at least compared to the more modern books I’ve seen the modern tools don’t appear to be stressed, in that modern books will be like
Uhh... they’ll like have chapter titles indicate
“Now we do Cohen-Macaulay stuff”
Or something like that, so maybe the material is there, but it certainly seems focused on different aspects than modern treatments
I think a large part of Volume II is about polynomial and power series rings which is, don’t get me wrong, a huge part of commutative algebra and algebraic geometry
But my limited understanding of the subject’s development is that these subjects were more at the center of it in the past then it is now
That being said, I doubt the book would be a waste of time
I don't see "exact sequence" in the index mentioned
I do see cohen-macaulay ring though, also cohomological dimension
Hmmm, interesting
My not very informed opinion is maybe it’s a little dated, but not enough that it’s irrelevant
okay okay, cool cool
I think if you like the way the books written more than other contemporary sources
And this makes it easier to work through it, I’d say go for it
yeah from what I read I like it significantly more than eisenbud, for example. And more than macdonald, although that one wasn't that bad at all