#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 450 of 407
yah
im thinkin about it
ig we have m | r (and also m | ar obv)
argh its probably something dumb and obvious
im assuming i have to use commutativity somehow
I think the divisibility stuff is a bit tricky to look at
I sort of see it as being ar=0 mod m personally since all multiples of m map g^m=1 anyways we can toss them out
I guess I'm trying to figure out what angle you're thinking about it from to help you see
the angle of its 3 AM qwq
ar | m confuses me because we have g^(ar) = 1
and isnt m supposed to be the least positive integer such that g^m = 1?
right, so you're thinking, when ar <= m then it makes sense
oh
otherwise what about when ar > m, is that fair to say
$k^a = g^{ra} = 1 = g^m$
Merosity:
brb potty break

i guess like, it seems like im supposed to use commutativity here somehow. so maybe ra = ar and so $(g^a)^r = g^m = 1$ is useful somehow?
hegel:
sorry for wasting your time 
no, haha you're not wasting my time don't worry about that
just learning, sometimes it's how it goes when you get stuck
thanks :p
so a is the order of k, and we know that k^a = 1 and we also know g^{ra}=1
ye
now if I'm not too tired too, I think that means ra=m here
cause a and m are both orders so they're going to be the minimal number here
hmm
at the very least we know m | ra, do we agree on that?
yah
Oops one could overkill with Lagrange
yah not here quite yet
trying to understand the book's way of doing it
let me go back to what I was saying before, one sec
$k^a = g^{ra} = 1 = g^m$
Merosity:
Merosity:
yep
i mean yah?
well, if it was we'd have nothing to prove
o wait 
cause then g^r = 1 right
ye
yikes I am second guessing myself now, I never work with mod not a power of a prime lmao
lol
I was going to say, well that means a =0 mod m but we can't really cancel it out unless m is prime
I think that's ok though, we just need that a | m
ya
since a*r divides m (since ar=0 mod m) we can say that, is that true, hold my feet to the fire if it's not
hold my face too
spooky
feel like I confused myself here I think I need to straighten it out on paper a bit before I say too much more
lol
well ok let's pretend we reasoned this out
hahha
we can still make sure the rest of the argument is sound
yah
once we have a|m and a|n then because gcd(m,n)=1 the only way a can divide both is if a=1
from here it says then $o(k) \mid m$ and $o(k) \mid n$ and since m and n are relatively prime, $o(k) = 1$
hegel:
and thus $g^r = h^r = 1$ and then we have $mn = [m, n] \mid r$
hegel:
alright so it's just that step we have to be sure of
ye
Suppose that $g^rh^r=1$ and $r$ is minimal. Taking mth powers gives $h^{mr}=1$, so then $n|mr$, with implies $n|r$. Similarly, $m|r$ and we’re done.
this was the argument I was going to give earlier
but we were following this way the book did the lemma
tree3:
The solution you had was Lagrange without mentioning Lagrange
?
The o(k)|m thing
the proof the book gives?
yes
ik
they are very unsubtle 
btw whats the proof that the order of an element = the order of the subgroup it generates?
Uh the group is literally {1,g,...,g^(k-1)}
o wait 
And they’re all distinct of course
ya
ok i rly need to sleep its 3:30 and im losing brain functionality
also i crashed out earlier today and it fucked my sleep schedule 
😦
I’m basically nocturnal
Yes
Lol
this week was hell week QwQ
i got slaughtered by an AP chem test on monday and my grade is gonna drop by like 2 points 
@maiden ocean let’s move to chill
yah migration time
lemme think about a problem on my algebra homework out loud
Let R be a possibly noncommutative ring
Let J(R) be the intersection of all maximal left ideals of R
(the Jacobson radical)
By a previous problem, this is the same as the set of x such that 1 - xy is left-invertible for all y
I want to show that it's also the intersection of all maximal right ideals of R, i.e. J(R) = J(R^op)
It seems like I want to use the other condition
So show that for a fixed x, 1 - xy is left invertible for all y iff 1 - xy is right invertible for all y (the multiplication xy should switch, but it doesn't matter by a previous problem)
Okay so for any y, there's a u such that u(1 - xy) = 1.
I want to show that for any z there's a v such that (1-xz)v = 1
@latent anvil are you in grad school
Does anyone know if the concept of a generator S of a group G such that any proper subset of S generates a proper subgroup of G has a name?
I was trying to study the structure of group automorphisms and it naturally popped up.
Hey, that's also the name I came up with.
Definition: Let a finite generator S of a group G be minimal if any proper subset of S generates a proper subgroup of G.
Observe that every finitely generated group has a minimal generator.
Question: Do all minimal generators have the same order?
Lemma 1: Any automorphism of G takes any minimal generator of G to another minimal generator.
TODO: Add proof.
Lemma 2: No two automorphisms take the same elements of a minimal generator to the same elements.
TOD: Add proof,
Theorem: Let there be m ≠ 0 minimal generators of G of order n. Then |Aut(G)| ≤ n!m.
TODO: Add proof.
(for the purposes of this i only cared about finitely generated groups)
No, Z admits the two minimal sets of generators {1} and {2,3}
(unless I misunderstood what you meant)
even for finite groups this doesn't work
Essentially, this is the reason why linear algebra is nice while modules are shit
why do I need to show that this is surjective?
that's not injective though is it
@chilly ocean I think you misunderstood what I meant. The theorem establishes an upper bound on the order of the automorphism group of a finitely generated group G for each positive integer n such that G has at least one minimal generator of order n.
The way it works is basically like this: As a consequence of Lemmas 1 & 2 each automorphism corresponds to a unique (up to domain: no two such mappings exist for the same domain and same automorphism) bijections from a given minimal generator to another minimal generator.
There are m different minimal generators, and for any minimal generators there are n! bijections to it.
This isn't necessarily an equality, however, because not every possible mapping corresponds to some automorphism, and so this is only an upper bound.
the point is your lemmas are wrong @urban acorn
oh wait
This theorem is enough to find that $Aut(\bZ) \simeq \bZ_2$.
Intel:
yeah ok the lemmas are fine I was misinterpreting them too
that's not entirely your fault; i'm being very loose in my use of language here
A set of size n such that no proper subgroup of G contains it.
can you reword the theorem?
Suppose n is some positive integer such that I have a minimal generator of order n.
Let m denote the number of distinct such minimal generators of order n.
you are also assuming m < infty?
Then the order of the automorphism group of G cannot be larger than n factorial times m.
yes, there's a loose sense that if m = infty than "n! * infinity = infinity and so we get a trivial bound"
i thought you claimed equality for some reason
but that's very loose
but that doesn't hold
equality
You might find this interesting:
Call x an inessential generator if it is not contained in any minimal generating set (equivalently, if <S union {x}> = G then <S> = G). Prove that Φ(G) = intersection of all maximal subgroups of G (where it's all of G if there are no maximal subgroups) is the set of inessential generators of G
Also fun: prove that Q has no minimal generating sets
Oh also Φ(G) = G if G has no maximal subgroups
More fun things about Φ(G) (the frattini subgroup)
• it's always nilpotent
• if G is a p-group, then Φ(G) contains G' and G/Φ(G) is elementary abelian
"Prove that the phi(G) = intersection of all maximal subgroups of G is the set of inessential generators of G."
phi(G) is a subset of G.
The set of inessential generators of G is a subset of P(G).
How does this make sense?
I defined an inessential generator to be an element which is contained in no minimal generating set
Ah yeah that was ambiguous
at the beginning I was just like "wat? that's just the negation of being minimal"
I think the issue was just that the answer to your question is no
And there are easy examples
Which question?
Do all minimal generators have the same order
Can you show me an example?
He did
oh, right
{2, 3} and {1}
I wonder if it's at least true for finite groups then.
Hmm....
lol
i took a class on this stuff last year
finite generation of groups
it was uhhh
Idk I don't like finite groups
ur request to join kool kidz klub has been considered and rejected
our representatives respectfully wish that u fuck off
regards, the finite group theorists, otherwise known as the KKK (kool kidz club, totally unrelated to the racist hate group)
hmm
i'm trying to prove that the set of left translations and the set of right translations in a monoid are the centralizer of each other
and im very lost 
send pictures of these definitions
I honestly don't know what the left and right translations are
left translations are the set of all translations $a_L : x \to ax$ for $a \in M$
hegel:
and right translations are the same but on the right
Aren't centralizers properties of subsets of the group?
wut?
centralizers in what

ffs
centralizers in a monoid
my bad
ive been doing too much group theory
i just call the object im looking at "the group" now
the centralizer of an element is the set of all elements in a monoid (or group) that commute with that element
and the centralizer of a subset is the intersection of the centralizers of every element in that subset
yes
but what monoid are you looking at that contains left/right translations of the original monoid ?
ig you could call that a property of a subset?
yes, and when you're looking at a single element you can still reduce it to the second definition by considering its singleton set
the left/right translations are mappings of the monoid into itself
yes
i mean ya
mappings of the monoid into itself aren't elements
sure, they may correspond to elements
but they aren't
they're elements of the monoid of transformations of A into itself
ye
all permutations of A ?
ye
since inverses don't necessarily exist in monoids
oh right
lmao
so then, A^A ?
let's declare all cats smol while we're at it

ig im trying to think about like, what is the centralizer of a left translation
but its just 
all groups are abelian

hm
do u have any ideas zoph?
I'm still a little confused at your question
wot about it
So you take a single left translation and you want to show that its centralizer is some right translation?
im trying to show that the centralizer of the set of left translations is the set of right translations
and vice versa
This doesn't make sense
The set of left translations is not a subset of your monoid
A single left translation is a subset
centralizer in M(A), where M(A) is the monoids of transformations into itself
Oh, so you're thinking about them in the monoid M(A)
yah
does your monoid have an identity element ?
then it's pretty easy
suppose f is a transformation that commutes with all left-translations
you want to show f is a right-translation
it pretty much has to be the right-translation by f(e)

so then you want to show that forall x, f(x) = x f(e)
o
but x is the image of e by the left translation by x
and f commutes with that
so f(x) = f(xe) = x f(e)
and done
hmm
ok ngl ive thought about it and im really not sure
what you are trying to do here
Is $A \cross B \cong C$ equivalent to there being $B' \trianglelefteq C$ with $B' \cong B$ such that $\frac{C}{B'} \cong A$?
Intel:
In other words - more loosely but intuitively - is $A \cross B = C$ the same as $\frac{C}{B} = A$? i.e. are quotients the inverse of direct products?
Intel:
Because it seems obvious, but I can't show one of the directions without making some assumptions I don't know how to prove.
Actually, I don't think it's that obvious that it holds in the other direction.
that's usually the definition of division
$\frac{A \cross B}{{e_A} \cross B} \cong A$ by the first isomorphism theorem since the homomorphism projection $(a,b) \mapsto a$ (of which ${e_A} \cross B$ is the kernel) is onto.
Deconstructed:
@blissful root @chilly ocean No, this isn't it.
You're showing that $A \cross B \cong C$ implies $\frac{C}{B} \cong A$, but I already said I can show it in this direction.
Intel:
It's the other direction.
oh
${e_A}\cross B$ is a normal subgroup in $A \cross B$ and isomorphism preserves subgroups so there should be such a $B'$ normal in $C$
I think it might just be up to the fact that subgroup structures are preserved by isomorphisms?
Deconstructed:
Sorry that wasn't formal at all lmao
Formal or not, it's dicernible and can be made into a rigorous argument.
How does that prove the other direction though?
discernible*
You would just need that $\frac{C}{B} \cross B \cong C$ hmst yeah uhh D: can't think of a constructive proof rn oof
Deconstructed:
o u got a nice counterexample? if it is false prob plenty are lemme try one
$\frac{\bZ_4}{<2>} \cong \bZ_2$ and $<2> \cong \bZ_2$ but it isn't true that $\bZ_4 = \bZ_2 \cross \bZ_2 = K_4$
Intel:
Did someone say that all short exact sequences split?
immediately perks up
@chilly ocean 👀
If the quotient is projective then it's true
Otherwise you're kinda fucked
Oh or the kernel is injective
The generalization of the fact that you can factorize a group by its quotient and its subgroup is called semi-direct product. That's possible iff you can inject canonicaly G/H in G @chilly ocean
The generalization is called an extension
A semidirect product is a special kind of extension (one where what you said happens)
It's the semidirect product
So it's all good
I have this weird belief that Grp is somehow an abelian category
An extension isn't needed to have a section
Not actually
But tbh what I said was still true
It was just weaker than the actual statement
That I should have said
@wind steeple yes, I'm saying that extensions are the generalization of "you can factorize a group by its quotient and its subgroup"
An extension of G by H is a group E along with an embedding of H into E as a normal subgroup, such that E/H = G
Or more simply a short exact sequence 1 -> H -> E -> G -> 1
Right, E is a semidirect product if there's a section
To have the reciprocal
Reciprocal?
I mean the partial converse is "group extensions are hard"
And there's usually a lot of different ones
group cohomology lets you figure out what all the extensions of G by A are, where A is abelian
it turns out to be encoded in H^2(G,A)
I understand his question as "is there any conditions on H thus we can 'factorize' G by H and G/H ?"
I understood the question as "how can we recover G from H and G/H"?
Oh ok that's another point of view x)
I didn't study group cohomology yet
I'm begining algebraic topology x)
I don't really understand it, I'm hoping to do a reading course with a prof in the spring
We had some problems on it in my algebra class last year and it was cool
I can't wait teachers to teach me bc where I am is specialized in analysis lel
Unlucky
So I'm reading books
oh god am such a noob, still don't understand short exact sequences, prof brought them up weeks ago and never again when talking about the extension problem but really provided motivation for neither the extension problem nor the definition of a short exact sequence
The extension problem seems interesting on its own at least but I'd be curious to find out the historical relevance or at least what brought people to it as an important problem as opposed to some other form of "creating groups out of other groups"
Interesting people started bringing it up when we were talking about some naive idea to do algebra on groups using quotients and direct products, up to isomorphism. Does it have to do closely with that?
Hey everyone! I've been looking for an algebra group (heh) to be a part of.
@chilly ocean short exact sequences will make more sense and feel useful when you do stuff with modules
I think you just found out why we care about the extension problem
It would be nice if C = C/B × B
That's not always true
How much about C can we get from B and C/B?
OHHHHHHHHHH That's so cool!!
That last question seems interesting but unmotivated out of that context, thanks!!
I do have a couple questions regarding a project I've been working. In addition to being interpreted as a problem over algebraic geometry that deals with schemes (not an expert on that so any resources will help), this problem can also be interpreted as when a given matrix over the set of diagonal matrices D (which is isomorphic to R^n as an R-algebra) over this set of interest forces tr to be not only a additive map (i.e. a linear map), but also a multiplicative map.
Sorry, what's the problem?
I'll link it here.
The question is how can I determine the set of solutions that forces tr to also be a multiplicative map.
Neat question
Are you saying you want to think about what conditions on Kn force tr : M_{n×n}(R) -> R to be a multiplicative map?
I'm not sure what you mean by set of solutions
seriously when people introduce S.E.S. they HAVE to make the motivating example
0->A->B->B/A->0
explicit
Yuppp
new students do not realize it
And even moreso the kernel -> domain -> image
Like ik that's a special case
But showing it to students explicitly is good
I would say determine A's in D such that tr: D -> R is a multiplicative map, where D is indicated as above.
As you noticed above, if one of the elements is in the Jacobson radical R, then we have a way of determining A.
Let A have entries a1,...,an and B entries b1,...,bn. Then tr(AB) = a1 b1 + … + an bn. So essentially you're asking when a1 b1 + … + an bn = (a1 + … + an)(b1 + … + bn)
Does that sound right?
OOF
wait so why do short exact sequences tell us more about B from A and B/A, I'm not sure how the maps are defined. not sure why those middle two maps are always injective and then surjective respectively
I totally screwed the calculation up haha
@chilly ocean let B be an abelian group and A a subgroup. I claim that there's a short exact sequence 0 -> A -> B -> B/A -> 0
What is it?
The maps are "the obvious maps"
Other question: suppose you have an exact sequence 0 -> M -> N, where the map M -> N is f. Why is f injective?
You asked these questions but it's more helpful to work them out on your own
Thanks, I'll give it a thonk
Take A,B in D. If A+B were in the set of interest, then
tr(A+B) = a_1+...+a_n+b_1+...+b_n = a_1...a_nb_1...b_n = det(AB).
So we would have a relationship between addition in tr and multiplication in det. I think that's what I wanted.
I don't really get how matrices get us anything here
It's an alternative description of the problem.
Not that I was sure it was going to get us anywhere Haha
Sure
Basically, this problem has me stumped and I'm not sure how to get about it, so if anyone had any ideas here that would be great.
Luc Guyot gave the restriction with the Jacobson radical and Vic Camillo/myself did the case for n=2.
It seems hard
So it's open for n bigger than or equal to 3.
I have no useful insight lol
I don't think you'll get a good general answer
It seems like you'd want more information about your ring in general
Here's the following conditions that give closure to problem.
If R is a unique factorization, then we have a way of determining R by prime decomposition of product a1... an, associate the elements with certain elements of the decomposition, and just go from there. Then we would have test them to see if they satisfy the property.
If R is an ordered ring with a multiplicative norm that satisfies the triangle inequality, then we have a bound on the elements and what values they take. If R is a discrete ordered ring, then we can easily determine what elements should be which. If R is non-discrete, then...well, we would have really bad bound. Furthermore, this would fail for non-ordered rings like the Gaussian integers.
I don't see how unique factorization helps here
ZaiD Bogard:
Why is this popping up?
Are the maps in exact sequences (for groups) defined as homomorphisms? Or not necessarily? They look like they're begging to be homomorphisms
Cause in that case "suppose you have an exact sequence 0 -> M -> N, where the map M -> N is f. Why is f injective?" can be answered by the kernel being trivial from the definition of exact sequences and trivial kernel implying injection for homomorphisms
got that one
I mean if R is a UFD, then the product a1a2 all the way to an has decomposition p1p2 all the way to pn. Choose ai such that the above property is satisfied and satisfies that sum = product.
However, now that I think, we're assuming the prime decomposition could be any decomposition, which is effectively inefficient.
Hmmm, you might have a point.
As for 0 -> A -> B -> B/A -> 0, the obvious maps are the restricted identity and the natural map, it being an exact sequence comes nicely since A is a subgroup and it's image from that first map gets mapped to itself as the identity coset in the second one, so it was the kernel of that map, and the maps to and from 0 come even more easily
aaa idk about getting B from A and B/A tho hmst
Yeah, the maps have to be homomorphisms
Your first thing is right
Usually we call the restricted identity the inclusion map
Getting B from A and B/A is impossible (consider the example A = Z/2Z and B/A = Z/2Z)
Figuring out what Bs it could be is extremely hard
Short exact sequences are literally just 0 -> ker \phi -> A -> im \phi -> 0
^^^^
That is what you should think of when you see one
To be clear, phi is any homomorphism going out of A
Speaking of short exact sequences.
Suppose some setoids A,B contain 0 (i.e. setoids with identity) and with an M-monoid action on them, phi: A to B is a bijection and preserves M-multiplication (i.e. phi(mx) = m phi(x)and define ker phi = {x in A | phi(x) = 0}. Is there a definition for exact sequences in this context?
What do you mean by setoid?
Sets with an equivalence relation on them?
Also wouldn't ker phi be trivial of phi is a bijection?
A setoid is a set with an equivalence relation on it. Oh, and yeah, I'm being dumb that is just trivial following from the definitions. However, the question still stands: is there a definition for exact sequences on setoids with identity?
I don't see how the setoid structure is being used
Does the monoid action send equivalent elements to equivalent elements? If so, shouldn't the kernel be all elements equivalent to 0?
Also you're saying "identity" but 0 isn't the identity for anything
0 is the identity for addition
My cat is the identity for addition.
My dog is the identity for multiplication.
My cat is my dog. And "dog" is my cat whereas "cat" ain't no dog, but is my "dog" without quotations.
Intel:
cohomology mod 2
$P^n(\bR)$ is the space of polynomials of degree at most n with coefficients in R, right?
Intel:
@blissful root do you know what the integral cohomology of RP^n is?
and do you know the UCT?
Why don't write Z_p for Z/pZ
Z/pZ*
I guess Z/pZ highlights the fact that it's a quotient of the integers?
Z_p is p-adic integers
other than that i have no idea
ohhh, because of the ambiguity
yeah, then let's write C_n
Ahhh
@chilly ocean yes why
not to be confused with Z_n
Bodenhammer666:
cause you can use that
yes, you can
$C_n$, the cyclic group of order n. Not to be confused with $Z_n$, the cyclic group of order n.
Intel:
now let's say k is odd
what happens to Tor?
obv 0<k<n
@blissful root can you see why Tor vanishes?
why are you asking me these questions?
he's not the one that asked the initial question
anyway tor doesn't vanish
the computation gives what's in the link i posted
i guess you meant that tor vanishes in half the cases
when k is uhhh even
do isomorphisms preserve integral domains? i.e. if I have by the 1st iso. thm that $A[X]/\langle x \rangle \cong A$ and I know that $A$ is an integral domain, can I also infer that $A[X]/\langle x \rangle$ is an integral domain?
alex:
oh that's good to know, thank you
Yeah, it's not too hard to check directly in this case
Every structural property is preserved under isomorphism.
Even integers under addition are isomorphic to all of the integers under addition, but not all integers are even.
But most of the times you'll just create a headache by distinguishing trivially isomorphic objects.
So let $\bR$ be the set of 1x1 matrices with real entries.
structural just means properties that are preserved under isomorphism
Intel:
Well, if you define it that way - which is a good definition in most cases - than what I said does reduce to tautology.
yes
But in this case, in order to give it more meaning, I'd define it as a property that can be defined in terms of the add structure here of the object. Like in terms of the operations of an algebraic structure.
It's a little loose, but it still provides insight.
🤔
the formalization of that is "stable under isomorphism"
you got a point
but it still provides intuition that allows you to easily see if things are preserved under isomorphism (hint: if you're doing algebra the answer is yes)
hot take: we should have an axiom saying all properties are preserved under isomorphism
yeah it's inconsistent but it would be very convenient
@latent anvil smoked so much weed he's on a higher plane of understanding
uwu big boy channel
Lmao
Okay, so what is a generating set
So you know what a basis is from linear algebra
the intersection of all the subsets of a monoid/group that contain that set rite?
You can think about a basis as a map from R^n to V
yah
And a spanning set is a surjection from some R^n to V
So generating sets are basically spanning sets
It's the same idea
surjection just meaning a surjective map rite
Yes
R here is a ring ofc
Of course
dami i hate u
@bleak abyss you mean an affine coscheme?
:(
So you have a set of generators
ugh you remind me I still gotta learn AG
go awayyyy
So that gives you a map from Z^n to your abelian group
But
If you know that each generator has finite order
Are you working through Hartshorne dami?
I was told by a prof on Friday to do all the problems in Hartshorne in the next 24 months
Fun stuff
You can refine the abelian group you are mapping from
Not at the moment, my class has its own notes that vaguely ish are like
A mix of Milne's AG notes and Shafarevich
For first quarter at least
And instead say it is the product of the finite cyclic groups generated by the generators
Oh yeah my actual class is doing varieties in the first quarter
And then Hartshorne in like 2 months
I found Perrin which seems to be a bit faster? Idk
And that means you have a map from a finite set onto your group
Next quarter is schemes

Though we're not really working out of any one book. Hartshorne is the obvious candidate, though somehow I think Gortz/Wedhorn and Liu seem better tbh
But when you see generator, you should think surjective map from Z^n/something like this
liu is pretty based
I like how he covers some important commutative algebra
that few other texts cover
What do you think of Mumford's red book?
i haven't read it yet
Yeah it's supposed to be better than Hartshorne for number theory until it's time to do sheaf cohomology at which point no
Just parroting what people say
What was the original question?
hartshorne is surprisingly very good for cohomology
Oh nvm not gonna check out liu then
I've been looking at this book by Warner that does sheaf cohomology for manifolds and it's kinda nice
yeah a lot of this stuff is pretty general
to be fair once you see one example of homological algebra the rest is the same
Glancing through Mumford it seems kinda
Yeah I keep hearing about how the cohomology theories are just different resolutions
I think I like Mumford
Also I want to read his other book
On GIT
Once I grow up a bit
yeah essentially you need to resolve your object M by "acyclic stuff" F_i, that means stuff with no (co)homology, as
0->M->F0->F1->F2->...
It talks about prevarieties and all, like what Milne does/what we do in class
Oh GIT seems dope from what I hear
and then the complex 0->F0->F1->F2->... lets you calculate the stuff about M
But yeah after that he kinda gets into schemes but seems to do less than other books
God wait there's so many AG books I swear
the morally correct way to think about it is that you are actually doing two steps
- include your object M into the category of chain complexes as a complex 0->M->0
- find a nice chain complex and a weak equivalence from 0->M->0 to this object
therefore M and your nice complex are the same in homology
Right, I saw that idea in weibel urboz
Fuck I should get back to weibel
Off the top of my head: Shafarevich, Reid, Red Book, Milne's notes, Gathmann's notes, Perrin, Hartshorne, Liu, Gortz/Wedhorn
@woven delta yeah you should fucker
Vakil ofc
you're missing uhhh
There's other books by Mumford
Eisenbud and Harris
yeah
Oh yeah true Eisenbud-Harris
that one's good
Fulton
Undergrad AG
Lmao
For now I need to know varieties so I'm looking at a bit of Perrin and Milne
Oh there's another one
do you?
The one that focuses a lot on complex Geometry
miranda?
There's that one undergrad one
Principles of Algebraic Geometry
Griffiths Harris
Ideals, varieties, and algorithms
Right
cox little oshea is nice
Yee
And yeah my first semester is doing varieties, these are the lecture notes: https://www.math.wisc.edu/wiki/images/Notes.pdf
The 2 main things I've learned in grad school are computations are good and integrals are good
Do a different part of math if you like integrals tbh
I like integrals
I don't like intergrals
I like the way they can be done by wolfram alpha
But they are cool objects
Yeah, same
I like hyperbolic Geometry, so I appreciate integrals
I'm a simple man
See that's your problem
Also curvature is a thing you should care about
Nope differential geometry can commit sudoku
If you need more than a smooth structure to talk about it, it's not worth talking about
If you need more than a tangent sheaf
the thing is like
you can say "i'm an algebra, and I only care about nice algebra, let's say projective varieties over C"
and then whoops you're automatically kahler
how can I hold all this structure?
and then next thing you know you have to care about PDEs
life's hard
Is this the story of your life?
Lol some Geometer starts poking and prodding you with an anaytification functor
Anyone good with algebraic geometry?
And willing to help
If I can ask the question here or in some other channel?
Allright so the setting is
We have the curve in P^2 given by the equation
$ x_1^n = x_2 x_0^{n-1} - x_2^n$
Ridder:
And a presentation is given by the charts with x_0 != 0 and with x_2 != 0
The question is to show that
$\mathcal{O}_X(X) = k$
Ridder:
By considering we have the exact sequence
$ 0 \to \mathcal{O}_X(X) \to \mathcal{O}_X(X_1) \times \mathcal{O}_X(X_2) \to \mathcal{O}_X(X_1 \cap X_2) $
Ridder:
Hope it's clear what I'm saying: X_1 and X_2 are the intersections of the curve X with the x_0!=0 and x_2!=0 charts.
Please tell me if it is/isn't clear what the question is
I can also tell you what I tried if that helps
@mild laurel 🙂
Yeah sorry, don't know enough about this
Ok thanks for your time though
Someone else know some stuff about this? Would be highly appreciated!
@manic trail disclaimer, I'm not great at this stuff but I kinda wanna think about it
Sure, thank you! Let's see how far we can get with it
So is the idea here that we're just trying to compute other terms of the sequence?
I think so
Because we know that the sequence is exact
We can identify O_X(X) exactly with the kernel of the last arrow
Do any of these guys contain a copy of P^1?
If you contain a copy of P^1 then regular functions should be constant I think
Though that'd be a very roundabout way to do this lmao
Hm
Actually tbh the fact that this would be a bit stupid if true sorta suggests that at least X_1 and X_2 shouldn't contain a copy of P^1
I don't think so because X1 and X2 are affine
Right I'm dumb
What my attempt was calculating O_X(X1) and O_X(X2)
Which I think can be done by writing them as a quotient of a polynomial ring
Since they should be closed inside affine space
Yeah that could work aside from the worry about taking the radical
So X_1 is given by the affine equation x_1^n = x_2 - x_2^n
yep
And X_2 is given by the affine equation x_1^n = x_0^n-1 - 1
And their intersection is like
weird
😛
The difficult thing is
Even if I (attempt to-lol) explicitly calculate the O_X(X1) as a quotient of polynomial space
I'm still not getting anywhere
So yea that's where I'm stuck
Yeah it's tricky
👀
the group of all maps $\psi_y(x) = yxy^{-1}$ form a subgroup of $Aut(G)$, and hence that must be cyclic. if we let $\psi_y$ be a generator, then $\psi_y^n (x) = y^n x y^{-n}$ and that must equal to some $ \psi_g$ which implies that forall x and for all g, and some n $ y^{-n} g$ commutes with x, but since $y^{-n} G=G$, clearly G is abelian
now tell me how wrong this is lol
I'll post my proof lol
also rip bot
Also it's called Inn(G)
JohnDoeSmith:
whats inn(G)?
oh
The left board lel
Z(G) is the center of G
The map G to Inn(G) is g mapsto g^-1xg
@upper pivot
mod
oh i think i understand that
oh i see thats nice
wait is our proof, kinda similar
cause i also had $g= y^n k$
JohnDoeSmith:
yeah probably
i spent the past hour just playing around with stuff until something stuck lol
Incidentally this tells you inn is trivial
wdym trivial?
Trivial group
oh right causse if G is abelian then Inn(Z) is just {1}
QuickMaffs:
well p | ab
Hmm?
you see why p | ab?
QuickMaffs:
Oh right right. But yeah I dont even have to do that
but ab is in pZ
ab = pZ <=> p | ab
yes
I understand it follows from p|ab => p | a v p|b. But I wanted to do it completely group-theoretically. That's to go from ab ∈ pZ => a ∈ pZ v b ∈ pZ
For understanding purposes
):
Yeah i guess you are right. This property more relies on the numeric properties of a prime number, than just mere group-theoretic properties of pZ. So you must necessarily rely on "number-theoretic" reasoning.
For b) why cant I multiply both sides by [a]^{-1}?
<@&286206848099549185>
How do you know a inverse exists
a is in F_p\0 which is a multiplicative abelian group
Have you proven that
Smh Nvm...... Apparently this statement comes after the theorem but it is actually a tool needed for the proof
How do we construct a Bass-Serre tree for a non-primitive block graph in which 3 maximal cliques meet at a single cut point?
for example
I imagine it would take two trees but I'm unsure
:(
I don't think this goes in #groups-rings-fields
As far as I know, non primitive block graphs are a type of graph that arises from certain group actions
Well at least, that's my guess from knowing what blocks of non primitive group actions are
Also really not too hard to just google https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bass–Serre_theory and see that it is group theory related
^ def group theory
I figured it out btw, so no need to answer anymore if anyone knows
Yeah nice, I don't think anyone in here has the necessary knowledge to help you out on this
Seems like pretty specific stuff
Yeah, I figured that since its a trending topic right now there might be someone in here that knew
Yeah I've heard of tits buildings a couple times and it seems that this is related?
(The answer btw is that you can divide by the index relative to the whole block. The resultant graph is isomorphic)
Yeah, its in the Artin-Tits group

Semidirect products are evil.
@icy lagoon context?
what are you supposed to do with these diagrams?
are they abstract algebra?
Hello hello, I'm having troubles with a math proof which involves fermat's sum of two squares. The question is: Suppose that p is a prime and p is congruent to 1 (mod 4). Show that it is possible to write p^2 as the sum of two positive squares.
I (think I) understand how to do fermat's sum of two squares in practice, but the theory still deludes me a little bit. I'm not entirely sure how to get started beyond squaring p and trying to go from there
@junior edge #elementary-number-theory
My b! This is a part of my abstract algebra homework so I figured I'd ask here first lol
really? that's a bit weird
It's a part of our factorization in integral domains section, we just started that and Group theory
okay, that might make more sense
what's the ring?
integers?
@junior edge
if so there's probably also a elementary number theory proof
The question doesn't specify, but yes, I'm assuming it's the ring of Gaussian integers
hmm, that might be a bit harder than I originally expected...
1+4i time
wait
oh no
we can't write (1+4i)^2 as the sum of 2 positive squares
tell us everything you know about the ring of gaussian integers and about sums of two squares
Well, I know that a positive prime integer p can be written as the sum of two integers iff p is either 2 or congruent to 1(mod 4). As for the gaussian integers, I know that they are ring of complex numbers including both real and imaginary numbers
were you given a proof of the first thing you said ?
Yes, I have a bidirectional proof we did in class the other day that involved factoring an integer n as n=p*...p_kq^2*...*q_l^2
where p...p_k are primes either equal to 2 or congruent to 1 mod 4 and q,...,q_l are primes congruent to 3(mod 4)
... that sounds strange given that you're only talking about prime numbers
so did you get a more general result stating the number of ways to write something as a sum of two squares given its prime factorisation ?
or you can just take the result about prime numbers and think really hard about multiplication and norms of gaussian integers
the ring of gaussian integers is {a+ib | a in Z and b in Z}
the set of complex numbers whose real parts and imaginary parts are integers
Yep, for one direction of the proof, we factor as above, and then in Z[i] we take p_i = x_i * x_i', but I don't fully understand it myself which is the problem lol
Oh well, I guess I just have to think more about it
you should probably study that proof a bit more
and if you got the general result then this is just applying that result to the case of p² with p=1 mod 4
Hey, I'm wondering
If we have a commutative ring with unity R
Is the factor group R/R={r+R|r in R} =R?
uh no, r1+R=r2+R=R for whatever r1,r2 in R
it's equal {R}
aaah, okay. Thx :3
Knowing that f:R--->R , defined by f(x) = 2x/(1+x^2)
How do we check if its subjective or injective?
This isn't abstract algebra
This is like #proofs-and-logic
oh true its logic
You're getting to abstract algebra, but this isn't really it yet
Thank you so much, im beyond confused
I need to determine if this is a homomorphism and I don't know where to start
$\varphi: G\rightarrow G,; \varphi(g) = g^{-1},;g\in G$
kickpuncher:
I'm not sure how to check if $\varphi^{-1}[{e'}]$ is not a normal subgroup
kickpuncher:
G is any group, btw
<@&286206848099549185>
Well φ^(-1)(e) is just e
So it will be a normal subgroup
But that's not sufficient to tell you whether φ is a homomorphism
What's the definition of a homomorphism?
preservation of operation
Sure, so let's write that down here
$\varphi(xy) = (xy)^{-1} = y^{-1}x^{-1} = \varphi(y)\varphi(x)$
kickpuncher:
Sure. What's (xy)^(-1)?
^
np lol
Okay, so what you wrote isn't the homomorphism condition then
right, because of the reordering
So what has to be true if φ is a homomorphism?
is that enough to claim it is therefore not a homomorphism?
hmmmmmm
I'm not sure what else has to be true... I thought it was simply showing that the operation is preserved
iiiiiii'm not sure I follow. I've shown that $\varphi(xy) \neq \varphi(x)\varphi(y)$
kickpuncher:
No you haven't
You've shown that φ(xy) = φ(y)φ(x)
How do you know that's different from φ(x) φ(y)?
I mean I can't assume G is abelian
Sorry, what's the original question? This proves that it will be a homomorphism when φ is abelian
But in general it might not be
ah sorry yeah it asks for any group G
There's not a uniform answer independent of whether G is abelian
Oh, then no. You need to find an explicit counterexample
Or figure out what is implied by φ being a homomorphism
Like, do you think G has to be abelian for φ to be a homomorphism?
from what I can see G is abelian iff phi is a homomorphism
That's exactly right
Can you prove it?
(and then this tells you φ isn't always a homomorphism because there are nonabelian groups)
yeah I guess I could do a proof from both directions... or could I use contradiction right off the bat?
I don't think contradiction is that helpful
Just write out the definition of "φ is a homomorphism" and see what happens
👀
Let $\varphi : G \rightarrow G'$ be a group homomorphism. Show that if $|G'|$ is finite, then $|\varphi[G]|$ is finite and is a divisor of $|G'|.$
kickpuncher:
what's the prob ?
uggggggh yeah lol lemme look it up
okay so if H is a subgroup of some finite G then |H| divides |G|
Then there's also that if phi is a hom. G → G' and H is a subgroup, then phi [H] is a subgroup of G'
Yup
🙄
and G is a subgroup of G
haha it's just a lame problem
I mean it's not that bad
It's easy sure
But it requires you to figure out that the image of a homomorphism is a subgroup
So I have just been learning about quotient groups, and I do not understand why, if for an element g of a group G with H normal subgroup of G, if o(g)=n, then why o(Hg) is not necessarily n. Does anyone have a simple example of a case where the o(Hg) is not o(g) (or intuition as to why it is this way)
Why would you think it is? Multiplication almost never preserves order
I was having trouble thinking of a case where (Hg)^m=H for m != o(g)
Specifically with m<o(g) of course
g may not have an order m after taking mod H
It will likely drop
What's your question again? Your statement is odd
the smallest two examples are right up there
Yes, thank you, they helped
Would it be true that the order of <(2,2)>+(5,8), where <(2,2)> is a normal subgroup of Z/12 X Z/12 is just the lcm(5,8)?
dont think so
in particular <(2,2)> + (5,8) = <(2,2)>+(1,4)
so no formula like that will work
you know the order divides 144/6 = 24
Ah, good point, thanks
you want 5n = 8n (mod 12)
this isnt enough, but at least puts you in the diagonal <(1,1)>
from here it's either the smallest n, or 2n
depending on where you land on <(d,d)> for even or odd d
if I may butt in for a quick second here; what does this notation mean? <(2,2)>
subgroup generated by (2,2)
okie. Will have to look into that :+1:
why
haven't learned it yet 🤷
Since the order divides 2^3*3, and the order is not 2 nor 3, as neither 2 nor 3 is a solution to 5n = 8n (mod 12), then it has to be 4, as 4 is the smallest number for which n(<2,2>+(5,8)) = <2,2>
Is this correct?
Thanks for all the help
well you ruled out 2 and 3, it could still be 4, 6, 8, 12, 24 in principle
but yeah the fact that 4 gives n(<2,2>+(5,8)) = <2,2> proves it
along with no smaller solutions existing
Automorphisms of a group?
yes
The automorphisms of a group is also a group
And examining this group can give you lots of information about your original group
Sometimes I think Algebra in general is just abstract 😂
It doesn’t make senseeee
😂





