#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 451 of 407
Teacher is tryin to teach us upper algebra levels and crap rn so I decided to come back here and look around
i didn't say anything technical or refer to any actual algebra knowledge
I want to show that $\mathbb{C}[S_n]a_{\lambda}b_{\lambda} \simeq \mathbb{C}[S_n]b_{\lambda}a_{\lambda}$ as representation
emme:
Hint says that the map $\cdot a_{\lambda}$ is the right one
emme:
But this map carries $\mathbb{C}[S_n]a_{\lambda}b_{\lambda}$ to $\mathbb{C}[S_n]a_{\lambda}b_{\lambda}a_{\lambda}$
emme:
So the problem now is to show that $\mathbb{C}[S_n]a_{\lambda}b_{\lambda}a_{\lambda} \simeq \mathbb{C}[S_n]b_{\lambda}a_{\lambda}$
emme:
What are irreducible R[x] modules? Where R is reals
What are non diagonalizable 2x2 matricies
[(1 1) (0 1)]
that's indecomposable but it has the submodule e1
so it's not irreducible
worse one:
[cost, sint]
[-sint, cost]
by the real jordan canonical form, iredducible ones are gonna then be either 1 dim ones, or 2 dim ones where x acts with complex eigenvalues
How do i find splitting field of x^6-4?
over q
is it
Q(primitive 6th root of unity, $3\sqrt{2}$)
wait nvm thats wrong
aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa:
cube root of 2
@fringe nexus looks right to me
basically your 6 roots are $\sqrt[3]{2}w^k$ where w is the 6th root of unity
urboz:
so by dividing two consecutive ones you get w
what degree is this extension exactly?
uhh
I wanna say 9
so
Q(w) is degree 2 over Q
and Q(\sqrt[3]{2}) is degree 3 over Q also
this implies that Q(\sqrt[3]{2}, w) is degree 6
ye
its phi(6)
yes
so its degree 6?
2*3
okie
if H is a (non-trivial) subgroup of a group G, does there always exist a (surjective or at least non-trivial) group homomorphism G->H ?
Hmm, the kernel of the homomorphism is isomorphic to a normal subgroup of G, so if G is simple, then H would be G or trivial for it to be surjective
@north sand
thanks
@north sand There will be such a (surjective) homomorphism if and only if H is normal. The non-surjective case can be reduced to the same problem with a different H and so this answers your question without a loss of generality.
EDIT: I misread your question at first. The only if direction is correct, but the other direction isn't.
@fading wagon the kernel of such a homomorphism is a normal subgroup of G, it's not just isomorphic to one.
why does normality matter?
Do you know what quotient groups are?
it's false that having a map G->H means that H is normal
nevermind
when H is a subgroup of G
yeah, that's right
i misunderstood the question twice, then
in my defense i drank a lot of wine earlier
and juice
juice is tasty
nice
okay i reread the question
He specified that the homomorphism must be surjective. So he's basically asking if there's always a quotient group isomorphic to each subgroup of a group. Right?
If it doesn't have to be surjective, then it can be isomorphic to any quotient group of the subgroup, but he specified that even in that case it can't be trivial, and so we exclude the isomorphism between the trivial quotient groups.
Someone check if what I'm saying is right.
what are you saying exactly
im just rephrasing his question in terms of quotient groups rather than isomorphisms
yeah surjective maps are quotients

sue me
can someone give me an example of haar measure

i obviously meant aside from that
what's lambda
lebesgue measure
uhhh
it's not obvious that this is just lebesgue
like
on local charts it's not
it only "kinda looks like lebesgue" globally under a nice embedding on R^4
S^3 is what exactly
sphere
after embedding its a group under addition
in R^4?
and the measure is translation invariant
how then
you have to embed it in a nice way
so that the group action is symmetric
aka it rotates around
with derivative of norm 1
everywhere
and then you can integrate on it
just as a manifold
can you actually give me an example of haar measure on a topological group
what qualifies as an example?
or just handwavey statement
I gave you an easy one and you said it was obvious
then I gave you this one and you say its weird I guess
this isn't the lebesgue measure
you said you can integrate on it
yes
integrate with respect to what
the measure is what i need
and you didnt give me one
what is the group
what is the measure
hmm
i mean this is lebesgue measure modulo local charts
but this is true of every haar measure i guess
like, you are integrating with respect to the lebesgue measure in the parametrization
but saying that's just lebesgue is excessive
take log and this is lebesgue
lévy (sto):
\mu(a,b) \neq \lamda (a,b)
so its not the same measure
as you just said
saying its the same up to homeo is like saying all absolutely continuous measures on R are the same
what I said is that good examples of haar measures are locally isomorphic to the lebesgue measure
this is globally isomorphic to lebesgue
I thought you'd say this is obvious
as you did for lebesgue on R
youre correct
i guess
i just wanted a concrete example
your example with S^3 had no group and no measure
remember in calculus how you integrate on the sphere?
give local charts, integrate the pullback of the lebesgue measure
yeah locally it looks like the integral of a jacobian determinant times lebesgue
I mean that's the example
but you have to be careful because you can't just pick any homeo SU(2) = S^3 for this
it has to be the standard embedding
or something isometric
i havent done differential geo
I think the one on wiki works
but yeah you should do diff geo first
I assumed you had
AG
makes sense
@blissful root is it possible to construct a haar measure on a group not homeomorphic ro a subset of R^n
or does it also need to be diffeomorphic
to use jacobii that is
it should be possible
under some conditions, but I'm not familiar with that
I care about lie groups
so that's why I focus on those
locally compact hausdorff is important
but aside from that i don't know if you need more
a lie group is just a topological group that is also differentiable right
like the maps are also differentiable
uh but by definition smooth manifolds are homeomorphic to a vector space
or just locally
ugh idk this shit why am i reading about it
a lie group has to be a manifold
so it's locally homeo to a vector space
but manifolds can be embedded into R^n
by whitney's theorem
also, yes, a general locally compact hausdorff group has a haar measure
it's enough
but the ones that aren't lie groups are weird
lie groups are incredibly nice for many reasons
cus theyre parts of R^n but funky and under other operations
but yeah being manifolds means you can do calculus on them
Given two idempotent commuting linear operators A,B on finite dimension vector space V, prove ker AB = ker A + ker B
notice AB: V -> V/(kerA + kerB) is a map
check the kernel
otherwise, more concrete: characterize idempotent operators as projections, therefore diagonalizable.
Thanks
im just concerned with is enough as a proof for this
the dim(P_n) = n + 1
so like f' and so on is of deg(n-1)
🤔
So I was going over my class notes and I found something pretty odd:
"Let G be a group and H a subgroup of G. Then ∀x,y∈G xH∩yH ≠ ∅ ⊻ xH=yH"
I'm reasonably sure it's an "=" not a "≠" , ye?
There's also a big change I'm being dumb and it's correct so I wanted to make sure 😅
yes
yes
Many thanks!
no problem !
Back again 😅
Could ya'll give me the intuition behind this automorphism?
It's a "function" that takes elements in G and takes them to other elements in G?
I'm rather confused
Oh and G is a group
think of automorphisms as a formal way to talk about the symmetries of a group
take, for example, the Klein four group.
any distinct non identity elements are not equal
but they are interchangeable in that if you permuted them, if you said a wherever you previously said b and b whereever you previously said a, no one would notice
now think of the integers
under addition
if you switched positive with negative numbers, literally no one would know (note: we are working under addition)
it's another sort of symmetry of the group
the way to formalize this is that the automorphism is the function that tells you how to permute the elements (for example x -> -x for the integers) such that the new permutation of the elements of the group is indistinguishable from the original structure-wise
clearly it needs to be a bijection cause it's a way to permute the elements
and suppose you pick three elements a,b,c
that relate to each other according to the group structure in some way ab=c
then you would want the new elements given by your function to relate to each other in the same way
f(a)f(b)=f(c)
this is essentially the same as saying f(x)f(y)=f(xy) for all x,y in G
that is, f is a homomorphism
so this essentially gives us intuition why isomorphisms from the group to itself are the same thing as symmetries of the group
and the name for that is automorphisms
of course, you can have automorphisms of other things
doesn't even have to be an algebraic object
everything that has a notion of isomorphism has automorphisms - ways in which it's similar to itself
if i have a ring and i define an equivalence class where a~b iff a =x*b where x is a unit
does this have a name?
how would you find the number of classes for a ring?
Each class has <= |A^x| elements
@waxen iron This is a general principle in mathematics that could be called "transport and go back". Basically, if x is a transformation of a space X, then gxg^{-1} "does essentially the same thing as x", but after changing your point of view by g.
A concrete example would be if G is a matrix group. If x is a certain transformation of R^n and g a matrix, then gxg^{-1} will be the same "type of transformation as x", but after a change of basis given by g.
For example, if x is a symmetry with respect to a line D, then gxg^{-1} will be a symmetry with respect to the line g(D), if x is a projection onto a plane P, then gxg^{-1} will be a projection onto g(P), etc.
Isn't that called "conjugation of x by g"?
In mathematics, especially group theory, two elements a and b of a group are conjugate if there is an element g in the group such that b = g–1ag. This is an equivalence relation whose equivalence classes are called conjugation classes.
Members of the same conjugacy class ca...
It's called an automorphism
i think it's more specific than that, automorphism is just bijective homomorphism of thing with itself
No, this is the big idea of automorphisms
Well one of the big ideas of automorphisms
yes, in a group, this is called conjugation
furthermore, the map sending any element to its conjugate by a fixed element is always an automorphism
automorphisms which can be expressed in that form are called inner automorphisms
the inner automorphisms are a subgroup of the group of all automorphisms of the group
the quotient of the automorphism group by the inner automorphisms (which I think are always normal) is called the outer automorphism group
the inner automorphism group is isomorphic to the quotient of the group by its center.
Who are you explaining this to lol
Everyone knows this
Except for maybe @upper pivot
smh bulli
@urban acorn and @chilly ocean Many thanks for the explanations!
I've been digesting them and I think I got the feeling for things!
who are you explaining this to lol everyone knows this
many thanks for the explanation!
@woven delta get destroyed
oh wait that was in response to something else, im a clown
i said it in reply to what nox and you said "isn't that called conjugation?" "it's called an automorphism"
although i said much more than i needed to
@wind steeple how does this help?
for Z/nZ the number of classes is the number of factors of n right?
idk
I see that in an integral domain, the cardinal of a class is exactly |A^x|
why would the number of classes in Z/nZ be the number of factors of n ?
because for each factor, the set of associates is disjoint
like if n=6 there are 4 sets {1,5} {2,4} {3} {6}
yeah but lucky you to have exactly the number of divisors of 6
I don't see where the number of divisors occurs here
it's obvious that each class it's disjoint since it's an equivalence relation
for each factor k|n, the set of all x such that gcd(x,k) = k forms a class
that's false
for n = 8
k = 4
x = 4 is in the class of k
and also in the class of 2 by your proposition
that's false since classes are disjoint
the classes are {1,3,5,7} {2,6} {4} {8}
yeah and that's refuting your assumption
how so
k = 2 :
the set of all x st gcd(x,2) = 2 is {2,4,8}
k = 4 :
the set of all x st gcd(x,4) = 4 is {4,8}
by "for each factor k|n, the set of all x such that gcd(x,k) = k forms a class"
each are classes. Since they're not equal they're disjoint, but it is not the case then your sentence is false
sorry i mean gcd(n,x) = k
Let V,W be finite dimensional complex representations of a finite group G. I'm supposed to explain how H:=Hom(V,W) is a natural representation of G, but I don't even get what Hom(V,W) means in this case because representations are homomorphisms???
what's your definition of representation ?
a homomorphism from the group G to the group of invertible linear operators on a vector space V
ok
it this case, V is a vector space
in your sentence , they call V a "representation" but it is a verbal abuse
actually, V is the vector space of your representation
the question is: you have maps G -> End(V) and G->End(W), find a natural map G->End(Hom(V,W))
End meaning what?
endomorphisms
yeah im not sure how to do this rigorously
what are you trying to do?
because i want to apply this to polynomial rings Z[x]/(p(x))
you don't need polynomials to prove it
like i want to show the number of classes is the number of factors of p(x)
classes of what
associate classes
hmm
in general this is a tricky issue but for PIDs it works out nicely
cuz it's gonna be precisely the ideals
Wait what's the problem?
what if its not an integral domain?
As in like, elements which differ by a unit?
which is somewhat interesting
but this is not the same as principal ideals right?
it is
because two elements are in the same associate class iff they generate the same principal ideal
Star2825 I remember you and unfortunately each time you ping me this way my memory of you becomes slightly less positive
oh..
thats only true for integral domains
rip
sorry about that
hi @bleak abyss remember me?
whaaaaaaaaaaat
Problem is this
ok what am i doing wrong
lol
Let's say a = bc and then b = ad
he literally just told me that
then a = adc
go away star
a = acd so a(1-cd) = 0
we're trying to do math here
yeah
i don't see where I'm using this, im so bad
So it is true that if x divides y and y divides x
if x and y are associates then they generate the same principal ideals
that part's fine
Then (x) = (y)
The point is being a multiple by a unit is stronger
but im trying to see why this is fine for Z/nZ or Z[x]/(p(x))
so it's a finer decomposition than principal ideals
because they're PIDs
well no
not for p(x) not irreducible
do you mean p(x) irreducible?
nope
should i split Z[x]/(p(x)) into a direct product?
yeah
so this reduces to the case where p(x) = q(x)^k for q irreducible
and then uhh
then it looks like it's still true
hmm
I think you can inject Z in its fraction field and study bezout relation here
in the end it does look like it's all the factors of p
regardless of not being a domain
it is?
The existence of x and y in Z is harsher than the existence of x and y in Q lmao
we don't have "for every Q|P, the class of Q is the polynomials X that satisfy gcd(P,X) = Q"
by degree
Wait maybe I was thinking of something else, Z into Q or Z[x] or what?
see, associate classes are finer than principal ideal classes, so we can look at principal ideals first
and that's precisely the decomposition into gcd(P,X) = Q
for Q|P
now the question is if any of those can split
idk, if gcd(X,P) = Q and X has an higher degree than Q, then they can't be associated
mh yes, but is the degree of X is smaller than P
what
yeah degree doesn't work right anymore
I don't think the classes split. let's see
x = qa
y = qb
a,b coprime to p
does it follow that x = uy?
elements coprime to p are precisely the units
so yes
this works
this proof more generally works for any quotient of a domain
I what only thinking that invertible elements of Z[X]/p(x) were -1 and 1 lel
so here's the proposition
mb
Lemma (urboz): The associate classes in any quotient of a PID are given by prime ideals
@carmine sentinel
is it actually though?
I think so
Z[X] isn't a pid
lmfao
ok hang on
ok scratch what I said
I was working over k[x] for some reason
im getting confused now
same
wait why are associate classes ideals
the claim is that x and y are associate iff they generate the same principal ideal
which in the Q[x] case is iff their gcd with p is the same
oh ok
but in the Z[x] case should be iff their gcd with p is the same and their ideal in Z is also the same
which should follow by gauss lemma
I'll leave it here cuz I have to grade lol but let me know if I'm wrong eventually
nah this works thanks
@carmine sentinel are you the same iceman from r/math who was telling a first year undergrad to attend the dinner after seminar talks?
Fuckin 'exposed
oh she sneaked into the seminar to eat?
And she's super conspicuous
Nah
She was trying to attend the seminar
But she also didn't know any math
lol
It was like a week into her first semester
wow
She's very interesting honestly
but how did it all play out?
She corresponds with Serre
woah
why
And he replied
he's like 93
oh
She told the story to us
sad
same
I have gone to a total of one (1) post seminar dinner
oh well technically I guess two
but one doesn't count cuz it's a group that meets all the time
and we usually have pizza
Ah ok
I haven't gone to any real dinners
The seminars I go to are usually pizza ones
Or during the day
I don't usually go out of my way to talk to mathematicians
that's probably bad
i just talk to people who I have business with
Networking is a thing
That's probably important
I'm really bad at asking questions during seminars
yeah it's terrifying
i just keep my mouth shut
I had a really good question one time that I didnt ask
i dont know why
That sucks
@woven delta bro
I know who you're talking about
The other day I attended a colloquium
And Dennis announced the dinner that would be subsidized
Uhh I didnt go cause I'm an undergrad XD
You probably could have gone though
Cause your a 3rd year
And you know people in the department
Why is Dennis in like 3 of the seminars I go to
Fuck
Oof
I'm trying to pull together all that I've learned so far in Group theory. My teacher is great but he doesn't follow a textbook and doesn't talk about some alternative definitions or relations between topics.
So with that being said
Is this true?
Where N is a normal subgroup of G
,rotate 90
Thanks Ann!
Just wanted to make sure, it needed to be true for me to understand the definition correctly
I've looked around for some, but I think I'll do with just class notes. The only problem with class notes is notation and definitions, the teacher sometimes defines things in unconventional ways for the sake of intuition.
So when I look online for help I get these weird definitions and have trouble putting them together 😅 @iron cedar
Going to check it out!
Many thanks!
@woven delta oof
I only went to the dinners if they were some pizza dinner in the math lounge
Perks of taking grad classes is grad students offering you alcohol at Friday night wine and cheese
If I have a real symmetric Bilinear form where B(w,u) = 0 and B(u,w) = 0, while B(u,u) >0, is it true B(w,w) <0 ?
no
take B to be the inner product of R^n and u and w to be any two orthogonal nonzero vectors
with n > 1
If a non-empty set S satisfies (a) and (b) show that (S, . ) is a group
I think I've showed associativity but I can't figure out how to show inverses and the neutral element.
I can never do this sort of thing 
(Oh and S is finite)´
Consider the function x->ax for a in G
Don't you have to swap the values?
I forgot how to do this but I know with inverse functions you swap the x or something
where did you get 3x=y+2
Multiply by 3.
thanks man
No problem!~
It should be xy-6x.
defo not (abstract) algebra btw.-.
@golden pasture Yep. @chilly ocean This should probably be moved to #prealg-and-algebra
can anyone help?
@rose oxide do you know what a field automorphism is?
where a group is isomorphic on itself?
Oh, you probably don't know what a field is, nevermind
a+ bi gets mapped to a-bi
yeah
Oh lol
Anyway, if you add two complex numbers
right
yes?
i feel like it is
a+bi + c + di = (a+b)+(c+d)i the conjugate is (a+b)-(c+d)i
a-bi + c - di = (a+b)-(c+d)i
yeah
they are
well
if they are the same
they are homomorphic
so A is true
Homomorphic isn't a thing lol
I mean, homomorphic is an equivalence relation
On what?
In what way is it an equivalence relation on groups?
Obviously isomorphism is, but I don't see how homomorphisms would give you one
Unless you want everything to be related
In which case sure
yes
Was what I said wrong
Saying A and B are related if there is a homomorphism from A to B?
Is that what you wanted?
yeah lmao
Yeah I realized that
So 
0 homomorphism exists
which ring does B_cris refer to
wow, what an interesting partition
let's publish 2,000 pages studying it
I think I can show an amazing link to composition series
the first and last groups in a composition series of a group with no sporadic groups in its composition series must always be homomorphic
@urban acorn literally what
be more specific in your question
Maybe you should be more specific, what the hell are you saying
congratulations you proved it @magic owl
Lmao
Pretty similar
I mean as I said depends on the pace
If you're doing 10 pages per hour, 3 hours a day
Which is reasonable
Then yeah it takes about 3 years
I mean D&F is like
Long
But really really easy
Interesting doesn't mean difficult
I mean easy in the sense of like
Like compare to Rudin where you have to think really hard about the stuff while you're reading
I mean even compared to Baby
I haven't read Papa myself actually, I used a different book
D&F is practically storytime followed by exercises
Wait what? I tried to read Rudin in my first year and it was tough, kinda got stonewalled a few times even, when I was trying to learn group actions I started reading D&F chapter 1 (also first year) and it was the smoothest thing ever
Took too long to get to the point which is why I read other stuff but like
D&F is the opposite of terse
I mean idk say for Galois theory I also felt like it spelled all the details out, at least among the stuff I glanced through in chapters 13 and 14
I never tried systematically reading it because the number of words is comparable to the number of atoms in the observable universe
I mean nobody reads the later chapters
At that point you read specialized books on the matter
So like, the part of D&F which matters is chapters 1-14
And what I've seen of those chapters makes it seem locally easy to read, the hard part is actually getting through it all
"Show that if H is a subgroup of G and [G:H]=2 then H is a normal subgroup"
All I'm showing is tears because the test is next week and I can't solve half of the exercises 
Proofs fuck me up so bad it's not even funny
Think about cosets
Reforming: The number of left and and right cosets is the same
Yes, and we’re trying to show that gH=Hg for each g in G. If g is in H, then it’s trivial. What happens if g isn’t in H?
Do you understand why this is a valid proof technique?
Then gH and Hg must divide the group in the same number of cosets
But how does that show they're the same ?
To be honest, not really
A subgroup H is normal in G iff gHg^(-1)=H for all g in G. Also, if g is not in H, then gH cannot contain an element of H, so it must be the rest of G (as there is a bijection between H and gH and H has index 2). Similarly, Hg is the rest of G, so they’re the same.
(This covers infinite groups as well)
Ooh, right, I was thinking about g=e but obviously if g is the identity it's in H 
Many many thanks!
One down, only 30 more exercises I can't solve to go!
Good luck and don’t be afraid to ask more questions
I generally spend 15 minutes looking at a given exercise
Then move on, come back after a while to try to solve it, if after 15 minutes I don't get anywhere I ask
Same dude, test next week, have 0 motivation to solve exercises.
If G is a group and, $g \in G$ and $gh \in G$, then does that mean that $h \in G$ ?
Abrar:
Abrar:
what is this # operation here?
Connected sum
You chop a disk out of each space and glue along the boundary (so (S^1\times S^1) # (S^1\times S^1) is the two-holed torus)
ok that makes sense! Thank you!
Anybody home
Show that if group G has 20 elements and it doesnt have an element of order 4 then there exists element of order 10. Any ideas how to do it?
What have you tried
Do you know Lagranges Theorem?
no that's false
How can I find problems specifically of this form? Any keywords?
To my question: I have lagrange, cauchy, sylov theoerm.
Try using them
I tried
There is a hint show that there exists a normal subgroup of order 5 but couldnt do that either
Think about Sylow's theorem
And think about which one might be relevant to the normality condition
ok will try
What is a rigid motion on a polygon?
Take some polygon (equal sides, equal angles). Imagine it's sitting in a hole that it fits into perfectly. Pick it up, do anything you want with it, put it back down into the hole. That's an "algebraic action" on the polygon
Important bit is that it should rest in the same spot after the motion.
Okay then
Consider a tetrahedron with vertices 1234 sitting in a 4d hole
Reflecting across the plane cutting through the edge 3-4 hitting the opposite edge perpendicularly leaves a tetrahedron in the same place, right?
Why a 4D hole?
The hole analogy doesn't work with a 3D shape lol
Just, should look the same before and after motion
Reflecting across the plane cutting through the edge 3-4 hitting the opposite edge perpendicularly leaves a tetrahedron in the same place, right?
There's infinitely many such planes
"hitting the other edge perpendicularly" oh I see
For any skew lines, there is only one plane that passes through the firt line and hits the second line perpendicularly lol
Now you made me feel like my high school geometry class I hope you're happy young man
Fair, yes the tetrahedron would look the same before and after
Then (12) is by definition a rigid motion.
Well, one could say it's an algebraic action but we don't normally talk about reflections
Like I said, these are things that should happen if you pick up and place down the object
I feel like maybe I need some context lol. Is this from a group theory perspective?
Yes
There's nothing "un-group theory" about reflections but we don't normally bring them up for simplicity
It's easy for me to look at a pentagon and find the actions (permutations) that keep its chakras well-aligned.
They're rots and flips through an angle bisector
But for a tetrahedron, there should be rots and something else
Why isn't every vertex an axis of rotation
you could think about it that way
but then you get redundancy
aka you can generate the other rotations just by these three
it's enough to pick 2 vertices as axes of rotation
and one other rotation
which is like diagonal
It's pretty hard to talk about the groups of 3D shapes without certain theorems, as you do get redundant elements
what theorems
Okay so I'm missing something.
If you know the orbit-stabilizer theorem you can at least get the group size easily
Prove that if |G| = p^n then G contains an element of order p.
Assume this as inductive hypothesis. Consider |G'| = p^{n+1}. Either G has subgroups or it doesnt. If G has a subgroup then it has an order of p^k for k < n+1 then by inductive hypothesis it contains an element of order p.
If G doesnt have a subgroup then it is a cyclic group and thus the element p^n has the order p.
Is this correct?
If G doesnt have a subgroup then it is a cyclic group
??
If G has a subgroup the subgroup must divide the order of G. Thus the subgroup has the order p^k for k < n+1. By induction then we have that the subgroup contains an element of order p and hence the group.
that part's fine
yes
Proper subgroup means proper subgroup
by subgroup he clearly means proper
But ok
How do you prove v(x)v' = v'(x)v implies v=av'
what's v(x)
v(x)v' is an element of the tensor product
smh $\otimes$ exists
Zopherus:
if I want to show $\mathbb{R}[X]$ is not finitely generated as an $\mathbb{R}$-module, can I assume by contradiction that $\exists S[X] \subset \mathbb{R}[X] : S[X] = {f_1, \dots, f_k}$ for some polynomials $f_i$. Then let $n := \max_{1 \leq i \leq k}\deg{(f_i)}$ and $g(x) = x^{n+1}$ then $g \in \mathbb{R}[X]$ but $g$ cannot be constructed additively from the elements of $S[X]$?
last line is really badly worded and I would improve it, just trying to get the logic right
alex:
That sounds like a valid reason
You don't need S
just assume that it is finitely generated and you get this contradiction
thanks!
Is there a way to prove the algebraicity of an element when it's not over the rationals? For example, I am attempting to show e is algebraic (or not) over the field of periods P (i.e. [P(e) : P] is finite), and I have no idea where to start.
what's the field of periods?
check the order of both groups
what is this map?
oh you are taking x mod 4
for each of them
i mean this isn't even surjective
But it's an homomorphism correct?
sure
Okay then it makes sense
I was mixing the homomorphism and isomorphism symbols 
Many thanks!
yw
Okay I was going over my notes and my teacher said that "G is cyclic=>G is abelian"
He didn't show a proof, he said for us to take it as fact (He did this in the beginning when we didn't have the proper tools to understand the demonstration)
But now trying to show this myself I'm having a hard time doing it
write down definitions
alternatively, we know something about all finite cyclic groups, and we know something about every infinite cyclic group
and if you know properties about those, then you can determine why cyclic groups must be abelian
you don't need to take about isomorphism, it's pretty trivial with only the definitions...
Okay so: If G is cyclic then there's some g in G such that <g>=G
Or g^n=1
for some n in N
And obviously if G is abelian then ab=ba for a,b in G
@waxen iron if G=<g>, then each element in G is equal to g^k for some k
so say you have two elements, a=g^k, b=g^j
what's a*b
what's b*a
@wind steeple yeah you're right -- I just like reducing things to Z_n and Z as soon as possible
makes it easier to think about
All cyclic groups of order n are isomorphic to Z_n, all infinite cyclic groups are isomorphic to Z
Z_n here \cong Z/nZ
"All cyclic groups of order n are isomorphic to Z_n"~It's funny, my teacher showed the opposite, that all Z_n groups are isomorphic with the cyclic group of order n @pearl mural
Yeah, I just though it was mildly amusing that you said the exact inverse 
Anyhow, many thanks!
np
All cyclic groups of order n are cyclic groups of order n.
All cyclic groups are finite.
Woke
exactly
$Z/\infty Z$
MaxJ:
that's a conspiracy maintained by the government
also
cough $\frac{\bZ}{1\bZ}$ cough
Intel:
Liquid:
If I have xyz as a element in a group, I cannot claim right that xy is also an element of the group?
As in does xyz in G imply z^{-1} is in G?
xy in G iff z in G
I dont think it answers my question because it neither negates nor confirms whether xyz in G => z^{-1} in G <=> z in G holds true.
Yeah I am concerned about the first implication though as requested in my first quesiton
ab in G does not imply b in G
It literally doesn't matter
If the second thing is always true
Then the overall thing implication will always be true
@blissful root Okay perfect. thanks!
Hello!
If I have an abelian group G and a subgroup H, is there a quick way to show that G/H has order 3? E.g. to show that G/H has order 2, I just have to show G and H are different and any two elements in G \ H sum to give an element in H
Are G and H finite?
No
Vaguely the same thing will work
Take two elements a,b in G\H such that a - b is not in H, and then show that a + b is in H
Ooh nice
Thanks!
I suppose the same trick wouldn’t work as well for order 4
And it doesn’t generalise well for any n
Yeah but the order 3 trick is nice
Ok so
I have two copies of the same graded ring Z[x]/<x^2> and Z[y]/<y^2>
I want to take their tensor product
It makes sense that this is going to end up being Z[x,y] with some relations
It makes sense that we keep the relations x^2,y^2=0
But we also (apparently) get a anti-commutativity relation xy=-yx
Let N be even integer, and find the kernel of the action of $D_{2n}$ on the sets consisting of pairs of vertices of a regular n-gon.
aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa:
Why isn't this kernel simply just the trivial kernel?
What does it mean by pairs of vertices of a regular n-gon?
like you have the pair (i,n/2+i)
if you label the vertices clockwise starting with 1
So opposite vertices?
oh
i guess i wasn't sure if (n/2+i,i) = (i,n/2+i)
aaaa
ok it makes sense
but apparently n=4 is special case
Right
Reflections do preserve pairs there
That's the only case I checked for reflection whoops
like if i get a question like this
i just have to see that 4 is a special case?
oof
I mean, the dihedral group only has reflections and rotations
So you try reflections for small cases, see it works for 4 and not higher
Let $G_a$ be the stabilizer of a in G and consider $C_a = {ga |g \in G}$ I'm trying to show that $|C_a| = [G:G_a]$ by constructing the map from $C_a \xrightarrow{} G/G_a$ defined by $g*a \xrightarrow{} gG_a$
aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa:
so the kernel is obviously just $1*a$, and so this is injective, but I'm not sure about surjective
is a better way of proving injectivity something like $gG_a = hG_a \xrightarrow{} h^{-1}g \in G_a \xrightarrow{} h^{-1}ga = a$ and so $ ga = ha$
Why cant a =0 in the centre?
a = 0 isn't in GL_n
Oh yes smh
remember that the GL_n is only a group with respect to multiplication
Anyone on for a quick q?
I'm listening
Say I have Z union infinity
and everything is closed p.t. it is finite or contains {infinity}
and open is that ur compliment is closed
Every cover is open
Uh, this isn't abstract algebra
Where should I put this then lol?
Let N be a normal group of order 5 inside a group G with an odd order. Show that N is contained inside Z where Z is the centre of G.
Since N is finite prime, we have that N = <x> for x ≠ 1. Since C(x) | G, we have that C(x) = 1 or 3 or 5.
If C(x) =5, then since gxg⁻¹ ∈ N, we have that there exists a g such that gxg⁻¹ = 1 which implies x = 1 and thus a contradiction.
If C(x) =3 then ∃x' ∈ N\C(x) such that C(x') ≤ 2. Since C(x') | G thus we have that C(x') = 1 which implies x' ∈ Z. Since Z is a group, thus we have x = (x')ⁱ ∈ Z.
If C(x) = 1 then x ∈ Z trivially. Thus shown.
Is this correct?
<@&286206848099549185>
By Z do you mean the center Z(G)?
Yes
Does anyone know Binary Algebra ?
How can i find at which order a permutation p is going to be equal to a permutation q
so like for which k in p^k = q
Don't you mean, find n s.t. p^n = k ?
sorry i fixed it ^ @wind steeple check it again now
normally this can also be expressed like
p^k = q^1
because that's to what i am interested
but i dont know where to start and how to proceed
You can decompose p and q into disjoint cycles décomposition
Alright, i've managed to get myself stuck a slight bit and could use some help
Say a sequence $a_n$ converges in order to $a$, denoted $a_n \to a$ (sometimes with a $\mathfrak o$ superscript on the $\to$, not sure how common since i'm not exactly an expert) iff there exist monotonic sequences $s_n, t_n$ such that $s_n \leq a_n \leq t_n$ and $\sup s_n = \inf t_n = a$
$\S$ay two sequences are equivalent $(a_n \sim b_n)$ iff $b_n - a_n \to 0$
If I have 4 sequences $(a_n), (a_n'),(b_n), (b_n') \in R^\mathbb{N}$, where $R$ is a partially ordered ring, and both $a_n \sim a_n'$ and $b_n \sim b_n'$ hold, can i say that $a_n b_n \sim a_n'b_n'$?
Darkrifts:
tree3:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
@steep hull only problem is a_n etc need not converge, just a_n - a_n' converges (equivalent to the two series have the same point to which they converge, provided they do so). I'm slightly lost on how you bounded it but i am smoothbrain so that doesn't surprise me. Might've given me an idea to work it, if this doesn't fully work once i figure out exactly what you meant
i can definitely bound it more than i've been thinking
Whoops, I’m bad at reading English
nah, i'm bad at writing it
the thing i'm working in is really not all that nice
needn't be complete, etc
but uh, I had an idea to try and exploit that $a\leq b, c\leq d \vdash ad + bc \leq bd+ac$ works, but didn't quite have the right idea
Darkrifts:
i only looked at the lower bound, which (when you do that) should end up going to 0, and because a duality argument, the upper bound does as well
so you bound your difference in to 0
Hmm, I think I have an idea
I was going to write a_n=a’_n+r_n and the same for b_n and do some computations
though this bounds a specific thing, not sure yet if i can use it to prove the normal thing
yeah, but uh
consider a sequence 1, 2, 3, 4 etc
that obviously goes off to infinite
but uh
you can have a sequence which also approaches infinity in a very similar way without being an arithmetic sequence
or any other such thing
Yeah
like 1, 3/2, .... approaching 2, and the constant sequence 2, 2, 2, 2
or, alternatively, one approaching sqrt(2) over the rationals
Writing a_n=a’_n+r_n and doing the same for b_n should work. Let me try writing it up
i'll look at it, beats me if it'll work
oh and uh, i have that $\alpha \beta + \alpha'\beta' - (\alpha\beta'+\alpha'\beta)$ should converge to 0, not a properly formally done proof though and assumes that your sequences $\alpha, \beta$ don't run off to some infinitely large elements
Darkrifts:
There may be some trouble with infinity
well ofc there is, that always busts things up, but luckily your bounding sequences s_n, t_n can be chosen to be infinitely large in only finitely many terms
i think
then again, I'm smoothbrain, take anything I say with a grain of salt should it seem sketch at all
Take (n+1/n)^2-n^2

