#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 449 of 407
i losg all hope from this problem xd
we been doing it for like w5 mins
and im replying stupid dtuff
u dont have to be nice xd
tysm
This is true
g is not ewual to f on all inputs
oh fuck
Let's think about how we could patch h to fix this issue
Don't give up! A good problem fights back
ok we want h =1 for x =0 then ig
we want h(1) = 1
Okay, can you prove that for me?
You just gave it
nvm
i got it
h cant ne 0
its like by exhaustion
be*
i think
lao
lmao
h(f(x))
f(x) cant be 0
thats what we assumed
Yup
Okay, so can we prove this when Y = {0, 1, 2}?
Right, we're assuming f isn't surjective
So we want functions g, h which are a counterexample to f being epic
Like we did for Y = {0,1}
g(t) = t
What was the property that made the h we chose work before?
that h =! g for some t
I'm gonna
Sleep
Now
I think if you think about this you can prove the general case
And also to repeat: you're not stupid or bad at math
This stuff is hard
tysm for helping
The transition into advanced math was harder than the actual hard math for me
Once I got it things became doable again
Not impossible but not incredibly like futile and frustrating
I would suggest focusing more on fundamentals right now
Not trying to read Rudin or aluffi
But find a book which covers basic set theory and logic
Okay, then just keep in mind that math is hard and everybody struggles
You kept saying you were being stupid
But you weren't
This is a nontrivial problem
Maybe try Artin or Pinter?
this tkme i will completly
have a diff approach for probmems
problems
pinter is a bit low lvl ig
like i can actually do the problems
habaha
/shrug
i did like untill chap 7 or 8
👍
They're good
And challenging
And I can hopefully solve all of them
Since I wrote it lol
yea
The other problem I was going to give
Was to show that the inclusion ι : Z -> Q
Is an epimorphism in the category of rings
Despite being super not surjective
It's a ring homomorphism because addition and multiplication works the same
In Z and Q
yea whats the diff
between lkke
category of sets and category of rings
just the obj?
No, not just the objects
Categories have maps too
And the maps we care about between rings are...?
Any guesses?
homomorphs?
Yup
So to be epic in the category of rings
You need to satisfy the right cancelation property for ring homomorphisms g and h
So to show ι is epi, you need to show that for any ring R and homomorphisms g, h : Q -> R, if g°ι = h°Ι, then g = h
could I please have a hint. I don't know how to begin
First show that H must be abelian I think
Ufhhh I forget how to do this but have done so before
Lemme check
Okay so
You want to show it's abelian
That's equivalent to [N, N] = 1
Why's that true?
yeah, but even if G is Abelian, how do I know about it's isomorphic to (Z/pZ)^n
By doing more things after that lol
Let's step back
So you know how normality isn't transitive right?
You can have A normal in B and B normal in C, but A not normal in C
yep
What extra condition on A tells us that A is normal on C?
Assuming it's contained in B and B is normal in C
umm, I'm not sure
So a subgroup H of G is called characteristic if every automorphism of G fixes H
Does that make sense?
As in φ(A) = A
Not φ(a) = a for all a in A
Exercise: prove that if A is characteristic in B and B is normal in C then A is normal in C
Exercise: prove [G, G] is characteristic in G
Exercise: prove that if G is solvable, then [G, G] is proper subgroup of G
@brisk granite
Use this to conclude [N, N] = 1 by minimality and solvability of N
Now suppose p is a prime dividing the order of N. Because N is abelian, the function which sends x to x^p is a homomorphism.
Exercise: prove that the kernel and image of this map is characteristic in N
Use this to show g^p = 1 for all p in N
Conclude the result by linear algebra (G is a vector space over Fp)
Does that proof sketch seem possible?
@mild laurel does that make sense to you? I want to make sure this works
But don't want to actually go through it
In full depth
Yeah, this is vaguely what I was thinking
I guess it's really a result about groups which have no nontrivial characteristic subgroups and are not perfect
I.e. the only such groups are these products
no
it's wrong and not really algebra, so?
what does the arrow mean?
Also, I saw a numberphil video that said this but they assumed a bunch of divergent series converged
twas weird
the arrow means that the sum is assigned the value of -1/12 [through some summation method (try https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Divergent_series to see some)]
@brisk granite
@mortal stream
I just can’t understand how the sum of integers and positive numbers could give such a result
maybe let's move to #real-complex-analysis
@mortal stream i think that it has to deal with our understanding of the positive and negative values...
let's consider a car moving at 60km/h, and then it accelerates a little bit, and so it moves at 70km/h. 70-60=10km/h, so we can say that the car accelerated by 10km/h.
now let's consider a car moving at 60km/h, and then it slows down a little, and so it moves at 50km/h. 50-60=-10km/h, so we can say that the car accelerated by -10km/h.
Actually i don't know how to explain it, but the concept of accelerating is the same as slowing down, it just depends on the value (whether it's negative or positive). in physics, we don't even say slow down, we always say accelerating.
it's actually weird when you think about it. let's say you're in a car with a friend. the car starts slowing down, and you tell your friend : "the car accelerated". he's not going to understand it easily! but we can compare this situation to your reaction to the fact that the sum of all integers is -1/12. we give the word "addition" a bigger "sense of understanding", relating it somehow to some kind of soustraction.
I don't think that has anything to do with this
i think it has based on the fact that this idea comes from a mathematician, and sorry for my bad english tho
What
frenglish* 😩
franglais powa
Can we talk about rings now?
Guess not
sure
Anyone_Someone2018:
Is $(\mathbb R, +)$ cyclic? I mean if there is some infinitesimal element $g$, we can write all other elements as an integer factor of it.
no
cyclic groups have countable orders
the reals are uncountable in number
hence that doesn't work
is (A/I)/I = A/I for a ring A with ideal I?
If $\mathbb{R}$ (additive) were cyclic, that is, if $\mathbb{R} = \left<g\right>$, we could represent every real number $x$ as $kg$ where $k$ is an integer (hence a bijection, specifically an isomorphism would exist $\phi : \mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{Z}, kg \mapsto k$ but that implies $\left|\mathbb{R}\right|=\left|\mathbb{Z}\right|$). From this assumption you can see you'll run into more problems than just the order not being countable, but that's definitely the biggest glaring issue
Deconstructed:
@simple agate the ideals of A/I are of the form J/I where J is an ideal of A containing I
hmm I'm trying to prove that if P is a prime ideal of A containing I then P/I is prime
I've done it all apart from proving that P/I =/= A
so far my approach is using proof by contradiction - consider P/I = A then A = {p + I : p in P} which implies P = A (and that A is a quotient ring), however P is prime in A thus that cannot be the case
is that valid @chilly ocean ?
first of all, you would need to have P/I = A/I
yeah I kinda put that in parenthesis, that A would need to equal A/I
no
which relates to my original question
there is literally no reason why A/I would be A in general
can I accept that without proving it?
but the easiest way would probably be to pick any x in A\P
then assume x+I is in P/I
well if A/I = A, then I is the trivial ideal
if x+I is in P/I then hmm
well then x is in P
and since that is a contradiction, there is at least one element in A/I not in P/I
or idk maybe you could also use noether and the result that an ideal P is prime iff A/P is an integral domain
assuming that A is commutative ofc
then you could do it very simply
A/P = (A/I)/(P/I)
the thing is that stuff is in the next questions so I don't want to use it
I think I'm just gonna string together something and wait for my professor's feedback & official solution. thanks though
and conclude that P/I is a prime ideal of A/I iff P is a prime ideal of A
do you have the result saying that there is a bijection between the ideals of A containing I and the ideals of A/I?
an order preserving bijection
ordering given by inclusion
cause then you could use that
P is not A, so it is contained in some maximal ideal M of A
so P/I is contained in M/I
and hence not A/I
or just simply do what i recommended first and pick any x not in P and show that x+I isn't in P/I
but yeah, do whatever you wish
@chilly ocean thanks for the help but my professor just emailed us to let us know he wrote the question wrong 🤦 lol
what course is this for, abstract II?
iamtim:
I'm not understanding the 1/2 thing.
Suppose that we had a Q module structure on Z
Then we could multiply 1 (in Z) by 1/2 (in Q)
Call this element x
Then x + x = 1/2.1 + 1/2.1 = (1/2 + 1/2).1 = 1.1 = 1
@upbeat burrow make sense?
Np
tfw my abstract exam today involved a question requiring some good knowledge of conjugacy classes to prove, but the prof mentioned the concept like once during the previous lecture and didn't even define it properly

Tfw you only realize why conjugacy was important in abstract algebra and thought it was useless in linear algebra
Conjugacy good
Conjugacy is just free homotopy
that sounds very fake
It’s true if by conjugacy you mean the bs fundamental group version
The free homotopy perspective is probably better imo
Could you elaborate on it?
Basepoint but we're in a moduli space of lines
Anyway any free homotopy (not preserving endpoints) induces a conjugacy of loops
A conjugacy that doesn’t preserve base points
Oh sure, a homotopy that moves around the basepoint
Yeah
Yeah I am aware of this
I just hadn't heard the term free homotopy
I needed it at one point for something
But can't remember what
Oh
Nullhomotopic as a function iff path homotopy to the identity
I think
Although I don't remember why that came up
Oh yeah Brown constructed a homotopy which didn't preserve the basepoint and didn't say anything
And I got really mad after I figured out what was going on
Because he hadn't mentioned anything about this
it was fun learning about homotopy as an undergrad in an independent study course
(am still undergrad obv cuz I sound like a noob)
Homotopy is pretty cool
@simple agate and the mistake was having P/I be an ideal of A instead of A/I?
Yep
🚬
well it should
because you would be proving a false claim
which is impossible
;)
my favourite type of proof
Prove that G cannot have a subgroup H with IHI = n-1, where n = IGI > 2.
since orders are integers
can i do induction?
I don't see how induction would help
presumably you know that the order of a subgroup must divide the order of the group?
yes
^
this is what i wanted to dow ith induction
assume if |G| = k and |H| = k-1
doesn't that give you what you want right away?
well
wtf
XD
k-1 never divides k
for all k right?
for all k >2 atleast
yea
lmao
sorry
ty
i have a problem with proving
2 groups arent isomorphic
do you have any advice
for how to like
think to solve these problems
I guess you can use the fact that the multiplicative group of nonzero complex numbers has four elements of order 4 but R-{0} only has two? edit: should have said solutions to x^4 = 1 rather than order 4
really? it's pretty clear you should try to make use of i somehow
i and -i are the 4th roots of unity that aren't in R
what the fuck
xd
yea its acatually clear
sorry
but in general what type of propertis
as for your other question
I mean there's not going to be one answer
for example if you google it you can get this big list
mmm
just gotta find some property that one satisfies but not the other
i think the easiest ones are like
being abelian
or like being cyclic
ig
right?
right that would work
The things I look at normally are like
Centers, element orders, cardinality if applicable
Grothendieck's 1973 topos lectures Colin McLarty 3 mai 2018 In the summer of 1973 Grothendieck lectured on several subjects in Buffalo NY, and these lectures...
Just came across this, might be good
subgroup orders as well
Sylow data too
and what subsets normalize each other can help, especially using generators to make the calculations faster if you have explicit elements in front of you
*+centralize
if it was a problem involving quotient groups you could use the fourth iso thm
sorry that was a huge tangent i just realized lol
After I’m done with Abstract I this semester I’m thinking of reading thru the ring theory unit of Dummit & Foote since I’ll have finished the earlier units
is there one anyone likes better or has any recommendations about that
imma stick with d&f for now lol just peeped Jacobson and d&f is still daddy tbh
D&F takes years to say anything lmao
I found gallian better for my first course on group theory
but it's a more visually appealing book and I'm a sucker for illustrations and pretty presentation
if d&f is slow then what is pinter 😂
a casual read before bed
jokes aside i like that Pinter puts a lot of material in the exercises but makes them easy/gradual
DF is so boring
i dont understand how anyone can use it as anything but a reference
but maybe this is because i think the subject is try
without topology algebra is useless
I also find DF can't keep my focus
Df ?
Dummit and foote
Nah I love d&f
It prepares you to the point you kinda need to start proving shit in your head real fast while reading and that’s good and important, the exercises are all adequate to help you get to that point
Do you need to prove things in your head fast while reading?
Just read for another 30 pages and eventually he'll get to the proof
lmfao
"so here we will prove that even numbers times any integer are also even"
"nah I'll just wait till he proves it, i don't feel like breaking my head right now"
whats wrong with df gt?
Let $\lambda = (\lambda_1, ..., \lambda_k)$ be a partition of $n$, so $\sum \lambda_i = \lambda$, let $T$ be a young tableaux associated to $\lambda$ and $P_\lambda$ be the subgroup that permutes the rows of $T$. Do you know why $Ind_{S_{\lambda_1} \cross ... \cross S_{\lambda_k}}^{S_n}(\text{trivial}) = \mathbb{C}S_n a_{\lambda}$ where $a_{\lambda} = \sum_{w \in P_T} w$?
emme:
so they have the same dimension as vector space over $\mathbb{C}$, but I can't see an explicit representation isomorphism between them.
emme:
Anyone?
Ok I figured that out, let $H = S_{\lambda_1} \cross ... \cross S_{\lambda_k}$ and $\sigma in S_n/H $ then, up to representation isomorphism, $sigma = gh$ for a fixed $g$. Then I just send $\sigma\mathbb{C} \mapsto g\cdot a_{\lambda}$. It's $S_n$-linear and a subjection, hence the thesis.
emme:
What about the general case? We have a group $G$, a subgroup $H$ and a $1$-dimensional $H$ representation $\rho : H \to \mathbb{C}$. What is $Ind_{H}^{G}(\rho)$?
emme:
Is induction abstract algebra
well there is no section for representation theory, so I posted here
He's not talking about you
k
I'm guessing that C bar here is the extendend complex plane, but what is SO(2) (I'm guessing this is a definition of CSO(2), right?)?
is it this?
but how would you take the cartesian cross product of the positive reals and 2x2 matrices?
In the obvious way
Scaling
@clear obsidian
Think of what cauchy riemann tells you in terms of the real Jacobian
And the matrix representative of a complex number
Might be $\otimes$
Nikolaj-K:
iamtim:
Can someone explain how this is true to me?
what you have to prove is that (qa,b) = (a,qb) for any q
write q = c/d
now note
(qa,b) = (ca/d, b) = (a/d,cb)
first because the tensor is over Z
now
(a/d, cb) = (a/d, cbd/d) = (ad/d, cb/d) = (a, cb/d)
essentially if you multiply one side by d/d then you can move the upper d
so this gives a net result of moving a 1/d
@blissful root so you get to move the c to the right because it's over Z? Over Z means I can only move integers right?
Q tensor Q over Q is just isomorphic to Q right?
hi, i'm not sure whether this is the correct place to ask questions about functions and equivalence classes / partitions, but could someone point me towards a bijection between real numbers and the set of their equivalence classes?
@chilly ocean Equivalence classes under what equivalence relation?
under some arbitrary equivalence relation given f(x) = f(y) where f is surjective from R -> R
show f is injective then?
The equivalence classes given by an equivalence relation that looks like f(x) = f(y) are the fibers of the elements in the image of f.
The image of f is R in this case since that's its codomain and it's surjective
Q.E.D.
well i'm just not really grasping the concept here, how can there be a bijective mapping from R to the factor set of R over A (the equivalence relation)
wouldn't that only ever be the case if the factor set only consisted of sets with one element each?
Infinite sets act somewhat unintuitively when it comes to things related to cardinality
For example, consider the set of even numbers.
It's in bijection with all of the integers (consider x -> 2x)
despite being contained in all of the integers, and there being infinitely many integers that aren't contained in it
Also, consider the equivalence relation that partitions the integer into {..., {-6, -5}, {-4, -3}, {-2, -1}, {0}, {1, 2}, {3, 4}, {5, 6}, ...}.
Clearly, these partitions of the integers are in bijection with the integers, despite almost all of them containing more than one element.
The bijection you're looking for is $x \in \bR \rightarrow {y \in \bR | f(y) = x}$.
Intel:
also something rather stupid, is the set of archetypes of a surjective mapping always a partition on it's domain?
or am i wrong to assume that
what's an archetype real quick
i can probably figure out the answer once i know that
uh the set of elements that map to a certain element in the codomain
Oh, I know that as fibers.
yea it's probably not a perfect translation
Yes, it's always a partition on its domain.
okay thanks
Intuitively, a collection of subsets is a partition on their superset if and only if every element of their superset is contained in exactly one subset.
Every element in the domain gets mapped to precisely one value in the image, and thus the fibers of the elements in the image must be a partition.
yep
Why is every Z module an abelian group?
I get the other way round
do i just not understand modules properly
Uh, I think you're asking about the other way around
Every anything module is an abelian group under addition
Lmao it happens 😛
I'm trying to remember how to figure if two direct products are isomorphic
$\mathbb{Z}2 \times \mathbb{Z}{12} \simeq \mathbb{Z}_4 \times \mathbb{Z}_6$
kickpuncher:
can I just willy nilly break non-prime boyes into their prime factorizations?
I'd have Z2 x Z4 x Z3 and Z4 x Z2 x Z3 which would then definitely be isomorphic, yeah?
ignoring that the Z4 can also be broken down
The thing is that power of primes cannot be broken down
Z_4 is not isomorphic to Z_2 x Z_2 as you can check
But otherwise, yes, the chinese remainder theorem says you can break it down into powers of primes
ah right derp
In this video we talk about general quaternion algebras over a field, their most important properties and how to think about them. The exponential map into u...
How many groups of order less than 187,500 are there?
I'm debating trying to do exhaustive search to show there's no counterexample
Oh I can also assume the group has order divisible by 60
about 38 metric shittons
I only need to consider 3125 orders
That's not very many
If I start right now I can probably prove it by midnight Wednesday
good luck with order 8192x15
I'm trying to prove that if a group G has order p^2, then it must have a subgroup of order p (without use of Cauchy's Theorem). I imagine that this follows from Lagrange's Theorem in some way, but am having trouble seeing it.
Lagrange's theorem doesn't really say anything about this
From lagrange's theorem we know that the only possible orders for subgroups are 1, p, and p^2, no?
This seems like it would be useful in showing that there must be a subgroup of order p
Sure that's true
Take an arbitrary non neutral element of your group and study its order
You may have your answer
But lagrange's theorem can't tell you that anything that there exists an element of order p
Why taking an element suffices here ? Because a group of order p is cyclic
So we are reduced to study orders of elements of G x)
That makes a lot of sense, I will spend some time thinking about why there must be an element of order p.
I would personally start by assuming there's a group that has no element of order p
Hello, I am doing a number of exercises but this question bothers me. It states: Suppose that x is an element of G with order 16. What is the order of x^3? What is the order of x^(−4)? What is the order of x^6?
What have you tried?
e being the identity?
Correct.
ok so x^16=e
why did you assume that x^2 = e?
What does the order of an element mean
x has order 16. assume x has order 2 :p
Some people do mean order to just mean that x^16 = e, not necessarily minimal
I believe it's the least positive integer such that x^n=e
But beginning students usually don't use it in taht sense
ok so you knew 16 was the least positive integer n such that x^n=e
"why did you assume that x^2 = e?" Because this is part D of question 1. It's a follow up question
and you assumed 2 (a positive integer less than 16) was such that x²=e
Yes correct.
Do you see the problem with this?
Oh shit................................
xD
How can I be so blind...
Gotcha. So the answers are 16, 4 and 8 then
yes
Cheers.
np
Hi all, I'm a bit stuck on a polynomial division question if anyone is available to help. I have a polynomial which I am trying to prove has no divisors of degree 1, and I understand that I need to use the polynomial division algorithm to prove that when I divide my p(x) by x-a, I am left with p(a), which leaves me to prove that there is no a such that p(a) = 0 so that I may conclude that there are no degree 1 divisors of p(x). I'm stuck here as I'm not sure how to prove that in a general sense. Any hints?
It's probably easier if you just post the question
This is kind of hard to answer without knowing the full context as what you would do really depends on teh question
Fair enough.
The question as a whole is: Prove that f = x^4-2x^3+2x^2-4x+1 does not have any degree 1 divisors
Ahh, so it would suffice to show that there are no divisors of the constant term such that the polynomial evaluated at that term would equal zero? So, f(1) = -2 == 0, which means that my polynomial is irreducible
Uh
You've shown it has no rational polynomial divisors of degree 1
That doesn't mean a polynomial is irreducible
The polynomial (x^2 + 1)(x^2 + 1) has no rational polynomial divisors of degree 1, but it is definitely reducible
Ok ok, thank you for the correction lol. That actually helps a lot as a later part of the question asks me to prove that f is irreducible in Q[x]
I'm having trouble showing that if a group has order 77, then it must have an element of order 7 and an order of element 11. I have been trying to show this by contradiction, but ran into a wall. It is pretty simple to find a contradiction in the case of there not existing an element of order 7 nor an element of order 11, but I can't seem to get the other cases.
@visual turret do you know Lagrange's theorem?
Yeah
Okay, so it has to have an element of order 7 or order 11
Otherwise all the elements have order 1 or 77
Right?
Yeah, I get that bit
Oh
Well I can answer that
Suppose your group had an element x of order 77
Then it's cyclic, and so it has elements of order 7 and 11
Or even quicker, |x^7| = 11 and |x^11| = 7
So you know there's an element of order 7 or an element of order 11
That makes sense, thanks. Do you see how we get to order of 11 and order of 7 from there?
No, I'm thinking about it
In like a week or two you'll learn the sylow theorems
Which will give you this automatically
So I'm not used to thinking about this kind of thing without those
Do you know the orbit stabilizer theorem?
I don't
Well no worries, that's not actually what I meant to aks lol
*ask
But you probably won't know the other theorem either
Okay so like
Let's think about what happens when |x| = 7 for all x
What subgroups can G have?
@visual turret
Wait that's not what I mean to ask exactly
What I'm trying to say is that all cyclic subgroups are C7
And they have to intersect trivially
And there's no subgroups of order 11
Since their elements orders won't divide the subgroup order
Also, the cyclic subgroups are maximal
Since they have prime index
So all the subgroups are just cyclic of order 7
(and G and 1)
Suppose G has a normal subgroup N
Then |N| = 7
Given any element x outside of N, we know N<x> is a subgroup by 2nd iso, and so it has to be G
Since it properly contains N
By lagrange stuff
We don't have isomorphisms yet unfortunately
Nope
Hmmm
It should also be doable without normal subgroups, but we can use them, since we just covered them in class
I'm sure there's a nice simple solution
But I know too many techniques to find it
Does that make sense?
Yeah, I getcha
I'll keep thinking though
I just finished my group theory take home midterm
So what I said above is still true
The nontrivial proper subgroups are all of the form <x> where |x| = 7
Oh yeah I think you can just like
Count
Pick an element x in G\{1}
Take away <x>
This new set will size 77 - 1 - 7
Do this again
You'll get 77 - 1 - 6 - 6
And so on
But 77 isn't 1 mod 6
@visual turret does that make sense?
Every element generates a subgroup of order 7
And they intersect trivially
So earlier removals won't overlap with later ones
Think about G as like a flower
Since 77 is also not 1 mod 10, this works for the other case too
Each of the "petals" in that diagram is a subgroup of order 7 btw
I assume that's clear because it's a beautiful diagram
A question about the Jacobsen Radical. How can we say that if x \in J(A) and y\in A then 1-xy cannot be in any maximal ideal?
@cobalt pilot suppose it was in a maximal ideal m. Then x is in m too, and since ideals are absorbtive also xy in m. Thus 1 = (1-xy) + xy is in m. Since m is maximal, it is proper, and so this is a contradiction
Does that make sense?
Maybe, I'm thinking 🙂
(1-xy)+xy?
yeah
Add them
Math is fucked lmao
Can someone help me real quick with a proof? I think I'm mostly done, I would just like someone to verify I didn't mess up somewhere lol. It's probably too wordy, but I just wanna make sure I'm on the right path
@latent anvil yeah, I get it now. Thanks a lot!
Sometimes you understand the hardest crap, and obvious implications fly over your head
Yeah, I definitely empathize
@junior edge I'm confused by your proof. Why can't we take e.g. d = 1, r = 0, and q = a?
Oh, it would probably help to know what I'm trying to prove:
I haven't finished reading it
But you seem to be doing Euclidean division without dividing by anything
Oh sorry
You're assuming d is a common factor of a and b
I misread
I think the start is pretty unclear
Why not just say "assume d is a common divisor of a and b....then d divides 1"?
Yea, I suck at proofs lol. I tend to try to 'over-prove' things
That plus the fact that 1 is a divisor of a and of b is actually enough to tell you it's the gcd
Proofs are hard, don't be so down on yourself!
I'm really bad at writing too much
I tend to over elaborate too
The logic looks right though
Your explanation makes sense and is what my initial gut feeling was, but then I started to bog myself down with trying to explain everything. I'll rework it to be a bit more concise
No worries. Feel free to repost when you do so!
Yeah, it looks fine (exclude the last part as uniqueness is implied already).
Another question about the converse part of the prof
So we assume that 1-xy is a unit and we want to prove that x has to be in J(A)
we do this by assuing x not in m for any maximal ideal and reach a condridiciton
For all y
then I can skip some because it does not realte to my question
yeah
my question though
hang on
Sorry
Is we prove that our assumption that x is not in any maximal ideal is wrong. How does this prove that x is in ALL maximal ideals? Won't this just prove that it's in SOME maximal ideal?
Yeah I was also going to correct that lol
So the proof is just wrong?
Post a screenshot?
(I have not typed out the prof though)
You might be misreading the quantifiers or something
So what you prove therr is actually the correct statement
You assume you have some m such that x not in m and reach a contradiction
You just wrote the wrong thing at the start
wait, what? What did I write wrong at the start?
oh, when I typed and not posted?
(Sorry, English is not my first language)
If you write "suppose x not in m for some maximal ideal m"
(no worries, your English is fine)
ah, ic
Then the proof is valid
As is it doesn't actually prove the claim
But the claim is the wrong one anyways
Difference between "some" and "all"
Yup
but hang on
I assume x is not in ANY maximal ideal. That is contridiced. Still, how does it prove it's in ALL?
Right, I'm saying you made the wrong assumption
And your proof doesn't actually derive a contradiction
You work with a specific maximal ideal m
But you start by assuming it works for all of them
Like you essentially prove "for any m, if x isn't in m then we have a contradiction"
Which is equivalent to saying "for any m, x is in m"
Let me look over it
You sure that's what I'm saying?
oh
hang on
"Which is equivalent to saying "for any m, x is in m"" - so if I can wrap my head around that. I've done the proof right
Assume 1-xy is a unit??
Change "any" to "some"
Sorry, next sentence
If you change any to some it becomes correct
Np
QuickMaffs:
QuickMaffs:
@latent anvil
Question for you that showed up on my algebra test
Show that a group G with order 3 * 5^2 * 7^2 *11
Has a subgroup of order 33
Is a group of such order always not simple?
I have the question "if A[x] is a PID then briefly explain why A must be an integral domain". I can show it by expanding elements of A[x] but I doubt that's what is meant by brief. can anyone give any pointers?
A ring is an integral domain iff it imbeds in a field
A imbeds in A[x] and A[x] imbeds in a field
So you're good
@simple agate
I'm not quite sure what imbeds means but I can look it up lol
oh right
(the field of fractions)
This proof actually shows that A[x] integral domain implies A integral domain
Which is stronger than what you need
Assuming you know that PID implies Integral domain
Which I'm assuming you do
yeah I was just confused by the statement "explain briefly" rather than proving it
but thanks a lot, I can definitely use that reasoning
Given that I've already proven that a polynomial f (of degree 4) in Z[x] has no degree 1 divisors and that the homomorphism of the polynomial from Z[x]->Z_5[x] factors as the product of gh where g is irreducible of degree 3 and h is irreducible of degree 1, how can I use that to prove that f is irreducible in Q[x]? I'm thinking I need to use part of the proof of Eisenstein's criteria, but I'm unsure. Any clues?
If your polynomial f was reducible, then it would have to factor as gh where g and h are irreducible polynomials in Z[x] of degree 2 ( I assume that f is primitive and that 5 doesn't divide its leading coefficient). What would happen if you reduce f=gh modulo 5?
@mild laurel By the prime factorization of the G, we have that there exists a 3-Sylow H and a 11-Sylow K. Since H is a normal group inside G thus HK is a subgroup of G. Since HK has order 33 thus we conclude there eixsts a subgroup of order 33.
QuickMaffs:
How would you show that the only group of order 35 is Z_35 ?
up to isomorphism
is the only way sylow
yeah
it's the practical way anyway
since 35 is small you can do it "by hand"
but the argument holds for any group of order pq
isnt there another restriction
like p cant divide q-1
wait nvm
Im probably thinking of something else
also how would i prove that any group of order 30 has normal subgroup of order 15?
I know any subgroup of order 15 would be normal since the index is 2
is it sylow again

yeah
that's groups of order pqr in general
but index being 2 makes life easier
you just take the product of the groups of order 3 and 5
and it's normal
qual?
compared to other
you in gradschool?
like this
well
basically for our grad class final
we take it
and he grades us on it
oh
for final grade
I see
its like theres a sylow problem on every exam
yeah it's kinda obligatory
@tribal pasture uh
7 is one mod 3 lmao
So is 55
So is 49
So is 55 times 49
So is 25
And 25 times 49
Did you even check any of the options lmao
Nope
3 * 5^2 * 7^2 is 1 mod 11
But since this is the other other option, maybe we can do something with Burnside's theorem
The question on my algebra midterm was
Show that a group G with order 3 * 5^2 * 7^2 * 11 has a subgroup of order 33
So, quick question (I hope). An algebra over a field F is basically a vector space where there's also a bilinear product right... Is there any special name given to the easy example of F^n with componentwise multiplication?
Oh so are you trying to say it either has a single subgroup of order 3 or 11
It's not true
F
For Syl_11(G), either 1 or 3 * 5^2 * 7^2 works
and there are a ton of options for Syl_3(G)
But since the only other option for 11 was that
It's true that there must exist a normal p complement for 11
Since Burnside's theorem, but I don't think that helps
Other idea is if you can show a normal p complement exists for 5 and 7, you can take the intersection of those two to get your subgroup
My guess was "free algebra" but that seems to be different
This is like what you've been doing for the past couple weeks so
This is true
I am free of group theory as of last night
Oh yeah @bleak abyss i realized my nick is wrong. Can you change it to "all diagrams are commutative"?
So the set of elements not of order 11 is a subgroup of order 3675=3*25*49
If there's more than one subgroup of order 11
This one should be more easy: let G be a finite group, p a prime such that p|o(G) and for all a, b in G we have (ab)^p = a^p b^p. Show that the p-sylow is normal
the elements of order p^n H form a subgroup of G, and is normal in G because if a is order p^n, gag^-1 is order p^n for all g in G. But p doesn't divide G/H since if it does, there an element a of order p in G/H by Cauchy and a^p in H so a is order p^n for some n and a is in H. H is order p^km where p^k||G| and p^(k+1) doesn't divide |G|. m=1 because H is compouned of only order p elements. Then H is a p-Sylow and G. Since every p-Sylow in G are conjugate, there's only one p-Sylow H which is normal. @faint elm
Yes
lol, the Jacobson radical problem I helped someone with last night is on my algebra homework for this week
Let me repost this because I still have zero clue how to do it:
Show that a group G with order 3 * 5^2 * 7^2 * 11 has a subgroup of order 33
Ok assume the second one
Okay I'll rehash some of the ideas I thought about
Well if Syl_11(G) is 1, then we're done since its normal and you can just multiply it with any sylow 3-subgroup
Otherwise, by Burnside's theorem, we know that a normal p-complement for 11 must exist
Which shows the existence of a normal subgroup of size 3 * 5^2 * 7^2
If the normal subgroup has a normal 3 sylow, it'll actually be characteristic, so you get a normal subgroup of order 3 in your big group and thus one of order 11
There could be 1,7,49, or 175 sylow 3s in the normal subgroup
Can someone give me a hint for the part about finding an example?
Oh this is interesting
Rotation on C^2?
So you can use that fact to say that something is not normal lol
wait im thinking about wrong question
no im looking at part 2 to find an example
I was just thinking about some other problem dw about it
does knowing it cant be diagonalized help at all?
I'm not sure how to prove that there is no such operator that can satisfy that equality
Is there a, say quadratic, polynomial p such that p(S) is diagonalizable for any S?
Actually does every operator have a square root? I feel like the answer is no
Over C, a diagonalizable operator should have a square root
Positive is only relevant if you're worrying about the real case
So if T^2 = 0
And there's a matrix S such that S^2 = T
Then S^4 = 0, so the minimal polynomial of S divides x^4 but has degree at most 2
So that does it
@fringe nexus and @woven delta
<@&286206848099549185>
Suppose there was a nonconstant common factor h(x)
So f(x) = h(x) p(x) and g(x) = h(x) q(x)
Then q(x) f(x) - p(x) g(x) = 0
Since h is nonconstant, p and q have degree smaller than m and n
@uncut girder does this help at all?
Np
Also, did I get pinged by helpers?
Cool
@bleak abyss did helpers get changed or something?
I usually don't get notifications except for pings
Lol he already helped
/shrug
Depends in which set
Since all maximal ideal are prime, would it be correct to say that J(A) \subset N (N being the nilradical)?
(in com alg, not neccearnly in general alg)
If so, all elements in J(A) should also be nilpotent?
Yes
So the xy-1 is a unit is in addition to x being nilpotent
I ment 1-xy
both of them are units
if a(1-xy)=1
then -a(xy-1)=1
how would you use the nilpotence of x to construct an inverse for 1-xy?
it's pretty simple
and involves a symbol you would see on a first aid kit
How would I find all normal subgroups of D5? (Dihedral group with 10 elements) Is there a 'fast way'? Or do I jsut find all subgroups and just multiply by elements from both sides?
That would work
Alternatively, you can look for homomorphisms from D5 to other groups
Since you know that kernels of homomorphisms are normal subgroups
hmmm
Cause I also will ahve to find all homomorphisms of D5 -> Z26 x Z26, so how would finding homomorphisms help here?
The kernel is a normal subgroup of D5
Yep
Subgroup generated by x,y which implicitly means that its generated by x,y x^{-1} and y^{-1}
Does anyone know how to solve this?
Wrong channel. Go to precalc.
Wtf
This is not abstract algebra material
Fine
@bleak abyss No, in general operators do not have square roots. Here is a counterexample that works over any field: Fix a basis (e_1, \dots, e_n) (n > 1) and let T be the endomorphism that maps e_i to e_{i-1} (and e_1 to 0).
Then this map cannot have a square root. Indeed, if S is a square root of T, then we have S(e_1) = 0 and S(e_2) \in Span(e_1), hence ker(T) = ker(S^2) contains e_1 and e_2, which is a contradiction since T(e_2) = e_1 <> 0.
I think there is probably a general criterion in terms of Jordan forms
At least over C, any invertible matrix has a square root, then you have to look at nilpotents
Yeah I pretty much had the special case of that in mind when I was talking about choosing a matrix such that T^2 = 0
It follows from b) that Ker((D-a)^n) = E_a(Ker(D^n))
But Ker(D^n) is fairly easy to understand
so (1e^ax,...,x^n-1 e^ax)
yep
how do i show it spans
E_a is an iso
and (1, x, ... x^{n-1}) is a basis of Ker(D^n)
so this is a basis of Ker((D-a)^n)
im a bit confused about the proof of this lemma, that if two elements of an abelian group have relative prime orders than the order of their product = the product of their orders
Let g and h be elements onf an abelian group G having finite relatively prime orders m and n. suppose $(gh)^r = 1$. Then $k = g^r = h^{-r} \in <g> \cap <h>$
hegel:
i dont understand why we can say that g^r = h^-r
wait nvm im a brainlet
disregard this
on a similar note, let's call (gh)^2=g^2 h^2 The Group Theory Freshman's Dream :)
hegel:
i get that if a is the order of k we have $k^a = g^{r^a} = g^{ar}$
hegel:
not sure what your notation or original problem is, but the answer is probably cause the order of an element is equal to the size of the cyclic subgroup it generates and the size of the subgroup divides the size of the group
im trying to prove that if g and h are elements of an abelian group G, with relative prime orders m and n, o(gh) = mn
also @delicate bloom that second part was proved but not the first part yet
having trouble figuring out which part you're having trouble with
you can show that (gh)^{mn}=e and then you're trying to show there's not something less than that which works?
what's the original lemma as it's written, I don't see where all the stuff is you're talking about came from
like "k" came outta nowhere it seems but maybe I missed it earlier
Let g and h be elements of an abelian group G having finite relatively prime orders m and n respectively. Then o(gh) = mn.
Suppose $(gh)^r = 1$. Then $k = g^r = h^{-r} \in <g> \cap <h>$. Then $o(k) \mid m$ and $o(k) \mid n$ and thus $o(k) = 1$
hegel:
I see, I thought k was referring to something earlier on, but it's just a definition here
if we say $o(k) = a$ then we have $g^{r^a} = 1$ and thus $g^{ar} = 1$ and since $ar \mid m$ we have $a \mid m$
hegel:
that doesn't look right, if o(k)=a then that means you have k^a=1
that's better looking
hmm
before you had $g^{r^a} = 1$ not $(g^r)^a=1$
Merosity:
sry implies parenthesis
feel like maybe that wasn't clear why I was saying that earlier
o
gonna fail qual


