#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 448 of 407
If G is a group, then G is not the union of conjugates of any proper subgroup of G of finite index
If H is a subgroup, then G is the union of all H^g iff H contains an element in each conjugacy class of G
Okay so new argument
Let H be a finite index subgroup, with coset representatives g1, ..., gn
we have a surjection p : union_i {i} × H^gi -> union_{g in G} H^g
This has a split map j going the other way
We also have bijections hi : H -> H^gi
And so a bijection h : union_i {i} × H -> union_i {i} × H^gi
And finally a function k : union_i {i} × H -> G given by k(i, h) = gi h, which is a bijection by lagrange
So k ° h^(-1) ° j is a map union_{g in G} H^g
Is it the inclusion?
If it is, I'm completely solid
This would mean k(h^(-1)(j(x))) = x, or j(x) = h(k^(-1)(x))
Maybe that's the trick? Choose the map j spiritually
*specifically
Show its an inverse for p
Conclude its not surjective?
I just gotta say,
the first time my mind was truly exploded
in maths
was when I realized
that empty functions exist
And now I am using empty functions daily to construct counterexamples
Madness!
Why exactly can we map G to S_x by conjugation? Why is this valid
reminder that sylow isn't pronounced in any way similar to "silo"
conjugation gives you an eq rel
I actually have a Norwegian friend whom I asked how to pronounce it, so that helped
you are essentially projecting
Ahhh, of course
if H and K are conjugate subgroups, then [H]=[K]
I see, thanks a lot
np
til sylow is a norwegian name, I kinda assumed it was polish or sth
well, doesn’t change how I pronounce it, Norwegian y is closer to German i than to ü (which is essentially Norwegian u)
Yeh according to my Norwegian friend it is a very un-norwegian name
I'm finding the GCD of two polynomials over some ring K[X] via the euclidean algorithm. however I get to a step where I have to divide via a non-monic polynomial and was wondering whether it suffices to do it as "normal" by noting that the leading coefficient is a unit in K?
Yes
thanks
if I have a ring A with ideal I and also an ideal N of A/I how can I interpret the set ${a \in A : a + I \in N}$
alex:
in my head I feel like it should be a + I is a subset of N
I'm not sure what your confusion is
N is just an ideal of a ring
Sure the elements of A/I look like a + I, but N is still just an ideal
oh I think I got confused by the definition of A/I. I need to refer back to the structure of that
the idea of an ideal of a quotient is seeming a little too abstract for me right now
It's really not anything too crazy
Sure the elements of A/I might look a little weird
But they're just elements of a ring like normal
yeah I just thought that a + I is a one dimensional set and so is N
so it was weird to say a + I is in N
Not sure what one dimensional means but
as in I thought N contained elements of I and not copies of I
Sure
@latent anvil I found a sol to the finite case. Notice by Orbit-Stabilizer that there are |G|/N_G(H) different conjugation actions on H. In all these different actions, there are at most |G|/N_G(H)*|H|<=|G| elements as every element of |H| is an element of the normalizer, where equality can hold iff |H|=N_G(H). Making this assumption, we see that in these different actions (associated with left cosets of N_G(H) in G), the identity element appears every time, so we must subtract it |G|/N_G(H)-1=|G|/|H|-1 times from the count. As |H|<|G|, we can never obtain precise equality, so we’re done.
If I have two finitely generated abelian groups A and B, how would I go about computing Hom(A,B)?
@steep hull is this for the thing about union of cosets of a proper subgroup?
That's the proof in the finite case I mentioned
The problem on my homework is specifically for infinite groups as well
@latent anvil Yeah. Wait, could you modify my proof to fit the infinite case (since H having finite index implies N_G(H) has finite index)?
iamtim:
I can clearly see the ideals are prime.
iamtim:
I can't see it for any of the other ideals though.
@brazen frost fix a minimal set of generators for A and use them to construct the homomorphisms
That makes sense thanks!
ok team
time for some problem solving
Let G be a free group
Then what do we know about Z[G]?
Well, it's elements look like $\sum n_ia_i$
MaxJ:
So additively
It has a basis in all of the elements of G
Wait this is weird
Ok ok so what is ZG in general
It’s the free Z-module on the elements of G
As a ZG-module it is just the free ZG module
On one generator
ok then lets think about the homology perspective
we've got Z^n for our homology
How does G act on this? Well, up to g-orbits, we are looking at r different loops
Ok wait so take the generators of the homology
And identify them if they share a g-orbit
Then picking one representative is a basis
How many orbits are there?
so I have n H_1 generators (in the obvious way on n-circles)
these lift to r H_1(Y) generators
ok so lifts have all the same cardinality
put that its like
k
then we got k*r generators for the cover
The G-action permutes fibers
so everything within the fiber
is identified
so why is that not Z[G]^r?
well, lets think about what the trivial Z module is
what might generate
this trivial Z module
its something that has a trivial G action and a generator
but what does G act trivially on?
hey folks i am thinking on writing a introductory blog post on group theory. I will take a different approach and first introduce some category theory with concepts of homomorphism&isomorphism. Then since groups are nothing more than a collection of endomorphisms (automorphisms or symmetries) of some mathematical object, i will easily and intuitively define them.
What is your thoughts?
Would it be too confusing for an introductory text?
(of course i am talking about concrete groups that acts on something here. After that i will define abstract groups as the algebraic structures conforms to the definition of a group but not acts on something. )
Learning groups from a purely categorical viewpoint as a first pass
would be very weird
Groups are generally people's first intro to abstraction and axiomatization
maybe Linear Algebra
making this too abstract too fast is unadvisable, in my opinion
I would think that writing this post for people who already know group theory to learn it from a different perspective would be more interesting
this is a better idea
traditional way textbooks introduces the topic is often very non intuitive or completely focuses on the geometric side of the topic
Yea I agree that understanding it categorically is way more helpful
but there are also symmetries of abstract objects
aluffis books does exactly this?
he defines categories and then defines a group as a groupoid with a single object
but tbf it's labeled as a joke
tbf that's not the perspective anyone is talking about
focusing on groups via their homomorphisms is different that categofication of groups
for example: i will maybe introduce graphs and isomorphisms between them. Then i will introduce automorphisms (symmetries). And i will show those automorphisms forms an algebraic structure
namely a group. Then i will generalize it
Lmao
Is there a standard letter we use to denote morphisms between magmas?
🐱 : A -> B
watching
Ok
Like okay to be sure I guess we can just define what it means to be a regular function when you're an open subset of a chart in this way
And then given a general open set yeah you're regular if you're locally regular
So okay this is obv a sheaf of functions
obv
Daminark:
Takes a sec to write out but really it's easy
So now in reverse
Reverse should be giga trivial
Since like
You already have the candidate charts
Just gotta say transition maps are regular
But if we're talking algebraic subsets then coordinate functions are regular
Okay I guess I should be explicit here, the point is that like, if you restrict an iso of ringed spaces to appropriate subspaces you get an iso
So it suffices to say, let's say you have a map between affine sets that's an iso as ringed spaces, is it regular?
Daminark:
So okay ringed spaces and charts are equivalent
(If you write gg, just add QED with a black box)
You're probably insane anyway but go for it
Wait wut
Okay lemme think here
V is a U(E,H)-module
So for each element of U(E,H) we have a linear endomorphism of V
We don't really have any specific data about H
Also eigenvalue here would be a complex number
Not H, H is just a symbol
wouldn't an eigenvalue here just be a member of the ring it's over?
Nope
which in this case is U(E,H)
I agree with that for sure
So the point is that a U(E,H)-module V is a complex vector space. So now you ask how E and H act on it
Turns out the actions of E and H are linear
I'm not sold on this. U(E,H) is an algebra and thus a ring. So V is some module over this ring.
Yeah. So V happens to be a complex vector space, right? That's part of the module structure
Now I'm gonna define a function T_E:V->V
U(E,H) happens to be a complex vector space
Given by T_E(v) = Ev
V is a module over this complex vector space
I guess if you restrict the ring, you turn V into a C vector space
ok, so the eigenvalues are specifically the ones over C?
why not the ones over the whole ring?
So this is a like a general point. If you have a module M over a ring R, and a field F is inside R
you can restrict the scalars you're considering and think of M as an F vector space
but I would still think the eigenvalues on operators M -> M ought to be in R
So like
Eigenvalues as modules in this case ends up being trivial
But do you agree that once V is a complex vector space, multiplication by E is linear?
oh yeah. and if it's a complex vector space there is an eigenvalue
so that's good news
So yeah the point is that really, a U(E,H) module is just a vector space with two linear maps T_E and T_H which satisfy the relation E and H satisfy
The data is the same in each case, and the more useful thing is to consider (complex) eigenvectors of the linear maps T_E and T_H
so none of this has been in lecture btw, I'm mostly trying to google to get definitions. Why are complex eigenvalues better?
Lol classic Ginzo
But yeah doing eigenbusiness over modules is hard and in this case it's not even interesting
Like, it's analogous to just saying that \lambda is an eigenvalue of the linear map C^n -> C^n given by x->\lambda x
And everything is an eigenvector
Like yeah sure whatever
But knowing that v is a complex eigenvector of the map x->Ex is information, knowing that it's a "U(E,H)-eigenvector" isn't
well I can take your word for that I guess. in this case you just need to show there's a complex eigenvalue which is easy
and I got the hint part so I guess I'm good to go
👍
I'm having a little bit of trouble with this, because I don't know what the matrix form of these hermitian forms look like
If this should go in #linear-algebra let me know
but
I mean do you need a matrix form? Just use the definitions for this
What is the equivalent condition for something to be hermitian/nondegenerate using just the bilinear form?
Really this just boils down to saying that if A is any matrix, there exists some matrix B such that tr(\overline{A}B) ≠ 0
positive devinite is obvious
Okay so in general
A bilinear form <x,y> is non degenerate if <x,y> = 0 for all y => x = 0
right, naturally
I get that
is that all I'm doing here lmao
I'm really sorry, I'm very slow today.
Or at least that's how I'd define it, is your definition as a matrix form saying that x^TAy is non-degenerate if A is non-singular?
Yeah that's all
ok, how do I show it's hermitian
That'll boil down to properties of trace
Tr(\overline{A+A'}B) = Tr(\overline{A}B + \overline{A'}B)
And then trace is additive
Etc
Lol it happens to everyone, no problem!
Okay so
👀
Then Aut Q acts on the nontrivial conjugacy classes
Giving a homomorphism φ : Aut Q -> S3
The kernel of this contains Inn Q, and in fact is exactly Inn Q
And it's surjective because of α(i) = j, α(j) = i, a(k) = -k and β(i) = -i, β(j) = k, β(k) = j
Two distinct transpositions generate S3
Now consider the embedding of Aut Q into S6
More formally, let it act on the elements {i, -i, j, -j, k, -k}
This gives an injection ι : Aut Q -> S6
This restricts to an isomorphism <α, β> ≈ <ι(α), ι(β)>
And ι(α) = (i j)(-i -j)(k -k) and ι(β) = (i -i)(j k)(-j -k)
Note that α(β(i)) = -j while β(α(i)) = k
So α and β don't commute
Thus <ι(α), ι(β)> is the subgroup generated by two cycles of type [2,2,2] which don't commute
Choose any outer automorphism δ of S6
By a result I proved last week, δ is inner iff it preserves the transpositions
So it swaps [2,2,2] with [1,1,1,1,2]
Then δ(ι(α)) and δ(ι(β)) are two transpositions which don't commute
And thus share an element
So they generate an S3
So δ ° ι gives an isomorphism between <α, β> and an S3
Let H be a subgroup of Aut Q isomorphic to S3
Then since [Aut Q : Inn Q] = |S3| = 3!, we have [Aut Q : H] = |Inn Q| = 4
So the action of Aut Q on H by left mul gives a homomorphism Aut Q -> S4
Daminark:
Call this ψ : Aut Q -> S4
We want to show ψ is an iso
It suffices to show it's injective, so it has trivial kernel
The kernel is contained in H
And normal in H
So it's trivial or A3 = C3 or H = S3
Okay you paused for a sec I'm gonna check one last thing then
Yeah
Defining a sub-pre-variety
Oh no
I already finished the ringed space locally blah = charts
Ah okay
Daminark:
Okay so
The kernel can't be H
Because H can't be normal
Since if it was, Aut Q would be the internal direct product of H and the Inner Auts
But those don't commute
This also says there's some γ in Aut Q such that H^γ ≠ H
Now in the case K = A3 in H
We have K^γ = K
But the conjugate of that A3 is the A3 in H^γ
So H intersect H^γ contains K
And by maximality of A3 in S3, it is equal to that intersection
So 2 = [H : K] = [H H^γ : H^γ]
What is H H^γ?
It properly contains H
And [Aut Q : H] = 4!/3! = 4
So 2 = [H : K] = [H H^γ : H^γ] = [Aut Q : H^γ]/[Aut Q : H H^γ] = 4/[Aut Q : H H^γ]
So [Aut Q : H H^γ] = 2, and |HH^γ| = 12
Daminark:
It fits strictly between H, H^γ and Aut Q
Now good night
Night!
I am doing all this to avoid like
5 lines
Of computation
Well the bit about the kernel at least
ChatJax test: $\mathbb Z_n$
Anyone_Someone2018:
By normality of Inn Q, HH^γ (Inn Q) is a subgroup of Aut Q, and clearly it contains HH^γ
By maximality, this means that it is either the whole group or just H H^γ
In the second case, Inn Q <= HH^γ, so Note that 2 = [Aut Q : H H^γ] = [Out Q : H H^γ/Inn Q], but also the cosets of H generate Out Q, so this is impossible
In the first case, Aut Q = (HH^γ)(Inn Q), so [Aut Q : Inn Q cap H H^γ] = 2[H H^γ : Inn Q cap H H^γ] = 2[Aut Q : Inn Q] = 2 * 3!
So |Inn Q cap H H^γ| = 2
Let x be the nontrivial element of this intersection
Then x can't be in H
And <x> is normal in HH^γ, and H is normal in H H^γ (index 2)
So HH^γ is an internal direct product of <x> and H H^γ
Oh ugh
I can't eliminate this case without thinking about it
Because at this point I'm classifying semidirect products
And there's a map S3 -> Aut(C2×C2) with image of order 2
Okay, new goal
What's the easiest way to show that Aut Q doesn't have a sylow 3
This is not the right channel for this material
Why cant 1+1+2+2+2+2 be the class equation of a group of order 10?
Can I argue this? Take an x whose conjugacy class is of order 2. Then we have Z(x) = 5. Since Z ≤ Z(x) and since Z(x) must be cyclic thus either Z = Z(x) or Z = {1}. If Z=Z(x) then |Z| = 5 but we are given that |Z| =2. Contradiction. Thus the given class equation cannot describe a group of order 10.
Here's another way to see it maybe?
Z(G) = C2
Take a 5-sylow P
Then [G : P] = 10/5 = 2
And they intersect trivially by order concerns
So G ≈ C2 × C5
But this is not the class equation of G
You don't need sylow theory
Do you know any group of order divisible by 5 has an element of order 5?
Sorry I'll read your actual solution lol
Thanks 😅
Yeah, looks right
Thanks!
@mild laurel Because our class equations has 1+1 which means |Z| = 2.
Yup
Let N be a normal subgroup of a group G. Suppose that INI = 5 and that IGI is an odd integer. Prove that N is contained in the center of G.
How would I prove this?
That is a problem pasted verbatim from Artin Algebra
Lol
So either N is contained in the center or it intersects it trivially
I think the fact that G is odd rules the latter case out
Why?
Nooo idea. But otherwise it would be stated in the problem
What about with Sylow theory?
cries
What happens when G = D5 and N = <r>?
That's normal
But not central
Oh odd
Lol
Sorry
Yeah
I was tryna go for a proof by contradiction by taking an x in N notin Z and use the fact that N =<x> and then somehow use the fact N is in Z(x) and Z is also a subgroup of Z(x)
Z(x) must divide G so Z(x) is also odd
It's order is the size of G over the conjugacy class size
The conjugacy classes of x must be 1 or 3
So why can't it be 3
Why not 5?
Oh so because N is normal we have that for all g gxg^-1 = x^k for k in {0,1,2,3,4}. We know that |C(x)| must divide |G| this |C(x)| cannot be 2,4. If |C(x)|=5 then there is a g such that gxg^-1 = 1. That is a contradiction. Thus either 1 or 3. Correct?
Yup
If it's 1 we're done
If it's 3 there's a nontrivial element of N outside its conjugacy class
Which must have trivial conjugacy class
So it's central
And generates N
@tribal pasture yeah?
Why would the nontrivial element must have a trivial conjugacy class?
Its conjugacy class is contained in N
Ah.... And it cant be 5 as per the above argument. And if it was 3 then it would share a point with our x and thus be conjugate. And consequently, lie in its conguacy class contradicting our assumption.
Sure
But like
It's doesn't contain 1
And it's disjoint from the conjugacy class of x
So there's 5 - 3 - 1 possible elements of N in there
Okay so I follow you up till generates N
N is cyclic of prime order
Agreed. So it can be generated by any of its elements
Exactly
But why do we have a contradiction from that
central means?
Contained in the center
Ohhh perfect
But why do I not end up having a contradiction with the assumption that suppose C(x) =3?
So like I get that C(x) =3 implies there exists a y such that C(y)=1. But where is the contradiction for this assumption?
Yeah I get that it doesnt matter. Just wanted to know for my own knowledge
Indeed. So we should have a contradiction with the statement that C(x) =3 to ensure C(x) is always 1
Right, exactly
The contradiction is that if C(y) = 1
Then our subgroup N is central
So x is in the center
So C(x) = 1
😭 me was hoping for a more direct contradiction. But Thanks! That helped a lot.
Sorry fam
Can I say something about C(x^k) if I know C(x)?
I don't think so
Like, if x and y are conjugate so are x^k and y^k
But it can be bigger
Or smaller
In size
@tribal pasture A quick argument goes by saying that G acts on N by automorphisms via conjugacy (this is exactly saying that N is normal). This action is encoded in a morphism f: G -> Aut(N).
Now, it is easy to see that Aut(N) has order 4 (N is cyclic, isomorphic to Z/5Z and you can check that automorphisms of Z/5Z are exactly given by multiplication by an element of (Z/5Z)* ~ Z/4Z).
Moreover, since G has odd order, f(G) must have odd order (first iso theorem).
So f(G) has odd order, but its order also divides the order of Aut(N) (Lagrange), which is 4. Hence f(G) = {1}, hence f is trivial.
In other words, the conjugacy action of G on N is trivial, hence N is central
What does it mean to act on something
Ah, well saying that a group G acts on a set X means that you can associate to each element of G a "transformation" of X (in the most general case, a permutation, but sometimes something more restrictive), in a "compatible" way (ie. applying h, then g is the same as applying gh)
For example the group (IR, +) acts on IR via translation
Another example is, the symmetric group S_n acts on {1, 2, ..., n} by permuting the elements
And, in our case, a group G acts on itself by conjugacy
(Tfw when someone in my class says that central and centralizer are the exact same thing and I'm like No)
lol
well one is a noun and the other an adjective
that should be an indication
I see thank you @chilly ocean
I hope that was somewhat clear, but if you have not seen this, there is probably another way to do it
actually yes
We actually used a different method above
I see, very nice
Suppose that the centralizer Z(x) of a group element x has order 4. What can be said about the center of the group?
All I can deduce is Z is a subgroup of Z(x) and thus |Z| =1,2,4
@chilly ocean that's very slick
It works for any odd prime, right?
@tribal pasture If |Z| = 4, then x in Z(x) = Z, so in fact Z = Z(x) = G
Z(x) = G iff x in Z
I think the case |Z| = 2 is pretty special too
Thanks ! unfortunately it does not generalize to any odd prime. What makes everything work is that the order of G and that of Aut(N) are coprime
This argument, with the sole assumption that the order of G is odd, generalizes to the case where p is a prime such that p-1 is a power of 2 (ie. a Fermat prime)
yup
all primes except 2 are odd, but we know very few Fermat primes
that being said, you can probably tweak the assumptions on the order of G and the order of N to get other centrality criteria
o(G) odd is a very general assumption
does anybody know where I could find a table of similarity classes of GL(4, F2)?
I'm doing it with rational canonical forms
calculating all prime powers in F2[x] of degree <= 4
but it's error prone
does anybody know how I might look at degree 4 representations of A7 over F2?
maschke's theorem doesn't apply 😦
if i define a ring that spans all comlex numbers and addition is defined as a + b = 4 multiplication as a*b = 4 where a and b are in the ring is that valid
What do you think?
perhaps
Have you tried proving it?
what are the ring axioms?
i think because every element is an additive identity there is no additive inverse if that makes sense guys
Your last bit is correct
but they're not additive identties
that would means a = a + b
yea
so what else could this be
Uninteresting?
It's a semigroup
But not really anything beyond that
And not an interesting one
Hey there motherfuckers
It's Daminark time
Okay so I'm still not convinced by one thing I said last night but now that I'm more awake I'll do it
Okay I'm back
Okay now I'm at least clear on the thing I wasn't sure about
Well I know what it is that's subtle, can we actually glue shit together? The answer is I don't know but prob shouldn't burn so much time on this point
Prob should start playing a bit faster/looser from here on atm
Like now I'm verifying (or loosing patience with) every detail but
I just need to get caught up to class
I can read through Milne or something to do everything super super properly later
Anyway I think I'm gonna get some pizza real quick
I would say 10 mins
yea
this is not supposed to be a tough problem
ye ayea
but you haven't seen rings before
yea
so don't worry if it takes a bit
ok 1 more thing im sorry
i am p stupid can you l;ike
giv me the EXACT definitions
of a unit
so like
x is a left unit of y iff x*y=1?
thats an exact definition?
in this case y is a right inverse for x
yeaa
R, S rings
f : R -> S
for all x, y
f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y)
f(xy) = f(x) f(y)
f(1) = 1
suppose a in R is a left-unit, with right-inverse b. So a*b=1
show f(a) is a left-unit in S with right-inverse f(b)
there's the problem
tysm
bad question
what notation should i use
for multiplication
*?
or just ab
oh you used ab
ok nvm
yee
it's probably correc
yup
take f of both sides
yee
that's exactly right
and f(a) is left unit
nice
cool
i just unfolded defintions ig but thats ncie
nice
oh
(before things get interesting lol)
XD
why was i struggling
with
permutation groups
that was like the hardest shti ever
those are trickier
proving cycle stuff
so do you know the definition of what it means to be an epimorphism?
once again, it's context dependent
right cancellation
here's how I remember it
in Set, epis are just surjections
so if f : X -> Y is surjective and a compose f = b compose f, then a and b "see" all of Y
since all of Y is in the output of f
does that make sense?
so a = b
yeaa
Can you prove the epimorphisms must be surjections?
In set!
so to make something clear
we can talk about epimorphisms in a fixed category
in this case, we're looking at Set, the category of sets and functions
so an epimorphism is a function f : X -> Y between two sets
which has the right cancellation property with respect to functions
does that make sense?
yea
So try and prove that an epimorphism in the category of sets is surjective
ok
i have a hint in mind if needed
so i assume that phi is an epimorph
but give it some effort
and show that phi is surjective
that's a good question
check the definition of epimorphism in Aluffi
or w/e
f : X -> Y has to satisfy this property for any set Z and maps g, h : Y -> Z
so we don't know ahead of time which Z to look at
yea
so lets just unfold the definition ig
g o f = h o f ---> g = h
now what i want to show is
for all y in Y there exists x in X such that f(x) = y right?
im rusty with basic stuff sorry
yeah, that's exactly right
what
that's how you learn math
What was the wrong argument?
thats a first step
i like wrote something wrong of the definition
i really couldnt how to do it so i just tried contradiction
konw*
know*
so i assumed epimorphisms are not sujrective
now i wrote what follows from ^ irong
wrong*
and tbh i really dont knwo where to go at all lmao
i will try again
from the start
what did you do with the assumption?
assume epimorphisms are not surjective
if it's untrue that all epis are surjective, then...?
then there exists atleast one y in Y such that there does not exist an x such that f(x) = y
idk it just logically looked trash and im p bad at proofs so lmaoo
i didnt know what to do with this
Yeah, there is an issue
but it's almost right
actually nvm, I'll say that's 100% right
what how
there's just like a phrasing issue
so you want to say this:
let f be an epimorphism
assume f is not surjective
yeah?
so you're not assuming that "epimorphisms are surjective" is false
it's all logically equivalent but you need to phrase it right
anyways
so you know there's some y in Y such that y is not f(x) for any x
right?
yes\
what
the hint I was going to give was "try to prove it by contradiction"
?
y is in Y right?
by failure of surjectivity of f
and like f(x) is in Y right?
f: X--> Y
it's a "free variabl"
no, there's a subtler thing here
so you know that f(x) is in Y for any x in X
that's just what it means for f to be a function from X to Y
but f(x) doesn't mean anything unless you've defined x somehow
yea
like saying "for any x in X"
so this ragument is trash
ok
so back
so you know there's some y in Y such that y is not f(x) for any x
right?
ok
y != f(x) for any x in X
i am tempted to just say g(y) = h(f(x))
but that would be super wrong
ig
What's h?
We need a particular function h
f(x) is in Y for any x in X
yea
So to use the fact that f is epi, we need a particular set Z and particular functions g, h : Y -> Z
does that make sense?
good question
thonk
maybe try examples, maybe try and convince yourself that this should be true without maybe a 100% formal proof
ok i am going to try it on paper and try my best
so whats like the outline of the thing we are trying to prove?
if f: X-->Y is an epimorphism
g:Y-->Z and H y--> Z
or no
we construct g and h later
ig
Yup
Outline is:
f : X -> Y epi
assume f not surjective
get y in Y such that y != f(x) for all x in X
find a good g,h to contradict the assumption that f is epi
okay so maybe this is a strategy:
suppose we had the right g, h
how could we use that to find a contradiction?
they wouldnt equal each other
what information would that give us?
yeah, exactly
you need g != h but g compose f = h compose f
does that make sense?
that would contradict the assumption that f is epi
yea
But there it looks like you're using y as a
variable
the y that contradicts urjectivity
yea
h(t) != t lmao
yea
Yup
on the f(x)
g and h
No, you don't
So you want to find a counterexample to g°f = h°f implies g = h
If the assumption there is false, then the implication overall is automatically true
To find a counterexample, you need something which satisfies the assumption but not the conclusion
yea
f
yea hopefully
now if t != h(t) for some t
then h(f(x)) != f(x) for some x
right?
h(f(x)) ≠ f doesn't really make sense
in Y
Think about that
Why does h(t) ≠ t (for some t in Y) not imply h(f(x)) ≠ x (for some x in X)?
cuz f(x) !=y for some x in X?
Almost
Cuz there's some t (namely that element y we chose earlier) which is not of the form f(x) for any x in X
yeaa
So how can we use this?
Let's recap
We defined a function g
And we have some thoughts about what an h would need to do
What can we say about h if we want g and h to be a counterexample?
h cannot equal g for some t
(a counterexample to "f is an epimorphism")
I know what you mean, but it sounds slightly better to say "h(t) must not equal g(t) for some t"
So that's correct
And we thought that this might be impossible
Because we could choose x so that t = f(x)
But we realized that if t = y, then that's not true
Right?
what problem are y'all doing again
proving epimorphisms are surjective
epimorphisms in what category? Set?
yes
Set
Yup
Yup
ok now
We don't know what h is
yea
But we know constraints that it must satisfy
No I'm saying what if y = 0
what if y = 0
Where y is the element we chose earlier
oh
We could also do y = 1, same thing
if y = 0
By symmetry
This is true, but I'm not sure where you're going with it
Our goal right now is to construct h
Yeah, by how we defined g
We want h not equal to 0 at y=0 specifically
Yup
I think you want t!=0 in one of those cases
So we need a specific value for h(0)
Yup
Will f(0) might not make sense
Because we don't know 0 is in the domain of f
yea yea
Right
i gotta a bad qeustion (assuming all the other questiosn wrent bad)
for the defintion of the epic
what
There's a little bit more subtly
Since you defined h piecewise
g(f(t)) = h(f(t)) for t != 0
Is it?
Wait hang on I think I got confused

