#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 131 of 1
they're putting Z[x,y] in the bottom right of the triangle
that might be the missing piece of the puzzle
i said that 3 times ;d
No, I do not know what your goal was, and I'm not going to try to scroll up an hour to find it!
@tribal moss yea i am not telling you to scroll up
f i were to find an inverse to the map induced (from the tensor product to Z[x,y] ) from finding a bilinear map Z[x] x Z[x] to Z[x,y]
would that be the same as showing its isomorphic to the tensor product?
just say yes or no ;D
Here you were asking me about a different approach to an unknown goal. I have no opinion about whether that would have reached the goal THAT I NEVER KNEW WHAT WAS.
wait you never knew i was trying to show that Z[x] tensor Z[x] is Z[x,y]?
that was the first goal too tropo
I thought that was a strategy towards something else.
Then this still doesn't make sense to me.
basically taking Z[x,y] as my C in the diagram
and ik the tensor product exists , so it has the universal rpoperty, so it has a homomorphism from it to Z[x,y]
now whats missing is an inverse
is htat correct
wew ladz
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That would be showing Z[x,y] is isomorphic to the tensor product, not that Z[x,y] is itself a tensor product.
got you
your amazing
tysm
for your patience
u make an excellent tutor
although, wouldn't that follow quickly?
it would but he says it in a way so that it gets to my intuition
he deserves a medal
You can show in general that anything that is isomorphic to a tensor product is itself a tensor product too, but that step would need to be there.
ty all guys
and for the problem that started it yea it worked
Z[x] tensor_Z Z[x] is just Z[x,y]
while Z[x] tensor_Z[x] Z[x] is just Z[x]
huzzah
I'm looking at examples 2 and 4 of the contemporary algebra book and it tells me that if G is a cyclic group of order n, then G is isomorphic to Z_n, then it gives me example 4, I've tried to interpret it but I don't understand it, could someone explain it to me in more detail?
gives me this function
a^k->kmodn
I have tried to apply the function but it is not given, in detail
whats example 4
do you mean 2
yo @south patrol in the proof of tensor product is right exact
why exactly is the sequence Hom(M,Hom(N,P)) --> ... is exact?
like after u simplify things using "adjoint associativity"
Well
this sequence is obtained just by applying Hom(-, Hom(N,P))
and we know that that functor is uh left exact
np
I'm trying to understand orderly algorithms on graphs and I'm a bit confused by this function:
where G_X is the setwise stabiliser of X in G
If G_X stabilizes X, wouldnt the orbit of G_X always be X?
there is also this paragraph:
in Z/(3), 2' and 5' are representatives of the same coset (the ' indicates they're representatives). how do i formalize the fact that the canonical quotient map applied to 2 sends it to the "natural" representative 2', while this is not the case for 5?
this is not the case 8, 11, etc, either
the quotient map sends 5 to the equivalence class [2] = {2,5,8,...}, so in some sense they already are the same
as you said, they are representatives of the coset, so you already have that [2] = [5] ...
right, i'm trying to say, if we mod 2 by 3, it doesn't change, but if we mod 5 by 3, it does
what
2 mod 3 is 2, while 5 mod 3 is 2
5 has changed, 2 has not. this is informal, how do I make this formal?
well, what I really want to say is, considering instead ideals of Z/(3), we have (2) + (3) = (2), while (5) + (3) = (2)
so, in another sense, if A is an ideal of a ring R, and considering the quotient map R to R/A, if all ideals I in R have I mod A = I, we have that the quotient map is a bijection
i want to get at what is in a sense a minimal representative
Umm, what does "I mod A = I" even mean? A priori the two sides are ideals of different rings ...
yeah that's the question
suppose an ideal B contains A. then the quotient map R to R/A sends B to B + A. but notice, 2B + A = B + A, and I want to be able to say 2B+A is not minimal
uh, i'm not sure we have 2B+A = B+A actually
but we have 2B+A equals another ideal, but that certainly isn't the minimal representation of that other ideal
the minimal representative of (7) + (18) in Z/(18) is (1) + (18), for example
The example 4 is U(10)≈Z_4
It's a quite strong property of Z that there even is a concept of canonical representative for each residue class. Even "Euclidean domain" in itself doesn't quite guarantee it.
let A,B,C be ideals in R and A \subset B \subset C, so the generators of B are a linear combination of the generators of C. let f be the canonical quotient map R -> R/A. what's a way to show that the generators of f(B) are the same linear combination of the generators of f(C) as the one between B and C?
Write x in f(B) as f(b) for b in B. Write b as a linear combination of stuff in C, then apply f to that linear combination and you get x. Now x is the same linear combination as b was, but with f’s everywhere
Apply that to a set of generators
this seems generally true for any ring homomorphism no
Only thing to note is that f(I) is not in general an ideal
oh right
i see, thanks for the help!
It’s true up to completing it to an ideal. So doing f(I)B for a map f:A -> B
Like you’re just taking the image and looking at the ideal it generates, so statements about generators are just the same
f(B) is an R-submodule of S for a map f: R -> S and ideal B of R
wait but say the generators of C are g1, g2, etc., and we write b = r1g1 + ... + r_ng_n, then f(b) = f(r1)f(g1) + ... + f(r_n)f(g_n), right? but we have no guarantee we have the same linear combination in the sense of the "action" between f(B) and f(C) as we have between B and C
oh this might make more sense, am parsing
well it's probably not very helpful (sorry)
so this is where we might use specifically the fact we're dealing with the quotient map
what do you mean "action" between f(B) and f(C)
if you want to think about the linear combination angle strongly then you might want to consider how a map of rings f: R -> S makes S an R-module
in which case everything works out
what I want is not only f(r1)f(g1) + ... + f(r_n)f(g_n), but r1f(g1) + ... + r_nf(g_n)
what's why i'm thinking your comment on modules makes more sense
r_k are elements of R, so you can't just immediately multiply them with elements of S
but the map f: R -> S induces an R-module structure on S ("restriction of scalars") whereupon you can think of r_k as scalar coefficients in a linear combination
but at the cost of talking about modules (possibly unnecessarily)
so if r in R and s in S, the R-module structure on S is given by r \cdot s := f(r)s
yeah but this might be what I want more specifically, the closest thing to "conserving the action"
i.e., the closest thing to: that ideal is built the same way from this other ideal in both spaces
will keep thinking about your comments, thanks!
you should look up restriction of scalars in more detail then
noted, tyvm!
let $R$ be a ring with ideal $A$. let $\phi: R \to R/A$ be the canonical map. the property can be expressed, i think, as the existence of some sort of canonical set map $\psi:R/A \to R$ such that, for $x \in R$, we have $x = \psi \circ \phi(x)$. in $\mathbb Z$ the map $\psi$ can be defined formally, i think, as sending an element $\overline x$ that is $n$ unities away from unity to $n$
nrs
sorry to reask, but could anyone help me understand what is meant by "an orbit of G_X on X" where G is a group acting on a set and G_X is the setwise stabilizer of X in G. Perhaps if someone could express this in set notation?
take an equivalence relation over the set given by $x ~ y \iff x = g\cdot y$ for some $g\in G$. an orbit here is an equivalence class of this relation
maximofs
oh an orbit of G_x
yeah I understand orbits of specific elements, but wouldn't an orbit of the stabilizer of X on X itself just be X?
this kind of language is used in multiple places and i dont understand it
well it’d probably be a singleton
but i’m thinking that’s probably not what they mean here
X is a set, so just the entirety of X?
if we restrict the group action to the stabilizer of X we just get that the orbits are singletons
ah gotcha
since everything in X is a fixed point
but i still don’t think that’s what they mean
definitely not, but i dont see any other clear interpretations
where is this snippet from
section 2
lol they don’t even define what X is
yuuuuuup
i just assumed its a subset of V
yeah i think in that case them referring to theta(X) as a singleton may make sense
i’m like it seems to be for an arbitrary subset of V
here is another snippet talking about the same thing from another paper
did they give any examples?
of course not!!!!!
😦
the same kind of orbit lingo is used in the algorithm that follows
also what is 2^V
the power set of V (all possible subsets)
oh that’s odd
ah they’re using P(X) elsewhere
fair enough
then the notation makes sense
sorry, so what would the orbits that theta outputs look like?
well that i’m still unsure about, i just understand what X is now haha
oh lol
also they write $X + x$ instead of $X \cup {x}$. are they the same or is this some weird set operation?
srhoosteen
okay i think the confusion is in what the setwise stabilizer is
the orbits of G_X aren’t necessarily singletons
they are just orbits of the restriction of the group action to G_X
what i was thinking of was the point wise stabilizer
also maybe i am still guessing that it’s this but i can’t see any other sensible interpretation
aaahh so maybe it means to pick an arbitrary $g \in G_X$, which may take any $x \in X$ to some $y \in X$, thus creating a cyclic subset of $X$?
srhoosteen
yeah that makes sense
oh and one more question:
an orbit representative is just an arbitrary element of the orbit, right?
also i can’t see any other interpretation here either, but not sure
yes
thank you so much, the algorithm makes sense now
maximo goat fr
with good music taste
does anyone know if geometric group theory has any applications
other than obscure cryptography stuff
what is topology a pre-req to
wrong channel
alg top
ah sorry
I have never heard of geometric group theory having applications in cryptography
GGT primarily has applications in geometric topology
Unless you mean real world applications which is something mathematicians mostly do not care about
For instance the proof of virtual Haken conjecture was settled by applying heavy geometric group theory machinery
What is the analogous statement asked for in b)? My guess is something like if H is a subset of a group G, where H is a group under the induced map, and x \in H, then the inverse of x in H is the inverse of x in G
Ya I think so too
yeah.. a bit wordy though
hello austin
If L/K is finite, is L(x)/K(x) (function fields) finite as well? If L/K is separable I suppose you can use the primitive element theorem, what about the general case?
If L is finite then L = K(a,b,c, ...) for some fintie set of algebraic elements. But then L(x)= K(x)(a,b,c,...), so is finite as well.
Lol, true
I suppose the only point is to note that in a function field K(x) both in terms of notation and adjunction (smallest field containing K and x is K(x) itself).
More explicitely if f(x)/g(x) is in L(x) then there is a polynomial h(x) such that g(x)h(x) is in K(x). Then f(x)/g(x) = f(x)h(x)/g(x)h(x), so it is enough to express f(x)h(x) as a linear combination of a, b, c, ... which you can do coefficient wise.
How do you get such an h(x)?
Just bring the coefficients of g to a common denominator and multiply by that?
Let $\alpha_i$ be the roots of $g(x)$. Let $f_i$ be the minimal polynomial of $\alpha_i$ over $K$. Then $g(x)$ divides $\prod f_i(x)$
jagr2808
Huh... Roots in an algebraic closure of L, right.
Yes
R is the valuation ring of a complete discrete field, pi is a uniformiser. Why should a=a_n mod pi^n hold?
You have the right idea but the middle line: for all x,y in G Hx = Hy is wrong
{xh | x in G, h in H} = GH = G
You basically need to argue that Hx is not H and you are done
Gotcha
Just a question:
if a\in\H, is {ah, h\inH and a\inH} a left coset?
where H is a subset of G
Or is this only true if a\inG and a not in H?
gonna assume you mean subgroup instead of subset, and yes that's a left coset it's just trivially equal to H
i was talking real world. i personally dont care about real world applications but its nice to have one so i can give non math people an idea of what i do
this is fine
@tender wharf Alright thanks. Anything weird about my writing that I can improve?
@pastel yew lol its you
jagr2808
For example if q(x, y) = (x-y)^2 then the roots (n, n+1) converge to (1, 1)/sqrt(2)
no way ultimate chad in #groups-rings-fields ???
I know very little but I found one I can answer!!!
Is my proof correct? we want to show $f(x+y) = f(x) \cdot f(y), f(x+y) = 2^{x+y} = 2^x \cdot 2^y$, therefore f is a homorphism
jayzsparrow
Yup
for 4c why cant i just take Z/(n,m)Z tensor Q over Z
then like 6 tensor x = 5 tensor y = 0
who says you can't?
son of sam
Sure.
1 \tensor_Q 1 and 2 \tensor_Q 1/2 le troll face
beat my wife to it
please stop saying that
no i think the tensor must be over Z
Or 0 ⊗ 0' = 0' ⊗ 0 in R ⊗ R where R is a ring with 2 zeroes
Also Z (x)_Z Q is cute imo
okay I'm still trying to process everything I read yesterday
the elements of Q[sqrt(2)] are all (a + b sqrt(2)) for all a,b in Q, right?
Yes
which is why R[i] is C
We would write $\bQ[\sqrt 2] = \build{a + b\sqrt 2}{a, b \in \bQ}$.
boytjie
if I said "z3 = cube root of 2"
would the elements of Q[z] be all a + bz + cz^2
They would
It's not totally trivial to see why this is true from the definition
but it is true
Which means that if I have a field F and a transcendental t that is not the root of any polynomial over F[x]
then the elements of F[t] would be a0 + a1 t + a2 t^2 + a3 t^3 + a4 t^4 + ... for all a_i in F
They would be finite combinations of that
how so
e.g. 1 + t + t^2 + t^3 + .. is not in F[t]
when does it stop though?
It never stops
it has to stop if it's finite
That's why it's not in F[t]
There is no highest degree in F[t]
You can have polynomials of arbitrarily high finite degree
Oh, you mean all finite polynomials
This is like asking "what's the biggest number in Z"
Here, do they mean $\lambda(K_H)$ instead of $\lambda(E_H)$?
But the ring itself is still infinite
okeyokay (analysis is aight ig)
Yes ofc
You can write down (in some sense) infinitely many elements
Also, applying Cantor's diagonal argument, it's uncountably infinite
Wait yes
Cantor's diagonal argument does work for F[[t]] tho
X-treme polyomial rings
wait i'm confused because later on they have this in the proof:
The notation confused me
Ring of power series in t with coeffieicnts in F
Mb
anyway, that's not what I was focused on while laying in bed in the late hours last night
the elements of F[t] look a lot like the polynomials of F[x]
so when we say F[x] it's basically transcendental x
Yes, but it gets very difficult to work with this transcendental idea.
It is way easier to just think of it as a symbol.
Q[sqrt(2)] isn't different because it's a specific number
it's different because it is specifically a root of a polynomial with coefficients in Q
For example, is Q[pi, e] = Q[x, y]? I don't think this is known
by = I mean isomorphic ofc.
Q[pi] would be a ring much like Q[x]
Q[pi] is indeed isomorphic to Q[x]
Q[pi] sounds like a great way to troll somebody. possibly engineers and mathematicians at the same time
I don't think it would be very effective
ℚ[t][π]
idk I can't think of anyone for whom it wouldn't be creepy to say
so
we'll leave that there

What is the story behind this? I know what it means and I see it posted a lot, but where is it from?
That's not what's being asked lol. Look at the name of it: clearly there's some story
uinviersal pplpropertyy of the uqotient!!
The time when all of #discussion united to explain the first isomorphism theorem to 🅱️etalninja and still failed
how long ago was that lol
A year or 2 probably
omg stoooop got me kicking my feet
Have you thought about why diagonalisation doesn't actually apply here?
Because of course as I said, R[x] is uncountable iff R is uncountable. So for example Z[x] is countable
It is worth thinking about why it doesn't work.
diagonalization would only work if you could have a polynomial with an infinite number of terms
That's right. Typically the 'polynomial' produced is in fact a power series.
So it doesn't lie in R[x]
Although it seems suspicious to me that if you were to follow the procedure described in the diagonalization argument, at each step along the way, you would have a polynomial that doesn't match any existing element and never will
I don't find that suspicious at all
That is basically saying that R[x] is infinite lmao
how does 50.3 imply that E is a splitting field? I understand that we can take Fbar = K, but we don't know if the isomorphisms map E onto itself right
anything involving infinity is sus
discussion
do you have a link to that? that sounds funny
how do you not have access to discussion what did you DO
studying role lmao
how many mods do you have to piss off to get locked out of discussion
It's a long sentence. You have to read the last part as well
oh right oops
thanks
Its very old lol I'm not gonna look it up
oh 
he has the studying role which blocks access to the social channels
oh shit i didn't know that
that makes sense then
that's hilarious
bruh here they mean $G(E/F)$ right
okeyokay (analysis is aight ig)
Yes 💀
can't say I blame him
Death
true
🙈
Howdy 🤠
My opinion as well
here do they mean f(x) is equal to the expression pointed to with the arrow
yeah probably
A,B coprime ideals in ring R, f:R -> R/A is canonical map. how do you "see" that f(B) = R/A?
there are elements a and b s.t a+b = 1, so f(b) = 1 and then f(B) = R/A
is ur pfp untitled unmastered 
real recognize real
this makes sense, but how come f(b) = 1? obviously we have b + A = R, but why should we have the analogous "b + A = R/A"?
Because if B+A=R there is an element b in B and a in A s.t b+a=1. You don't have b + A = R/A. But if you know f(b)=1, then f(rb)=r, so f(B)=R/A
take f on both sides of a + b = 1
ah! yes that makes sense! ty
thanks for the help
in a sense, this is what we get from the fundamental homomorphism theorem, no? movements in a ring are in a sense the same movement in the subring induced by the image of a ring homomorphism
Im trying decompose these permutations into tranpositions am I correct? $(1 3 2 5 6)(2 3)(4 6 1 5 2)= (1 6)(1 5) (1 2) (1 3)(2 3)(4 2)(4 5)(4 1)(4 6)$
jayzsparrow
and $(12345)(413) = (15)(14)(13)(12)(43)(41)$
jayzsparrow
lol thanks
Kind of an open-ended question. The very innocuous statement that G/Z(G) cyclic implies G abelian is unreasonably effective (especially in finite group theory). It got me thinking if there's some deeper/more general principle/statement hiding behind here
somehow this almost seems like it could generalise to a cohomological statement
So this is saying Inn(G) Abelian → G Abelian. Is that the kind of path you're thinking about?
I was actually thinking about this saying something about extensions of cyclic groups by abelian groups
Right, OK
Hello can someone help me with a problem. We have a finite group G with order n. And we know that n is not divisible by 4 and we have only n-1 cyclic subgroups. Find the group G.
Since there are n-1 cyclic subgroups we have two distinct elements a and b such that a and b generate the same subgroup
And from here I am stuck
Do you mean to say that you have exactly n-1 cyclic subgroups?
When you say "only" you confuse me.
Hint: we can count the number of distinct generators of any cyclic group; there is an explicit way of doing so.
isn't phi(order of some generator)?
So every cyclic subgroup that has not the generator a/b must have order 2?
So the elements that are not a/b have the proprety x^2=e.
So b=a^-1
So the order of a is 3, 4 or 6.
The order cant be 4 because the 4|n by lagrange and this is false
And order 6 is not good because then we have an element that is not a/a^-1 which does not have the proprety: x^2=e. So ord(a)=3 so the subgroup generated by a is {e,a,a^-1}.
And then the order of G is 2^k × 3. But k cant be >=2 so the order of G is 3 or 6.
And I think from here is easy
Thx for the hint!
I think you did that all on your own 
in commutative algebra we encounter the notion of a ring R-algebra in passing, is there somewhere where it is taken as an object of study?
you get this for free, from how functions work
or maybe i can't quite understand what you're saying
yeah i realized afterwards, we can think of it in exactly the same way as group homomorphisms. a + b thought of as the action of b on a under multiplication/addition will be in a sense mirrored in the action of f(b) on f(a) under multiplication/addition
the fundamental homomorphism theorem says that the image of a map is basically the original structure without the kernel
hm need to think more on that
you should do exercises instead of thinking about it
that's good advice, will go do some exercises heheh
54.1
be very afraid
nah i skipped some sections and fraleigh has sections for everything lmao
he had an entire section for the field of quotients
which was mainly just the construction but he goes into a lot of detail
lol?
like just the field of fractions not even localisations in general?
given that i don't know what a localisation is yes
weird
it's probably the friendliest introductory algebra text i've seen
but he explains things really intuitively
how did they get from the first equality to the second equality? it obviously has to do with the properties of the inner product but im kinda rusty on that and struggling to work out the equality
linearity
Representation theory of algebras typically studies such things. Also in algebraic geometry one often restricts to schemes over a base ring. Which then is the same as R-algebras when restrict yourself to rings.
very cool stuff, didn't know there was representation theory for things other than groups!
wait till you find out about quivers
People do representation theory of groups, rings, algebras, quivers, posets, Lie algebras, and probably other things
very cool
Was wondering what a representation of a quiver would be; for some quiver Q and ring R, it's a functor FreeCat(Q) -> RMod
Very cool
you also usually identify them with modules over the path algebra
propaganda dreamed up by Big Category Theory
category nii-san
This is what I thought too
Until I read some rep theory
Categories didn't prepare me for this shit
I don't know shit rep theory
The only rep theory that I know is what I learned by reading some Tate thesis nonsense regarding like Gelfand transforms
Wew stop pretending like you know rep theory
It's widely known that rep theory is a joke invented by analysis to troll algebraists
C is nontrivial ideal, and A \neq B nontrivial ideals. If A+C = B+C then A,B coprime with C. why?
Doesn't sound true. Just have A, B, C equal to (8), (4), (2)
hm, right. thank you
I think we have: C is nontrivial ideal, and A \neq B nontrivial ideals, then if A+C = B + C, C not in A,B
The statement basically reduces to saying that a representation associates each vertex with an R module and each edge with a linear transformation from its source vertex to its target vertex
we know ideal addition and intersection correspond to join and meet in the lattice of ideals
is there an interpretation of product?
The product of 2 ideals, I, J defined as IJ = {sum i_r × j_r | i_r in I, j_r in J} (a finite sum), is actually contained in the intersection of I and J and can be equal to the intersection, if I + J = R
Let A[x] and B[x] be polynomial rings such that A[x] ⊆ B[x] and B[x] is a UFD. If we want to show that a polynomial p(x) is irreducible in A[x], then would it be sufficient to demonstrate a factorization of p(x) in B[x] and then show that this factorization cannot be equal to a factorization in A[x] up to multiplication of factors by units?
Eg. We want to show that p(x)=x²-√2 is irreducible over ℤ[√2]. So we show that (x-2^(1/4))(x+2^(1/4)) is a factorization of p(x) in ℝ[x], which is a UFD, and then show that this is not equivalent up to multiplication by units to any factorization over ℤ[√2].
I think if the degree of p(X) is larger than 2 (3?) you might have to consider more cases then just the irreducible elements that constitute p(X), specifically their products
What do you mean by this?
Like for example X^4 - 4 over Z[X]
If you took it to R[X], and split it into irreducible components you would observe that none of them are in Z[X]
But X^4 - 4 obviously has a factorisation in Z[X] consisting of 2 quadratic factors
Which you would need to account for in your argument
Yeah, of course. I should have been specific, I was asking about the validity of this method for polynomials of degree 2 or 3. A degree greater than that leads to this method falling short in the way you described.
Yeah I think your method should work
Thank you. For some reason I felt like I was making a logical leap somewhere while applying it. Seems like that isn't the case.
Formally you would assume p(x) = q(x)r(x) for some q(x), r(x) in Z[sqrt(2)][x]. Since p(x) is monic, WLOG assume q(x), r(x) are monic. Then since R[x] is factorial, you would conclude that WLOG q(x) = (x - a), and r(x) = (x + a) for a = 2^(1/4).
That's your contradiction
Yes
nice way to show that x^5 + 3x + 1 is irreducible over Q?
Let p(x)=x⁵+3x+1
By Gauss's Lemma, it is sufficient to show that p(x) is irreducible in ℤ[x]
By the rational root theorem, any rational root of p must be equal to ±1, and one can check that neither are roots of p.
Therefore, assuming p is reducible over ℤ, it must have a factorization consisting of a degree 2 and a degree 3 polynomial with integer coefficients. Let them be x²+ax+b and x³+cx²+dx+e. Equating the coefficients and using the fact that they must be integers, it is fairly simple to reach a contradiction and hence show that it is irreducible over ℤ.
cool! thanks
i did the same, i just feel like "equating coefficients" is not particularly nice
be=1 places strong restrictions
that lead to the conclusion following easily. Although I would agree that it isn't an 'elegant' method
But -1 is a root modulo 3
mod 3, this polynomial becomes x⁵+1
Yes I forgot about -1 and stuff lol
Does a "p-extension" of a field K just mean some extension adjoining p-power roots to K?
It usually means a Galois extension whose Galois group is a p-group (or a pro-p-group if you're dealing with infinite extensions)
ah ok thanks
yo
let R be a ring and I be an ideal , M be an R-module
so i wanted to prove that R/I tensor M is the same as M/IM
IM = {im | i in I , m in M}
and one way i thought was just to use the known short sequence
0 --> I --> R ---> R/I-->0
then tensor then by the left and i get a homomorphism from M to R/I tensor M
and now i got stuck
any hints or is that not the approach at all
first iso
yea is the kernel IM
Remember that M tensor R is identified with M by r \otimes m = rm
Then go from there after tensoring
And use exactness ofc
i could use some chicken tenders right now... 
the exactness gives me surjectiveness
just write down the isomorphism xd
so the img is just the whole R/I tensor M
isnt it a homomoprhism
or do u mean the onde induced by first iso
Take some time to think about the hints we gave and try again
yea i got it from this
so that means that the image of the first map is just IM
which by exactness means the kernel is IM
then i get it by first iso
right?
Yes
what "isomorphism" is ttepa talking about
think
think about what my message could mean in this context
what does "just write it down" mean
you mean like just find an isomoprhism between the two modules without using sequences?
or like use the universal property?
i can find a bilinear map R/I x M --> M/IM by just (a mod I , m ) --> a*m mod IM
warmer
hwat
nvm
yes that is basically what i meant by "just write it down"
i'll make sure to be more explicit next time
cool man ty
let R be a ring , I and J be ideals
then R/I tensor R/J is iso R/(I+J)
just wanna check this proof
define f: R/I x R/J --> R/(I+J) ; f(a mod I , b mod J) = ab mod (I+J)
this is bilinear and it induces a homomoprhism from R/I tensor R/J to R/(I+J) , call it h such that the diagram commutes , ie h(phi(a,b)) = f
where phi is the map from the product to the tensor defined as (a,b) --> a tensor b
now define hbar: R/(I+J) --> R/I tensor R/J ; hbar(a mod I+J) = a mod I tensor 1
then those are inverse homomoprhisms hence an iso and im done?
as tropo pointed out this is not showing the tensor product IS this but rather is isomoprhic to
that is if its correct llo
Yes that works
ty
What is this discriminant, exactly?
It's the usual discrminant of a polynomial, except in the field k(x)[y], I suppose. So it would be an element of k(x).
Ahh so the discriminant is usually a constant number, but here we have a function, because we always fix one x and then calculate the discriminant? Btw, any reason you are writing k(x) instead of k[x]?
Well, the way I was thinking about it was as follows: for a polynomial p(y) over any field , say F (ie p is an element of F[y]). We can calculate the discriminant of p by the usual calculation. This is just the case when the field F is k(x).
you can also calculate the discriminant through the resultant which should make more sense in the case of multiple variables
or over random fields/rings
I could have also used k[x] in the process I was talking about, but people are not usually familiar with discriminant over arbitrary rings.
Thank you both!
Well also like elements of k[x] aren't functions
Every element of any set is a function because I said so
what is your map phi
(123)
And how is this a group homomorphism?
Alright then I'll try to rewrite it 😅
I feel like you've ignored my question
Phi is a permutation, i.e., an element of S_3
but it is not a group homomorphism into S_3
I get what you are saying
The question required phi : G → G' to be a group homomorphism, so your supposed counterexample isn't correct. In the first place, it doesn't even define a map into S_3.
Also, is phi^-1 just denoting the preimage? I don’t see an assumption that phi is invertible anywhere
Yeah it ought to be
I think Jonathan was momentarily confused between maps {1,2,3}->{1,2,3} and maps S3 -> S3. His (1 2 3) is a map of the first kind, but not one of the second kind.
why did you write "suppose the pre-image is non-empty" when you're proving it right after?
You can ignore the first line ^
I was thinking that it is only true if it is not empty
Because if it were empty I could never show that it is closed, since it requires elements to exist
if it's empty then it couldn't have an identity element and therefore wouldn't be a group
the other group operations would be satisfied vacuously
the empty set is definitely closed under whatever binary operator you want lol
I assumed it is not empty, and because of this it was a subgroup
But if I assume it is empty it will not be a subgroup
why do you need to make assumptions about emptyness at all
you have proven it is non-empty, why are you assuming things about its (non)emptiness?
Oh okay I think I get it
I showed that e' must be in H' and so e must be in phi^-1(H'), so it is not empty
so I don't have to make that assumption
your proofs that the pre-image contains the identity element and is closed under the group operation look fine logically. the proof that it's closed under inverses is a bit hard to read through. i think you can trim it down to something with a clearer logical progression
as for the very last line, i'm not sure why you wrote "gg^{-1} = e is in the pre-image" since you already proved at the start that it contains the identity. you could just write that it follows from what you showed that the thing is a subgroup
assuming the statement you are trying to prove is a logical fallacy
Just wanted to show that g^-1 is in phi^-1(H'), and then phi^-1(H') has inverses, and is a subgroup
there’s a difference between “a set with these properties exists” and “if this set exists then it must have these other properties”
yeah it's obvious what you're trying to prove. no doubt there. i'm saying the way you've laid out the proof is kind of confusing
like, what's the point of "we showed that if g is in the pre-image, then \phi(g) is in H'"? you don't need to recall the definition of the pre-image
TTeppa
TTeppa
you can comfortably take something like this as known for what you're doing
Alright I don't have to write everything down then?
well you have to write the proof of what you're trying to prove at least 
but small things like this are safe to take for granted, if you're comfortable with them
If L/K is an unramified extension of local fields that means a uniformiser of K is a uniformiser of L, right? Unramified => e=1 => valuation groups are the same.
does anyone knows how to prove Maschke's theorem for compact groups?
I don't, so no, not everyone
xD
The proof should be the same as for finite groups, except you switch the inner product
$\langle v, w\rangle_G = \sum \langle gv, gw\rangle$
With
$\langle v, w\rangle_G = \int \langle gv, gw\rangle$
jagr2808
(integral with respect to haar measure)
Is there a cleverer way to count elements of S_n of order 2 than going through them all and checking whether x^2=1? I think this reduces to counting symmetric permutation matrices but I'm not sure if that's any easier
an element of S_n has order 2 if and only if it's cycle type decomposition looks like 2+2+...+2 for some number of 2s
so what you can do is find the number of partitions of n consisting of just 1s and 2s, then use the formula for the size of conjugacy classes of S_n to determine the number of corresponding elements
this should be faster as the number of partitions grows slower than n!
I'm reading some awkwardly written lecture notes. Is the set of automorphisms on the set S not just the symmetric group of S?
No, assuming S is a group. Not every permutation of a group is an automorphism
Then yes
What do you mean by automorphism of a set then?
Ah
My bad, I'm not familiar with category theory stuff
I think it's written weirdly
Yep it’s the same
Maybe they’re using that notation to talk about equivariant automorphisms later?
I think most people write Sym(S)
yur
Not sure
It's a course on Galois theory, if that provides any context
Ah no it’s cause it’s gonna talk about actions on a ring
I mean in general you map to automorphism groups on objects of a category
Keep in mind: you need the set partitions, not the integer partitions. In any case this logic gives a more or less explicit formula, by summing over number of 2 cycles, choosing the pairs one at a time.
Well Galois theory is all about looking at field automorphisms, the only thing is I don't understand why they felt like calling bijection maps set automorphisms
Sometimes people write Sym(S) to mean the set of permutations that fix all but finitely many elements of S, which is typically very different from Aut(S), but it's hard to tell from this context. This smaller group has a disjoint cycle decomposition whereas Aut(S) does not.
Oh really? I've seen people write Sym(\mathbb{N}) to talk about the Riemann rearrangement theorem for example
This is why I said 'sometimes'
This lecturer is known for using abstract terminology unmotiviationally so I'll take it as that
@delicate orchid Is what I said incorrect?
Ah wait, I misunderstood what you were doing
I fail to see the difference between the set partitions and integer paritions
4 = 2 + 2 is one partition
ah yeah I omitted a bunch of 1s
But {1,2,3,4}= {1,2} +{3,4} and also {1,3}+{2,4}
In any case since you are using conjugacy classes, you need integer partitions
right yeah but they would be conjugate
But if you don’t you get an explicit formula
Yeah, I missed that initially
In this case I honestly think it’s just to have a general definition of a group action on an object of any category
It’s the most general one you can get and you need that notation for it
Most of those terms haven't been defined in my book yet so I think the point of the exercise may be to just do it exhaustively (for n=4)

I thought you wanted some sort of computational implimentation
I thought there would be a clever way to count matrices but I guess it's more complicated
Thanks for the help though
Uniqueness of p-adic expansion in K means that if we have two powers series with coefficients in the same pool (a representative system for the residue field of K), then equality of series implies equality of coefficients. But the coefficients a_k don't necessarily come from the same pool as the c_k do (a priori we don't even know they are in K), so how can we even invoke uniqueness of p-adic expansion?
So I'm reading Rotmans first course in abstract algebra and one of the exercises says:
Let $k$ be a field with one $\varepsilon$ and let $R$ be the subring $R={n\varepsilon: n\in\mathbb{Z}}
I'm not sure what epsilon is though
kenshin5334
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
is that quote verbatim
Yes
if so, I presume \vareps is the multiplicative identity? no clue why they'd specify that for a field though
Maybe eps is an element such that its square is 0
is this a numerics joke
eps is the standard notation for such an element in dual numbers
it's a field moldi
For exactly this reason
how can it square to zero
what's that stupid space called
the line with 2 points or whatever
reading the definition of the ring, yeah - it's absolutely the multiplicative identity
@stuck fiber
always love to ponder how such creations enter this world
question basically seems to be "Z is initial in Ring" lol
Non unital rings
Non initial Z
I said Ring for a reason 

I will use rng for non-unital rings because a stupid construction deserves a stupid name
Thanks I thought maybe he had used it somewhere in the chapter but I didn't see it in this one
Did you know you can talk about exact sequences of rngs? Try that with rings, hater
I only use rng when I blame the rng gods in video games
why would I want to talk about exact sequences
What
true slightly
Sorry similar sounds
I know minimal K-theory
Hi, I have a question in ring theory.
Let $R$ be a dedekind domain and let $I$ be an ideal of it. Let $0 \neq y \in I$ be an element in the ideal, show that there is an ideal $J \vartriangleleft R$ such that $IJ = \left<y\right>$
arielhouri
what have you tried so far
Pretty much nothing, I really dont have an idea where to start
I thought about using the notherianity of the ring and the fact that it is an integral domain, because the other two doesn't seem helpful
But I don't know how to continue
What do you know about dedekind domains
yeah that would have been my next question
I know the definition (the 4 rules) and we also saw some examples in class, like O_d
And I also know that the ideals separate into multiplication of prime ideals
I actually just remembered that and it looks like it might be useful
Yea I think from there it's quite simple, I just look at the prime ideal factorization of I and <y> and then create J by subtracting the powers. <y> is a subset of I thus there powers in it's factorization must be higher
That's it, no?
ok i should rlly know this and idk if this is the right place to post this, but i seem to have forgot some of my trigonometry. so to see this i considered n = 4 and m = 3, and ended up with the matrix (0 1 // -1 0). i then considered the vector (2, 3) in C^2, applied the matrix to it, and got the vector (3, -2). the problem is i forgot how to plot the points LMFAO so i would appreciate some help to see how it's rotation by 3pi/2\
in other words how do i plot (2, 3) in C^2 💀
C^2 is four dimensional
U can plot it in R^2 though
Better yet derive the rotation matrix yourself
oh god i really should've studied math then the way i do now
this matrix is very clearly real - I don't see why you can't just... ignore the fact it's in C? lol
Now the question is - can you show that this is a natural isomorphism
Jkjk
Okey did u not like math in high school?
But realized how good it was and started studying algebra
no i kinda just copied all the hw answers and played games during class lmfao
but it was like
Lmao
happens to all of us
unless you're terence tao or something
beginning of senior year that calculus started to get cool
so i tried self-studying and i always liked learning the next thing idk
lmfao true
so i should really go back to strengthen my weak-ass trig
also my mathematical maturity last year was pretty bad, i was just getting used to math proofs and shit and i thought you could just read the textbook once and then go to lecture and do the hw problems and you would be chill and that didnt work out great
That works when the homework takes 8 hours for 5 problems
lmfao definitely not for me

Did u make this yourself lmao
yeah
wew's an artiste
wew the memelord
W
E
Anyone?
@real sparrow why do you keep posting stuff without context
hello
0-->A-->B-->C-->0 split exact gives us tensor product is exact
proof is to write B as A+C and then distribute the tensor
and then the map from R tensor A to R tensor A + R tesnor C becomes the inclusion which is a monomorphism?
and thats it?"
because the context is in the other channel
oh shit I just realized I misread
then yea def for me
😹😹😹
Which other channel?
what are some intresting property of holomorph of a group
Sorta yes, but recall that split exact only means that B is isomorphic to A+C and not equal. The conditions on the maps are about the commutativity of certain diagrams. So if you want to be precise, you will want to show that this isomorphism gives you an isomorphism for R ⊗ B such that the relevant diagrams still commute.
Another way to do this is to characterize split exact sequences in terms of addition of maps. If the first map in your sequence is i and the second is p, you find that the sequence is split if and only if i has a left inverse q, p a right inverse j, and jp + qi = 1_B
In this way, split exact sequences are entirely equationally described, and you don't need to check the ker p = im i condition. Then you use the fact that R ⊗ - preserves morphism composition and morphism addition to see that the equations are preserved so the result must also be split exact.
In mathematics, especially in the area of algebra known as group theory, the holomorph of a group is a group that simultaneously contains (copies of) the group and its automorphism group. The holomorph provides interesting examples of groups, and allows one to treat group elements and group automorphisms in a uniform context. In group theory, f...
fyi, if you want better answers, you should provide more context (saying 'it's in the other channel' is not helpful as no one knows where you were typing beforehand)
Could I have a hint for this?
Maybe just a hint to the idea that if f(w_1) = cw_1^n, and f(w_2) = dw_2^m for some w_1, w_2, and n, m minimum that n = m?
where w_1, w_2 are roots of unity, and c,d are roots of unity contained in the finite extension K
Hm
Since you have infinitely many roots of unity mapping to other roots of unity you know it sends the unit circle to itself
And since you have infinitely many roots of unity you can find one that does not lie in the field of coefficients
Some ideas that seem helpful
Why?
Oh oops that is actually wrong
But because the unit circle is compact and we have infinitely many roots of unity we have a convergent sequence
And so by the identity theorem we know that near where the sequence converges it sends the unit circle to itself, by continuity
Sorry, I don't know enough analysis to understand you
I don't think it works anyway. There are nice rational functions with coefficients in Z that send the unit circle to itself, but don't send 0 to 0 or infinity (so they can't have the form stated in the exercise). So a solution will have to use the specific fact that the infinitely many zetas map to roots of unity rather than just somewhere on the unit circle.
I guess the roots of unity aren't complete so we might not even have the limit be a root of unity either, hmm
Would it be possible to disprove this statement:
For all integer m, there exists a rank N(m) such that for all n > N(m), f(zeta_n) neq wzeta_n^s for any s < m, for any root of unity w in K?
I think I can answer the question if the above is false
(For a concrete example, (2z+1)/(2+z) maps the unit circle to itself, since if |z|=1 then 2z+1 and 2+z have the same length on geometric grounds. But it maps 0 to 1/2).
Well this statement is true for f(z) = -z
So damn
oh interesting, when you said this I assumed you meant f(z)=1/z
But that does satisfy the assumptions of the exercise -- it takes every root of unity to a root of unity -- and also the conclusion, with n=-1.
yeah that makes sense
hmm, since it's a finite extension but infinitely many roots - that means they exist in a field L containing K, and we must get arbitrarily high degree. Then we can look at all their conjugates, which must also satisfy the equation because K is fixed, and the collection of all of these will be dense in the unit circle now
The finite extension is only assumed to contain the coefficients, not necessarily the inifinitely many roots of unity that map to roots of unity.
Consider f(z)=z, with coefficients in Q itself, but Q only has 2 roots of unity.
An extension that contains infinite roots of unity, I believe must me infinite as well
Yeah, it contains an arbitrarily high primitive n'th root of unity
And then it's order is at least phi(n)
As far as I understand the text of the exercise, it doesn't say that the zetas live in the finite extension it speaks of.
Which goes off to infinity
Yes
Does "yes" mean you agree or disagree?
Agree
Ah right, now I understand what you said here, sorry.
yeah that was the point of my remark, the elements of K are fixed by the automorphisms of the roots in the larger field, since we have infinitely many of them
oh looks like you both worked it out, ok cool I'm sorta in and out atm
I haven't
Ye
well, it's just a finite extension is really all that matters
so the fact that we have infinitely many roots of unity mapping through it means they will lie in extensions of K
K is the finite extension containing the coefficients of f?
yeah
sorry I thought it said that in the original question
but I invented that whoops
Well f(w) lies in K(w) for some root of unity w
yeah
It could just have said "... with algebraic coefficients".
and this will be true for arbitrarily large roots of unity
so $\sigma(f(\zeta)) = f(\sigma(\zeta))$ will hold, because K is fixed in these extensions
merosity
Oooh.
Yeah
yeah, so now, the p^1000th root of unity might be one of them, and we also know that all its conugates satisfy it as well
which is where I'm getting density pulled outta
Okay, I accept we have a dense set of roots of unity that each map to roots of unity.
since we know having infinitely many roots of unity forces their order to be arbitrarily high
yeah, now I don't know what we do with that, just an observation haha
Well f(zeta) = wzeta^s for some root of unity w in K, and for some integer s
And for some root of unity zeta
And then if f(z) = g(z)/h(z), zeta and all of its conjugates will be roots of g(z) - wz^sh(z)
So if I can bound s
I'm done
Oh, and w,s depend on zeta as observed
Oh, w in K, didn't see that, apologies.
Perhaps it would help to assume wlog that f(1)=1?
idk if we can do that
Or show for some s, there's a primitive n'th root of unity, a with [K(a) : K] > degree r(z) = g(z) - wz^sh(z), r(a)=0
Just divide through by f(1), adjoining it to K if it's not already there.
but then f(zeta) might not be a root of unity anymore
yeah
it will be a root of unity divided by f(1)
Aah, damn.
e^i for instance 😢
But a root of unity divided by a root of unity is always a root of unity, isn't it?
do we know that f(1) is a root of unity...?
Damn².
f(z)=z with e^i sadly
Best root of disunity
OK, proposal retracted.
a good thought though
Can anyone explain Sylow's Theorem and the notion of p-groups, p-subgroups, and Sylow p-subgroups?
the wikipedia page for it is nice
a p-group is a group who's order is a power of p, that one's easy enough
what is the restriction on n
no clue what that means
so p^0 is a p-group? i.e. the trivial group?
yes
and a p-subgroup is the same notion, I'm guessing?
yes
if your group is p^m k where p does not divide k
oh
then a p subgroup is p^n for any n <= m
but what is Sylow's Theorem
3 theorems
there's more than one
the conjugation one is way more important than how many there are imo
if P and P' are two Sylow p-subgroups of some G then there exists a g in G such that gPg^{-1} = P'
this proves that all Sylow p-subgroups are isomorphic in a nice way
the third one is nice for showing a group is abelian/solvable
ah i see
yeah I'm not saying it's useless, just that it's less useful
gotcha guys, thanks
the motivation is like
converse of lagrange for non abelian groups
the natural motivation comes from considering fusion systems 
I hope you step on a lego
Okay, new justification. Let zeta be one of the infinitely many roots of unity that map to a root of unity. Adjoin zeta and f(zeta) to K if they're not already there, and consider g(z) = f(z·zeta) / f(zeta). Then surely g(1)=1, and the assumptions are still intact.
that sounds good to me, and if we were to add anything to K, it'd only apply to g(z), which we'd undo when we go back to our problem on f(z) I think, so we're probably safe there too
We now have a concrete candidate for n (that is, the power in the solution): it has to equal f'(1) if the claim is true at all.
Is this the problem y’all are talking about?
yes
how can we guarantee that g(z) maps infinitely many roots of unity, into roots of unity
oh wait
the same roots of unity as f
it does
after multiplying them by zeta^(-1) ?
...oh that's true
yes
Since Merosity showed that the qualifying zetas are dense, we can pick a sequence of them that approaches 1 without being 1.
So if I understand the problem correctly we’re done if we can show that it maps infinitely many roots of unity to roots of unity of a bounded order right?
yep
Ooh that’s smart
As zeta approaches 1 we have log(f(zeta))/log(zeta) -> f'(1). If we can show that there's a dense set of zetas for which this ratio must be an integer, then it must eventually be f'(1), and we get the rest of the way by continuity.
Or perhaps it's at least always an integer multiple of 1/k where k is the degree of K, or something. That would be good enough.
wdym by log(zeta)?
Complex logarithm -- I'm just considering a small neighborhood of 1, so there's a single relevant branch.
This is probably a stupid question but how are you getting f’ here in the limit?
Oh yeah I think I see it
Didn’t really realize log(f(1)) was 0
Isn’t it just log(zeta) ~ zeta-1 as zeta->1?
Then definition of derivative + chain rule
Hmm, perhaps. It's intuitively clear to me, but my first attempt to write it down went astray.
d/dx(log(f)) = f’/f
f'/f was right, I think.
Actually I had it right the first time
this is where I thought we were going lol
can we make the same density argument with the fixed field in the generalized exercise
Very neat argument if it works out
Okay, it's now tomorrow, Imma go sleep
if the finitely generated multiplicative group is, say powers of sqrt(2) then it turns out Gamma would be dense in all of C I believe
probably all examples will end up this way except the special case of roots of unity since they're all |z|=1 they can't "blow up" everwhere on us
at least my thinking is, if we work the general problem a bit, it'll help give us a new perspective maybe
maybe I'm wrong, but since he said it's in the galois theory section, I kind of think there's not any analysis involved, and this density stuff is a red herring.
Hmmm, is a rational function determined by its value on finitely many points in the same way polynomials are? Feels like there could be some sort of argument there
yeah that sounds likely
write f(z)=g(z)/h(z) and then make g(z)=f(z)h(z) and plug in numbers with coefficients in theory to get a system of linear equations
On the other hand, even the generalized statement does say "complex numbers" specifically, and if the intended argument was purely algebraic it could probably be generalized further.
I think people say complex numbers when really they are being too lazy to say the algebraic closure of Q
at least this is something I commonly have seen in multiple textbooks
like for the most part the distinction doesn't matter enough
I ain't typing out \overline{...} lets put it like that
We could write g(z) = w(z)z^{s(z)} h(z) for relevant z, well zetas
Idk if that helps
Hmm, yes, since every field of charactistic 0 with transcendence degree at most continuum embeds into C, we're not losing much by saying C :-)
My argument that we can assume f(1)=1 still seems to work in the generalized setting.
trying to think about topological group tricks to apply now
truth group
magic word open sesame
Hurwitz canonical anabelianoidization of co-complete pro-normal module
the Atyiah completion theorem for saturated fusion systems
was told to ask here how i would prove question 9? i know that any matrix these generate would also have determinant one. do i need to prove that these generate 24 elements?
you can literally just
multiply everything sure
or, go backwards
take an arbitary matrix in SL_2(F_3) and show it's a product of those two matrices
yeah, I'd start by finding certain relations between the two generating elements
which reduces the number of words you'll need to check
that one's pretty handy
honestly, this exercise just seems like a bunch of tedium
the next one is basically the same thing but much faster
ah i'll try the next one
can we use the fact that it has order 24 to do some kind of cheap tricks like with sylow thms
the cheap trick is knowing that SL_2(F_3) is a non-split extenstion of Q_8 by C_3 and literally cheating by using the next question
which is basically the sylow theorems
but considering how early Zwischen is in group theory I doubt they'd've done the sylow theorems
yeah no sylow theorems yet
nor do i know what a non split extension is
in #10 it says the subgroup of SL_2(F_3) generated by (1 & 1 // 1 & -1)
but that doesn't have determinant 1?
wait
ok
F_3 goes hard
funny
normally the trolls in this channel are a bit more high effort than litteraly just taking a massive shit on the keyboard
I'm dissapointed
Can we ask help in this channel?
yeah sure
okay maybe this isnt very helpful but i didnt see it mentioned yet. Note we have f(z) in K(z) for any z in Qbar, so in particular for w a root of unity the order of f(w) is <= the order of w
can somebody tell me why splitting fields are finite? I don't see it
fundemental theorem of algebra
maybe from this we can get some better bounds on things
assuming you mean finite extenstions instead of finite finite
I neither see what they really are. Does somebody have an intuitive explaination?
For the second expression,
(D_{ij}•f_k)•f_l , I seem to be getting a 12 out front and not a 6
polynomials have a finite degree, and thus have a finite number of roots in the algebraic closure - hence you only need to adjoin a finite number of elements to the base field to account for every root in the polynomial
full disclosure I came up with this on the spot so maybe wait for a second answer 
yes I'm talking about finite extensions, my bad



