#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 94 of 1
gotcha

So in showing that the chain C has an upper bound in S
They are saying that the union of all sets belonging to C can be an UB. In the case where C was finite (C had n sets per say), C has a largest element trivially right
The entire module is a spanning set no?
Also, I've always heard in Zorn's lemma that the maximal element just wasn't smaller than anything else. The thing you're quoting seems quite a bit stronger than that
I'm pretty sure that quoting of Zorn's is wrong
Especially because they would just call it a maximum element if that were true
Yeah, your reading of this bit is correct. Also, I'll note that this definitely shows the phrasing of Zorn's lemma above was wrong - the maximal element is only comparable to linearly independent sets that happen to have the same elements as it
When we union two independent sets do we get an independent set?
Only if the subspaces they span are disjoint (except at zero)
Or to put into actual stuff and not just math words
(0, 1) and (1, 0) is a basis for R^2 but so is (0, 2) and (2, 0), but obviously their union is not independent
i see
It's best to think of this stuff in finite cases and see if it makes sense there usually
Yeah, i understand the finite case but with a different proof that doesnt use zorns lemma
A good skill to have is to reduce complicated abstract shit into simpler notions, but only if you can figure out when that does and doesn't work
Here's the way to look at the proof with Zorns
Its saying that since you can define a basis for each subspace of the thing, you can kind of stitch these bases together in such a way that you can define one for the whole thing
Let me go on an aside real quick
Okay, do you know how you can think of vectors as like (1, 0, 0) right?
This is because of bases. What the (1, 0, 0) notation is really saying is that the vector is that particular combination of basis elements
That means a good way to visualize bases (here at least) isn't as the individual elements, but as their entire spanning set, since that's kind of what they represent
yes
So these chains of bases are really just chains of subspaces of increasing dimension
Zorn's lemma is just brought in to do the heavy lifting in saying that the dimension of the entire space is well defined
But it's really just a formalization of the intuitive notion that if you have an increasing set of stuff, there's a biggest thing
(which is wrong, it's only maximal not biggest, but the intuition doesn't have to be precise, so long as you make sure to be precise when actually applying it)
its not the biggest because not everything is comparable in a partially ordered set right
yes
got it
Hi, guys, in the category language, we define object of field extension of k is a non-zero field homomorphism f: k\to E, then for the degree of this extension, is it true that we should define the extension degree as dimension of E as f(k)-vector space?
Yeah pretty much
But it is incompatible with bilinearilty of tensor
Wdym?
Hmm. That does make sense, intuitively, but I'm not sure as to whether it works
I would intuitively think it would be defined by the exact sequence $$0\to k \to E$$
Parrot Tea
No that sounds right
Nope it's wrong. Field homomorphisms are always embedding
Every sequence is exact
In corollary 1.4.24 do they mean that B is an integral closure of A in L?
Wikipedia says it's the dimension of E as a K vector space. not sure what you mean by f(k) vector space
Image of K
Oh right, then yes
I think they're the same right? Since the integral elements of K should be the same as those of A
I think the reason they use K is just because technically K is contained in L, but A isn't, even though it totally is
see this confuses me because in the proposition before they do say integral closure of A in L
Have you read through the proof?
It might be that they show that the close of K is that of A in it or something
Thanks! what i am confused about is how we say the tower law, f: k\to E, g: E\to L be field extensions, then for the tower law, we should say [L: gf(k)] = [L: g(E)][g(E):gf(k)]?
That makes sense
Remember these are vector spaces and not modules, so you don't have to drive a spike into the back of your skull to understand them
Thanks!
It is just a typo. The integral closure of K in L would be L by any reasonable definition.
can someone give me a direction on how to approach this? I haven't done algebra in a while and im really bothered that i can't solve this
i thought of something like Z^2 x Z/gcd(a,b)Z but i dont know, its probably wrong
ftofgag ong 
idk what that stands for but im assuming thats like structure theorem for finite abelian groups or smth?
It even sounds like you're gagging when you say it :)
Fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups
Good old ftofgag
a special case of the ftofgmoapid
What's the a stand for?
a
lol
What's funny is like when I read jt out loud I just say fundamental theorem of finitely generated modules over a PID
Forgetting that PID is itself an initialism
Still, doesn't have the same ring to it as good ol 'gag
Yeah I had to force myself to write out pid
What's the subscript Z mean here? Just that it's a subgroup pf Z?
not sure, but it should be that the coefficients of the freely generated module are from Z
ong ofg
It's not always Z^2, since what if a = b?
Unless it'll be iso still at that point
Do you have any recently introduced theorems that seem suspiciously similar?
today i am become algebra, destroyer of grades
Oh yeah? Name every finite group up to simple subgroups
Or quotients or whatever idfk
name every group
I liked it more as grup
nah this is on the prerequisite exercises sheet for a homologial algebra class, but i think i just got another idea now, if i get it i'll post solutions here
Oh in that case, go read up on ftofgag. Good old meta analysis says that's the way to do it
What is the cokernel of a matrix?
Codomain modulo image of it
we can represent homomorphism as matrix is some cases, what would the cokernel look like
how do we compute it?
is the coker(A) just another matrix?
R^s / Imf how can this be represented as matrix
The kernel of the inverse, but generalized to what Timo said
Since not every matrix is invertible
A is just the matrix representation of the map f
Okay, so any finitely genearted module over a noetherian ring is isomorphic to the cokernel of some matrix
It's almost like multiplication of subspaces
finitely generated is equivalent to finitely presented over noetherian rings, yes
really
If M: A to B is a matrix, then M/ker(A) is a subspace of A right?
finite presentation (isomorphic to the cokernel of a matrix) always implies finitely generated
and here you are showing the reverse direction over noetherian rings
It's the part that doesn't get squished together by the matrix
The cokernel is the part of the codomain you have to squish together if you wanna invert your matrix
This helps compute it cause of degrees
Why does cokernel being 0 mean that the matrix is unit?
Because you can invert it
It's the first isomorphism theorem
It means that you have a surjective linear map.
Hmm, not sure
Maybe they're talking about it as if its from X/mod ker(A)
I.e. it's a unit via first iso thm
dont understand that
Oh I see, so think about it this way
We are talking about the map from R^s -> R^r right
You can make an inverse that sends it to a subspace of the domain, right?
Or rather, do you see how the first isomorphism theorem applies?
So it's a unit cause you can invert it to send back to a subspace of dimension Dim(R^r/kerf)
So are you saying that the map f is an isomorphism
Wait no that doesn't do it
Nah, I'm saying it's an isomorphism between R^r/kef and R^s
but the text is saying that when coker = 0 then f is an isomorphism
where does it say that
You've made a classic blunder
😓
The implication arrow points the other way
It's just saying the cokernal is zero for infectives
Yeah
oof
It does. It's just saying injective functions are invertible
?
Unless you mean the arrow pointing backwards
yes
Oh, yeah, that's cause it's wrong
it'd have to be a square matrix in the first place
A is unit => coker is 0, this is correct right? Since A is unit means f is isomorphism
Yeah, should be true. Although it doesn't have to be an iso I think
Ignore that
The second half, that's just me being dumb
It's completely correct
ok nice
what is the overline denoting here
looks like an equivalence class
it is indeed one
there's a nicer way of showing this though
Yes, using the exact sequence and right exactness
okay but that version is more elementary tbf
crime

What does
mean exactly? Is it like "I am dying/that's awful?"
^Yes mods this is technically an analysis question but I'm asking it here.
i remember when i first joined i had to ask what sully meant
then i got sullied for it
Let $ \pi : \mathbb{Z} \rightarrow \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z} $ be epimorphism and $\sigma: Sub(\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}) \rightarrow Sub_{m\mathbb{Z}}(\mathbb{Z}) $ with $ \bar{H} \mapsto \pi^{-1}(\bar{H})$.
Where the first set is the set of subsets of $Z/nZ$ and the second set is the set of subsets containing $nZ$.
I want prove that $\sigma$ is a bijection and I already established that both sets have the same cardinality , which is equal to the amount of the unique positive divisors of $n$.
I want to show its surjective so im picking arbitrary $kZ$ (where k is a divisor of n) so $\sigma(\bar(H) = \pi^{-1}(\bar{H}) = kZ$.
However I feel like im missing something or doing something which im not allowed to because its so simple. I wrote down an example for Z/4Z and thought about what element maps to what element, but im not using anythig of that sort here.
aabb
Petition to get Mike wazowski as a reaction image please
pretty much
I absolutely do not believe those two sets are the same size, there are an infinite number of different subsets of Z that contain nZ, and the powerset of Z/nZ is of size 2^n, which is finite
It feels like
Doesn't look like it's passing
The monke thing feels like someone going bruuuuh and squinting like wtf did i just hear
maybe i have misinterpreted it this whole time
me when i thimcs
oh well lol, let me thing about it again
I kind of thought that was a use case for 
like in your Z/4Z example, you have 4Z u {5}, 4Z u {6}, 4Z u {7}, 4Z u {9}, ...
I feel like people are sullying it as a show of support mr mod guy
that's what I understand too
It is supposed to say subgroups in both cases, translation error. I was careless here
ok now I recognise it as the correspondence theorem
I know it's a nonstandard use but please consider the context
idk there isn't a single green mark supporting it
dont "mr mod guy" timo
I'm new here
Hello new here, i'm Timo
okay lets keep this channel on topic now
yes
I'm gonna pretend that the green checkmark is Mike winking
the inverse map here is a result of first iso righ
hmmm noo
or maybe it iss
ii should think before speaking
can anyone help with logic
what's the sequence btw
I can't be bothered reading
i love just seeing people cast spells on each other
never do this
with these fancy words
Not the right channel
ask Godel
he's not wrong
What's wrong with aa today
wahh wahh
IM -> M -> M/IM
oh yeah tensoring an R-module with R is just the dude lol
my favorite ses is -> a -> A -> A/a ->
that's all of them
mine is 0 -> 0
who is godel
that's him
Yes
Don't be afraid of saying something wrong imo
Everyone's wrong until they're right
every time I say something wrong I get shouted at by timo
that's what i use this discord for 
"common illu L"
whats pending g+
to ask the things im too scared to ask my profs
I've never asked a prof anything
I just always use this discord
or ask the ta
or MSE
hey
mse is sometimes useful
That's lame. It creates an unrealistic perception where it looks like everyone else is right the first time, and then you have to look like you're right too or else you're behind
what dies that mean?
some of my questions have yet to be answered though
Being wrong is just an opportunity to become right
i am terrified of asking my professors certain questions
?
The fuck is an mse?
Look at your roles.
like if im stuck on a problem that i feel like should be really straightforward they will look at me and be like "damn this guy stupid"
Mathematics stack exchange
math stack exchange 
even tho they are required to help me with the question
I mean I agree but I think I've used it like a total of 3 times and all of them were on a self study where my grad student mentor didn't know how to answer it
Bruh
https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4481781/943349 if someone wants to answer this
I'm still looking for the solution
Oh fuck that. Remember what I said about a culture of having to look like you're always right?
pending g+ = you applied for the graduate+ role and waiting for it to be accepted i think
nah
you just clicked the "graduate+" thing
nah
applied but waiting to be accepted
you have to separately apply
oh
No one will think that. They'll think you missed something obvious the way they have a billion times before
I still don't know what classifies as g+ 
weird, last time i tried they had a built-in application thing
I found this very unclear tbf
like u clicked the role and there was a form that automatically popped up
I applied but got denied
yea ik
as the story goes
You just gotta accept that you know nothing sometimes and just ask them for help, or just ask them the random question you've got in your head and allow intrusive thoughts to win
welcome to the advanced channels
If you don't ask a stupid question .you get stuck with the question
It stays within you
I'm talking about this
a math professor, in a lecture, says "this proof is trivial," leaves the classroom for 15 minutes, and comes back and says "yeah it's trivial"

oh i meant from this
But just be wrong sometimes instead. It's freeing
oh trust me, I'm nothing but wrong
Wait but then that sentence is wrong
Be wrong intentionally to lose ego
Don't paradox yourself in a math discord come on
there is no paradox :thirdeyeopen:
question time
if I see the word "galois" my fist is going through my monitor
what is an intuition behind the definition of a sheaf of rings on a prime spectrum
What's a sheaf?
a collection of stalks
What's a prime spectrum?

spec(R) I presume
anyway #algebraic-geometry
always makes me laugh that comm-alg is in there
What's spec(R)?
im terrified of using #diff-geo-diff-top
yeah let me ask my tensor product question right after the 500 message long O_x-module discussion
the set of prime ideals of R
sometimes i feel like i should ask my topology questions in #geometry-and-trigonometry because they are far more insignificant than the questions asked in #diff-geo-diff-top
galios
yeah that too
very terrified
anyways, can't believe galois died at like, what, 21?
topology-alg-top isn't that bad
because of a silly duel
GaIois
Galois
Can you give the definition exactly, please?
this one time I didn't know whether to ask my question in #geometry-and-trigonometry or #algebraic-geometry 
imagine asking a question in one of the advanced questions and getting pointed to #geometry-and-trigonometry
that would be so insanely humbling
this keith conrad guy is pretty swag
i love conrad's lecture notes
I mean geometry is scary
That's like once every 10 questions in that channel
But maybe not trigonometry
,, \mathcal{O}(U) = \set{s : U \to \coprod_{\mathfrak{p} \in U} A_{\mathfrak{p}} | s(\mathfrak{p}) \in A_{\mathfrak{p}} ~\text{and $s$ is locally a quotient of elements of $A$}}
ong
I wonder if you can actually do cool shit with trig at all
fourier analysis is a big field
Keith conrad's notes are so nice for reviewing or catching up on stuff
and that gives into harmonic analysis
IRONY
Just be right
you ignored me in discussy 😭
ello
oh so it's just a coproduct :weed: coproducts are like adding things :blazing8s: so this is basically like a sum of functions :blazed2the9s:
Fuck oof I forgot forrier
ahhh yeah I saw I was pinged but I couldn't find where the ping was 
what's your battle tag
overwatch
Holomorphic functions on cylinders 
it's disjoint union or something idk
not coproduct
or I don't even know at this point
the text doesn't explain
the disjoint union is the coproduct in set 
these are rings
What's A_p in that definition?
the corproduct in ring is not disjoint union
And what's a local quotient?
localization
localisation of A away from p
fuck do I know at this point
what is it
no fuckin clue
tensor?
What does that mean?
read a comm alg book
Read my question
localization*
you add some fractions in
Did I ask for a bedtime story?
abstract chillgebra moment
I'd take a bed time story rn
"The coproduct of nonzero rings can be the zero ring; in particular, this happens whenever the factors have relatively prime characteristic"
............... lol?
omw asking in #category-theory 🏃
it's analogous to free groups according to wikipedia.co.uk
I believe this has to do with the commutative diagram associated with the coproduct
So it can only factor through the 0 ring
this makes sense
yeah wouldn't the coproduct need to have characteristic equal to the gcd of the characteristics of the rings in it
hence coprime char => trivial
Category theory scary
So what does "locally a quotient away from elements" mean?
lemme send the part where this stuff was defined
Afraid of a little arrows?
take ur ring R, and a multiplicatively closed set S, then the localisation at S is {r/s : r \in R, s \in S}
akchkckhkchually
shut the fuck up R is an integral domain
Okay, it's fractions but only nearby?
quotenited by the equivalence relation r/s ~ r'/s' <=> rs' = r's
akkchkchually
this equivalence relation is messier if R is not an integral domain but I don't care
all rings are integral domains
lame localization vs based quotient field
r's what?
What does r own?
this is what rust does to a mf
it's called the localisation because the result is a local ring when u do it "away" from a prime ideal
at least that's my justification
by "away from a prime ideal" I mean you take S to be everything outside that ideal in R
I think I've seen something similar before
algebraic number theory is sooo fun but my homework is just 
for example, Z localised away from (2) is the subset of fractions in Q who's denominator is coprime to 2
Anyone familiar with leavitt path algebras?
what's he doing with the elementary tensr
yes lads
which bit specifically
a field extension is integral iff algebraic right
sum of tensors has that form implies all tensors are 1 x m
Relatable
But at least it's fun
you can write r \otimes m as 1 \otimes rm for any r and any m - apparently - so we write our tensors in our sum as 1 \otimes m_i for some m_i and then just use linearity to combine them

Yes you can divide through by the leading coefficient always
forgor abt linearity
me when i forgor
that's the WHOLE POINT
this was my reaction when I learned how sheaves can be used in complex analysis
shhh
ong
The intuition is that the sheaf of rings is the set of functions that associate prime ideals with places that they're local
So it's probably used for taking about "where" a part of a ring is "localish"
Hmm, maybe not quite
@delicate orchid coproduct in ring is tensoring over Z
Let's see, so looking at Wikipedia, the closed sets are sets of prime ideals containing a given ideal
Which is analogous to prime factorizations, so the open sets are analogous to stuff not divided by a given prime yeah?
Geometrically it's more like localizing "at" that prime ideal.
@dim widget are you a phd student
Naur
I'm just a discord degen
I should be getting my PhD in that sometime soon though
I got absolutely no knowledge of geometry so I'll take ur word for it
nifty
what is a polynomial called whose resultant with its derivative is non zero? my nob prof calls them generic but apparently no one else calls them that. like I know you can just call them separable, but that feels wrong
wonder if I can prove that in a single diagram
You can't just call your prof a nob
It's rude
newton okounkov bodies
bodies whom?
I would call it "nonsingular"
your mum
hm
Okay, so what's a local quotient?
@dusty verge
"graduate +"
That role isn’t necessarily tied to the status as a graduate student
That doesn't define a local quotient there, does it?
what even are the requirements for the role
it does
"to be precise, ..."
NVM I saw my mistake
Nice try FBI
why does my prof have to use this really DISGUSTING background that is just hard to read text on
That doesn't even look that bad
Maybe except for the orange in the middle of the screen
Cringe
blue light filter paper 
poor prof, imagine being german unironically
couldn't be me
Real
it's really weird
I had the same prof in algebra 1
we did like
a fuck ton of stuff in one lecture
this is algebra 2
and we've barely done anything in a week
Hat gemerkt dass ihr alle skill issues habt
schwöre aber
sind nur noch 4 leute in der vorlesung
ist eine connection zwischen klassischer algebraischer geometrie und konvexer geometrie
That’s a good size
bin der einzige der weiß was eine varietät ist 
we learnt like only two things in a whole week lol

resultant and symmetric polynomials
I mean those probably take longer than that to understand well.
my favorite result is that the invariant ring is equal to the elementary polynomials
A good thing to think about is what the invariant ring is over Z.
what
Like invariants in Z[x_1, \dots, x_n] unless you already did that in class.
oh
I meant
,, \bC[x_1, \cdots, x_n]^{S_n} = \bC[e_1, \cdots, e_n]
who needs fields other than C anyway, amiright
It is a beautiful result 
Okay, I'm starting to get it
For a fixed p, the sheaf will give a set of fractions that are equal to any element of p for some neighborhood around it
Generalizing this to all of U, it gives the set of fractions that are equal to elements of U, for some neighborhood around that element
Basically you can think of different localizations as different ways to write the elements of a ring as fractions. Seems like sometimes it'll be the same, and sometimes different
how trivial is that first result
This sheaf sends prime ideals to the places where it's the same, right?
that that tensor is 0
tensoring with Q kills torsion elements, so each factor in the product is 0
oh literally just bc Z has inverses in Q
that's right
omg!! profinite completion!!
what do those words mean
wholesome 9001
i love you 3000
Let p be a prime ideal. Then for each x in p, there's some fraction that it's equal to in some range around p. The sheaf sends all the ideals in U, to all those fractions, in all combinations
It'd be better to define it as a function from the disjoint union of the ideals tbh
Well, maybe not. You might not want that association later on
Yeah the sheaf is all the fractions that are equal to elements of p in U at p
heh?
The neighborhood bs is just to be more general
another silly question - what does it mean for that tensor to be exact
What is a condition for the direct sum of images being equal to the image of an internal direct sum?
if you have an exact sequence of Z-modules (i.e. abelian groups), then tensoring the sequence with Q still yields an exact sequence
preserves exact sequences, i.e. Q is flat as a Z-module 🙄
weird saying the tensoring is exact rather than just the module is flat but w/e
It's a little hard to tell what you mean, but it seems like the condition is just that they have parwise 0 intersection.
ohhh i didnt think abt it like a sequence
Can mods edit our comments?
nah
I would be swiftly assassinated via implantation of FALSEHOODS
"it is clear from the local nature of the definition that O is a sheaf" 
$\bigoplus f(M_{i}) = f(\bigoplus M_{i})$
Kerr
I meant this
It is. A sheaf describes local properties, i.e. properties on open sets.
a nonzero amount of trolling
Break it down by first looking at O(p) is. It's the set of fractions elements can be equal to at p
Lol I think it's interesting that some other books define the structure sheaf on the basic open sets, and then it's a nontrivial amount of work to show that this does actually form a sheaf
What are sheaves used for?
making me cry
the contradiction here then is that G x Q has a nonzeroo subring and is therefore non zeroo right
it holds trivially when f is injective i.e. the kernel is trivial but like projection from R^3 to R^2 with regards to the standard basis for example still preserves that sort of "splitting". In the general case I am not sure what condition would imply uniqueness of expressing any element as a sum of elements from f(M_i)
Oh after some googling about what sheaves are, think of it as the shape of the space of the fractions the things can be
I usually just think of functions on spaces, but go off ig
I know exactly what a presheaf is that's enough for me thanks
which one's the first?
Well I'm still figuring this out, so let me know if I'm wrong, but it seems like it's breaking down global things like the set of continuous functions into local things, right?
i got that ryu it's okay 
tensoring with Q
Like a sheaf takes the set of continuous functions from A to B and turns it into the set of sets of continuous functions from open sets of A to B?
Right, yeah. Sheaves are useful for formalizing how to study functions on a space where you have some notion of functions being defined by their local behavior
Or do these smaller functions need to be compatible?
In general torison free modules over PIDs are flat
(In fact over dedekind domains it's true)
Oh oh oh yeah that makes sense right
nonflatmodulesdontexistnonflatmodulesdontexistnonflatmodulesdontexistnonflatmodulesdontexistnonflatmodulesdontexistnonflatmodulesdontexistnonflatmodulesdontexistnonflatmodulesdontexistnonflatmodulesdontexistnonflatmodulesdontexisteverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflateverymoduleisflat
Oh, so it is compatible continuous functions , you won't have an element of the sheaf that contains who functions equal to different things at the same place
Right?
non exact functors are cringe amiright
u gotta stop doing this
flat is justice
name one exact functor
LOCALIZATION
he's good
mate
by jove he's good
stop posting shit like this
I'm goofy!! I'm insane!!
Right, but that's like the definition of a function lol. If you read the sheaf axioms, the notion of identity and gluing reflect the idea that if you can define functions locally in a compatible way, then you ought to be able to glue them into a function defined globally
so chat can you help me compute a little group theory question 
That's why the classical examples of sheaves are like smooth functions on a manifold and stuff
actually stealing my gifs and then getting banned by posting them
what is an manifold?
locally homeomorphic to R^n :pack:
Honestly illu, you might benefit from learning some stuff about smooth manifolds before trying to read more Hartshorne
I don't want something that is locally homeo to R^n, I want a manifold!
I know the first couple of pages of a diff geo book 
I mean, Zariski tangent space stuff would be very abstract and unmotivated
But who am I to stop you
walter
is there a p-subgroup S of GL_p(F_p) such that for all x \in GL_p(F_p) - S, |S \cap xSx^{-1}| is coprime to p
no
remains to be seen
obviously
ok what is it then
nerds
feels true for p≥3 actually
Makes sense
ok wait
that sounds familiar
The intuition for your sheaf thing is that it maps out open sets as fractions that "continuously" deform into each other
Don't know why I responded to that
If they are R-linearly independant => Z-linear independant way. How do we do this?
I think it's only true if G is also a p-group
it's used in the proof that every finite p-group is nilpotent iirc
some argument about order and divisibility iirc
Okay, I understand ring sheafs
yes so doesn't it sound kinda impossible unless you take maximal p subgroup
but even then, the intersection is p-subgroup which might be nontrivial
need to read more about these strongly embedded p-subgroups tbh
Here's a fun exercise: if you have a ringed space (i.e. a space X equipped with a sheaf of rings) and a global section f, show that the set of points where the germ of f is invertible is an open subset of X.
Say that two ideals are similar if their localization contains the same fractions. The sheaf of an open set consists of collections of ideals such that you can draw a path through the ideals such that each is similar to it's neighbor
What's a germ?
equivalence class of functions that agree around an open neighborhood
So sheaves assign, say functions, to open sets. It would be nice to talk about how functions behave at a point, but in general points won't be open sets in a topological space. The stalk over a point can be defined by taking all sections over all neighborhoods of that point and quotienting out by an equivalence relation that essentially sets two sections to be equal at that point if they agree on some neighborhood of the point. The equivalence class of a section is called the germ of the section at that point
Really some of the most important properties of sheaves arise from the interaction between sections and stalks so you should read more about it if you're interested
What's a global section?
If F is a sheaf on X, then for any open set U, F(U) is called the sections over U. A global section is a section over X, so an element of F(X)
What does it mean that N is generated by the rows of the matrix?
The image of the map that A represents?
I think so yeah
<x^2, x^3, x^5+x>\oplus R \oplus <x> ig
N is guaranteed to be finitely generated. Why will it have a basis?
$<x^2, x^3, x^5+x>\oplus R \oplus <x> ig$
ActiveChapter
Q[x] is a pid and submodules of free modules over pids are free
gotcha
How did it go?
Wdym sebbb?
So a global section is just an element of the sheaf?
I don't understand what you mean. A sheaf assigns sections to each open set of the underlying space
Oh okay, makes sense
It's best not to get into the habit of thinking of sheaves as a set of sections, the whole point in inventing them was to move beyond that perspective.
Hmm, how do you mean?
I am too tired to explain but basically while you can for the first sheaves you encounter think of them as being collections of functions valued in some big space called the "espace etale" eventually you might encounter sheaves for which this is not true, so it's better to stick to the definition as a functor, which is maximally flexible.
halliday is that yuor name or is it bc of the RP1 character
ah
every element has that form bc of the same property as earlier right
in R/I x R/J we have that r' x r'' = r'r'' x 1 and then torsion...?
The germ here being the functions that are equivalent at said points?
Wait no that can't be it, oh invertible as in like multiplicatively?
The germ refers to the equivalence class, yes.
kid named germ:
So if you have a ringed space, the stalk over a point also has the structure of a ring. I mean that the germ is an invertible element of this ring
wait not torsiono
just the fact that it's a ring so r'r'' = soome other element
What's multiplication for this ring?
Or addition, even
Oh the ideals are prime, so is it just the rings operations?
Yeah of course it is, okay cool
I think maybe it's worth reading about these things in a book, I'm not sure where these ideals are coming from and I'm afraid you're still talking about the specific case of the structure sheaf on the spectrum of a ring
I am
If that's the case, that you're asking specifically about Spec R, then it is true that the stalk over a point p is isomorphic to R_p, the localization of R at p
It's going to be invertible nowhere, right?
Why would that be true?
I think I'm wrong yeah
I was going off this, and thought that f not in q implies that a/f can't be invertible, but that can't be true cause otherwise you couldn't have identity right?
waltuh is this right
im so tired of looking at tensors
i wanna do galois stuff already
For the structure on the spectrum of a ring, I'm pretty sure I have it. Let me look up the more general definitions
just duoble checking, this ok?
Is this a locally ringed space, or a ringed space in general. If it's the second, what would the codomain of a structure be?
Would it just be elements of the ring?
No it wouldn't be, would it?
Suppose $M_1$ and $M_2$ are finitely generated $R$-modules. Show that $M_1 \otimes_R M_2$ is also finitely generated.
not sebbb not stμ₂dying
is it enough to just say like
M1 and M2 are finitely generated
so there will only be a finite amount of elementary tensors

Any hints on this exercise? I've tried quite a few things. I was able to get it if deg f >= deg g, since you can prove in that case that deg fg <= deg h - 1, but that conjecture is NOT true in the case where deg g > deg f (take, say, f = x^2, and g = (x-1)^3). It seems like this should be really obvious, but I'm just not seeing it. I also wonder if there is a smarter choice of A,B, and C.
Ignore all previous questions, I understand enough to tackle the question now
Sorry for the barrage of questions, btw, I'm new to this subject
This essentially works, you can formalize it though. M being finitely generated is equivalent to there being a surjection f: R^n -> M for some n. In particular, you have surjections R^m -> M_1 and R^n -> M_2. Can you construct a surjection from a free module onto M_1 \otimes M_2?
Tfw you were the shadow of a waxwing slain by feigned remoteness in the windowpane. 
this is what i had
Yeah that's fine, you are saying that a tensor product of surjections is a surjection which is true.
actually making me think about the cross product 
How are you ordering the basis lol
Are you doing e_i \otimes e_i first
you are perverse
hey seb
eating ben and jerry's brownie dough ice cream right now but there's no dough ):
this is the canonical (in the biblical sense) ordering
biblically accurate tensor product
It's e_i and e_j not e_i and e_i
!
ok now there is
ngl i sharted this out pretty fast
so it's probably wrong
fuck wrong channel
I mean u clearly know wtf is going on
u look at it as a linear function on the elementary tensors and then do the thing
yuh
computation errors are irrelevant
fuck it we ball
- I'm not looking at a 3x9 matrix it's not even sqaure
Please do not swear in #groups-rings-fields there are children here 
no more tensors for me until my final
I feel offended
that's probably because ur being insulted
This has to be wrong, there should only be one nonzero entry in every column and each row should have exactly one 1 and one -1
No matter how you are ordering the basis.
What are the prime ideals of F_p[x] for prime p? I think we have (0) as F_p is an integral domain and also (f) for any irreducible polynomial, but do we have something else like (q, f)?
In general for any field F the prime ideals of F[x] are just irreducible polynomials and 0.
Because F[x] is a euclidean domain.
I feel legally obligated to mention hilbert's nullstellensatz
useful thing to remember is that F]x
fuck
F[x] is a PID for any field F
akchchually it's an iff
who cares
k[x] pid iff k[x] euclidean iff k field
ok so one of my HW problems is this
solved it (the explicit isomorphism is ugly to work through but I did it)
however I'm curious and not too sure where to look since my representation theory is shoddy to say the least
but what exactly characterizes nonisomorphic groups with isomorphic complex group algebras
two abelian groups of the same order have isomorphic group algebras for one
they're both isomorphic to C^|G|
which I assumed is what you did a specific example of using artin wedderburn
what about as Hopf algebras 
lol
Feels like it would be dependent on the stalk of X being noetherian
who is this ^
does anyone know who this is?

The picture at the end? ur mum
big up Hopf
yea that's exactly what I did
but I was wondering more in general
I'm sticking to complex group algebras because I do not want to think
I figure it depends on field so yea complex group algebras
It doesn't. It's moreso an exercise in understanding what it means for the germ to be invertible
if the multiplicity of the degrees of their irreducible characters are equal the group algebras should be isomorphic, again by artin wedderburn
I think
What about the other way?
I think it works the other way as well
Like say CG \simeq CH for groups G and H. What more info do I need to conclude G \simeq H?
oh I see
they won't be isomorphic
character tables do not determine groups up to isomorphism
and character degrees definitely don't 
yea but what more info would I need I guess is the question.
Or is this a massive bucket of worms
I'm not sure
I know that there are non-isomorphic groups who's group algebras are isomorphic over EVERY field
This is a massive bucket of worms yeah lol
Shit's hard
I'll look into this once I figure out this last HW problem 🙃
Okay, I thought it had to be noetherian because I didn't know direct limits existed, and so I assumed it would only make sense to talk about a homomorphism into the stalk of an element if you could have the ring be noetherian.
Say R is a Noetherian ring and I is proper ideal, then is it possible that R ≅ R/I?
as rings
Is 0 an ideal?
what do you think?
"proper"
I think nothing. My mind is a vast empty expanse
by "proper" I mean "such trivialities aside"
Then no. Otherwise you could chain the homomorphism with itself and get an infinite ascending chain I bet
That's a complete guess, though, and so might be completely wrong
could work
Wait no that should work. If you didn't have infinite ascent, then the ideal would be trivial
Spamakin🎷
if we're ok with just citing literature I will google
I mean sure I can try to figure it out from there but I'm just stuck lol
that diagonalisation thing seems right but I can't remember if it's that simple or if it's some jordan block nonsense
it's jordan block nonsense according to someone else in this channel who helped me
it does just have to be diagonalisable
over the algebraic closure ;3
Hmmmmmm
Let $x$ be such a point. Then the stalk of $x$ is the direct limit $\displaystyle \lim_{x \in U} \mathcal{F}(U)$. Let $\phi$ be the canonical homomorphism from $\mathcal{F}(X)$ to this limit. Then there exists $g$ such that $\phi(fg) = 1$. In particular, this means that there's an open set $U$ such that $fg = 1$ in $\mathcal{F}(U)$ (should work just by basic properties of the direct limit). But this means that the restriction of $F$ to $U$ is a unit, and since the image of a unit is a unit, every element of $U$ is. Thus the set of invertible elements is the union of a set of open sets, and is thus itself open
That do it?
Halliday
Can anyone help on this
Also, I'm sorry if my notation is trashy here, I don't really know the standard for htis topic
You've got the right idea, some of the details are a little rough around the edges. Yeah, so let x be a point where the germ of f is invertible, say there exists a germ g_x such that f_x * g_x = 1 (where f_x denotes the germ of f at x). Then there exists a representative g in F(U) for some neighborhood U of x such that f * g = 1 in F(U). Then f_y is a unit for all y in U, which shows that the set of points where the germ is invertible is open
Awesome, that makes sense. What took me a bit to figure out was how to get that neighborhood where it was invertible. Again, that's why I wanted it to be noetherian - because then the direct limit would (maybe, I didn't actually check) correspond with the homomorphism whose kernal was the top of the chain
It's also super easy if you use this definition
Because you can show the converse by applying the fact that f (the one in the picture above, not your f) is not in q.
This is only for schemes
What Walter said is true more generally for locally ringed spaces (I do think you need local @agile burrow) which aren’t covered by spectra of rings
I can’t figure out why you’d need local
SMH my head
So the neat thing is that you don't need locality to show that the set of points where the germ doesn't vanish is open
But when you specify to locally ringed spaces, the point is that if the germ isn't in the maximal ideal, then it's invertible
So the set of points where the global section doesn't vanish in the residue field is an open set
What's a scheme?
Didn’t you say here invertible tho
For any ringed space
Yeah, but in general you can just ask the germ to be in the group of units of the stalk over a point
A locally ringed space covered by Spec A for various A
Oh I see yes okay okay
Yes I see
A unit in the stalk doesn’t need local
But local tells you “zero at x” means those in m_x
Which is the same as invertible
That's right, yeah
And that’s now open
Okay right, swag
I convinced myself the local part of LRS was to say “nonzero at a point means invertible in a nbhd”
And that part does need locally, but that’s cuz you said nonzero, not invertible
Yeah
Swag
I think this is where my intuition for residue field is coming from
Chmag
Sort of
Oh I guess it's like the same thing for manifolds, residue field is R
Yah
and set of points where smooth function doesn't vanish is just preimage of R - {0}
epic
Z -> Q
Hmm, I've followed none of this
Is this the part that needs locality? I looked up the answer after posting mine, and mse has something that sounds vaguely similar to this
Yeah, you need locality for that part, I misspoke
Yeah no worries, I'm just attempting to decipher what the hell you guys were talking about
What exactly is locality?
A locally ringed space is a ringed space in which each of the stalks is a local ring, meaning it has a unique maximal ideal
For instance, Spec R is a locally ringed space since the stalk over a point p is the localization R_p, which is a local ring
That's all it means? What's that have to do with pretending you have fractions?
this lol
Do you see what the unique maximal ideal is?
Hmm, not yet lol
Just to make sure I'm not being an idiot, this ideal is proper yeah?
Oh maximal ideals are defined to be, sounds familiar
I'm guessing its just the prime ideal divided by other stuff yeah?
Yeah, you take the extension of the prime ideal in the localization
Let me prove that to myself real quick
Because I went from an example of the prime ideal being (2) in Z

i can clearly see at least one subgroup, the cyclic subgroup of rotations in d_6
but

how about D_m for m|n?
i was thinking d_3 was a subgroup of d_6
Is it?
ab = ba^-1, b^2 = a^6 = 1 iirc
geometrically, i can see it i guess?
I.e. the group whose generators are a flip and a spin
rigorously showing it, i wouldnt know though 
How about write explicitly and prove it?
What happens if you double your rotations?
then it would equal the single rotation in d_3
So use the homomorphism
ah
im trying to not use homomorphisms because this part of the book hasnt done it yet
Or is that a homomorphism, idfk
But try and translate your intuition
It's a very important skill to practice
because what im thinking
if i inscribe a triangle inside a hexagon, then two 60 degree rotations on the hexagon is one 120 degree rotation on the triangle
similarly, a flip on the triangle corresponds to a flip on the hexagon
but

Write down as letters
for $r \in D_6$, then $r^2 = r'$, where $r' \in D_3$?
blanket
Hmm, yeah, why is it maximal?
Any time
So here's a hint, if you have an ideal I in R which isn't contained in the prime ideal P, then it intersects the complement of P
Now consider what happens to an element in the intersection once you pass to the localization
Where did they pull that isomorphism at the bottom from lol
that would require that s-1 is in a for all s in S right
was there an algorithm for finding primitive roots?
No it would just require that s is invertible mod a
Nothing efficient
interesting
Still I don't think that's something we assumed here tho
a is maximal
yep
hmmmm
OK so generally this holds
firstly wouldn't a requirement just be that all the s' are conguent to 1 mod a?
I mean if they were included in the ideal then it would be trivial but nothing guarantees that
Not to 1 but to a unit.
I mean, one certainly exists (namely, just check every element) but as TTEG says, they're not easy to find by any means.
OK I mean still
Sorry, was eating. Oh yeah that makes sense thanks
When you say unique maximal ideal, does that mean it's the only maximal ideal?
If so, how would you show that no others exist?
Units are just 1 with extra steps
But not necessarily a unit in the ring by the way, just that s is invertible mod a.
I figured it out
I calculated that the localization of a field is the same field

(except at 0)
(unless the field is 0)

If m is maximal and disjoint from S you get that S'A/S'm\cong A/m (you can do it directly or using that isomorphism we were discussing the other day). Here b is S'a for a prime disjoint from S, so the iso holds.
I have the feeling you're saying the iso holds because it holds but I'm not sure
anyways I sorted it but thanks
wdym
You can use the maximality of m and its disjointness from S to directly show the natural map A/m -> S'A/S'm is an iso
Alternatively you can use the iso we discussed yesterday, since S'(A/m)=A/m.
is this a typo? should that be algebraic over C?
or can alpha be algebraic over Q
Yes, polynomials over Q have roots over C xd
How tf do u work with the commutator operation
I have no idea how to work with the premise $[G, G] \in Z(G)$
francis n
Trying to prove that that’s equivalent to a group G being nilpotent of level 1
A-->B-->C-->0 is exact
Hom(A,M) --> Hom(B,M) --> Hom(C,M) -->0 is not always exact
so now if A is injective
then would ker(Hom(C,M))/im(Hom(B,M)) = 0?
If N & H are normal in G. Is (NH)/H also normal in G?
I know NH is also normal in G, but don’t know how to proceed to NH/H is normal in G
im a little confused about getting a,b algebraic from a+bi being algebraic here

