#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 316 of 1
yeah, I guess I skipped a step there by using the transpose (AB)^T=B^T A^T
yeah and then that theorme
yeah so focus on what U^T U is
yeah
okay
an normal
oh
the diagonal is their magnitudes squared
the normal part matters at all for this though?
well orthonormal matrix
right, well I'm saying U^T U is the identity not just because they're orthogonal but because they're also normalized
I am a bit confused are orthogonal matrices always square
the identity matrix has 1s down the diagonal
because this says mxn
the vectors are orthogonal which makes zero
yeah it will give you an nxn identity matrix
so here, what you should realize is if the matrices A and B contain column vectors, then A^T B is the matrix of all their dot products
so if you look at every entry on the diagonal, you are dotting a column vector with itself to get 1
and everything off the diagonal are 0 because they're orthogonal
this is right? I am just picture cases of orthogonal matrices that are not square
the fact that it's not square doesn't matter here
you could fill it out with more vectors to make it a square matrix if you wanted
well sure but I just wanted to know if my definition of "orthogonal matrix" is wrong.
that definition is right
no but it has orthonormal columns
oh okay
err I guess there is a problem sorry
hi, so I learned a few days ago that $\mathbb{R}^n$ is the set of functions such that $f : [1, ..., n] \to \mathbb{R}$. So if we have $\mathbb{R}^{[0, 1]}$ it is the set of functions over domain [0, 1] that maps to $\mathbb{R}$. Let say we have $\mathbb{R}^2$ or even $\mathbb{R}^3$, what exactly does the the elements in the space really mean? Like for $\mathbb{R}^2$, what is the meaning of the vector $[0, 2]$ or $[1, 4]$ and the case of $\mathbb{R}^3$ what is the meaning of the vector $[1, 4, 2]$?
no there's not, I was thinking of something else
ModernNoob
okay I think I got it, thanks!
cool
from the $\mathbb{R}^{[0, 1]}$ example, i thought perhaps the elements in $\mathbb{R}^2$ such as $[0, 3]$ represents the domain of the set of functions that map to $\mathbb{R}$, but i feel like this is incorrect because i couldn't relate this when dealing with $\mathbb{R}^3$
ModernNoob
I never figured out this question if anyone could take a look ;_;
It’s not really a basis (since in R2 you can only have two linearly independent vectors at most), but you are right in saying that the range is R2
So using the standard basis should be fine
thanks! : )
@quartz compass sorry to ping but what is so important about an orthogonal matrix?
I mean I know what it means to be orthogonal but idk the specific chartersitics of an orthgonal matrix other than U^TU = I
feel like this should be easy
but I must be missing something
That identity should suffice to prove orthogonality of UV
Apply it to the matrix UV and think about how the transpose operation works with products
And then use orthogonality of U and V
okay I think I got it
https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/63143/question-about-a-normal-equation-proof machine learning perspective right here (on why orthogonality is important for the normal eq i.e. a determinate method to optimize cost where cost is a polynomial regression function) p.s. basically, at least, it's really important for an extremely common ML algorithm
wait I think the U^TU = I will only work if U is orthonormal
Hm wiki says an orthogonal matrix is the same as an orthonormal one (which is also what I learned)
I dont think matrices with just orthogonal columns are studied as much
okay
yeah an orthogonal matrix should have orthonormal columns
Ik it seems dumb but what makes it okay to say (UV)^-1(UV)=I
by this I mean what makes it okay to even assume the inverse exist?
Oh it is a fact that the product of two invertible matrices has an inverse, but in a sense you don’t really need that here
Here is what I did and I assume this is what they would want
True true
Hm that seems fine enough
I wrote on the side about
U^TU=I, U^T=U^-1....
since they were given to be orthongal matrices
but I should add the comment about the product of invertible matrices
Imo it’s slightly cleaner to do it from bottom to top, since all we need is to check whether (UV)^T (UV) is the identity
But it should work with your comments too
something wrong with EdX or am i missing something?
the answer to first problem is (-3, 6) but like how lmaoo
some chrome extension was messing up the rendering, realized it later on lol
lol
something's wrong
where should i start if I want to learn linear algebra
and what is the fastest and most efficient way of learning it
there's a list of recommendations in the pinned messages in #book-recommendations
im having trouble with algebra can somone help
if you ask a question, someone could help, but if you don't, no one can
orthogonal transformations preserve lengths and angles so |x| = |Ox| for an orthogonal matrix O, same with scalar products, <x,y> = <Ox,Oy>, that's maybe another interesting thing when talking about characteristics of orthogonal matrices 
makes them important for a lot of stuff in numerics, another nice thing is the way they act on unit spheres
brandon: see "real spectral theorem"
can you find a nonzero vector v such that T(v)=0 ?
No
The thing is I missed my class and I can’t catch up with knowing what invective and surjective is 😭😭😭
Only cuz my lectures aren’t recorded
and then you can think about what that implies for linear maps
could be a nice exercise after missing class
to get into it
I only got the part where injective is 1 to 1 and surjective is one to many
so how can you refute injectivity?
If the nullity of the transformation isn’t 0?
~Martin
think about why that is the case
and try to refute injectivity with that reasoning 
why this refutes injectivity i mean by that
I’m still not getting it
have you looked up the definition of injectivity
All I’m getting is “To test injectivity, one simply needs to see if the dimension of the kernel is 0. If it is nonzero, then the zero vector and at least one nonzero vector have outputs equal 0w implying that the linear transformation is not injective.”
i think you might have better luck with that in #groups-rings-fields
so do you understand what's written there
this only makes sense if you know the definition of injectivity 
can you find two elements $a,b\in\bC[x]/(x^2+1)$ such that $ab=0$? then this can't be a field.
Denascite
thats what im looking for as well as examples where a*b=1 does not hold but i cant seem to find any
oh wait
i think i got it
thx for the tip
Since x^2 + 1 splits over C, we can also use CRT to show this ring is isomorphic to C x C, which I find perhaps more insightful
yes but tbf, to show that CxC is not a field you also look for zero divisors
Yes, exactly
Or use the fact x^2 + 1 certainly isn't a prime element of C[x], many ways to do it
a polynomial of degree d in a field can have at most d roots, but z^2+1 has at least 4
The transformation is injective if only kernel is 0?
yes but why is that the case
why is a transformation whos kernel isn't only 0 not injective, that's what i tried to get out of you 
Yeah I am seeing that in the book. Today (yesterday) was rushed and my prof skipped around sections and we skipped stuff like orthogonal projections. Trying to piece together the bits of information he selected from the course because he felt they were important before the course ends
which made it hard to figure out how to get an orthogonal vector given my 2 basis vectors
which I needed for this diagonalization exercise
why would one skip orthogonal projections 
I guess because we have 2 days left in his class 
jesus
so it is at the point where he has cherry picked topics
orthogonal projections are neat
I have a problem where I'm given that T^10 = T^8 and that T is a linear transform from the unitary space V to V.
And I have to show that T is self adjoint.
Now I already figured out it's eigenvalues are 0,1 and - 1.
And if I look at the solution, out of that they immediately concluded it was a normal operator/matrix.
I get that if the eigenvalues of a normal matrix are real then it is hermitian.
But why does T need to be normal for it to have only eigenvalues 0 1 and - 1?
I would think that having real eigenvalues is not equivalent to being self afjoint?
I guess im trying to ask: if T is an endomorphism of a unitary space, then how does it having as eigenvalues 0 1 and - 1 imply it is self afjoint?
$T=\begin{bmatrix}0&1\0&0\end{bmatrix}$ satisfies $T^{10}=T^8$ but is not self-adjoint. You need more assumptions.
Troposphere
Thats what I thought as well but it was a question on an old exam
It was stated as:
Oh damn
Nvm
In the question it was already stated that T is normal
I just didn't notice and thought T was a random endomorphism 😩
Is this correct? Where that rotating thingy is the tensor operation
And the v's and w's are basis vectors
Yeah.
#swag
I can write a tensor product as a nXm matrix or as a n*mX1 vector.
Is this somehow analogous to superposition?
Can someone explain me this?
I don't suppose, that you know whether or not p(x) is a linear function?
Is it not a polynomial of degree at most 2?
Yeah it looks like the polynomials of degree 2
Oh my bad
Also note most of the answers have x^2
I don’t think it’s A
Which polynomials p have p(-x) = -p(x)
Have you tried writing P2 as a vector itself?
P2 is a vector space not a vector
One way to do it is to find the matrix representation of T and find the null space of that matrix
Hifi guys
Check if the polynomials in each option is even in the kernel
Wait I don’t even know the dimension
No, M could be any matrix
I’m so bad at this 😭😭
And I wouldn't worry about writing T as a matrix honestly. Just think about which polynomials have p(-x) = -p(x) and then you'll realise what the kernel is, from which it's easy to find a basis
Yeah it looks like it’d be easier to just do what potato says
Okay lemme try that
M could be upper or lower triangular
By its element in the diagonal coincide with its eigenvalues I take it as diagonal?
Ohhh
I meant more that the definition extends to all possible M in Mn(C)
D1 is just [a] right ?
Yea
Been trying to study linear algebra for awhile just so I can solve this problem
Today I try to see how far I can go with my current knowledge hahaha
So guys, what with the same multiplicities do ?
you got it ?
☠️
JohnL
I'm assuming this was meant to be done through guesswork, but I wanted to try this approach for fun, but I am not getting the right values. Is it supposed work?
there's some factoring you can do in the middle two equations
that could probably help
Yeah I just put it into a calculator but the values I got didn't match up with the answer sheet
wdym ?
I used wolfram to solve for the simultaneous equations but I got complex values
And the answer sheet had a simple matrix, I think 0, 1 / -1 0 if I remember correctly
the factoring I suggest could help you solve the system by hand though
if you factor the two middle equations, you get something like $$\begin{cases} a_{12}(a_{11}+a_{22}) = 0 \ a_{21}(a_{11}+a_{22}) = 0 \end{cases}$$
aPlatypus
you can split cases, looking at whether a_12 or (a_11 + a_22) is 0 (for the first eq)
@past barn
but if a_12 or a_21 is 0, you'd get that the square of a number is -1
so necessarily a_11+a_22=0
ah yeah that makes a lot of sense
you could probably continue from there
if you want all possible matrices of course
yeah i think i can manage, thank you for the help
if a vector v exists in the basis, it must be an odd polynomial. for polynomials of degree 2 or less, that leaves only {x}, so the answer should be D
also i just realized that this is from many hours ago my bad lol
Yeah my point was that this implies P2 is the space of all polynomials with degree at most 2
But in hindsight this is unclear from my statement
Is there another way to come to this conclusion besides finding this counterexample?
you could find another counterexample
^
lol
in general the way you show something false is to either prove its negation or find a counterexample
these are the same thing
not always
by finding a counterexample you are proving the negation of a "for all" statement
ig finding a counterexample is a subset of proving the negation
yep, that's what i wrote
i was agreeing with your agreement
Hmm
cheeky interaction
okay Im confused. How does the the residual vector fit into this
Like how do I compute the residual vector?
okay
wait
so I have this worked problem I did
You are saying i need to plug in my found B back into x
yes
you can view it as an additional column in a matrix with the coefficient 1
slap a 1 at the end of your B vector, and a new column to X
are you trying to just find the error term, or do you want to add it to your column to make a specific solution?
well I just don't really know if I even have the right equation
i didn't use the residual
it fits right there with bo and b1x
it's another polynomial term, e
y = bo + b1x + e describes any one point
okay
the bo + b1x is model described, and the e is what it couldn't fit
Oh
so if there is an e?
we can do that
I guess I am just confused when my equation I am modeling needs this e term as a correction factor or whatever
if the e is there it stands for the error. Some texts usually just show it so you know it's there, but you don't try to model it.
no, it's not correction, you don't put it there - it's calculated
not a lot of people add an error term to their model. you can.
well I am missing with the desmos and plotted my computed model and it seemed off
and idk if it has to do with the residuals
okay but I guess I mean what did desmos graph in green and why is it off of what i graphed
i just don't know if I made a mistake or desmos is doing something different
it looks like you graphed two things?
your x's are unlabeled
I don't use desmos, so I can't say for sure what's going on there.
I just plugged my b terms in
do you know a site I can test these regressions on
like that will compute them with a specific model and poitns?
points*
I dunno, but desmos can definitely do that
it's probably worth figuring out what's up
well that is what it was doing but idk if I screwed up 
that is how you setup the regression
Some regressions can be solved exactly. These are called "linear" regressions and include any regression that is linear in each of its unknown parameters
Models that are “nonlinear” in at least one...
This is what I used
thats tragic because the other one I computed seemed to give the same result as desmos
😦
I would trust desmos' computation as long as you understand the syntax
the y ~ syntax is correct for your purposes
I'd scrap the orange. Might be doing something weird, I dunno
Well it is just practice but the thing is inputtting a 8x3 matrix is annoying and I don't know how to easily do it with wolfram
wolfram
like creating variables
I think desmos is probably the right tool for you, unless you want to get into matlab / R
there's a bit of overhead there that might be more frustrating
oh I mean on the computation end
I have been plugging theses matrices into a matrix multiplication calculator and then replunging them in.
is there not a way to define variables in the wolfram thing and then do the computation from it
I dunno, but I would guess so. I'd also have thought desmos could do that.
I don't want to waste your time, but if you've got it to spare and you're in STEM stuff it'll save you time in the long run to just learn R or python as soon as possible.
well I know some python and I think I will be learning R for this EDA course I plan on taking in the fall
what libraries do people use in python?
just math plot lib or something?
or I guess that is a big vaue
vague*
for what you want, you'd write maybe five lines of code in R and a few more in python.
ah, starting out, you can get by really readily with just base R or base python + scipy
scipy.stats is an important library that basically contains a lot of basic functionality
makes python more like R. maybe also just start out with pandas.dataframe, also makes python more like r
if you're going to be taking a course in EDA later, r might be a better bet
it blasts python hard when it comes to ease of graphing
just have to pass my math stats course starting next week
. Seems like it will be interesting but never did stats behind the basic highschool/ap stats stuff (plug into calculator and no clue what is really going on)
r is also imo a little more beginner friendly. You won't wedge up against any object-oriented-tact-required moments
so you can just focus on whatever math you're supposed to be doing. I love it, I spent a lot of the last two years doing it professionally.
I'm a huge fan of r + ggplot for starting off with any dataset
good luck 2 u mann
thanks 
R is really nice because of the objects it provides too, its easy to manipulate matrices, vectors, and dataframes
yeah. And honestly Rstudio is an amazing IDE, you don't have to configure emacs or pycharm or w/e for it.
i think that is what my syllabus for that EDA course says we will use.
at least this is what I am interrupting from this
okay it does say it
shame my linear algebra class is over after today. Kinda rushed and somehow are doing this linear models stuff even though we skipped projections
so it has been very "algorithmic"
you might find PCA fun (principal component analysis)
he said he skipped projectionns
well the class did but I tried looking into it as much as I can within 1 day
I'm not a mathematician but I tend to think of it as basically a PCA thing, which you can just read about and grock conceptually. And then have R package do it for you!
pca is really cool though
Darn, PCA is one of the best ways u can integrate LA and stats
yeyp
its possible to self study projections though
I went to a seminar once on it, being in bioinformatics
well how much knowledge of projections do I need to know
it's cool. Very useful for weird dimensional spaces like expression along whatever metabolic pathway
not a lot at all, for pca
pretty much just the basics
I'm not sure what more advanced uses would be. I really think it's a domain-specific thing that you could pick up pretty easily, too. Conceptually projections are very intuitive, any physics you've had of decomposing things into x/y components will get you mostly there.
if you ever need to efficientlt represent something from higher dimensions but with a lower dimensional vector, it would come in handy
yeah I understood what it means but I will say some of the computation of just using y hat = (y dot u1)/(u1 dot u1) u1
and I get what it is saying somewhat but still need to look into it more
I know there is some relationship between the dot product and trig stuff
and I get the concept of it is like a "shadow" casting down
yeah you get it. For the details, https://www.stat.cmu.edu/~cshalizi/uADA/12/lectures/ch18.pdf
and using orthogonal projections allows you to get that y-y hat with the shorted distance
which has to do with minimizing .
key thing is just it finds vectors* to represent dimensions in R with which the dot products of the sample vectors of information are maximized
yeah. like if you could just say x axis is now x = sqrt( y ) and you're looking at hyperbolic data
it's cool for compression
in the best possible case, you get such a neat fit you can just leave a little note describing the axis and delete all the x data. So basically, a ton of data becomes x = sqrt(y)
and you get rid of every single x value in your data.
other cool stuff like the edge of a square, you can just say well principal component is dotproduct(x,y).
note though - don't think these simple cases are ever actually used, it's normally high-dimensional and noisy data.
Seems interesting
yeyp sorry to ramble. it's neat.
Well can you transform A into the identity
And B into the identity matrix of size nxn.
And elementary row operations are reversible
ohh oko thanks
so A can always be transformed into identity matrix?
if rank is n, that is
Well given it is full rank
ic
Yes. Since A is full rank and square, it is invertible. All invertible matrices can be reduced to the identity by elementary row operations.
Can I ask why row operations are a thing? How do they not change a determinant?
to answer the latter question, they will change the determinant, depending on the operation you do. elementary row operations come from left multiplying by elementary matrices, which have determinants c, -1, and 1, corresponding to the cases of multiplying a row by c, interchanging two rows, and adding a row to another, respectively
det(EA) = det(E)det(A) dictates how the determinant then changes
Ohh! I thought it didn’t change them! Like putting it into rref didn’t change rot for some reason
if that were true, then every invertible matrix would have determinant 1
since they can all be row reduced to the identity
Hi, do you know upper bounds on |AB^{-1}|_{op} for A, B symetric positive definite matrices ? (operator norm)
I know there exists upper bounds on |A^{1/2}B^{-1/2}|_{op}...
Guys, how do I prove that f is not surjective ?
Since it is endomorphisme I try to prove that it is not injective
$f^2=-id\newline (f^{-1} \circ f)\circ f = f^{-1}(-id)\newline f(x)=f^{-1}(-x)$
Potato
I play with it for awhile and get sth like this which doesn't look quite useful ?
did you crop something out here?

Some are French term
franglais at its finest
okay so to phrase this in less language-mixed terms
Let f ≠ 0 be an endomorphism of R^3 such that f^3 + f = 0. Show that f is not surjective.
hey is this where i go for geomertry?
ok thx
@grave garden for this i would think about eigenvalues
I see
∅ ≠ {eigenvalues of f} ⊆ {roots of X^3 + X}
This is some review exercise from past lesson before eigenvalues stuff, so I thought eigenvalue is not need here
sry to interrupt
$V=\mathbb{C}^n,f\in End(V)$
let $\mathbb{C}_f^n$ be a $\mathbb{C}[x]$-Modul
such that
$p.v=p(f)(v)$
i lack a bit of intuition how this works. for example what happens when i multiply 2 elements of this modul?
~Martin
how do i then show that another module is a submodule if i cant multiply?
you can multiply elements of your module by polynomials
why though?
the elements of my module are polynomials after all
no, the elements of your module are vectors in C^n
but it is a C[x] module
f is an operator on V. do you understand what the notation p(f) refers to?
is identity op the neutral operator or the null operator? we havent used this term since i study in german
ah ok the neutral i think
whats the german term?
einheits...something?
neutrales element
neutrales element, yes
yep
ye thats correct
in general groups its called neutrales element
what do you call the 1 in a ring?
eins 
neutrales element as well
Einheit is unit
or eins
i mean the operator e which satisfies ev = v for all v in V just to be clear
that's called the identity operator
the thing where im stuck is what should i do if i want to show that U is a sub module
generally i want to show that c.u is in U
anyway, p.v = p(f)(v) should be taken at face value really
the module as a whole is encoding the action of your f on the space
yes
so in this case it's enough to show that U is a subspace of V as a C-vectorspace and also that U is f-invariant
from this it'll follow that U is closed under module multiplication by any p
we have actually given that U is a sub vectorspace and that f(U) lies in U
so you have proved those two already?
i didnt have to they were given haha
oh
well then
if you know U is a C-subspace of V and that for all u in U, f(u) in U
then it should not be hard to show that for all u in U, any C-linear combination of f^k(u) where k in N is also in U
Guys, if a linear map is neither injective or surjective, is there sth we can say related to its diagonalization ?
So the second question here is asking to prove f is not diagonalizable
From one we know f is not injective and surjective
I'm having problems proving that an affine application of a vector subspace is an affine space. The question itself goes as such:
Let E be a vector space, not necessarly euclidean. Let φ : E → E be a linear application and F a vector subspace of E.
Let a ∈ E and Ta : E → E a translation associated with the vector a.
Consider the affine application λ: E → E defined by λ = Ta ○ φ.
Prove that λ(F) is a affine space.
My first idea was using the definition of a canonical affine space brought by the sum of a vector and a subset of a vector space E, which is just what λ does. Does anyone have a better idea on how I should prove this?
(If this is better suited to a help channel, please do tell me and I'll move over there)
how do you read this? is it "matrix a augmented b" or "augmented matrix of a and b?"
lmao okay ty
why is the answer B? arent only options A and D consistent?
Answer A spans $R^2$ because the third component is always 0 which basically means it spans a plane
ModernNoob
Answer D is incorrect because the third vector is linearly dependent on the first vector. Vector 3 = -2 (Vector 1)
I guess another way u can think about it is u write the basis in a matrix and find the determinant. You will see that the determinant will be 0 for A and D which means it’s degenerate and will not span R^3. (I’m pretty sure lmk if there’s something wrong)
Diagonalizability isn’t really related to injectivity/surjectivity
For example, the zero matrix is neither injective nor surjective, but it is diagonal
The identity is bijective and also diagonal
The criterion for bijectivity is whether or not 0 is an eigenvalue of the matrix
In my case what should I do ?
I dunno that matrix associates with it
On in this case f needs to be diagonal already
Think about what happens when you cube a diagonal matrix
U get back a diagonal right
They are cube too
x³+x
Hmmmm
We have a zero matrix associate with it ?
Yeah
Except remember it’s necessarily surjective
(From part a)
So can f be diagonal?
It need surjective ?
You said it isn't right
Well when we assumed that f is diagonal, we find that it must be the zero matrix
But remember that f is necessarily surjective
Is the zero matrix surjective?
Well what does it mean to be surjective
For all elements in its range we can find an element in the domain associates with it
Yeah and what’s the range of the zero matrix
Hold on, what do you mean by that ?
What's the mapping
Well it corresponds to the map that sends everything to 0
you should absolutely make sure you understand the correspondence between matrices and linear operators if you don't right now
Are we talking about f(0) ?
f(0) is always zero when f is a linear map, so it's not clear what you mean
Like this
I dunno what is the range/domain of it since i dunno what mapping we use for it
if A is an m by n matrix with entries in a field F, then it corresponds to the map F^n -> F^m given by matrix multiplication, x -> Ax
(and conversely, any linear map F^n -> F^m is given by such a matrix)
(choosing bases of more general vector spaces identifies your spaces with F^n and F^m and lets you do the same thing)
that is right
And it is surjective ?
I think yes
I think this one
Since all elements in the domain is mapping to 0, which is the only element in the range
It is surjective
this is not what surjectivity means. this is a trivially true statement
the range is by definition the set of things you get by mapping elements in the domain
you would like to replace "range" by "codomain" in this post
then you will have the correct definition of surjectivity
in this case, you're considering the zero matrix as a map F^n -> F^n (using the correspondence i wrote earlier), so the codomain is F^n
now that we've fixed your definition, is this surjective?
Still think it is surjective 
why?
it's not surjective, but if you think it is, some misconceptions need to be cleared up
Its codomain only has one element right ?
you are confusing "range" with "codomain"
Got it now
Back to the problem where is this come from ?
The condition that it is surjective
Oh does part a say it’s surjective or not surjective
n'est pas surjectif
Ahh so my bad
Not surjective
I think it’s simplest to go with the original question statement then
Where it says f must be non-null
This is my proof for that
en français 
Frenglish XD
(I’m assuming not nul means not null right)
f ≠0 I think
pas toi aussi
Good luck
luck
nitpick: why does such a real eigenvalue/eigenvector exist? once you've got this, this is a good proof
(one always does exist, i just think you should mention why)
added "real" so no one says "go to the complex numbers"
is it true that all transformations which take a vector in one dimension of size n and bring it to another dimension also of size n
are surjective?
i want to say its not true
no, see the above conversation. the zero map R^n -> R^n provides a counterexample
how come I see many books
proving surjectivity by providing such an argument
what you wrote
"transformations which take a vector in one dimension of size n and bring it to another dimension also of size n"
doesn't say anything about every vector being reachable by the transformation (which is what surjectivity means)
i don't understand how what you wrote constitutes an argument for anything, it basically just says "linear transformation from R^n to R^n"
I understand that surjectivity means that an element in the codomain can be assigned to some value in the domain
its just that sometimes I see arguments ( though I may be seeing them wrong ) somehow proving the surjectivity of a transformation
simply by implying that the the dimension of the image is equal to the dimension of the domain of T
I dont know, im probably just misunderstanding their proofs
or I have some deeper lack of knowledge on how they are proving it 🤷♀️
surjectivity is equivalent to the dimension of the image being equal to the dimension of the codomain of T, but in the special case you wrote that the domain and the codomain of T have the same dimension, what you wrote is good
the reason this works is the following: every n-dimensional subspace of R^n is equal to R^n
if you have a linear map T: R^m -> R^n (i am no longer restricting to the case n = m) and you can show that image(T) has dimension n, then you have image(T) = R^n, which is precisely what it means for T to be surjective. this is the argument you are probably seeing
oh I think I understand now
thanks so much, that was annoying me for the longest time

I'm trying to understand the implications of being able to write any solution to a system of equations as a linear combination of a vector in the kernel and the particular solution
is this equivalent to saying that any solution can be composed like a transformation to be centered at 0 across all dimensions* in the codomain + an additional transformation?
Since the mapping is R³ then its characteristics polynomial must be degree of 3 so at least one real root must exist
What do you think ? 
very good
So I have a question about the wronskian. I know it’s used to determine linear independence of functions?
Are wronskian ever nonsquare matrices? Like a 3x2 matrix?
Could someone shed some light on this for me please 🙏
Generally, the expression in 4 always hold true
But how do I prove it in this case ?
no, it isn't always true. if it were true in general, there'd be nothing to prove for your problem
by rank-nullity, dim(ker + im) = dim(ker) + dim(im) - dim(ker \cap im) = dim V - dim(ker cap im), so to show there's a direct sum you only need to show that ker cap im is {0}
ker(f) cap im(f) = ker(f restricted to im(f)), so it's the same thing as saying that f restricted to its image becomes injective (think of e.g. projections, a nice example for which this is true)
maybe these remarks will help you get started
Ohh nooo 
So dimV = dim(ker) + dim(im) is always true right ?
I thought that implies V = ker (+) im
no
not at all
V is the direct sum of subspaces W and W' if W + W' = V and W cap W' = {0}
the latter condition ensuring every element of V decomposes uniquely as a sum of elements from W and W'
I see

You saved me right there
Who know how many crimes I'm going to commit if not realizing that
the police will hunt you down
If f restricted to its image then it is bijective right ?
Ohh wait
I feel like it is surjective ?
after restricting the codomain as well, sure
You say it it injective after that right ?
Why is that
...
For some reason I can see it is surjective
this is the first fact everyone learns about linear maps
injectivity is equivalent to trivial kernel
Yes yes I know that one
so if the kernel of f restricted to its image is zero, f restricted to its image is injective
Ohhhhhh
f restricted to its image is a map im(f) -> V. it is injective. once you restrict the codomain, you get a map im(f) -> im(f). this is injective, and a linear operator, so it's also bijective (or more easily, restricting the codomain of a map to its image gives you something surjective trivially)
I was talking about the general mapping where if their codomain restricted to just their image then the function would become surjective

Btw is it true tho ?
i wanted to make sure you were aware of this
there is a difference between
f restricted to its image
and
f restricted to its image, with the codomain restricted to the image as well
the first would be injective in the case we are talking about, the second would be bijective because it is injective (first case) and surjective (we have restricted the codomain)
i should have been more specific, by "restricted to its image" i meant "restricting the domain to its image"
that is what i have meant all along
then you're not looking at a linear operator at all
yes
trace
So trace of linear map is a thing
of an endomorphism, yes
Ohh so it exists in an endomorphisme only right ?
Honestly I never heard of a trace of a linear map
So I'm being skeptical about it a bit
the trace of an endomorphism V -> V of a finite-dimensional vector space is defined by picking a basis of V and taking the trace (i.e. sum of diagonals) of the matrix representation. there may also be a more high-brow definition related to the fact that the trace is the sum of the eigenvalues, but i don't know off the top of my head
matrix representations to two bases are related by conjugation by the change of basis matrix, and trace is invariant under conjugation, so the result is independent of the choice of basis (i.e. you get a well-defined trace)
hello if i have a sesquilinear form over a linear space V, does the scalar multiplication still work normally as in: (k*a,0) = k(a,0) resp. (0, a*k) = (0,a)*k?
if your form is sesquilinear then it must conjugate the scalar when pulled out of one of the components
which one that is is up to your conventions
although what you wrote is technically still true, since putting 0 into one of the components will make both sides vanish
Ok true, but if i the only information i have that its over a linear space V can i assume that real numbers is whats its mapping to?
so the conjugation would still be 1 right?
if V is a real vector space, sure
Ah ok
not all vector spaces are over R. C^n's dot product (z, w) -> \sum z_i \bar{w_i} is sesquilinear
you must conjugate the (complex) scalars when you pull them out of the second component
Ok i see
so proving that (a,0) = (0,a) = 0 can be done by
(a, a+(-a)) = (a, a) + (a,-a) = (a, a) - (a,a) =
(a+(-a), a) = (a, a) + (-a, a) = - (a, a) + (a,a) =
= 0 only if the vector space is real
where did you use the fact that the vector space is real (it doesn't have to be) in this argument?
the complex conjugate of -1 is -1
yep
okayy, thank you
。
So TTerra, i was able to prove that (f², f) spam Im(f)
( is it correct tho ? )
But cannot prove that it is linear independent
Do you have sth to feed me ?

Gonna send it once more 
Now I'm at the last question
So in my case tr(f)=0?
We dun take the complex root right
Which topics do I have to master before I start learning Linear Algebra?
I also want to clarification on what the author meant by "The matrix of T relative to the pair B, B'"
do they mean a matrix which takes input B as coordinates and applies to T then converts to B'
or the opposite
its pretty ambiguous imo
this is correct. you can see it by writing f in the basis (f(x), f(f(x))); the diagonal entries will be zero, so the trace will be zero.
i have not yet looked at the rest of your questions
I'm pretty sure you can start it right away
if you are just learning about matrices and systems of equations, nothing except for elementary algebra.
if you are learning about vector spaces and linear maps in general, then you should be familiar with the basics of proof writing
i say should for you can pick it up as you go, if you are strong enough
i would argue you could learn about linear maps before proof writing
just learning their computations
you could, but probably not very deeply
linear algebra is rather light on theoretical details, which is good, but you can only get so far into the subject without knowing how to read or write a proof
You can learn everything in an engineer way ( no rigorous proof, no asking why, just number and how to use it )
the depressing way
.-.
Thank y'all
the columns of the matrix will be the coordinate vectors (relative to B') of the images of the elements of B
oh ok ty
#linear-algebra message
see my post here (for the definition for linear operators, at least. you can figure out how to generalize)
i guess the proof is pretty straightforward from there
So regarding proof writing, how can I make sure that I could write a proof coherently?
For sure, if I'm not gonna write proofs in this topic I'll need to do so in other topics regardless of the fact that proof writing is genuinely important tho
write proofs and have people who know how to write proofs criticize them
Fair enough
simple things, like basic induction, contrapositive, contradiction, and all that. at least be familiar with these
Oh I have to check these for sure, I've just graduated from high school and the curriculum didn't involve anything more advanced than basic set theory which I learned back in the 9th grade. Either way, thank you very much!
some people shun "proof books" that teach skills such as these, but they are really good for making sure you know them
i read "how to prove it" by velleman after graduating highschool before university and really benefitted from it
at the very least peek through something like that and make sure you're familiar with most of the content
Oh interesting, I shall look for it up. I had printed a book regarding proofs as well called "proofs" by jay Cummings before my finals, I shall give it a try
who are those people 
daminark
people who think you should suffer in your first proof based math class
etc.
Can dot product of two non-unit vectors, not normalised and the angle between them is acute, be greater than 1?
yea
(2, 0) dot (2, 0) = 4 is greater than 1, and both of these fit your crtieria

the angle is 0, surely that counts as acute?
Yes
Lol
How would I go about correcting a vector of acceleration values from a tilted accelerometer using the vector of a gyroscope which gives the offset from uh "ground"?
@wintry steppe Hellooooo
Sorry for pinging
So hmmm I think for quite awhile and arrive at this
Assuming there exists two element $x_1, x_2$ such that $f(x_1)=f(x_2)=a$ and $x_1 \neq x_2$. Then there could exist two elements $y_1, y_2$ such that $f(y_1)=x_1$ and $f(y_2)=x_2$. So the mapping f restricted to its image is not guarantee to always be an injective
Potato
What do you think ?
sure, i guess
you're just restated the definition
(for linear maps, it's really better to think about injectivity in terms of elements going to zero. you will save a lot of writing)
i already asked this yesterday and i think i semi understood it, but i need help with writing this down:
this is some very strange formatting
did you figure this out btw?
oh lol
didn't see you asked about it again
why does it remain to show that U is f-invariant? give the details
you're avoiding writing down a precise argument which makes me think you don't actually have one
well you are partially right
so you already know U is closed under addition, since it's a subspace of V
you now need to show that it's closed under the action of C[x] on V
fuck i keep hitting enter too early
so for p(x) in C[x] and v in U, you need to argue that p(x) . v = p(f)(v) is in U. why is this?
So hmmm now what should I do for that then ?
yes, it's because U is f-invariant. but in detail please
p.v=p(f)(v)
f(v) is in U
i have to show that p(f)(v) is in U
i would say that p(f) is a linear combination of f to some degrees
since f(u) is in U for every u
f^n(u) should also be in U
and a linear combination of element in U should also be in U
sounds about right
great ^^

i would just write out "p(f) is a linear combination of f to some degrees" in symbols, though
then go "each summand (scalar)*f^n(v) is in U because v is in the f-invariant U, so the whole thing is"
this completes the proof
stop worrying about interpreting the definitions of things and just try to prove what you want for your original question (the f^3 + f = 0 one)
i gave you a few ways to do so in that long post involving rank-nullity and stuff
i'm going to sleep, so i'm not going to respond if you ping me again
good night
it is 9 am for me

quite far from night time
that's an interesting sleep schedule
i need to get on a plane very early in the morning tomorrow
might as well ruin it now and not feel like crap during the ride
fair enough 
Suppose $dim V \geq 2$. Show that the set of normal operators on $V$ is not a subspace of $\mathcal{L}(V)$
الله أكبر
CAn anyone give a hint🥺
ik that i should show its not closed under addition but idk how
what does L(V) mean (asking because I have never seen that before)
The set of all linear maps from V to V.
I never even seen "normal operators" either
I must be missing out
@snow flint what book are you using in your course?
Yep this helped i think I was mostly just struggling a bit to understand all the definitions but now I got it, thank you
is that supposed to be ij?
Yeah it should be "Let I_jj..."
linear algebra done right
normal operator are operators that commute with their adjoint
what’s an intuitive reason for why trace(AB) = trace(BA)
classmate asked this question: what's the point of looking at congruent matrices when these arent symmetric?
is there any use to it?
there's a much more general fact about the characteristic polynomial of BA in terms of AB
i wouldnt call it intuitive though (at least i dont find it particularly intuitive)
i mean there's a more or less natural proof method to showing it but i dont find the result particularly intuitive
that fact is not at all intuitive
depends on your level of intuition of course
but when i first checked this fact my intuition drew me sideways
this depends on your level of intuition on the trace of a linear transformation
that's what im sayin xD
why is the trace well defined for a linear transformation?
thats a good question to start with
like somehow the sum of the diagonal entries of a matrix is independent to choice of basis
how come the diagonal sum has this property, rather than say the off diagonal?
or summing the entries of the top and bottom rows
or the outer square entries of a matrix
none of those sums are stable under change of basis
no elements of diag(AB) are the same for (BA) given that A!=B
so yeah
unstable sums
all around
also given that B!=A^-1 i guess
but yeah very unintuitive
the intuition is that the trace is some kind of generalized dimension counter for a linear transformation
as dimension counter for a linear transformation is very intuitive xD
the same way that the dot product calculates some kind of generalized perpindiculatiry
yeah for a projection map U the trace of U is the dimension of the image
and for non projections there is some additional factor, the way for non unit vectors there is a factor in the dot product not corresponding to the angle
and finally why the dimension is related to the diagonal entries has to do with the dual space, since these components are unchanged by taking the transpose and the dual space has the same dimension as the origional v space
lmao very simple algebraic proof extremely subtle geometric intuition
linear algebra for ya
i hate linear algebra
so yeah @velvet moss
a couple of approaches to your problem above
my question is that is there ANY way to find the permutation matrix in PA=LU decomposition without going through GEPP
my guess is no but it would save a shid ton of time if there is
Let $R=K^{n\times n}$ be the Ring of $n\times n$ Matrices over a field $K\newline$
interpret $R$ as a (Left)module over itself$\newline$
~Martin
I am looking for a decomposition of this module into a direct sum of indecomposable sub modules
I found this in my script:
R is a euklidian ring and M a free R-module
then there are indecomposable elements $f_1,\dots ,f_s \in R$ and $t,n_1,\dots ,n_s \geq 0$
such that
$M \cong R^t \oplus R/(f_1^{n_1})\oplus\dots\oplus R/(f_s^{n_s})$
~Martin
lol sorry guys, I didn’t realize the “intuition” for that fact about the trace would be so esoteric
a surface level intuition is that the trace is multiplying the left side of the matrix with its own right side, so AB and BA both look the same when "wrapped around" making tr(AB)=tr(BA)
Why do we have that matrices over a field are nilpotent if and only if its characteristic polynomial is x^n?
which direction are you interested in?
charpoly x^n => nilpotent, or nilpotent => charpoly x^n?
if both, which one would you like explained first?
@idle atlas
charpoly x^n => nilpotent is obvious by cayley hamilton
for the other direction, note that a nilpotent matrix cannot have eigenvalues other than 0: the presence of such an eigenvalue would mean that its eigenvector would never be annihilated by any power of your matrix
Yes
then?
so all eigenvalues of our matrix are 0
If the field is C I get why polychar = x^n but what if it is not the case, for instance for R?
you can pass to the complexification of your vector space i think
The what?
nevermind
well ok like. the complexification of a real vector space V is a complex vector space in which the vectors are formal sums of the form v + iw where v, w in V
with multiplication by complex numbers defined in the obvious way
but. hm.
i actually can't think of an argument off the top of my head why nilpotent implies charpoly x^n in a non alg closed field
Ok np, thank you for your help anyway! @dusky epoch
you would use generalized eigenvectors i believe
wait hmmm
passing to the algebraic closure might work
that's what i tried to do but then faltered @wintry steppe 
if you're nilpotent in an algebraically closed field, then the entire space is the generalized eigenspace corresponding to 0, so jordan form gives you the charpoly you want
(this reasoning might be circular since existence of jordan form uses some facts about nilpotents, but let's ignore that)
so does passing to the algebraic closure preserve what we want here? hmmmm
how do the characteristic polynomials of the operator and of the operator extended to the algebraic closure relate?
i am in a super long airport line so i have some time to think on this
i want to say they are the same. i think that is true
the determinant det(T - tI) should not be changed so long as t lies in the base field, other than now giving a splitting polynomial once we pass to the algebraic closure
so i think this argument works
if i have made any blunders then let's blame it on my lack of sleep
maybe you can use some arguments about generalized eigenspaces to just cut out the whole "passing to the algebraic closure" bs
i have overcomplicated it. if T is nilpotent, its minimal polynomial divides x^k for some k, so is of the form x^l for some l. but the minimal and characteristic polynomials have the same irreducible factors (i think. same roots at the very least), so the characteristic polynomial is x^dim V
@dusky epoch @idle atlas
this is the shortest and simplest i can come up with, that doesn't use anything about algebraic closure
the interrogation by airport security has got my mathematical juices flowing
@wintry steppe The answer I got in #groups-rings-fields is the following:
Nilpotent implies that the matrix satisfies x^m = 0 for some m, so its minimal polynomial divides this so must itself be of the form x^k.
All factors of the characteristic polynomial appear in the minimal polynomial by working in the splitting field of the characteristic polynomial and using https://math.stackexchange.com/a/101284
Then use the fact that x is the only irreducible divisor of the characteristic polynomial, because it is the only irreducible divisor of the minimal polynomial
Approximately
how do we know minpoly and charpoly share same irreducible factors over a non closed field
@wintry steppe
great question. i don't know off the top of my head 

i have always taken this as fact
my la class assumed most fields were closed anyways

i think that it remains true anyways
R is totally closed bro i promise

assumed most fields were closed (for jcf and min poly purposes)
R is closed though
(in its topology)
yeah, that's pretty much my argument. didn't realize you'd posted in #groups-rings-fields, so sorry for the ping
some googling convinces me it works, ann

For finite and infinite dimensions, are the eigenvectors of a self adjoint operator the same as for it‘s operator exponential?
@dusky epoch there’d a few nice proofs here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/825848/showing-that-minimal-polynomial-has-the-same-irreducible-factors-as-characterist
is this true? Im trying to take an alternate route to an exercise problem and it would really work out well for me if this was true. Let $A$ be an $\mathbb{C}^{n\times n}$ matrix and $\lambda$ be the minimal eigenvalue of $A^TA$. Then $\sqrt{\lambda}\leq \operatorname{det}(A)^{\frac{1}{n}}$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
The matrix system feels like a video game
why do we need to find the interpolating polynomial if the function is well defined
the answer is x^4, no?
i mean it's literally through this function how the knots and values are defined
usually we find the polynomial for ill-defined functions, distinct (x_i, y_i) pairs for i = {0, 1, 2, ... n}
no
a polynomial interpolation through four nodes will give us a polynomial whose degree is at most 3.
but why do we even need that
also, imo there is value in seeing what a polynomial interpolation procedure gives you when the points to be interpolated come from a known function.
if the function f already describes the relation
that way, you know whether your interpolation scheme works as intended.
know what
know that it works as intended
how does a given well defined function contribute to taht
ok let's try going back to the basics
an interpolation method is an algorithm that takes in a bunch of points and outputs a function that passes through those points
how it accomplishes this is entirely beside the point
yessir
...don't call me sir.
but ok.
presumably, in whichever use case the interpolation method is intended for, its input points won't come from a formula-defined function.
it's a phrase i know you're non binary and i respect that
yeah and i don't like being told "yessir" because it always sounds like people call me "sir" and i don't like that
but anyway
ok sure, got it
in whichever use case the interpolation method is intended for, its input points won't come from a formula-defined function.
but we can TEST it on those that do.
and for a certain class of "nice" functions, we should have that taking a function, sampling it and then interpolating the samples should give us back what we started with
in the case of polynomial interpolation on n nodes, the "nice functions" are polynomials of degree n-1 or lower.
sorry what do you mean by "sampling"
im from Poland and we might use a different terminology
sampling as in taking some points from the function's graph
as was done in your problem
the x_i and y_i.
reading and trying to compile now
so you're saying that the way a given function contributes to our ability to check the result, is the single fact that deg(p(x)) <= deg(f(x))
hnbnffng.d/
sorry?
i don't know how to answer your question.
ok np
If you identify a triangle as a 6-tuple in R^6, the dimension of the subspace of only congruent triangles is 3
I don't understand why
Is it because we need three pieces of information to identify a unique triangle?
and so the remaining 6-3 are being used to differentiate them
but then by what characteristics are the remaining pieces of information differentiating the congruent triangles by
?
i have no idea what a triangle in r^6 even looks like sry
no its just
each point is 2 numbers
identifying it
and then you just stick them together
I think he means a triangle in the plane, with the coordinates of all the vertices jammed into a length-6 vector.
yes this ^^
But a class of congruent triangles won't make a subspace of that.





