#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 217 of 1
@teal grotto Awesome. You've increased my confidence quite a bit. Thanks a ton!
does anyone know why x_1 is 1?
it’s a free variable. you can pick whatever number you want, 1 is a standard choice
yw. nice job!
eigenvectors are nontrivial right>
?
thank yu
yes, you can pick any number other than 0
awesome
One more quick question: I have two linear operators, U and T.
If UT is invertible, then I have to show that U and T are invertible
Since UT is invertible, N(UT) = {0}, so x = 0 if UT = 0.
T(0) = 0, so since 0 is the only value which makes UT = 0, N(T) = 0 and similarly only 0 makes U(0) = 0 so N(U) = 0,
so by the dimension theorem and definition of invertibility, U and T are invertible.
Does this make sense to anyone? I'm not so sure my arguments for N(U) and N(T) are very convincing. I feel like I'm just restating the problem.
@woven haven have you worked with determinants yet? your argument works but we always have det(UT) = det(U)det(T) and lin. transformations are invertible iff they have non-zero determinant.
The sketch of your argument works for showing that T is invertible
since if T has a nontrivial null space, then those also work for UT = 0
but since T is invertible, it's surjective and then you can say that U must be invertible
@teal grotto have not worked with determinants yet, unfortunately
it’s ok. it’s just if you had that available to use, then it’s only a slightly shorter argument. otherwise yours is fine
@wintry sphinx I think I understand what you're saying: I'm not accounting for if there are other vectors such that T(x) = 0, so I say that T is one to one to confirm that 0 uniquely maps to 0, so therefore only 0 maps to 0 by U.
oh if you have a question just ask. wasn’t sure what you meant lol
oh i was asking if the channel was free now since I saw there was conversation going earllier
ill just ask then
im doing gram schmidt and I feel like I made a mistake somewhere but not sure where...
so where did I make a mistake?
meguuuuu
lmao nvm I am dumb I found my mistake
hi
$\int_{-\ln(2)}^{\ln(2)} 1 ,dx = 2\ln(2)$ which is what I needed lol
meguuuuu
eh i dont think you can ask tests here
no i am busy
no

what's a grade
F+
Lets say I have a finite dimension vector space $V$ over some field $F$ and a linear function $T:V\to V$. Suppose that $T$ is nilpotent and $m_0$ is the smallest integer $m$ such that $T^{m}=\vartheta$, where $\vartheta$ is the zero transformation.
Is it true that we always have $\dim\ker(T^i)<\dim\ker(T^{i+1})$ for any $1\leq i\leq m_0$, with strict inequality?
I want to say yes, but I can't quite see it through. It is clear that $\ker(T^i)\subseteq\ker(T^{i+1})$, but if we have equality, does that mess something up?
coycoy
if ker T^k = ker T^{k+1} for some k then ker T^k = ker T^{k+l} for all l >= 0. so if you didn't have that strict inequality for some i, then you'd get a contradiction to minimality
(so yes, if we have equality, something is messed up)
do you mind explaining how that equality holds?
that is what i was thinking should happen, i just cant explain why
it's enough to show that if ker T^k = ker T^{k+1} then ker T^{k+1} = ker T^{k+2}. the forward inclusion is obvious. for the reverse, if T^{k+2}v = 0, then Tv is in ker T^{k+1} = ker T^k, hence T^{k+1}v = 0
(basically im just proving the thing i claimed for l = 2 and saying the rest follows by induction or some shit)
awesome, thanks
yea there would be a similar statement for images. im actually trying to show that if T is a nilpotent then there is a basis of V so that the matrix of T with respect to that basis is strictly upper triangular.
i think the basis should consist of the basis of ker(T), then extend it to a basis of ker(T^2), then ker(T^3)... and so on until you have a basis of V. that should work
yes, iirc that's how that proof works
is there any way to make that basis extension more precise, instead of just saying, extend until you get a basis of V? like some decomposition of V or something?
alr, ill check there if i need to
axler really isn't any more precise lol
thats almost verbatim what i had written : ( its so unsatisfying
i was thinking about trying to decompose V as (x, T(x), T^2(x),..., T^m-1(x)) where x is some vector not in the kernel of T^m-1, where m is the index of T, but idk if that makes anything any cleaner or more precise
but what is m
m has to be the dimension of V, but also it's possible T^m = 0 for some m << dim V
if the idea is there and it's clear how to translate it into mathematical symbols then it's fine 
this is the kind of thing where it's not really worth anyone's time trying to write out the full argument formally and rigorously just like many proofs in LA that amount to "this matrix has this form"
unless you really want to practice induction i guess
yea, both of you guys are right. and i dont really feel like practicing induction
as a linear combination of vectors that span the subspace the vector is in, yeah
Do you mean for any v and u in the base ij, w=ui+vj?
i'm having a difficult time understanding these concepts
i and j hat
i'm asking cuz it kinda sounded like all of u,v,i, and j are vectors, and then what you wrote doesn't make much sense
right, so the canonical basis vectors
yes
well my original questions was if all vectors can be expressed as a linear combination
the answer is yes
i see
i got confused by this in the beginning
thanks
here
did you mean v and u are spanned by the set of vectors {i,j}?
sorry didn't notice it
and still, this w = iu + jv doesn't make sense
that's not a linear combination
if u and v are spanned by i and j, then u = ai + bj, for some scalars a and b
ohh ok i understand now
so for any vector u, we can say that u=ai+bj
that is if u is spanned by i and j
right?
yes
If I have a polynomial $P(x) = 2x^3 + x^2 + 5x + 10$ and I want to evaluate it at a point z , ie P(z).
This is the same as doing the inner product of $(10, 5,1,2)$ with $(1,z, z^2, z^3)$
Is there an inner product formula like the above, if P(x) is not given in monomial basis, but instead we have the evaluation points on some domain?
Kev
did the part about the inner product make sense?
yes
What if it is in lagrange basis?
In my head, I was thinking that given a domain [0,1,2,3,4] we describe P(x) withe following points:
K = (P(0), P(1), P(2), P(3), P(4))
Then maybe there is a vector such that when I do the inner product with K, I get P(z)
oh did you find something?
i think the vector would just consist of your lagrange polynomials evaluated at z
maybe that's a little circular, idk
That makes sense, since \sum f_i * L_i(z) = f(z)
Thank you @dusky epoch
-x + 2y - z = 0
why would the answer to this be a plane?
It's essentially saying (-1, 2, -1) \cdot (x, y, z) = 0
Which is the set of all vectors perpendicular to the vector (-1, 2, -1), starting at the origin.
cdot?
oh wait nevermind I understand why it's a plane
first time working with 3 dimensions
dot product
cause it's the equation of a plane..?
I was asking why it's an equation of a plane 
$n\cdot x=n\cdot p$ for normal n, point on the plane p, and variables x
Mosh
$\implies n\cdot (x-p)=0$
Mosh
ie all vectors perpendicular to the normal (loosely speaking)
is this what you call complemented subspaces?
you would say F and G are complementary in E, yes
ok
so i'm trying to prove that F and G are complementary
i've proved that their intersection is equal to {0}
but i i'm stuck on the sum
try adding and subtracting something from f
im imagining the constant has something to do with the integral of f
it seems so but i've run out of ideas
can you subtract a constant from f to make it have a zero integral?
wait
if you can come up with a unique expression to express elements from F+G then you can say that F & G are complemented C([-1,1],C)?
that also works
I'm trying to understand the construction of the tensor product of vector spaces. So it's the free vector space $F(V\times W)$ on the formal products $v_i\otimes w_j$ quotiented by the bilinearity relation.
modus ponens
So is the free vector space $F(V\times W)$ just the vector space that is generated by using the formal products as a basis?
modus ponens
~~you should ask this in #groups-rings-fields ~~
nobody will tell you to go to #linear-algebra if it's a question about tensor products and you're more likely to get a good answer there
$\sqrt\frac{a+3x}{2x+b}=\frac{1}{3}$
Critikoji
Make x the subject of the formula
$\sqrt\frac{a+3x}{2x+b}=\frac{1}{3}$
Critikoji
what does that mean
this is not #linear-algebra content; see pins.
try #prealg-and-algebra , #precalculus , or a #questions-_ channel
"solve for x"
Given a 4-dimensional vector (4 entries), it lives in R4.
Is R4 a vector space?
If yes, are R1, R2, R3, etc. all vector spaces?
yes they are all vector spaces over R
Okay, thanks 👍
For column spaces, null spaces, and bases (whatever the plural of basis is), is the following correct?
Column space
- It's a span of a set of vectors
- Also a structure
- Also a subspace
Null space
- It's a set of vectors
- Also a subspace
Basis
- It's a set of vectors
- the span of a basis is a structure
what do you mean by "a structure"
it's worth noting that null spaces are also spans of sets of vectors. (one shitty way is that the null space is the span of the set of all of the vectors it contains - which is true for any vector space)
so you probably want to say specifically that the column space is the span of the columns and not just some set of vectors
A structure, like a line, plane, hyperplane, etc.
Good point
I am quite sure I understand how to find these things for a given matrix A, but I just had a question about what each of these spaces actually were
"subspace" subsumes "structure" every subspace is also a structure, then, so you don't really have to mention that these things are also structures i guess (just write "subspace" for conciseness)
everything you've said is correct
what does subsume mean?
wait i used that word wrong
i meant to say something like "any subspace is also a structure"
X subsumes Y means that Y is part of X (as an english word, not a mathematical thing)
edited my original message
👍
Thank you
❤️
Can someone please explain what eigenvectors are and what they are most useful for?
the main application you'll see in a linear algebra class is diagonalization
they're vectors whose image under a linear map is a scaling of themselves
Is it more efficient to change the basis to the eigenvectors?
what do you mean by more efficient? like a computational thing or just in principle?
Computationally, computing powers of a diagonalized matrix is way easier than computing powers of a random old matrix
when i said computational i meant like, implementing linear-algebraic stuff in coding (applied math)
i know nothing about that
in principle, yes, bases of eigenvectors will simplify calculations a ton (although we can't always find them
)
imagine not being diagonalizable 
Just apply physics
Wdym?
Apparently in physics you assumes everything is diagonalizable because you can just nudge one entry by 0.000000...001 and nondiagonalizable matrices become diagonalizable. I don't know much physics so I can't verify this though.
what
Hi guys is this invertible
When I reduce in my calc
It gives this so I wasn’t sure if this is invertible or not
well clearly columns of A form linearly independent set
what can we tell from this?
So it is invertible then?
It’s invertible bc of the linearly independent columns and not bc of the pivot position in every row?
To my knowledge: If it can be reduced to the identity matrix by elementary row operations, each of which can be represented as a matrix and performed by matrix multiplication, then if a finite number of them can have you arrive at the identity matrix then the product of all the elementary row operations matrices will be a matrix such that when it's multiplied by the original to give the identity matrix and hence that is is the originals inverse, meaning the inverse exists.
Ah ok
But is it invertible bc of the pivot positions or bc of the linearly dependent columns
...??
there are whole lot of things you can check to determine if matrix is invertible. This is called Invertible Matrix Theorem
In your 5x5 matrix, clearly you have pivots on every column, hence rank(A) = 5. This implies that columns of matrix form linearly independent set
you can refer to this https://mathworld.wolfram.com/InvertibleMatrixTheorem.html @wintry steppe
thank u 🙂
what's the meaning of root in between 2 distances?
what are they implying here?
? could u provide some more context
that's false position method honestly
i'm confused by the meaning that root lies in between 2 points
like x 1 and x 2
it means you want f(x) = 0, and you know f(a) < 0, f(b) > 0, and a < b
so a < x < b
also, i guess it's a bit late now, but this is a better fit for calculus or applied computational math
yeah i got this but my main doubt is what's the meaning of root they're meaning here?
it means f(x) = 0
so f(x) is the root?
yeah wikipedia doesn't embed nicely here
now i'm understanding the math problem
if nothing is said about the rank of A, then i would way the first one is true
@dire thunder what strikes you as vague? maybe i missed something
well i mean yes without any specified only first matches
hint: think about the n by n matrix with all entries 0
yeah, that's the easiest case of a rank deficient mat
f:R^3 -> R^3; suppose two vectors v,w in R^3 exist, so that f^-1{v} inter f^-1{w} isn't empty, can i say that v=w?
my reasoning was: ...then, there exists x in f^-1{w} who's also in f^-1{v}, thus f(x) is v and w, therefore v=w
okay so ker(f) cant be 0 since it isnt injective?
more generally, for sets $S$ and $T$, $f^{-1}(S \cap T) = f^{-1}(S) \cap f^{-1}(T)$
Namington
but then ker(f)=0 right?
right
thanks
An equivalence relation ~ on X is the equivalence kernel of its surjective projection π : X → X/~. Conversely, any surjection between sets determines a partition on its domain, the set of preimages of singletons in the codomain. Thus an equivalence relation over X, a partition of X, and a projection whose domain is X, are three equivalent ways of specifying the same thing.
if youre familiar with what those words mean, this is an alternate way to think of it
im studying in a french system so its kinda hard to understand in properly but i think i got the gist of it
i actually have a problem with ur reasoning, can we imagine that v=w=0, then f^-1v and f^-1w are in Ker f, then ker f=/0?
then its not injective
.
if v = w = 0, then f^-1(v) and f^-1(w) must necessarily be 0 as well [since ker(f) = 0]
for an invertible map f
perhaps you mean to talk about preimages rather than inverses?
im really not sure what your confusion is
oh okay then a priori we dont know its injective
but unless im missing something, we have no reason to believe it isnt injective either
if v = w = 0 then f^-1(v) and f^-1(w) both CONTAIN 0, at least
they might contain other vectors (iff f isn't injective)
but they'll AT LEAST contain 0
since f(0) = 0 for ANY linear map f.
[if f isn't necessarily linear here, then the ker(f) = 0 iff injective thing doesn't hold, so im assuming f is linear.]
f is linear
anyway, if f^-1(v) and f^-1(w) have nonempty intersection, then yes, v = w
so if 0 is in f^-1(v)
we can conclude that v = 0
and if f^-1(v) = {0}, then f is injective as well.
but does that mean that f^-1v=f^-1w , or is it possible that multiple vectors are sent to v and w with f?
because i dont see how ker can be 0
if f^-1(v) and f^-1(w) have nonempty intersection, then f^-1(v) = f^-1(w).
because lets say f(a)=0, then f(2a) =0, so Kerf=ka
if f(a) = 0 and your map is injective then a = 0
and therefore 2a = a
so nothing is violated
the thing is that this is a multiple answer question with only 1 good answer, and 1 is f^-1v=f^-1w or kerf=0
so its either injective or the preimages of v and w are equal, but f isnt injective
could you post the question?
its in french but yes
i can read mathematical french
good books in linear algebra?
#book-recommendations I guess
but $f^{-1}{v} = f^{-1}{w}$ is certainly true, since there exists an $a$ such that $f(a) = v = w$.
Namington
but can it be that there also exists a b so that f(b)=v=w?
but then we don't know that a=b
i dont care whether a = b or not
its possible a = b, its possible a ≠ b
thats irrelevant
what matters is that we showed v = w
and therefore they have the same preimages
since theyre literally the same thing
ah right, i was looking at f^-1 as a specific vector and not multiple vectors
if f is injective then certainly we'll have a = b
if f isn't injective, then we might instead have a ≠ b
both are possibilities
(which is why the third bullet point is wrong)
but in either case, we know f(a) = v = w and so v = w
and so they have the same preimages.
what would be the best approach if you had a question asking you to prove that some polynomials forms a basis of the vector space $\mathbb{K}_n$
Vi
is the vector space a polynomial space?
(never seen K_n represent a polynomial space)
However do it like any other basis check, check independence and spanning of the set
ok so co-efficients from K, degree n, x is the variable
so yeah, you just check independence and span of the alleged basis
i need to prove them independents right?
iirc since it's a finite space you can just check independence then as long as the cardinality of the set is the dimension of the space it's sufficient
yes, the set needs to span and be linearly independent
help 📸
,rotate
wrong channel. see pins
SK
How can I show that given such a Sigma and omega, a vector v exists such that the above condition holds?
This one sorta feels like cheating.
@wintry steppe is your space finite-dimensional?
Of course.
V and V** have the same dimension so injectivity of any map V -> V** implies surjectivity
Is there a way to do this without choosing a basis?
this follows from rank-nullity
There's a group analogue for this, right?
if there was a way to do it without choosing a basis then it'd either be one that sweeps the basis choice under the rug (such as using rank nullity, the proof of which requires choosing a basis), or it's be false (since then the result would hold in infinite dimensions - it doesn't)
If a map has a trivial kernel, it is injective and vice versa?
this is true
So, rank-nullity requires the choice of basis?
I thought the isomorphism between a vector space and its double dual was canonical.
canonical in this context means the map is defined without a choice of basis
that doesn't mean you can't choose a basis to verify properties of the map
(admittedly there's some precise category-theoretic meaning to "canonical" here which i can't expand on because i simply don't know it)
I mean, if we could choose a basis on both spaces, there wouldn't be a need to prove this via the evaluation map.
well, sure, but then you'd have a "non-canonical" isomorphism
Exactly.
and...?
Well, this.
the point of the result is that there exists a "canonical" isomorphism, not that every isomorphism is independent of a choice of basis
I think canonical means something different in this context?
it's more correct to say "there exists a canonical isomorphism" than "the isomorphism..."
No, no, I get that.
But, the isomorphism defined via the evaluation map is supposed to be canonical.
Or so I've read.
So, canonical here means that one can define the evaluation map without a choice of a basis, but, the isomorphism depends on the dimension of the space at hand.
informally, yes, canonical means the map V -> V**, v \mapsto ev_v, that you're working with is defined independently of a choice of basis. and yes, the fact that it ends up being an isomorphism does depend on the finite-dimensionality of V
i searched my brain and remembered the precise category theoretic meaning of canonical here
something about a natural transformation from the identity functor on FDVec to the double dual functor
Not sure if this channel is still in use, because I don't see any message that indicates closure of the previous question, but there hasn't been a message sent in the past 25 minutes or so.
I'll ask my question and if the initial question was not answered, then I can delete mine.
Given a matrix $A$ and its inverse, A inverse, denoted by $A^{-1}$, does $AA^{-1} = A^{-1}A = \text{the identity matrix}$?
Toxic Sweet Potato
Never mind - the answer is yes
Appreciate that, man 👍
Thanks for the clarification.
we can prove it easily enough that the left inverse is equal to the right inverse actually in case you think they are distinct
$A_L^{-1} = A_L^{-1} AA_R^{-1} = A_R^{-1}$
Merosity
by associativity
left inverse indicating $A^{-1}A$ and the right inverse indicating the two matrices swapped?
Toxic Sweet Potato
I think I see it and damn that's smooth
This is like - saying that if a matrix A is invertible, then it will have exactly one inverse, $A^{-1}$
yeah, I thought this trick was cool when I learned it too lol
Toxic Sweet Potato
not quite what it says
this just says that if you have a left inverse it's equal to a right inverse
Hey can I ask a quick question?
but I think you need to say a little more if you want to say two left inverses are equal
if A^T * A = A * A^T = c * Identity matrix, where c is some scalar, does this mean A is orthogonal matrix?
multiply by A^-1
merosity is good
hey im evil stop ruining my reputation
(at math)
ty 😌
left multiply both sides by A^-1?
I would get A^-1(A^T A) = A^-1 (AA^T) which would then b (A^-1 A^T A) = I * A^T
But what happens to A^-1 * A^T?
I mean including the part with c*I as well
just do A^T A = cI and multiply on the right by A^-1 (why do we know the inverse exists?) to get A^T = c A^-1
Im confused, what does having A^T = cA^-1 mean?
okay upon researching I see that A^T = A^-1 means A is orthogonal
so then having c should not affect anything right? because we have A^T = c * A^-1 instead of A^t = A^-1
yeah I was going to ask what your definition was
the columns of A are pairwise orthogonal
they're just not normalized, so they have their lengths as all sqrt(|c|)
but for a matrix to be called orthogonal, shouldn't the columns be normalized?
or is matrix called orthogonal, as long as all the columns in the set are orthogonal to each other
yeah, I think the standard definition is it's normal yeah
but it's not hard to take the matrix that you have and scale it so that it is an orthogonal matrix
A^T A = cI means you can divide each matrix by sqrt(c) and you're done
cool yeah you're welcome
Can I get some help on this problem?
what have you tried
I'm thinking that I have to find the transpose of this matrix
and then I would have to find the null space of that
But idk
@wintry steppe
the matrix [0 1 3] is already in rref form, so you know what the null space should be
@teal grotto yeah it should just be itself
wdym
i mispoke
it should be the span of the column vectors (0, -3, 1) and (1, 0, 0)
@wintry steppe is that not in rref form already ?
sully retracted

i think that appealing to RREF stuff is completely unnecessary but
hey if it works
Wait so how would I solve this problem?
@visual hatch what vectors are orthogonal to w
literally just write out what it means for a vector x to satisfy Tx = 0
and find all such x
i mean, this case is so simple that theyre basically the same, in the sense that neither offers a distinct advantage over the other
i may or may not have an irrational dislike for row reduction after seeing it mentioned way too many times in this channel
I'm still lost
just take a column vector (x, y, z) and find out when it satisfies [0 1 3](x, y, z) = 0, just like TTerra said
it would be (x * 0) + (y * 1) + (z * 3)
then its y + 3z = 0
yeah
so that means if (x, y, z) is going to satisfy [0 1 3](x, y, z) = 0, then it has to be of the form (x, 0, 0) + (0, -3z, z)
which is just all linear combinations of the column vectors (1, 0, 0) and (0, -3, 1)
For this problem would I just multiply [3 -2 1. 4 ] by [-2 1 ] to finf [-2 1]?
$T([-2,1])=T(-2e_1+e_2)$
Mosh
@visual hatch
@visual hatch to find the image sure. But why bother like that....it’s easy....Just follow the linear map.
On what’s app parents post the silliest riddles. Here is one kind of em.
T(🍎) = (3, -2)
T(🍌) = (.1, 4)
What is T( -2 🍎 + 1 🍌)?
is it -5, -8?
Look carefully again?
I'm confused?
Following the “linearity”,
T( -2 🍎 + 1 🍌) = -2 T(🍎) + 1 T(🍌). ...
That would be -2 apples and 1 banana
Anybody know good books to go with this subject!?!
no, its -2 * T(apple) + 1 * T(banana), not -2 * apple + 1 * banana
you have to apply the transformation T to apple & to banana
but you know what you get from that
replace T(apple) & T(banana) with these
& compute.
hi i have question is the answer A or C? isnt both linearly independent? thank you
why don't you test it yourself?
one of them is not.
its A right
i did.. i got both linearly independent before
Hello, i was wondering. everyone knows how to solve ax^2+bx+c=0 where a,b,c and x are real (or complexe) numbers. But i'm stuck on a problem where is need to do the same but with matrices.
I have X^TAX + B^TX + c = 0, is there a general method to solve this ? c is real, so is X^TAX and B^TX and A^T means the transposed matrix of A
are you looking for explicit solution approaches for quadratic forms or something with iterative optimization?
this type of expression can be written in the form | | Mx + v | |_2^2 = 0
which is the same as solving the related problem Mx = -v
i'm looking for an explicit solution. however the formulation of the problem i gave above is wrong. I just realised that A is of the form DXE (it has an X in the middle)
it looks unsolvable
yeah that looks pretty cursed
lmao yea
though to be fair, you can reshape that
you can use kronecker products to do something (like E^T kron D) vec(X), if X was a matrix
but that tends to be super painful to solve
hmmm but that only takes care of the A, and then you'd have to do several such operations to try and get all the X terms on one side
the entire problem is this, A W are matrices, X and Y vectors and lambda and epsilon are real numbers
i'm looking for X and lambda that satisfies both equation
i managed to find an expresson for lambda depending on X but i cannot finish
that's not so bad tho
i think i have the right method but idk i'm not that good with this type of calculation
what do you mean not so bad ?
you think it's doable ?
i misstyped the beginning, it's A^TA not AA^T
so i'm guessing you get that lambda is 1/epsilon(-X^T A A^T X + X^T A^T Y)
1/eplison(-X^T A^T A X + X^T A^T Y)
yep
epsilon > 0 and A is a rectangular matrix that is rank deficient
because you can treat the problem below as something like WAX - V, for some V that is in the null space of (WA)^T
then | | WAX - V | |_2^2 = 0
the problem below, you mean the second equation ?
yeah
but it should depends on lambda ?
may i ask where this comes from? some context would be nice
it's a lagrangian minimization problem
of something like communications or some random process that's iid and orthogonal/uncorrelated to a signal space or smth?
it would help a lot to see the original problem tbh, cuz idk if you removed stuff that might be useful
the epsilon is pretty annoying
no random process here its a squared minimization with an added constraint
i didnt remove anything
well if you remove the epsilon the lagrangian theorem doesnt work
wait i send you the original problem
if you remove the epsilon the derivative of the constraint is equal to zero when the contraint is null
so the lagrangian theoreme doesnt work
yep. so the usual approach for these is to take the gradient w.r.t. x and lambda and find a saddle point
which i guess is what you showed above
yep exactly
but tbh for these types of things one doesn't even solve them
suffice to write the final expression
what do you mean write the final expression ?
leave in some matrix inverses sprinkled here and there
well even with some "matrix inverses here and there" i cant find a solution lol
my problem is very basic i think
when i replace lambda (with the expression you came up) in the first equation i get X everywhere and i dont know what to do basically
i'm kinda rusty, i'll need a min
sure ! thanks a lot for your help
it looks kinda fucked up but
i think you have to find an expression for x in terms of lambda in the first eq
and substitute that into the second
i.e. x = (A^T A + lambda A^T W^T W A)^-1 A^T y
well that looks really fucked up lol
For part c would I just mulitply the inverse by [-2 1] too get the unique solution [-5/2 1]?
2 lambdas inside inverse
yeah, mayb not the best approach lol
i'll give it a try
Can I get help on my question above?
you should multiply A^-1 by [-1 1] to get [-5/2 1] it's correct
okay thank you
the other method is to write A[y z] = [-1 1] and solve the linear system by hand
check out the 3rd answer there for simplifying the inverse of a sum of matrices, maybe that helps
or maybe i'm misleading you completely 
looks a little like the Woodbury matrix identity
yeah, has some matrix inversion lemma vibes
idk if it's the best approach, still
in some of these problems, it's easier to do the procedure for one variable, and then get the final matrix structure by doing that row by row
this might be one of those
you mean write X = [x1, x2, ..., xn] ?
yeah
please no
lol
but if you think about it
pick x_i, and the corresponding column A_i of A
then WAx simplifies to just the full matrix W times the vector A_i x_i
then the expression A_i^T A_i + lambda A_i^T W^T W A_i is easier to invert
idk
it's a scalar
you can find what x_i is in terms of a few vectors from A and all of W
and then re matricize the whole vector
it looks like some Trace(A^T A) stuff
with the inverse i dont think you can do that no ?
i mean x_i depends on the full matrix A
oh i see your reasoning
i might still be wrong, but this seems to make more sense
and i'm like 51% sure you get a nice trace out of it
lol
if i sum up
X = (A^T A + lambda A^T W^T W A)^-1 A^T y
becoms
x_i = (A_i^T A_i + lambda A_i^T W^T W A_i)^-1 A_i^T y
well i'll think about your ideas, thank's lot for your help ! i'll send you the solution (if i find one)
notice those are both scalars, so the inverse is pretty straightforward
something is wrong i think with this equation you end up with an expression of lambda depending on x_i A_i and W for all i. so i have multiples values for lambda ?
lets say T = [A1 A2,..., AN]X with X the row vector of (x_1 x_2,...x_N)
then T_k = sum_i( (A_ix_i)(k) )
well tbh i dont get it how this can be true
write it as a system of equations and see if it holds
Can anyone give me a matrix A that has a column space of just the 0 vector?
The 0 matrix
Oh, it's just a matrix full of 0
Yeah yeah
Okay tyty
Are those the only matrices where the column space is just the 0 vector?
Yes
Thank you - appreciate that
Because the column space must contain the columns
So if any column is nonzero, the column space contains it
right
whats the difference between Distance and Magnitude?
Distance is usually the "length" between two vectors, and magnitude is usually the "length" of a single vector.
ah
Can someone help me with this problem?
hint: (2a+b, b-3c, c)=(2a, 0,0)+(b, b, 0)+(0, -3c, c)
yes
how did you get that?
by inspection
could you also put the vectors in a matrix and row reduce it? and since it has a pivot in each row the IMT also applies to this?
well
you could do it like through solution of system of x_1e_1+x_2e_2+x_3e_3 = vector in H where (e_1, e_2, e_3) is basis for R^3 ig
yeah but would the way I said also work
i dont rlly get wym
The invertible matrix theoram also says that the columns of A span R^n if there is a pivot in each row
so would the inverrtible matrix theoram apply in this case?
Hey everyone, I have a general concern about Gilbert Strang's Introduction to Linear Algebra. Note that I am a complete beginner in it, and I only have experience in Alg 1, 2, Geometry, & Calc.
My concern is that Gilbert Strang's language is too confusing.
Like for example, I do not know what we are suppose to add an multiple of the combination. And how does that give a whole line??
Another example:
"but it is parallel to their line of intersection". How can a plane be parallel to a line of intersection? Shouldn't you only compare two of the SAME type (line to line, plane to plane, etc.) when applying parallelism?
So am I the only one who gets really confused? Or am I just a dumbass?
Is it normal to ask so many questions at first, and then eventually slowly follow the book smoothly?
Let me know your thoughts! Thank you in advanced
(note: I am self-learning)
$(1,0,1)+t(3,1,-2)$ is a line
Mosh
why? lines and planes can be parallel to each other, even perpendicular
ok I guess the answer to my question is being a dumbass
no it’s just difficult grasp geometric concepts sometimes from descriptions alone. strang has lectures on youtube (would recommend) that may help with the visualization/geometric interpretation
Ahhh makes sense. Thank you! Can the lectures replace the whole book, or do I need to still read it as I go along?
yes it’s normal to ask a lot of questions, it’s really good that you are asking them.
probably not. even if you understand everything in the lectures, there's only so much stuff that can be covered in a semester of lectures, so you'd still benefit from reading what wasn't covered
Ahhh ok! I will study everything from the lectures, and read the book as I go along 🙂
Given a polynomial P(x) over some domain in lagrange basis, is there a way to change the domain, without interpolating the polynomial?
So if P(x) = x^2 and the domain is [0,1,2]
Then this would give me the points [0,1,4]
If I wanted to change the domain to [3,4,5]
This would give me [9,16,25]
Is there a way to go from [0,1,4] to [9,16,25] without interpolating?
It seems that maybe with another basis it could be possible, but I have not seen any that lends itself to this
what do you mean "the domain is [0, 1, 2]"
Oh the polynomial is evaluated over those three points
if the poly is given in a basis, isn't it exactly equal to some linear combination of those basis elements?
so you should be able to evaluate the basis functions at any value you like
I was hoping to use the evaluated points on the domain to compute the new evaluated points on the new domain
that's something completely different
Oh sorry if I misspoke. Is this possible?
if you know what the function looks like, (e.g. you know it's a poly of degree n) and you have enough points, yes
but you'll have to find all the parameters of the poly
so yeah, you'd have to interpolate
ah so you need to interpolate 😦
i'm not sure what role your lagrange basis plays tho?
Oh I can change basis, if that helps?
My original problem is that I have a vector of values [y_0, y_1, ..., y_n] and I interpret this as a polynomial in lagrange basis
I make the domain be roots of unity, so interpolation is the same as the inverse FFT
Did you have another thing in mind, which may help?
Yep
y_i * L_i(x)
if you already know the L_i, why not just evaluate those at the x values you need?
Oh I need the new values on that domain
the new values of what?
you know the polynomials or you know what they evaluate to for specific x?
So I have a domain D which maps to the the values [y_0, ..., y_n]
I then want to find out the values at a domain D'
i'm sorry, i don't understand your nomenclature. maybe someone else can help.
ah no problem, thanks anyways 🙂
Is H not in the subspace because the 0 vector is not in the vector space of this, and since its not in the vector space, its not in the subspace?
you have the right idea but your explanation is poorly (unclearly) worded
What can I say to improve my explanation?
So I don't have to explain anything about it not being a vector space?
suffice to say it's not closed under addition, which is related to what tterra said
you already know R^3 is a vector space. for a subset of R^3 to be a subspace, it only needs a couple of properties
Why wouldn't it not be closed under addittion?
I thought just the 0 vector isn't in H, which is why its not a subspace
it can fail to be a subspace for more than one reason 
not containing the 0 vector is related to being closed under addition, btw
ohh okay, thank you
in fact, that it does not contain the zero vec means there is no way you can add two vectors and stay inside set
any two v and w will make v + w not be in H
Prove that there is an isomorphism Q[√2]≅{a+b√2|a,b∈Q}.Show that Q[x]/〈x^2−2〉is a field.
can anyone help me?
treat the left hand side Q[sqrt(2)] as a vector space over Q, are you able to reason its dimension, perhaps using knowledge from an undergraduate study of fields? if you are, then this can be useful, because remember what happens when two finite dimensional vector spaces (over the same field) have the same dimension
isn't {a + b sqrt 2 : a, b in Q} the definition of Q[sqrt 2]
my ring theory is rusty so please tell me if/how i'm wrong
I believe it is normally defined as all polynomial functions of squareroot of 2 over Q, and they want us to show that those can be simplified to a+bsqrt(2) for some a and b
i had it defined with the phrase "the smallest ring containing Q and sqrt(2)"
...looking back at it now i guess that isnt a very formal definition
seems fine to me
guess the point is unpacking what that means and what it would look like
There will be some set theory issues unless you do some more work
If you’re woke you would define it as the initial object of the category of Q algebras with a chosen element whose square is 1+1.
Hi guys can someone pls help me w this question
I’m very confused on this hw problem
Nvm was over complicating
Pls ignore me
even if you dont have a question, i would appreciate seeing the question and your enlightenment
just gonna rubberduck a bit, don't mind me
let S send (a, b, c, d, e) to (a, b, 0, 0, 0); null S = {(0, 0, c, d, e)}
let T send (a, b, c, d, e) to (0, 0, c, d, 0); null T = {(a, b, 0, 0, e)}
S + T sends (a, b, c, d, e) to (a, b, c, d, 0), with null space {(0, 0, 0, 0, e)}, so it's not closed
yeah that makes sense
@stable kindle those aren't linear maps into R^4
fuck
ok knock the zeroes off the end
S goes to (a, b, 0, 0), T goes to (0, 0, c, d)
i'm illiterate
yup that works
So every matrix is similar to its eigenvalue matrix, yes?
if its diagonalizable
precisely what melia said, there are so-called "defective matrices"
depends on the geometric multiplicity of the eigenvalues
jcf hell
jentucky cried fhicken
If W is a subspace of C^n and for every x there is an x1 in W and an x2 in W orthogonal, such that x = x1+x2 and Tx=Ax=x1-x2
Show that A=A* (conjugate transpose) and AA*=I
So basically
If Tx=Ax is a conjugate transformation on W (meaning it equals x1-x2), then show A is unitary and hermitian
I have two questions
one of them "Each matrix A has a determinant." ıs this true ?
ı think false because this must be every square matrix A has a determinant
other one is "The determinant is a linear function."
regarding the first question: you basically said "this is false because it's true in some scenarios" and nothing more
you have the right answer but you should say a bit more
unless you're trying to say that the reason it's false is because not all square matrices have a determinant (wrong)
re the second question: it would help to write out the properties a linear function has and to check if the determinant satisfies these.
any idea how they're getting from the first equality to the second? I had assumed the terms were ordered specifically but I don't see it
does does det(cA) = c * det(A) hold?
they just added and subtracted some terms
oh wait that's the second
just write out those norms in terms of the inner products
they don't seem to have grouped the terms in a clear way
see what cancels and see what stays
the norm doesn't necessarily come from an inner product, I think is the point of the thm
you just know it satisfies the parallelogram law
aaaaaa
ok, i didn't read, sorry
yeah it just comes from the definition
write out <x, z> + <y, z> using the definition of the (to be) inner product
(twice)
the first line is just doing parallelogram law twice. in the next line, they add and subtract the norm of x and y
tterra, your pfp is pretty cursed
ohhhh
good, that's what i was going for
I assumed it was an application of the parallelogram law from the first to second line
threw me off
nah it's just the definition lol

i guess that they use the paralllogram law for the following equality to express it as <x+y, z>
nice proof
i don't actually remember what the paralllogram law states
paralllogram
ive misspelled this so many times my phone autocorrects to it
,av
one of the best panels from the manga

yoasobi moment 
no its the beastar singer nickname right
yoasobi is the group that did the second opening song for beastars
ah
@wintry steppe привет
I have written out detailed solution to this problem. Can someone take a look?
Using Gram schmidt orthogonalization, from $v_1,\dots, v_r$ get $v'_1,\dots v'_r$ to be orthonormal vectors and extend these to orthonormal basis $v'_1, \dots , v'_n $. do same thing for $w_i$s. So we have two orthonormal basis $v'_1, \dots , v'_n $ and $w'_1, \dots , w'_n $. Let $T$ be such that $T(v'_i)=w'_i$. So $T$ is orthogonal. It remains to see that for $1\leq i \leq r$, $T(v_i)=w_i$. Prove this by induction. Indeed $T(v_1)=T(v'_1)=T(w'_1)=T(w_1)$. $T(v_i)=T(v'_i +\frac{\langle v_i, v_1\rangle}{\langle v_1,v_1\rangle} v_1 + \dots )$. It now follows from induction and given condition on inner products of $v_i$s and $w_i$s.
bert
Can I get help on this problem?
what have you tried?
Do I just solve this by taking the square root of (0--4)^2 + (-5--1)^2 + (2-8)^2?
Mosh
So then would be still have to use the square root?
yes... norm of a vector is square root of the inner product with itself
are you allergic to square roots or something 
$\norm{v}=\sqrt{\langle v,v\rangle}$
Mosh
oh okay, thanks
Anyone know how to do Euclidean Geometry??
#geometry-and-trigonometry is likely your best bet
what's linear dependence?
is it like describing 2 co - linear vectors in a single span?
linear dependence means that two vectors are multiples
in general it means that vector is in span of the other vectors
in general, it doesn't mean that you have 2 colinear vectors. it means that you can produce a vector parallel to it by taking some addition of other vectors
yeah, what @dire thunder above said
and yes, any colinear vectors are dependent but not conversely
i am not dude i am #❓how-to-get-help
fixed
i woke up just a bit ago, can you give me an example of this? can't come up with one off the top of my head
the not conversely part
or did you mean in a set with more than 2 vectors
i agree to this
and linearly independent in the sense ?
hmm?
umm i'm confused a bit with linear independent btw 😅
linearly dependent is the opposite of linearly independent right?
now i got the idea of both btw
yes
linear independence means that the only way to get zero vector from set of vectors is to take all vectors multiplied by zero
aight, that's clear enough
i.e. you cannot express any vector as sum of other vectors
If the determinant of a matrix let's call it A isn't equal to 0, could we say that the function x --> A*x injective?
det(A) != 0, so it's invertible.
How could I deduce that it's also injective?
If it's invertible, then X -> AX is bijective, with inverse X -> A⁻¹X. Bijective implies injective.
(because bijective is defined as injective + surjective)
Superb.
How do we know that if it's invertible than the function is bijective?
If you have one and only one way forward from one element to its image, then you also have one and only one way backward from an image to its preimage
That's just what "having an inverse" means
Surely you'll agree that in the last figure, reversing the arrows gives you a function
Yeah sure.
Invertible and bijective are one and the same
X <-- A⁻¹X
?
No, both are functions
and that notation doesn't make sense anyway
set $f : X \mapsto AX$ and $g : X \mapsto A^{-1}X$
Syst3ms
do we need that function g for saying that f is bijective?
The easiest way to show that a function is bijective is to pull out an inverse
Of course, you could also show manually that f is both injective and surjective
But that's useless since you can literally point to an inverse and "see, it's bijective ! all in a day's work"
Okay. So we did this.
det(A) != 0
Let $f: X \to Y$, $f(x) = Ax$ where $A$ is invertible. Then $$f(x) = f(y) \implies Ax = Ay \implies x = A^{-1}(Ax) = A^{-1}(Ay) = y.$$
So, $f$ is injective. Also, for any $y \in A$, $A^{-1}y \in X$ with $f(A^{-1}y) = y$. So, $f$ is also subjective. This would be manually showing it is bijective if you don't know that the existence of an inverse implies it is bijective. If you already know that for functions in general, you don't need to show it specifically here.
Lunasong the Supergay
for any y € A?
do you mean y € X?
I meant y in Y
Taking an element of codomain, and showing it has an element in X that maps to it. Definition of surjective.
Yes
(since X -> AX is linear there are fun vector space things to do, but this is besides the point)
Thank you all! @leaden tide @marble lance
I have written solution to this problem Can someone take a look?
The matrix $A=S\begin{pmatrix} 5 & \ & 2 \end{pmatrix} S^{-1}$. $a^nA^n=S\begin{pmatrix} a^n5^n & \ & a^n2^n \end{pmatrix} S^{-1}$. So the matrix converges if $(a5)^n$ converges and $(a2)^n$ converges but both do not converge to $0$. Thus $a=2$ is the only possible solution for $a$.
bert
why did you leave some entries blank?
they are 0
dont u mean 1/5?
o yea right a shoud be 1/5
notice the sequence of eigenvalues is geometric
so yeah
if a lambda_i < 1, it converges to 0. if it's > 1, it diverges
if you make the smallest eigval converge, the largest could still diverge
something like that
just curious where numerical analysis is used in the field of computer science?
everywhere
if you want to solve problems with a computer, you can almost never do so analytically
you instead fall back on numerical schemes
then you need to do numerical analysis to show if/when you can even solve the problem in a particular way, and how expensive it is to do so
i see i solved some of the things like that if i solved with most of the knowledge with numerical analysis i think it might be easier to do design algorithms , thanks for explaining 😄
is there a nice matrix way to represent a linear combination of matrices?
like $c_1A_1+...+c_nA_n$?
specifically something like $$c_1I+c_2A+\ldots+c_nA^{n-1}$$
nix (@ me for the love of euler)
feels weird to dot a vector of matrices with a vector of scalars but maybe that's allowed
[
\sum_{k=1}^{n} c_k A^{k-1}
]
Namington
thats what I'm starting with in this problem im working on but it's a total mess. i was hoping finding a matrix way to represent it would make the result more obvious
Has anybody ever done the MIT Linear Algebra course?
yay for Gilbert Stang
I've glanced at it I guess but I already did linear algebra so there wasn't a need to go through the whole thing
Why aren't both 1/5 and 1/2 both solutions for a?
(a5)^n does not converge for a=1/2
oh lmao, true
Is that phi-ish symbol supposed to be the empty set? I don't understand the difference between it and the set {0} or how the span of it can be the zero vector
Yes. The empty set has nothing in it while the set {0} has something in it, namely the zero vector.
Ok I get that the empty set is contained within all sets right? But I don't get how the span of no elements is the zero vector. Is that just definition?
I would think the span of the empty set would be the empty set
It's a subset of any set, not an element of any set.
And yes, that's just be definition. It doesn't follow, I think, from the definition of span.
Is there a difference between 'contained within a set' and 'being a subset'?
I think 'contained within a set' is meant to be synonymous with membership (like element of).
{a} is a subset of {a,b} but a is in {a,b}
I thought that the horseshoe over the bar meant contained within. my b
So like a is an element of {a,b,c} and a is contained in {a,b,c}
I don't think so...did you see it in a textbook?
It's not super precise so I'm not even sure I'd use that phrase.
No I just thought I heard that at some point
From a prof
But I'm also a dumbass so
I'm going to guess 'contained within' is supposed to just mean 'is an element of'. But if someone thinks otherwise, they'll say so.
is the 3X3 matrix of the first nine positive integers [[1,2,3][4,5,6],[7,8,9]] known by any specific name
nope
i call it the sanity check matrix of size 3x3
I'm doing it rn
Whatta bout it
what sort of sanity check do you use it for
I find it to be kind of an annoying matrix because the last column is a multiple of the first
or is it row, some kind of linear dependence in there lol
smth like 2 col 2 - 1 col 1 = col 3
hi everyone, I'm new here
I'm studying linear algebra by myself during summer break
but I'm kinda slow, still learning vector spaces
could anyone say is it possible to cover all topics in 1 month period?
I need to get a good grade in linear algebra next semester, but I guess that I lack some knowledge for that
and I am not that good at proving theorems, how can I master it quickly?
One month for linear algebra sounds doable if you spend all day studying, but if you aren't good at proving stuff then that might hinder you.
yes, I'm at home all day just studying
but I feel that I make little progress, I'm reading howard anton's textbook "elementary linear algebra"
It'd probably be a good idea on spending a few days with some intro to proofs book.
I used this book in my linear algebra course. I enjoyed it.
Although I think I prefer Axler.
do you know any easy book?
How To Prove It by Velleman
thats the go to book
thank you! I'll read it as well
how many subchapters of linear algebra would you suggest to read per day?
in order to make a progress in 1 month
Divide up the number of chapters by 30
You probably don't need to do all the chapters though.
I'd skip 9, no one cares about numerical methods.
And maybe the second half of chapter 7
okay, thank you very much for suggestions!
bruh numerical methods
i guess if you're really just doing pure math on paper it doesn't matter much
but if you plan on ever using this stuff for something practical or coding your own stuff, you're gonna need it
I see
for example working with differential equations is all about that
or optimization
i do agree not everyone needs it, but "no one cares" is flat out wrong 😛 the people that use it arguably earn more money lol
I think it is in the syllabus, but I'm not sure if I will have time to cover it by myself
How are you finding it?
Doesn't it have problems though?
The course is good theory wise, but I'd prefer first finishing the sub-topic in the textbook, then watching the lectures and finally solving the problems
It does but those are like 5/6 per lecture
I think it would be better to practice more
And truly understand how things work there
The lectures alone are for all fields



