#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 291 of 1
I feel like this is super normal for AT
well i didnt really have to worry about orientations and the like anymore after we went from simplicial to singular
i actually feel like i understood singular homology quicker than simplicial
yeah
but not when i compute the homology of say CP^n
idk about that
getting the boundary maps right is a pain
but for CP^n you can just see that is Z in even dimensions
since you dont get cells in the odd ones
so you can even skip computing boundary maps there
i was referring to CP^n, not generally of course
i also know how cellular homology works
Oh sure I thought you were saying you prefer singular to cellular
Well
Idk I guess its kind of silly to prefer one method inherently since theyre just tools but I do think that cellular is often more convenient
i mean i try to avoid computing boundary maps of cellular homolgy whenever posible
cause its a pain
but also, i dont have to comput homolgy of spaces anymore really
Freedom 
yeah
who needs computations when instead you can devote 1 month of lectures to proving the hurewicz theorem 
Dude why do so many classes have like, loooooong hurewicz proofs
ask schwede
the one i saw was very nice
do you have a source?
I learned it out of homotopical algebra by fomenko/fuchs but it was done through recourse to nice things about weak equivalence and pi_n of CW complexes
sounds good, ill look at it sometime
tbf at the time we did it we didnt have cw approximations yet
but the whole order of things could have been different
Yeah I feel like doing pi_n things before homology is kinda the way to go
But i can understand why people do it in the order they do
yeah i guess both have their pros and cons
(all you really need to know is that if X is n-1 connected you can assume it has one vertex and no cells of degree between 1 and n-1. then doing cellular homology H_n(X) is C_n(X)/Im Delta_n and pi_n(X) has generators the n-cells and relations the n+1 cells given by the boundary maps so these are just definitionally the same lol)
this assumes n > 1
to compute pi_n?
no to get a htpy eqv cw complex with trivial n-1 skeleton
Oh yeah
for n-1 connected
anyway it was a very nice lecture course overall
i learned alot
continuation with spectra and stable htpy theory starts on 4th

the construction is so wacky, i remember thinking it was weird until I saw it applied to eilenberg maclane spaces and was like
"Ok i guess it makes sense that its not that nice"
hmm i dont remember it being that weird
i think we showed that you get a htpy equivalence from X_n to a wedge of spheres
and then you glue X to the wedge of spheres along X_n-1
and the map from X to that is a htpy equivalence by some general lemma involving cofibrations and htpy equivalences in a pushout
The one i saw was given by attaching the right number of cells of each dimension up to n and deformation retracting back to X
This is how i saw eilenberg maclane spaces constructed
but that uses hurewicz
Oh yeah the proof i saw didnt make any recourse to homology or anything
it took a bouquet of n spheres so that the homotopy groups for i < n would be trivial
so you get a free group of whatever for pi_n
and then attached n+1 cells to give the right relations
then n+2 cells to kill pi_n+1
n+3 to kill pi_n+2
so on
yeah we had some lemma that we can kill homotopy groups from smoe point
to show this we used cellular homolgy and then hurewicz
i.e. that this gives you the correct relations
capping and killing 
i guess its also possible without that
I should learn more of this stuff I only know some model category stuff
Have not explored spectral sequences or stable stuff or any of the more advanced computational tools
im trying to learn model cats rn
Im using riehls paper 
me neither, but startin soon xd
im using the dwyer spalinski paper
got that recommended by my prof
i think i sent it in here some time ago
when max was recommending stuff
yeah i also have that in my to-read folder
homotopical derived functors are really nice 
oof that reminds me i also really need to learn some proper homological algebra
i still havent every dealt with derived functors
so many things to read
so little time
you can define them as kan extensions along the localization into the homotopy category 
im also still at the start of ch6 in riehl on kan extensions 
Then the derived category is the homotopy category of the category of chain complexes with weak equivalences the chain homotopies

i also actually dont know that much homological algebra
I am learn sheaf cohomology to fix this
if i hadnt dropped algebraic geometry i would also learn this soon
true
closed sets in a metric space are G_delta
this is simple to prove, you just consider their neighbourhoods D(F, r) = {x : d(x, F) < r} and you can prove that the intersection of those is F (here we use that F is closed)
Wait, I'm having an existential crisis now... Milnor says that any two Riemannian metrics µ1 and µ2 are joined by a smooth one-parameter family (1-t)µ1+tµ2
This basically boils down to saying that SO(n) is convex, right? But now, the thing is: is it true that SO(n) is convex? x')
Like, what's a dumb argument for that?
Wait, no, SO(2) is the circle, it is not convex :\
I need to show that if I have $X$ a topological space, $A\subset \bR^n$ a star domain, and $f: X \to A$ a continuous mapping, then $f$ is null-homotopic. I don't know where to start though
Entelechy
you can contract the star-domain onto its middle point
cause I suppose the point a0 for which any segment {ta + (1-t)a0} is contained in A, is the middle point
yes
It's like Phil says. Wlog assume a0 = 0, and for the contraction just multiply the whole thing by a constant
0 <= t <= 1
I mean like the time
Uh. $H_t = t\cdot f$
Blitz
Like that
but I think I really struggle understanding what homotopic means. From what I have, $f$ and $\bar{f}$ are homotopic if there exists a continuous map $F: X \times I \to A$ such that $F(x,0) = f(x)$ and $F(x,1) = \bar{f}(x)$ for all $x \in X$. So here $\bar{f}$ must be constant ?
Entelechy
correct
nullhomotopic means homotopic to a constant map
okay I understand a bit more now, but intuitively, what does the constant map do to, say, a curve ? Caue what I have in mind is the identity which preserves the curve but that is of course not constant
I guess it's what you said, it brings the whole thing down to a single point
yeah
and at least for me, the way I imagine "bringing something down to a point" is already as a homotopy
since in my head i would gradually contract the curve, rather than go from the whole cruve to a single point in an instant
yep
but what im saying is that when you try to picture the constant map, you often actually picture the homotopy instead, which may make things confusing
but in your case you're interested in the homotopy anyway, so all good
i mean you can always start with an easier example
and then try to generalise
for example lets pick X = A = D^2 and f the identity
can you construct the homotopy in this case?
D^2 is the 2-dimensional unit disk in R^2, centered at 0, although the dimension really doesnt matter here
D^2 is a star domain itself so I can see the link, if my f is continuous then it's null-homotopic
I suppose I can arbitrarily define H(x,t) = (1-t)f(x), so
H(x,0) = f(x) = x
H(x,1) = 0 = the 0 map
yes, exactly
nice
so yeah the point is that you can basically "first do f, then contract everything"
i.e. there will be a homotopy H : A x I -> A starting at identity and ending at a constant map, which in you case was just H(x,t) = (1-t)x
and then you can consider the homotopy H' : X x I -> A, (x,t) -> H(f(x),t)
often times one writes Hf for this homotopy H'
this is called "whiskering of homotopies", and can also be done from the other direction in the sense that given a homotopy H : X x I -> Y and a map f : Y -> Z, you can consider fH : X x I -> Z, (x,t) -> f(H(x,t))
this comes up pretty often
and often helps deconstruct problems into simpler ones
in you case, we went from "find a nullhomotopy for f" to "find a homotopy contracting A to a point"
wait, so here we have the "trivial" homotopy (A to A), and from there we want to define another homotopy H' (X to A)
well you can also just write down the homotopy from X x I -> A immediately
i just like to do it that way personally
to first find H : A x I -> A, and then consider Hf
ah, but H : A x I -> A will not always be null-homotopic
yes, this only works because A is contracible
this is basically the definition of being contractibe
that you find a homotopy A x I -> A from id to constant map
and star-shaped things in R^n are a special case of that 🙂
okay, I understand now why "homotopic to a constant map" is denoted as null-homotopic, as it all contracts to a single point
so H' : X x I -> A, (x,t) -> H(f(x),t) will simply be H(x,t) since f(x) = x ? I don't quite get how to explicitly express a homotopy for X x I -> A considering X is arbitrary
no above we just discussed this one example
generally f is not the identity of course, since X is arbitrary as you said
The homotopy you look for will still be of the form H' = Hf though
you just have to write down the homotopy H : A x I -> A that contracts A onto the middle point
if you assume that the middle point is 0, then this is just H(x,t) = (1-t)x as before
otherwise you have to do some convex combinations, but it will basically look the same
okay, I guess it's all equivalent up to a translation anyways, so I can assume the middle point is 0 to avoid overcomplicating things
yep
i mean the whole point of all these messages was basically that the difficulty of X being abitrary is kinda fake, since you only need to find the contracting homotopy H : A x I -> A and then form Hf
and since A is star shaped in R^n you can actually write down this H
without too much pain
yea I see, so it's way simpler than it looks
alright, that was very helpful, thanks for taking time to explain 🙂
np
Hey guys
So I have an argumento to check
I want to show that a normal space is regular. That is, a normal space satisfies T_3
Let me remind you what T_3 means. It a space such that for any C subset X closed and any x in X\C, there is open sets U,V with C subset U and x in V such that U cap V is empty
So, take C in X closed and x in X\C which is open. But then, there's an open set U subset X\C such that x in U subset X\C. Now consider the closure of U. If U intersects C then consider another open U_1 subset U with x as an element. Consider the closure of U_1. With this iterative process we can find two disjoint closed sets. By T_4 there's an open set for each one of them.
Note x would be an element of the open set of U_1 and the closed set C would be a subset of the another open set
satisfies T_1 and T_4
oh, I could take a singleton of x
by T_1
I forgot this property lol
If you have T_4, then why go through some elaborate argument? Simply say {x} and C are disjoint closed
i’m given that f_i: X_i -> Y_i, i = 1,2 are each continuous.
we then define f1xf2 : X1 x X2 -> Y1 x Y2 as f1 x f2 (x1, x2) = (f1(x1), f2(x2))
how do we show continuity?
i’m confused since we usually show continuity with some associated space/s
this is from my notes right before my class discusses topological groups, so maybe that added context can shine a light on what to do
in this case you should assume that the products have the product topology
ah of course, thanks
Is there a common way of proving that maps from a product topology are continuous? Like, for maps to a product topology f : Z -> X x Y, you just need to check that f composed with the projection maps is continuous. Is there a similar criterion or way of thinking about continuous maps from a product topology?
No
But there is one from disjoint unions
Think about if there is some way of telling when a function f:R^2 to R is continuous
We could consider g(x)(y) = f(x, y)
Obtaining a function g:R to R^R
Then you can prove under some mild assumptions like local compactness that this should be continuous iff f is continuous
R^R equipped with compact-open topology
Other than that, I see no way of phrasing continuity of f differently
@winged viper hope that exhausts your question
R^R meaning continuous functions from R to R
If you want to know more google things like, exponential law for topological spaces, evaluation map etc
Ah I see okay, this validates my fear of product topologies
This is secretly a category theory question. Essentially products are limits and mapping into limits is easy. Disjoint unions (coproduct) are colimits and mapping out of colimits is easy. In general the reverse is not true for either.
Just trying to understand what goes wrong if F is not compact
In that case, we may not be able to find a finite subcover as done above
0.9 doesn't require neighborhoods to be open though, so what goes wrong?
Hausdorff
$\bigcap_p U_p$ might have an empty interior. Consider $E={0}$ and $F=(0,1)$. For each $p\in F$ there's some $V_p=(p-\varepsilon,, p+\varepsilon)$ that doesn't contain zero since $F$ is open, and if $U_p=(-\varepsilon, , p-\varepsilon)\ni 0$ then $U_p\cap V_p=\varnothing$ for all $p$, but $\bigcap_p U_p$ has an empty interior and thus isn't a nhood of $0$.
derivada.schwarziana
the idea is that compactness here guarantees that the condition on disjoint nhoods implies a positive distance between E and F (if the ambient space is metrizable)
this also serves to show that the hypothesis on compactness can't be dropped since obviously {0} and (0,1) have no disjoint nhoods in R
Gotcha, thanks!
Also, in the case where F is compact, we are just using that int(A) \cap int(B) = int(A \cap B), right?
so the interior of a finite intersection is just the finite intersection of interiors, I hope that makes sense
This doesn't work for arbitrary intersections, as you said
int(A \cap B) is a subset of int(A) \cap int(B), generally strict even in the finite case nevermind, I was thinking about unions. You're right
however an infinite intersection of open sets isn't necessarily open
that's what fails
don‘t know where else to ask: looking for cool math background image for my ipad
any ideas?
since you're asking in this channel, look up images of the hopf fibration
hopf fibration looks cool but it seems that there are nk images suited for a background.
actually i like your profile picture. i‘m looking for smth in that direction, i prefer smth decent
you can find the image somewhere in Amann & Eschers Analysis I
so the homotopy product in a simplicially enriched category is being defined as an object m equipped with a weak equivalence Hom(x, m) -> prod Hom(x, m_i) for all x
since coproducts are supposed to be dual the weak equivalence would go from coprod Hom(m_i, x) -> Hom(m, x) right
dear #point-set-topology, could someone look at this fella for me real quick?
I did it for an arbitrary separable metric space instead of R^k
and you should replace "is a neighborhood of" with "is an open set containing"
rudin terminology, idk why he calls it neighborhood
is everything looking yay here?
Yeah, this is true in this case also
Sure
Sure to this?
Yes
If your space is additionally complete, we can even prove that P has size continuum if non-empty (Cantor set embeds into it)
And that it's Borel isomorphic to real numbers
All perfect Polish spaces are Borel isomorphic
Perfect is essential here, like, suppose your space looks like {0} and {1/n : n in N}
It's a Polish space, but it's countable
And it has no perfect subset
what does it mean to a sequence be precompact?
I know that $A\subset X$ is precompact if its closure is compact. So, if $A=\left{x_n::n\in\mathbb{N}\right}$ then we say that the sequence is precompact if $\overline{A}$ is compact?
RaD0N
Ok. Forget my question xd
Can someone here help me understand the amalgamated free product? I'm working with "repairing" the punctured torus with Van-kampen theorem, and the notation and how the amalgamated free product is used confuses me:
here I have the fundamental group of the punctured torus deformation retracts to a boquet on 2 circles, the fundamental group of the disk is trivial, and the overlap is a circle. I get:
$\pi_1(\mathbb{T}) = \langle a, b \rangle *_{\mathbb{Z}} \{1\}$ (via the mapping $[a,b] \mapsto 1$)
$\pi_1(\mathbb{T}) = \langle a, b : [a,b] \rangle = \mathbb{Z} \oplus \mathbb{Z}$
darkninja175
But I don't really understand how the mapping of the commutators arises, like where it comes from?
Is it chosen arbitrarily? I guess this mapping is somehow the kernal of some map I'm not displaying here?
I guess partially what I'm asking is how the commutators arise within the presentation of the fundamental group of the torus as well
what is the tightest bound on each coordinate of the n-torus T^n (say embedded in R^(2n)).
is it 2?
Is R² with a small line segment removed, say from (0,0) to (0,1) a star domain? I personally thought it wasn't
this should be isomorphic to an annulus, which is not a star domain.
Thank you. I already assumed so but just wanted a confirmation haha
if i have a subset S which is not open or closed, how can i argue that it has to have a boundary?
Use bd(S) = cl(S) \ int(S)
Since it is not closed, S ≠ cl(S)
Since it is not open, S ≠ int(S)
See if you can find a nonempty set contained in bd(S) in this way.
hmm, i tried it like that, but i just feel like i am stuck in a logical loop
what i am trying to do is to prove that if the boundary is an empty set, then S is clopen. But i can not get rid of the possibility that S is neither open or closed
so if boundary is empty set then int(S) = cl(S), but how can i than say that S = int(S) = cl(S) and not that S is neither open or closed
I'm confused as to your confusion. int(S) is contained in S and that is contained in cl(S), so that triple equality follows.
S = int(S) gives openness and S = cl(S) gives closedness.
Hence if bd(S) is empty, S is clopen - which, if that's your ultimate goal, you're done.
yeah, i just realised i can do it very simply with $int(S) \subseteq S \subseteq cl(S)$
FireLi0n
ok, thanks for patience
Being a star-domain isn't a homeomorphism invariant, no?
It's not, since if you pick any point from your domain, and any point on the segment, then you consider the ray obtained this way
Well, I guess what AdrainV said also works but not directly
If it was a star domain then it would be contractible, but it's not
indeed!
thanks for pointing it out!
The free product with amalgamation here is given by quotienting out by the normalizer of f(x)g(x)^-1 where x is a loop in the intersection and f and g are the induced maps of pi_1 of the intersection into pi_1 of each element in the cover
So the point here is that your generator for your intersections image in <a, b> will look like aba^-1b^-1 because you have to wrap around the entire boundary of the polygon. So f(x) = aba^-1b^-1. And it's image in the interior of the square is trivial because that has trivial pi_1. So we have to quotient our free product out by the normal subgroup generated by f(x)g(x)^-1 = [a, b], ie we send [a, b] in the free product to 1
Hello! How ccan I prove this?
It's been 13 minutes. Do you really have a question
I think they posted it and deleted it, it was $\partial(A \times B) \subset (\partial A \times B) \cup (A \times \partial B)$
ryc
I'm not sure why they deleted it
Also I just realized that the boundary operator satisfies a leibniz rule... holy shit
@frigid patrol let f:C^{n+1}->C be a regular or analytic map with 0 a critical value, let X_0=f^{-1}(0) be the special singular fiber, let X_s=f^{-1}(s) be a generic smooth fiber. For a point x in X_0 take a small ball B in C^{n+1} centered at x with boundary (2n+1)-sphere S. Then you can study the topology of the hypersurface singularity (X_0,x) as follows:
B\cap X_0 is contractable and is homeomorphic to the cone on K_x=S\cap X_0 the real link of x in X_0
the real link K_x is (n-2)-connected
the map f/|f|:S-K_x->S^1 is a topologically locally trivial fibration; this is the Milnor fibration of the hypersurface singularity
If the germ of the critical set of X_0 at x has complex dimension r, then the fiber F_x of the Milnor fibration is (n-r-1)-connected. In particular if x is an isolated singularity then F_x is (n-1)-connected; this is the Milnor fiber of f at x.
the point of the theory is that the Milnor fiber F_x says a lot about the geometry of the hypersurface singularity you're interested in
For example, if (X_0,x) is an isolated hypersurface singularity, then F_x has the homotopy type of a bouquet of n-spheres; the number of n-spheres is the Milnor number of f at x, which is dim_C C{x_0,...,x_n}/(∂f/∂x_0,...,∂f/dx_n) and this is a ubiquitous invariant in singularity theory
one of the main ways this comes up in algebraic geometry is the monodromy of Milnor fibers and their relation to nearby/vanishing cycles. You get a monodromy map h_x:F_x->F_x given by going once around the circle in the Milnor fibration f/|f|:S-K_x->S^1
it's a fundamental theorem of Grothendieck and others that the induced monodromy morphism h*_x:H^i(F_x,C)->H^i(F_x,C) is quasi-unipotent, that is its eigenvalues are all roots of unity
this implies among other things that the Lefschetz number L(h_x)=0 if x is a singular point for f, so this gives a cohomological criterion for detecting singularities
the other main applications include construction of exotic spheres and homology spheres
another thing is that if you assemble the cohomology of Milnor fibers into a single sheaf, this is the nearby cycles sheaf that is ubiquitous in the theory of perverse sheaves. In the case of isolated singularities, the circles in the bouquet are your vanishing cycles, and the specialization map from nearby to vanishing cycles has an obvious topological interpretation
/end chatspam
This is literally called the leibniz rule by a lot of people haha
Really?!
Yeah
Wow that makes me very happy
Ah
Huh
Is there a sense in which taking boundaries is actually some kind of derivation
on a module or something
uhhh
Ok, you can say something like this with an identification from stokes theorem i guess
Stokes theorem can be thought of as exactly the statement that integration is a chain map from deRham to singular chains @hollow harbor
That makes a lot of sense
And the de rham theorem is simply a statement that the de rham complex is a resolution of the constant sheaf

A great way to make the subject completely lose all of its magic in two statements
yes, differential forms were such a quaint way to resolve the constant sheaf. Good to mention on day 3 of a geometry class, along with Alexander-Whitney cohomology etc before saying "Of course, any resolution by injective sheaves will do" and then move onto nonsensical juggling of H^k(X;F) for the rest of the semester
lmfao
algebraic geometers: just write down an injective resolution 
algebraic geometers when asked to write down an explicit injective resolution: 
is the span of a countable set always separable?
Thanks! That makes a lot of sense.
We've gone through this already
All I've got is I should use the fact that R is separable somehow, so worrying about Q, and taking open balls centered at rationals, but im not sure where to go from here. Blitz mentioned something about connectedness, but I still don't see how to make use of that
Note that R is locally connected
This means that components of open subsets of R are open
I don't even know what that means, if we're supposed to be using only ideas covered in the book
Okay, okay, I see
Hmm
Write open U as union of its connected components
Since R is separable, each component contains an element from a countable dense set
So there is at most countable amount of components
Finally, open connected subsets of R are open intervals
When you put it like that, it's pretty simple, but are you aware of any other way to prove this? I find it hard to believe the book would expect me to use an idea it's never introduced
I have another way that is a bit lower tech but is ultimately the same
Consider the relation ~ on U by saying x~y iff the closed interval between x, y is contained in U
It's an equivalence relation, the classes are open, and you can pick distinct rationals in each class to show there are countably many classes
The classes are open?
Yes, those are basically path-components and they are the same as components in this case
exactly yeah ^
Just has the very slight advantage that you don't have to prove the components are the intervals
But ultimately the same
Goootcha, gotcha
I was going about this the wrong way then, good thing I didn't commit
Still kinda weirded out by the fact that rudin never mentions components, but at least now I know
Many thanks fellas
his section on connectedness is less than a page long, so I'm well equipped
Well this bit of rudin is not really that general iirc, mostly just gives yoy stuff you need for the rest of the book
You're right yeah, doesn't cover more than necessary
that's fine I guess, planning on going through munkres eventually
The product topology of Hausdorff spaces is Hausdorff. Does the converse hold? If a product topology is Hausdorff it is a product of Hausdorff spaces?
Yes if X is the product of non-empty hausdorff spaces X_i then the X_i are homeomorphic to subspaces of X, hence hausdorff
brilliant thanks
@gritty widget I ended up looking up the solution just to see if people did it the same way, and turns out you can do it without bringing up connectedness
wanted to only read the first line or something then attempt the rest on my own, but I ended up reading almost the entire thing...
oh well, least it's done
just wanted to check with you if the equivalence relation part works though? since that's the part I wrote myself
can someone explain the difference between the direct sum and product of groups
they agree on finite products?
this is probably better suited for #groups-rings-fields, but no finite products and coproducts do not agree for groups
for example Z x Z is still abelian, but the coproduct of Z with Z isnt
unfortunately the coproduct of groups is often called the free product
for Z with Z it would be the free group on 2 generators
no that would be the coproduct in the category of abelian groups
and there finite products and coproducts agree
I've noticed you post a lot of questions from abstract algebra and category theory here
I know it connects with algebraic topology, but it doesn't have any topology in it tbh
maybe this will make it more suitable
I would have thought this should be a direct sum
that would be for homology
cohomology is contravariant so you want to switch to products instead
ah thank you
Hey im trying to understand hatchers proof of Borsuk-Ulam and im failing to understand why this is implied
The last line says that the restriction is nullhomotopic, but why does the restriction being nullhomotopic imply the theorem?
is this supposed to be a contradiction?>
because it is nullhomotopic, it cant be odd
and also one more thing, why does the restriction of f to a hemisphere being null homotopic imply that f restricted to the equator is nullhomotopic?
A map can't have odd degree and be nullhomotopic
I still dont see whats wrong with my proof on this question can someone take a look
ig the grader wants me to show topoogical equivalence a different way, but I couldve sworn I've seen it done the way I did many times
for any open U in tau_1, and any x in U, there exists V in tau_2 such that V\subseteq U and x\in V and vice versa
if you're talking about the note they left, it looks to me like they just repeated exactly what you wrote, but in a different way.
I think the graders saying show that a basis elt in T_2 is the union of basis elements in T_1 and vice versa, which is slightly different from my method no?
but should be equivalent
once you show what you wrote, what the grader wrote is pretty clear. Its just one little extra step
ah true i guess i can just show it explicitly
thats so dumb
they took off points for that?
correct

this is the method I see every person use ever
$\exists U_x\in \tau_2$ such that $x\in U_x$ and $U_x\subseteq B$ for each $x\in B$ so $\bigcup_{x\in B} U_x=B$
Dpao
yea
alright fuckin a
I literally did this style of proof one other time
and the grader took off for it, but I wasnt as explicitly clear what i was doing
got points back
now it happened again 💀 ig they already forgot that this is sufficient
@little hemlock the grader took off points cause when i wrote sine has zeroes at x=n\pi, i didnt specify that n was a fucking integer
ah okay, damn. imho that's slightly more fair, but i still would've given benefit of the doubt for something like that 
i guess but using n to denote integers, esp in the context of roots of a trig function, seems like it should be obvious
i will say this class allows u not just to request regrades but to do redos so i cant complain too much
yea i don't necessarily disagree, but in general uninstantiated variables make people feel uncomfy.
can two knots with the same knot group have different crossing numbers?
How does one realize a delta complex structure on A such that this structure is a substructure of the delta complex structure on S^2 indicated in 7?
I need to explicitly write a homotopy between $f\cdot e_q$ and $f$, such that $f\cdot e_q \simeq f$ where $e_q$ is the constant path at point $q$ and $f$ is a path between $p$ and $q$. This seems extremely trivial, yet I'm not familiar enough with homotopy to do it, if anyone could help me understand
Entelechy
nevermind I got it
Homotopy is cool lol
Well you can sort of squeeze the first half of f into a point and stretch the 2nd half of f out.
So for example, f(x, t) = f(max(x - t, 0)) could accomplish the squeezing for t < 1/2.
generally its very helpful to note that multiplication by a fixed element is a homeomorphism G -> G
hey guys i couldnt find this on google for some reason
how is the metric d_2 defined on C([0,1])?
i know for $$x,y \in \mathbb{R}^n$$ it's just $$ d_2(x,y) = ||x- y||$$
not sure if d_2 defined on C([0,1]) is just a notation thing or if its related to the above definition
oh i found it never mind
ignore the above guys
$$ d_2(f,g) = \sqrt{\int_0^1 \left( f(x) -g(x) \right)^2 \ dx $$
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
just thought i'd write it out because latex is fun :_)
So, I am trying to prove the following:
If $A \subset X$ is a contractible subspace of a topological space $X$ and $i : A \rightarrow X$ is a cofibration, then the quotient map $\pi : X \rightarrow X/A$ is a homotopy equivalence. I was able to prove this in the case where $i$ is the inclusion map, by taking any homotopy $H : A \times [0,1] \rightarrow A$ between the identity of $A$ and the constant map wrt a given point $a_{0} \in A$, then composing this with the inclusion to get a homotopy between the inclusion of A into X, applying the homotopy extension property wrt the identity of $X$ and working from there to find a homotopy inverse to $\pi$ via standard arguments related to the universal property of the quotient map.
\
\
The fact that $i$ is the inclusion is then crucial in this argument I just presented and I don't really know how I could generalize this to a general cofibration between $A$ and $X$, any ideas?
MISTERSYSTEM
Cofibrations are always inclusions, but I don't think you need the map to be an inclusion for this to work. A homotopy H: A × I → A (rel a_0) gives a homotopy iH: A × I → X (rel i(a_0)) which collapses everything to i(a_0)
wait, are you using inclusion in the sense of being an embedding (i.e being injective and a homeomorphism between its image) or in the sense of really being the inclusion map of a subspace into the underling space?
Because yeah, I am aware of cofibrations being embeddings, but idk if every cofibration is in fact given by an inclusion.
no you could just compose with some homeomorphism
oh wow i finally reached "very active"
anyway your statement and the proof can be found in hatcher, 0.17
Yeah I am aware of that, but the point is that I was trying to prove this by myself 
fair enough
if you're interested in cofibrations, the above statement follows immediately from some other very useful lemmas
first, cofibrations are stable under pushouts
this means that if you have a pushout
A -> X
| |
B -> Y
where the top map is a cofibration, then so is the bottom map
second, in the above case, if the left map is a homotopy equivalence, then so is the right one
now you can apply this to the pushout
A -> X
| |
- -> X/A
and you're done
Tbh, I am still not so used to category-theoretic arguments.
Which is a really bad thing
they're the best kind of arguments
Because homotopy theory uses a lot of category theory.
true
And I am having kind of a hard time following May's concise course because of this.
Ok, here's a slightly crazier question.
Suppose we are given a group G. Is there a way to define a topology on G in such a way that for any topological group H, the continuous maps from G to H are precisely the homomorphims from G to H?
I.e, for any topological group H, we want to define a topology on G such that f : G -> H is continuous iff f is a homomorphism.
I rate this T_2/paracompactness
(S^2, A) where A is a finite set of points is a good pair right?
i'd hope
Here's the definition. If by neighborhood they mean an open set, then it is pretty easy to see that it is a good pair
If they require neighborhoods to be connected, then this is not true
The reason why I'm questioning this is because we were given this problem
And if its a good pair, then b follows trivially from a
As H_n(X,A) = reduced(H_n(X/A))
i see no reason to require connectedness
So we can use this right?
Oh you know what I think this problem set was assigned before we did that
That would explain why its listed as two separate parts
Doesn't mean I'm not gonna use the proposition though 
based
thanks
discrete maybev
oh
like the cts maps from G to H are nothing more than homomorphisms
this might not exist for every group H im feeling
like a baby counter example im thinking
is having f a trivial homomorphism
if H is a hausdorff space then we are fkd i think
or wait
nvm
I don't think so, because the identity G --> G is a group hom but it's not continuous if the codomain group has a finer topology than the domain group. so the only candidate is the discrete topology, but then every map is continuous without necessarily being a group hom
@coral pawn would you be opposed to infinitely many bananas
So, suppose X is the discrete topology of {a,b}
An open cover would be ${\varnothing, {a}, {b}}$?
mns
you could, but it's not like you need to. no elements are gonna be in there any time soon
so
when I do the union of such a cover, the result must be {a,b} or the space {varnothing, {a}, {b}, {a,b}}?
oh
nvm
I just need to have X (the space) as a subset of that union
so {a,b} with the discrete topology is compact since {a,b} is an open cover and {a},{b} is another such cover contained in the former
{{a,b}} and {{a},{b}}
are you trying to show this space is compact by writing down all the open covers?
Yeah, I read the definition and I am trying to make sense of it
there are easier ways to prove spaces are compact than writing down all of their covers
for example, finite spaces, no matter the topology, are compact
that's the first exercise
Moreover, the subcover must be open as well?
like with the indiscrete topology
yes
of {a,b}. An open cover would be {{a,b}} but another subcover is {{a},{b}} but it isn't open
because you started with an open cover, if you pick away some of its sets, those will still be open
uh
so?
this isn't even a subcover
{a} and {b} are not in {{a, b}}
I didn't understand
So for the indiscrete topology of {a,b}, i.e., {{}, {a,b}}. An open cover would be {{a,b},{a,b}}. Then a subcover is {{a,b}} which is open. Therefore {a,b} with the indiscrete topology is compact ?
your argument is fine because the only open cover in this case is {{a, b}} (note {{a, b}, {a, b}} and {{a, b}} are the same thing), but you can't just show a space is compact by showing one open covering has a finite subcover
I see
if you could, every space would be compact
Hi μωμ
Yes
Nooooo
Hey
What's an example of a pseudocompact space which is not countably compact?
How should I go about thinking of one such example?
@vast estuary Let X = N and U is open iff U is empty or 0 is in U
Uh
Hey guys, just want to confirm if the arrow and R_T^1 are not compact
hum, I think R_T^1 is compact.
Let T be an open cover for R_T^1. Take A in T. So A contains finitely many points. Since T covers R, consider B such that B contains all those finitely many points. But then A U B = R and {A,B} is a finite subcover
you need to tell us what "the arrow" and "R_T^1" are
what do people think of sutherland's intro to metric and topological spaces as a first topology text?
Arrow: is the topology from [0,infty] of all intervals of the type (a,infty) with a >= 0
R_T^1 is the topology on R of all complements of finite sets
the complement of any open (a,infty) is [0,a], try to prove that these are compact
then you can use the open cover definition
The proof seems to be that it's true because it is. Is there some nuance I'm missing?
Oops my purple note is wrong, disregard. Should say simple arc
What do you mean?
Here's (imo) a simpler proof
There exist a simple chain of open balls contained in Omega connecting x and y
Say B_1, ..., B_n
Take x_i in the intersection of B_i and B_(i+1)
And let x_0 = x, x_n = y
Connect x_i with x_(i+1) by a segment
Since those are always contained in an open ball, which is convex, we are allowed to do that
Since the open balls form a simple chain, we need the polygonal arc just defined to be simple
You can prove that the set of points which can be connected by a simple chain with x (with respect to the open balls contained in Omega) is clopen in Omega, hence equal to Omega
@little hemlock i think the grader is at it again
Compact + possibliy infinite collection has empty intersection => contrapositive, theres finite subcollection not satisfying fct
not compact=> contrapositive, there is a collection of closeds with null intersection that satisfies FCT
did i screw something up or is that right
this is getting ridiculous at this point
i would gladly email the prof that the grader needs to be more careful--its just that the grader may very well be the prof
and saying "you keep grading wrong" is gonna get a negative response no matter how i phrase it
I mean that the proof hardly seems like a proof. "Suppose the supremum is not 1. This is a contradiction because the supremum must be 1."
I think I'm just not understanding it
AstroCode
Interesting. Thank you!
I think in some cases you just have a space and think about its properties and see that it has this but not this property
For counter-examples like that it's useful to check out pi-base
You know, instead of trying to study if particular property follows the other, you study particular space
They clearly want you to take some open ball around p(t_0)
Honestly, their proof is kind of sloppy
I just don't like it
Here's the result I used before, the proof is wrong but you can fix it
(second part of it)
I'm trying to see why this is pseudocompact, firstly
We need continuous functions to be bounded
Hausdorff
Suppose that f(x) =/= f(0) for some x
Okay
Well then the pre-image of U under f is empty, right? No other option
But it contains x by assumption
Yeah, so f is constant
Thanks!
Np
Hausdorff
Yeah clearly this has no finite subcover
Yep
Thank you!
DarQ
wait, no
O is a subset of the power set of X
Wdym?

it has to satisfy the axioms
I was wrong
for example take $\mathcal{O}={\emptyset, {1}, {2,3}, {1,2,3,4}}$ and $X={1,2,3,4}$
DarQ
$\mathcal{O}$ is obviously a subset of the powerset of $X$
DarQ

yeah, I get that now
Did you want to say something else with your example?
I was explaining what I meant here
this is quite confusing
can we say a set is open in some topology when it isn't actually open?
I don't see what you mean by "actually" open
A set isn't inherently open, only relative to some topology
given one set X there will in general be various different topologies you can place on it, so a given subset of X may be open in one topology and not in the other
(I mean that's just exactly what it means for the topologies to not be the same)
Suppose that we have a topological space $X$ and subspaces $A,B \subseteq X$ which are homeomorphic, then is it true that the quotient spaces $X/A$ and $X/B$ have the same homotopy type?
MISTERSYSTEM
There is one case where it is easy to see this is true, if $A$ and $B$ are homeomorphic and moreover, we have find a homeomorphism $f : X \rightarrow X$ such that $f(A) = B$.
\
\
Because in this case, we can define a map $\tilde{f} : X \rightarrow X/B$ which takes a point x to the equivalence class of $f(x)$ modulo $B$, we can then use the universal property of the quotient by $A$ to induce a homeomorphism between $X/A$ and $X/B$. (so in particular, they have the same homotopy type).
MISTERSYSTEM
But is this true in general?
This seems wrong. Maybe smth like this? Consider two disjoint intervals, say [0,1] \coprod [2,3]. Consider the subspaces {1,2} and {0,1}. Clearly these are homeomorphic as finite discrete subspaces, but one quotient is contractible while the other isn't (and is not even connected)
Ah, [0,1] coprod [2,3] quotient out by {0,1} would be the disjoint union of S^1 and [2,3], right? While the quotient of [0,1] coprod [2,3] by {1,2} is homeomorphic to [0,3], which is contractible.
That's neat
Np
I had something else in mind
Fwiw I kept trying to come up with examples on connected spaces with no luck
So maybe with some extra conditions (maybe u need cw) this could be true?
What if we take the plane R^2 and the open disk (let's call it D^2) in R^2. Then the open disk is homeomorphic to R^2. I was thinking about taking X=R^2, A=R^2 and B=D^2. Then, we know that R^2/R^2 is just a point. What I was having trouble with, was trying to specify R^2/D^2 up to homotopy type.
And I was trying to use this as a counter example
I mean, the quotient of R^2 by the open disk is not even T_1.
Yea i thought of something like that too, but I don't really know what that quotient would look like
Might still be contractible
Yeah, and I spent so much time thinking about this example with no luck.
This also made me think about another question
In general, how hard is it to compute the fundamental group of the quotient of a space?
I know some stuff related to taking quotients of (nice) spaces by nice group actions
but that's about it
But are there more general results?
Knowing about how singular homology and cohomology behave under certain quotients would be nice too.
Btw, I am aware that this might not be such a well posed question.
what if you take the big space to be D^2 wedge S^1. then take A= the S^1. then take B = the S^1 thats the boundary of the D^2 .
$CP^{n-1} \hookrightarrow CP^n$
bert
as [a0,...,an-1] -> [a0,...,an-1,1] right?
why does this induce isomorphism on H^i for i <2n-2
(I am reading example 3.40 in Hatcher)
Oh that's a nice example
For singular homology I know there's some conditions for say CW complexes where the homology of the quotient coincides with relative homology
Hausdorff
Note that a zero-set is just the collection of zeros of some real-valued continuous function in this case
Why is that true, i.e., why are the f_i's continuous
@vast estuary because X is normal
In a normal space there exists a Urysohn function separating any two disjoint closed sets
There's an LES of relative homotopy groups for nice spaces (for example CW complexes and subcomplexes)
i was thinking about directed graphs earlier and wondering if there was a use in studying "continuous versions" of them. By that i mean that it feels like there must be useful ways to encode a weighted direction to a neighborhood (simplest one would be to consider an implicit hypersurface in R^n and to take directional derivatives) and im wondering if there are ways to associate digraphs to such structures to get information on them
particularly to simplify computations on very large digraphs
for a manifold example take S^1 x R^2. A = S^1 x p, B = p x S^1
This example seems a bit harder to picture, how does the quotient of R^2 by S^1 look like? But yeah, we could also use a fundamental group argument to see that since S^1×R^2/S^1×{p} ≈ R^{2}, then its fundamental group is trivial, but S^1×R^2/{p}×S^{1} ≈ S^1 × (R^2/S^1) has non trivial fundamental group and these spaces can't be homotopy equivalent.
R^2/S^1 looks like S^2 wedge R^2
Hey, does anyone know what finite space has a fundamental group of Z2?
That is, {0, 1}.
hey im in an undergrad topology class and working on a presentation on higher homotopy groups. the topic itself seems pretty broad and mostly above my level. are there any interesting results they give that are appropriate for an undergrad topology class?
I mean you can try to give some kind of an overview of what homotopy groups of spheres look like, but certainly not with any proofs
higher homotopy groups are insanely hard
i've realized haha, really got the short end of the stick with this one
cool so you can try to survey what is known about homotopy groups of spheres and their stabilization
in order of difficulty it's like
π_k(S^n)=0 for k<n
π_n(S^n)=Z
Freudenthal suspension theorem and stabilization
stable homotopy groups of spheres (a lot more is known about this)
π_k(S^n) for k>n (very little is known in this range)
probably very little you can say about the unstable range since the techniques there are insane
very little you can say about how you actually compute things in the stable range, just that things stabilize
ooh interesting. i haven't heard of the freudenthal suspension theorem, so this does seem like something interesting to mention
yeah so this is the theorem that tells you that the homotopy groups of spheres stabilize in some range
(or more generally for other spaces)
so this is the theorem that is the starting point for stable homotopy theory
alright, i'll see if i can work with this thanks. thankfully i dont have to go in depth or anything
yeah
you can maybe mention at the end why stable homotopy groups of spheres matter, other than the obvious motivation that they tell you a lot about the homotopy groups of spheres in general
e.g. the stable homotopy groups of spheres classify framed cobordism classes of manifolds
that might be hard to explain to the class in the alotted time, cobordism isn't something we have covered, but i'll try to get that in there if i can.
It'd be weird if you did cover cobordism
Just putting this out here again in case someone smarter than me knows if examples
Not exactly but interesting to know there’s another field for « directed spaces »
Thanks
if you guys have talked about H spaces maybe you can do the puppe sequence
I can elaborate on it a bit if you want
or the long exact sequence of a fibration
sure! i've mainly been going over homotopy groups of spheres, but i am interested
A bit late lol but if you have seen an H-space you know that it is a space X equipped with a map h: X x X -> X that obeys nice homotopical properties. A fairly direct consequence of this is that for any other space Y, [Y, X] obtains a group structure: given two classes f: Y -> X and g: Y -> X, we ave a map fg: Y -> X x X, and composing with h you get another map in [Y, X].
Similarly there is a notion of co H-space, which is a space X equipped with a map h: X -> X wedge X that obeys nice homotopical properties, and in this case for any space Y, [X, Y] obtains a nice group structure. The most important examples of H and co H-spaces are loop spaces and suspensions respectively (with suspensions the map X -> X wedge X is given by quotienting out the middle to a point for example).
So lets say i have a map of CW complexes f: A -> B. Then if C(f) is the mapping cone of f (take the mapping cylinder of f and then quotient out the top to a point so it looks like a cone) I have a natural map B -> C(f) given by sending B to the copy of B in the bottom of the cone. So i have a sequence A -> B -> C(f).
this is called the coexact puppe sequence, coexact meaning that if I apply Hom(-, X) to this sequence (recalling that this will reverse the direction of the arrows) we get an exact sequence $\ldots \to [\Sigma A, X] \to [C(f), X] \to [B, X] \to [A, X]$
Dually we have a similar exact sequence using loop spaces and mapping fibers but I chose to go with this one because idk if you know what a mapping fiber is I think the cylinder is taught more commonly in these kinds of classes
but you can read that one online
@fading vale who is simone lol
Maybe not in this channel cause I was writing something up
anyway this was kind of a lot to throw at you and I have no idea if its actually fit for your class/how much time you have but I think this is a potentially very good choice. Higher homotopy groups are in general very not nice unlike homology. However these sequences (the puppe sequences) are one of the rare instances in where they are nice: from them we can see that generally computing the homotopy type of the total space of a fibration in terms of the base space and the fiber is generally not super bad (covering theory is sort of a nice case of this for n = 1 actually)
Doing the same thing for singular cohomology is a lot harder and requires use of spectral sequences
Thanks, didn't know that
what is example of weak homotopy equivalence that isnt homotopy equivalence
are the examples very pathological
nvm
found examples
i wonder what the motivating example was for weak homotopy equivalence
if not example why does it exist as a notion
@jaunty pumice I’m actually in the the exact same situation as you, I also have higher htpy groups as a presentation topic with it technically being way above my level :D feel free to ping me if you find something nice to present and I can do the same for you if you want me to
Currently reading what all the others already suggested 
ping@me also
im interested in topic
Additionally, you need to argue by Weierstrass M-test and uniform convergence that f is continuous
Then, the proof is complete
That was very nice moth 
Nice writeup, thanks 
oof sniped
Lmao
That was implicit but yes
@vast estuary what does completely seperated mean
Well there's an Urysohn function
Basically if A, B are completely separated in X
There is a continuous function from X to [0,1], which takes 0 on A, and 1 on B
Can it be equal to 0 outside of A?
Yes
A is contained in f^-1(0)
B is contained in f^-1(1)
Both are closed in S
So closed in X
@vast estuary
Ah! Right, that's very neat and much simpler compared to the proof I came up with
Also see the first line here
Suppose you have a metric space X, and two disjoint closed sets A, B. A,B are zero sets of some continuous functions f, g on X. I want to show that A, B are completely separated. Taking h = |f| - |g| works, right?
h is negative on A, and positive on B. Then we can modify h appropriately to get an Urysohn function
Hmm... not really
There is fairly canonical example of a Urysohn function
consider distance from the sets A,B and modify appropriately
Why?
Why would it work
Oh you're right it doesn't work
Well that's how you'd show that every closed set is a zero set in the first place, right?
The distance functions do it
I didn't even think of that but fair enough
Distance functions also "completely separate" closed sets in a metric space
ye
Okay wait I've a brilliant idea
Hausdorff
They also serve as a kind of, decomposition of unity
Amazing! Yay
The author says, "every closed set is a zero set. SO THAT any two disjoint closed sets are completely separated"
but in our proof, we directly produced an Urysohn function
What is the author's intention behind noting that closed sets are zero sets? How does that help?
ig when you have two zero sets you can always do the f/(f+g) type construction?
Or perhaps |f|/(|f|+|g|) to be more careful (or equivalent)
True
super late but thanks for the writeup @fading vale. was really clear and interesting
so far my presentation focuses on homotopy groups of spheres and briefly touches on stability. my presentation only has to be 15 minutes so i think touching on those would be enough.
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2876463/why-is-it-that-homotopy-is-better-described-by-weak-equivalences-than-by-homotop Here is an MSE post that might be helpful
thanks
CW Complexes (& Whitehead): What does the first sentence here mean? This is a proof used in Whitehead's Thm in Dieck. (8.4.1 is the compression lemma: f:(X,A) -> (Y,B) is homotopic rel A to a map X-> B with dim constraints)
I guess it's to do with f: X -> Y being equal to f:X -> M_f -> Y with first map being an inclusion and the second a deformation retraction and thus a homotopy equivalence, but it's a bit too shorthand
Also for a second point: There's a theorem in Spanier which is basically the exact same theorem, but the map h is n-equivalence instead of n-connected. What is the connection here?
which definition for compactness do you use the most?
Why do you ask
I know 3 differet ones equivalent for metric spaces, all of which are useful
- open covers have finite subcovers
- sequences have convergent subsequences
- no closed subspace homeomorphic to natural numbers
that third one is cool
I guess in practice you test it by testing (2) so it's not very useful? but still I've never really thought about it
wondering
There's also in terms of finite intersection property which is basically dual to open cover way (and works in any top space)
a collection of closed subsets has nonempty intersection iff the interaction of every finite (non trivial) subcollection is nonempty
nerd
Lol hi
xddd
long time no see
❤️
yeah that's the one I was studying
Noice
Hello there and good evening! I am currently looking for recommendations on books on general topology, and i mean only general topology, i plan studying algebraic and differential topology later, i already know some basic definitions of topology like certain properties of topological spaces, homeomorphisms and embeddings but i would like to go deeper with my studies, i have no problem with lengthy and terse books, in fact i would much rather prefer those, i like books that keep me busy and are challenging to my brain, so if anyone has any recommendations on such a book i would love to hear it. Thank you very much in advance.
And i am very sorry if my grammar is incorrect, i am not from an English-speaking country. I also apologize if my way of writing seems pretentious, i am trying my best to write in a formal manner due to the fact that i'd like to seem polite, i have recently joined this serve so i don't want any bad first impressions of me.
the book that is recommended most often is Munkres' topology book. it's very good.
i also love seebach and steen's "counterexamples in topology" cause it's fun, though it's not a proper book on topology.
Hm i'll definitely look into it then! Thank you very much, if anyone else has any other recommendations i'd love to hear them but i'll check this one out first.
Thanks!
It's pretty easy to find free PDFs online, so definitely give any book a test run like that even if you plan to buy a physical copy.
I'm not sure which's your native language but Munkres' topology book has a pretty good Spanish edition as well
I like Willard's book over Munkres but it's a tad bit more abstract (though not lacking in exercises and examples); it also introduces nets and filters in the main text which can be useful to prove some things
ah don't worry i can read english books pretty well so it's okay if it's only available in english.
hm i'll certainly check willard's too but currently Munkres' does seem interesting
lee's introduction to topological manifolds has some nice general topology content, and then about halfway through it becomes a more algebraic-topological kind of book
Suppose that we have a topological space $X$ and a group $G$ acting on $X$ via homoeomorphisms, i.e we have a morphism of groups $\psi : G \rightarrow \text{Homeo}(X)$. Then, there's naturally an induced group action of $G^n$ on $X^n$ given by:
\begin{align*}
\psi^{n} : & G^{n} \rightarrow \text{Homeo}(X^{n}) \
g = (g_{1}, \cdots, g_{n}) & \mapsto \psi^{n}{g} \in \text{Homeo}(X^{n})
\end{align*}
Where $\forall x = (x{1}, \cdots, x_{n})$ we have:
$$
\psi^{n}{g}(x) = (\psi(g{1})(x_{1}), \cdots, \psi(g_{n})(x_{n}))
$$
Then, is it true in general that the spaces $(X^{n}/G^{n})$ and $(X/G)^{n}$ are homeomorphic ?
MISTERSYSTEM
Why wouldn't this be true? The orbits of psi^n all factor into products of the orbits of psi
The main problem would be stablishing that the map that takes an orbit of psi^n into the product of orbits of psi is in fact a homeomorphism.
And not only a bijection
a set is open in (X^n/G^n) if its preimage under the quotient map is open. If you take the preimage of such a set by your bijection, then you can argue that that that also has an open preimage because they are essentially the same quotients
This is a bit informal but hopefully you get what i mean 
Hi I'm having trouble reconciling an easy result with an explicit example. If we have pointed topological spaces $X$ and $Y$ with an inclusion map $i:X\hookrightarrow Y$ and a retraction map $r:Y\to X$ with $r\circ i=id_X$ then the functorality of $\pi_1$ implies that we have a short exact sequence $$N\longrightarrow \pi_1(Y)\stackrel{r_#}{\longrightarrow} \pi(X)$$ where $N=\ker{r_#}$. If we take the explicit example of a torus being retracted into the figure 8 (https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=j2HxBUaoaPU) then $\pi_1(Y)=\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}$ and $\pi_1(X)=\mathbb{Z}\mathbb{Z}$ but is it even possible to have a surjective homomorphism from $\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}$ to $\mathbb{Z}\mathbb{Z}$? this feels impossible
Demonstration that the punctured torus retracts to a space homeomorphic to a figure eight.
it says punctured torus
Punctured torus is homotopy equivalent to wedge of two circles @sharp frost
oh that would make sense ty
damn it so this is a bad example then because X and Y are homotopy equivalent
I'm gonna second that Munkres is definetely the clearest approach for general topology! I used a different book on my courses, and every time something was confusing I knew I could check out if Munkres would have the same thing and be certain it would help.
It's old and his approach to simplexes is horrible, but I like Dugundji a lot
His books make for a nice read
I heard about this book from some of my juniors too, who said it's way better than Munkres
hi @midnight echo,
i'm reply in response to your question about compactness in a metric space posted on a math help channel which is now closed.
#help-15 message
you don't need surjectivity of $f$ for the conclusion of part (2) to hold.
vin100
X a connected totally ordered set, does its section S connected?
Is there some nice way to prove that a union of a simple chain of n-cells is an n-cell?
This is not true actually
I think it's true if I assume the n-cells are convex and embedded in R^n
Yeah, the category of topological spaces is weird 
I am slowly getting more and more convinced that I should care a lot more about the category of locally compact hausdorff spaces, the category of compacly generated spaces or the category of weakly hausdorff spaces.
rather than working with weirdly behaved spaces
Can someone help me with trying to understand this definition of a compact space?
A space X is said to be compact if every open covering of X contains finite subfamily that also covers X.
So my understanding of compact spaces is that it is a space which includes all of its limit points ( i dont know if that is correct); but i cant really understand how this definition means the same as the one i intuitively get.
That understanding isn't really correct. R contains all its limit points, but it's not compact. "Containing all your limit points" is something that only makes sense in the context of a bigger space (where those limit points might come from). So this isn't really a workable definition.
For metric spaces, there are two ways of defining compactness. The one you gave is the one that applies to general topological spaces too.
The other one is about limits. It says that a space is compact if every sequence has a convergent subsequence.
In other words, every sequence has a limit point.
i thought infinity can is also a limit point (while not being a point exactly), which if you include in R it becomes compact, no?
Again, that totally depends on the broader space you're looking at.
The best way to understand this definition is that a compact space can be understood / dealt with by just looking in finitely many spots.
For example, on R, we can take the intervals (n, n + 2) for each n. These intervals cover R, but there's no way to just look at finitely many of them and understand all of R.
I think you mean, every sequence has a limit point
And if you were to define compactness in this way, then it's correct for, say, metric spaces
But for general spaces we need to use filters instead of sequences
But in a compact space, this definition tells you that you can "see" your whole space (given some collection of open sets that you want to understand: these could represent sets where some function varies by a certain amount, or open connected components, or plenty of other things) by just looking at finitely many of your open sets.
hmm, ok so these finitely many subsets are representative of the whole space
which is kind of explained by the "covers all of X"
i dont know, this definition is not intuitive at all, the one with sequences is much more clear what it means
also, these finite sets cant be open, right? Becouse than you would have an inifite loop of those
We can't use sequences in general topological spaces
You're right that it's not intuitive, it takes a while to learn and internalize.
You can have equivalent definition with filters, which are a way to generalize sequences, but you need a new definition for that
It's also hard to prove things are compact using this definition.
The benefit is that it's a very very useful definition for doing proofs about compact things.
It's a simple definition
I think that's the main advantage
I would say that this definition becomes more and more intuitive and useful the more you use it in other proofs. You see why it makes sense.
But it's not like... super easy to prove that in metric spaces the sequence definition and the open cover definition are equivalent.
Yeah. It's not so hard. But the ideas feel weird when you see them for the first time.
(turns out those ideas are super ubiquitous and important, but they're not clear at first)
I didn't think about it much when I first took topology, so I didn't have this problem
i'm dodging actually typing them out cause i don't want to remember the details. lol
i will trust you on this, as i do have some proofs coming up with compact spaces
Speaking about compactness, what I think sucks a little is that the construction in the Čech-Stone compactification is almost never given more generally
You can use pretty much the same construction but with different filters and obtain different compactifications
You might be interested to look into the construction of compactifications of locally compact spaces using a correspondence with C* algebras. The stone-cech compactification corresponds to the spectrum of the algebra of bounded continuous functions on your space. Then you can look at subalgebras in between the bounded functions and the functions which vanish at infinity, and see these as different compactifications.
then this generalizes to the noncommutative setting, you can look at "multiplier algebras" of nonunital C* algebras (for the case of continuous functions vanishing at infinity on a locally compact space, this corresponds exactly to the stone-cech compactification) https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multiplier_algebra
@hollow harbor do you have any, say, paper or monograph about this instead, I hardly like to browse wikipedia
I will take a look
Here are some papers which you could look at, which I also should look at:
https://core.ac.uk/download/pdf/82567939.pdf
https://www.uni-muenster.de/FB10/mjm/vol_4/mjm_vol_4_05.pdf
the intros / background sections of these papers might be helpful.
I don't know if this is recorded in a book anywhere.
Yeah. That's what I'm looking at now and it's just ok
Actually this isn't bad
oh wow!
this is a weird question but - I'm in an algebraic topology course and I need to give a presentation on some topic in or related to the field. Any suggestions for subjects?
if you like data analysis, maybe topological data analysis? it uses something called persistent homology to analyse the shape of datasets
can someone clear this up for me, i am getting different facts from different sources.
If we say that some family of subsets F covers a subspace A of a topological space, then does this mean that a union of this sets equals A or does it mean that A is a subset of union of F?
A is a subset
I think thats the standard interpretation
i know an author that means A is equal to the union though
its best to check the authors convension
Honestly, just figure it out from context
ok, i think that A should be subset so i will go with that
Anyone know how to demonstrate a countable basis around 0 for the K-topology
Not regular at origin since K closed wrt K-topology, so showing separability unfortunately isn’t sufficient
Maybe it’s easy and there’s some reason just taking intervals w rational endpoints and removing K is necessarily countable
@weak narwhal intervals with rational endpoints should be countable, even before removing K
you can identify it with Q x Q
and since Q is countable, so is Q^2
it's actually a strict subset of Q^2
because a < b in (a,b)
but I don't quite see why rational intervals (a,b) centered around 0 in R\K forms a basis for the K-topology
I see it's a basis for a topology
every other point but the origin contains only finitely many elements of K, so other points inherit a countable base from the standard topology
so I'm thinking i need only show that 0 has a countable local base and union it in
ah
hmm could you say a little bit more about this
I meant to say you can identify it with a subset of Q x Q
because an element of Q x Q is a point (p, q), both points rational
an interval centered around 0 and with rational endpoints is also of the form (p, q) but with p < q
so there's a one-to-one function from your set of intervals into Q x Q
ah i see
actually you can say more
your interval is of the form (-p, p)
where p > 0 is rational
but again you can realize all of those as a subset of Q x Q
u could prob construct it explicitly by ${(1/n,1/(n+1))\cup {0},{(-1/(n+1),-1/n)\cup {0}\mid n\in \mathbb N}$ right
Dpao
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I'm confused, that looks like a totally different set than we were just talking about
omfg idk what i was thinking
@wide kayak i already knew that the intervals with rational endpoints is countable for the reason u stated, idk why it wasnt immedialtey obvious that removing points ofc doesnt take away countablility
oh, yeah. It could only make it go down
but it doesn't actually since countable with finitely many points removed is still countable
i was thinking about taking intervals between N and unioning it with 0 to get a local base, but this actually may be finer on second look
oh, so the ones centered around 0, together with the ones like (1/n, 1/n+1) ?
and the negative ones
I don't think you want to include {0}
the singleton 0 together with the opens between elts in K
its not even a base
the intersection of any two nonequal elements in that set i proposed is {0} which isnt in the set
so picking x=0 we dont have any subset of the intersection containing x
I think I need to hear the problem again
finding a countable basis for the K-topology that's centered around 0?
yea, we found one its just $\mathcal B={(a,b)\setminus K\mid a,b\in \mathbb Q}$
i just wanted to point out that this was demonstrably wrong
Dpao
so taking this together with the usual basis of opens w rational endpoints gives a countable basis for the total space
Hi! This is a part of the proof in Dieck for Whitehead theorem for CW complexes. What does the first sentence "h is an inclusion" exactly mean here?
I know it has something to do with the map h being deconstructed to maps h: B -i- > M_h -r-> Y where i is an inclusion to the mapping cylinder and r is deformation retraction and thus a homotopy equivalence
does it mean B can be identified with a subspace of Y?
That would make sense, dont exactly see why though. Maybe it is just to mean up to homotopy, since it is definetely a composition of an inclusion and homotopy equivalence. Weird way to shorthand that though.
(Is your name a reference to Kayo Dot perchance? :D)
yes!!
Damn! Love them so much! One of my absolute favourites
fantastic
I kind of fell out of keeping up with their newer stuff, have a few albums to catch up on
Yup they definetely arent all consistently as good. The newest album is a bit more like the older stuff. Love Plastic House and Blue Lambency tho. maudlin stuff still some of the best
yea BLD is great. Dowsing is probably my favorite. I saw a really positive review of their newest one, should check it out
#discussion #serious-discussion or dms tbh
Ya just a quick chat nw ^^
this is a good one, consider what b\mapsto (b,0) looks like in the mapping cylinder of h
oh i see thats not the issue here
i think its just saying we have a homotopy equivalent inclusion M_h, ill have to check
strange way to phrase it though
Yes I agree. I think this is right since as we see the homotopy equivalence I think we can regard h as the inclusion of a relative CW complex (M_h, B) and now we can use the compression lemma 8.4.1 to a map (X,Z)->(M_h, B) to gain a homotopic map X -> B rel Z. That's kinda confusing. Still to realize why this gives surjectivity though when Z={0}.
Is there a type of topological space where every closed neighborhood of a set contains an open neighborhood of that set?
Well any such space is either discrete or not even T1 if you consider singletons
ahh that's a good point
Well it's also imply any closed set is open more generally
Huh? A neighbourhood by definition contains an open neighbourhood
Every such space? Since it's a neighbourhood, it needs to contain an open neighbourhood by definition
Is there a name for a retraction which maps the complement of our retract into a specific subset of our space?
Sorry i was sleepy idk why i said that lmao, ig i assumed to avoid triviality they meant smth slightly different by closed nbhd
how can i see that suspension spectra are connective?
im confused
we want \pi_k(E)=0 for k<0
if E is the suspension spectra of a space X then
$\pi_k(E)=\operatorname{colim}n(\pi{n+k}(\Sigma^n X))$
lime_soup
i think the arguement should be something like, for large $n$ $\Sigma^nX$ is $q$ connected, so $\pi_{n+k}(\Sigma^n X)=0$ for $n+k<q$
lime_soup
but I don't see why the colimit is then 0
I'm a little confused
i thought this theorem had restrictions on n>1
Nobody
lime_soup

