#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 261 of 1
I agree that the two spaces in your first picture are homeomorphic. I guess the second space in your first picture is homotopy equivalent to the space in your second picture. But why, exactly?
you are just contracting this red arc here
Yes, but you have to contract the rest of the space with it in a nice way. I'm not sure exactly how to do this at the precise moment where the two points merge into one
i'm not sure exactly what the issue is
but it would maybe help to be more formal about it
you can apply van Kampen's theorem here, X = U \cup V where U is the sphere and V is the circle consisting of the line segment & the red arc i've drawn
or maybe just to help with intuition, any time you have a loop in this space it must pass through the line segment (since X \ the line is simply connected), but any loop through the line segment can be made to start and end at a given point on the sphere
for example, by moving it onto the red arc above
so contracting the red arc onto that point doesn't add or remove any loops
Yeah I agree that one can see it with van Kampen's theorem. I just want to be able to see why the following holds:
Like, what does the homotopy equivalence (the mappings between them) look like?
you can leave the entire sphere unchanged outside of a neighborhood of the circle
consisting of the line segment + the red arc
i'm not sure of a better way to describe it except just by sliding one point onto the other
you can keep track of any given point under this transformation
the map is a bijection except for at the red points, because it maps the entire red path to a point
i'm not sure what you're looking for, is it more formality? or what
This kind of explanation is exactly what I was looking for, thanks!
oh ok
And the "homotopy inverse" is the map which is the identity on the "surface" part, and maps the loop to the loop consisting of the segment between the two points together with the red line, I guess
Okay yeah, I'm convinced
it might be worthwhile to examine the proof that contracting a contractible subspace A in X is a homotopy equivalence when (X,A) is a CW pair
You mean that the quotient map $X\to X/A$ is a homotopy equivalence?
gustavn64
yes
Ah yeah. I haven't really worked through any algebraic topology text, I've just picked up bits that I need here and there, but maybe I should take the time to do that
(To learn about small lemmas and stuff like that)
unrelated but whenever somebody talks about important properties of CW pairs i just start getting angry at how hatcher introduces the concept of cofibration in chapter 2 but under a different name ("good pair", presumably because he just doesn't want to frighten readers with terminology) and under a nonstandard (but equivalent) definition
it was like another 6 months before i realized that good pairs and cofibrations were the same thing
i'm never going to let this go.
wait wtf
I'm also in this boat
tfw I just realized a good pair is a cofibration
malding that my algtop professor didn't say this in class
yeah i'm looking it up and Hatcher defines a good pair is a "nonempty closed subspace A in X which is a deformation retract of a neighborhood in X"
This is basically equivalent to a cofibration. More precisely, if (X,A) is a good pair then the inclusion of A in X is a cofibration, and a cofibration is always a subspace inclusion whose image is the deformation retract of a neighborhood; if we work in a category of good topological spaces (compactly generated and weakly hausdorff) then a cofibration is closed
if i have an affine variety how can i find its irreducible components?
i don't know much about this subject but i think that this is more or less equivalent to primary ideal decomposition.
At the risk of saying something stupid
faye's reaction has given me validation, i plan to repeat this complaint in 1.8 months and possibly cause the same reaction in another person who stumbles into this channel at the time
I am trying to prove that the interior of the closed ball in R^2 is itself
i defined an element (a, b) in closed ball
then there exists an open ball in the closed ball s.t.
(a, b) in open ball in closed ball
Now im stuck =p
Grab any interior point, then choose a ball centered at that point small enough for the radius of the interior point + the radius of the new ball to be smaller than the radius of the original ball. Then apply triangle inequality (I think?) to prove that ball works.
btw what's the etiquette here re: bumping questions?
what about the points on the boundary?
Oh, I apologize
I meant to say
that the interior of the closed ball in R^2 is the open ball
My instruction to show this: "Give complete arguments based
on definitions, properties and characterization theorems"
My reasoning: by def. of interior, int(B closed) is the union of all open sets in B closed -- in the standard topology on R^2, open sets are open balls, hence the union of open sets of B closed is a union of open balls, which together form an open ball themselves ==> int(B closed) = B
@orchid forge am I way off?
open sets are unions of open balls, not necessarily open balls themselves
your first argument seemed to be more promising, a point is in the interior if you can fit an open ball around it, which is contained in the closed ball
would euclidean geometry go in here or one of the early university channels?
woops no i meant elementary diff geometry

here or #multivariable-calculus
Yeah, I wish we had manifolds n stuff but right now its Pressley's book, which doesn't really go that deep into the manifolds or riemannian stuff
so would that be multivar-calc then?
just ask it here no ones gonna get mad at you
Yeh
posting in #multivariable-calculus will get it buried anyways
Just don’t ask no SAS triangle questions 
reminder
lmfao no I'm just trying to prove some stuff to do with curvature and I feel like I'm on uneven footing, let me get this cleaned up for looking over
Manzareh
have you tried the pre university channel?

(jk)
I feel like I'm skipping some steps here, or I goofed up since my final statement seems kinda messy I guess
I'm not sure what we're trying to show with all of this
reversing the orientation of a curve can only really do one of two things to a quantity involving the tangent vector right?
like intuitively it's either gonna fix it or reverse it
Right, but how would I go about showing that? I have a theorem that states that I know for certain that two curves with the same signed curvature are equivalent to isometry, which is similar to what you're saying if i'm catching your drift
which is to say if i really poke and prod it, it should look like the two are different by either a rotation or a translation, right?
so the curvature would be the same, but the sign of the tangent and the sign of the normal would have to agree with that?
the curvature at each point, being intrinsic to the curve, would be the same
but the signed curvature depends on the orientation
so you have to think about it for a sec
so then they'd really only differ by a minus sign?
if they were different in anyway
cause kappa is a scalar quantity, so it really wouldn't have much flexibility either way, right? Am I understanding this?
that's what i'm saying, the conclusion should be either that the curvature is the same or negative
it should just be a computation
Like you did in the beginning
if $u = \pm s + c$, then $\frac{d^2}{ds^2} \gamma(u) = \gamma''(u) \cdot (u')^2 + \gamma'(u) \cdot (u'')$
Kogasa
now $\gamma''(u)$ is just the scalar curvature at $u$, $u' = \pm 1$ so $(u')^2 = 1$, and $u'' = 0$
Kogasa
so this is just $\kappa(u) = \kappa(\pm s + c)$
Kogasa
or, intuitively, since the curvature tells you which way the tangent vector is turning: reversing the orientation means that you're now turning in the opposite direction, but also the tangent vector is pointing backwards
okay I think I got it now, thank you!
wait wait wait
i think i misread the problem
the curve $\gamma$ is supposed to be the signed curvature of some other curve $\tilde \gamma$?
Kogasa
and you're trying to figure out how the curvature of $\tilde \gamma$ relates to the curvature of $\gamma$?
Kogasa
heading to the library right now to get a bunch of books on applications of spectral sequences in differential geometry
can we just double check that the problem is correctly stated
should it be, something like, "How does the scalar curvature of $\hat \gamma$ relate to $\gamma$" rather than "relate to that of $\gamma$"?
Kogasa
because if not then my answer shouldn't have made any sense
hi I am reading algebraic topology a first course and encounter some questions in the proof, why we need to define a new function $g$ and use another path to prove $g_y=q$ and thus $f_y=g_y=q$, but not using f and the original path directly?
siv
I think this is just a choice by the author, you could show it in a different way
so since $\omega = pdx + qdy$, the definition of $f$ coincides with $f(x,y) = \int_{y_0}^y q(x_0,t) dt + \int_{x_0}^x p(t,y) dt$
Phil P
you could now use differentiation under the integral sign to show $f_y = q$
Phil P
instead the authoer chooses to use greens theorem in combination with a different path
oh I thought there is a special reason that I cannot use the same path
thank you
Could anyone help me working out the following example?
The absurd is clear, the construcion of the exterior is not
c squared
does anybody have any tips/hints on how to show this result?
restrict to preimage of some such interval and apply extreme value theorem
what is "some such interval" referring to?
(-\infty, c]
preimage of
yea i think just restricting it to a non-empty preimage of (-\infty, c] works
thought it was going to be more complicated than that, so i tossed that idea out first
oh yeah nonempty oops
guaranteed at least one such preimage since X is non-empty
right
What would be the complementary of a cartesian product of 2 intervalls of R ?
Is there any way to use it in order to prove that two closed intervals in a cross product is also a close set ?
I know about unions of open sets, but cartesian products ... ?
Let me DM you a copy of the problem statement, hold on
ok so my solution was fine
we were just looking at how the curvature changes if we change between unit speed parametrizations
Hi, got a couple of basic topology questions that I'm not 100% sure about
My course currently is dealing with continuity in the most basic sense, not even to the stage of homeomorphisms but past what you might expect from an analysis class, just for context on my understanding right now
One question I have is: is it possible to have a continuous surjection from [a, b] U [c, d] to [x, y]? What about the reverse
I am not sure about this at all, on one hand I can loosely imagine a function mapping a1 -> x1, c1 -> x2, a2 -> x3, ... . But I am not sure if this is a valid mapping
yep! I just wanted to be sure I wasn't missing anything, thank you again!!
first try proving that, for any two intervals [a, b] and [c, d] in R, there's a surjective continuous map [a, b] -> [c, d] (assuming a < b and c < d to get rid of trivial cases). try to imagine translating and scaling one interval to the other, and use this to come up with a good map.
for your question: if the intervals are disjoint then you just put your two maps together into a piecewise function, and if they're not, you got another such interval and you can apply the result directly. the converse won't be true if [a, b] and [c, d] are disjoint, since then their union is a "disconnected space," but as you'll see later, the continuous image of a connected space is connected (and [x, y] is connected). intuitively you won't be able to map [x, y] onto [a, b] u [c, d] without "cutting" [x, y] apart if the intervals [a, b] and [c, d] are disjoint
Thanks for the tip on the first bit.
Re: the second bit; is the example of a mapping I've given sufficient for a piecewise mapping? Or is there a bit of logic I've missed. Dealing with how infinite the reals are is not something I'm completely familiar with yet so I'm not 100% sure if I'm right there. I'm a little worried about what happens at the border specifically, for example if the example sets were to be [0, 1] U [2, 3] to [4, 6], and we mapped [0, 1] to [4, 4.99999...), is that mapping valid? Because the second set is half open, and if it were to be closed it feels like there would be "missing" numbers (specifically those between 4.999.... and 5)
Intuitively it feels that I can't map [x, y] onto [a, b] U [c, d], and this was my gut feel as well. Is it correct to say that this mapping is not continuous because if for [x, x'], a subset of [x, y] and the mapping [x, x'] -> [a, b], there is a point close to x' but is not close to [a, b] and hence it is not a continuous function?
What map [0, 1] -> [4, 5) are you thinking of exactly
big if true
Todd is a known troll. I calculated 5 -4.99… and it is 0.00…01
As everyone knows 5 = 4.99… is equivalent to 5 - 4.99… = 0 but 0.00…01 ≠ 0
That's not very Hausdorff of you
I feel attacked by this react
What radius ball separates 0 from 0.000...1
alright, i'm back once more with something I've done with torsion if no-one is doing something currently, I think I messed up though since the resulting equation seems too clean this time.
Todd doesn't know about topologically indistinguishable points... 😩
What the fuck is Hausdorff, my space is irreducible
Manzareh
0.000....05 duh
Not 100% sure, just napkin math and trying to work it out.
Thank you all for your help
Consider the torus $\mathbb{R}^2/\mathbb{Z}^2$ and the loops $\alpha_1(t) = [(t,0)],\ \alpha_2(t) = [(0,t)],\ \alpha_3(t) = [(t,t)]$. For each $i=1,2,3$ I want to find a 2-fold covering of the torus so that the lift of the loop $\alpha_i$ is again a loop, whereas the lifts of the other two loops are not.
Phil P
By essentially guessing and checking I got the coverings for $i=1,2$ (total spaces $\mathbb{R}^2/\mathbb{Z} \times 2\mathbb{Z}$ and $\mathbb{R}^2/2\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}$ with the obvious maps), but im stuck at $i=3$.
Phil P
There's gotta be some clever way to go about this. Anybody got any ideas?
What does it mean "As the zero set of finitely many polynomials, R is a closed subset of S ×S" ??? I don't see the relation.
I find that justification a bit weird
As in, I'm not sure why it says "finitely many", because I think infinitely many would also mean R is a closed subset and, at any rate, it's just the one polynomial
Mabye there's something I'm misunderstanding
y-tx
???
I may be misunderstanding the definition of R there
Ohhh the t is not fixed
Reading what the proposition is trying to prove would've probably helped me realize that. Sorry. 😅
Not sure what a minor is but I still don't get why you need them to be finitely many
the whole proof relies on minors
a 2x2-minor is the determinant of a sub-2x2-matrix of the original matrix
Ahh ok ok
vanishing of all 2x2 minors is equivalent to the two columns being linearnly dependent
But like, to justify why the intersection of the zero sets is closed, you don't really need to say there are finitely many of them, right?
It's easy to prove they're all closed, therefore the intersection is closed.
yeah
That's why the "finitely many" part throws me off
i dont think its weird considering we have finitely many minors
its a more precise description of R than if you would leave out the "finitely many"
on an unrelated note I'd like to shamelessly bump my own question
Does the same construction as for the other two maps not work?
what would that look like?
My thinking is
You know how in the other two maps
You basically grabbed the one "perpendicular" to the one you wanted to preserve
And then you collapsed it "in two"
?
(I assume you did that)
Then grabbing the loop perpendicular to (t,t) (so (t,-t)) and collapsing it might work?
Maybe not
im not really sure what you mean by "collapsed in two"
i didnt think too much about these two cases, as i said I just guessed and it worked xd
Like, foliating the torus by circles and mapping those circles by z -> z^2
If that makes sense
yeah thats what i though of
Where if you foliate it vertically you get one of the maps, and horizontally the other
never heard of foliating
I'm saying that if you do it diagonally (perpendicular to the loop you wanna preserve) that might work too
but (z,w) -> (z^2,w) and (z,w) -> (z,w^2) were my initial guesses
hmm ok
now i only need to figure out how to do that
A foliation is basically covering a manifold with smaller-dimensional submanifolds
These are foliated tori, for example
Hmm wait this might not work
It's a bit more involved
Hmm I think it might work but I'd have to write it down
(sorry if my random throw-shit-at-the-wall approach is not particularly helpful 😅 )
nah its good actually
Any have a good introduction to stacks
Ok I've drawn some diagrams and I'm about 75% sure it does work
could you show the diagrams
im more interested in the approach to this than the actual solution
I'm not sure that'd be helpful. But let me think if I can explain the idea instead, which should be helpful. 😛
Grab the loop you wanna preserve, then grab a loop "perpendicular" to it.
Make many copies of said perpendicular loop so that they fill the torus in the natural way
Like in this picture
by translation?
Yes
If you then use the double cover z -> z^2 on the circle on each of those loops
You've got a double-cover of the torus (from the torus)
This is essentially what you did in the other two cases
ohh now i think i get the picture
Now, if you go along the vertical loop, it will, intuitively, have a "component" in the foliating loops, and will thus get "carried around" when you lift it
Same for the horizontal loop
But the diagonal loop is entirely perpendicular
So it does not get carried along.
There's probably a very non-geometric, write-down-the-formulas-of-the-maps-and-check-they-do-what-you-want way of doing this rigorously
But that's the geometric intuition
thanks for this, really nice
Now I'll bump my own question 😅
And also this question
As much as I loved your discussion, I still don't get the relationship between "being a zero set of polynomials" and "being closed"
polynomials are continuous, so the pre-image of the closed set {0} is closed
ah, so!
thank you
and here, how can Xp act on f, if f belongs to another set of germs?
but X_p is acting on f \circ F
But Xp by definition is a map from Cp(N) to Reals, not from Cq(M) (q = F(p))
or am I missing something
f \circ F is in C_p(N)
I can't see how. F maps P from N to M, then is followed by f
But Xp belongs to TpN, so it should act on functions from N --> R
Ah, I think I get it
yes, the composition f \circ F is a function N --> R
yeah, dumb question, ahah. Thank you.
Hey guys
I am really stuck on this question
I don't know how to follow through with the reasoning.
What I have thus far.
@orchid forge any ideas =[?
I'm guessing they write this explicitly as a characterization theorem
A point $y$ is in the interior $B^\circ$ if and only if there exists an open set $U$ so that $y \in U \subset B$
Kogasa
Yes -- that is for the interior
My work thus far is for the closure
which is that
y is in closure of A iff any open set contiaining y intersects A
Yes
step 1 would be to figure out what the closure is, then step 2 would be to actually prove it
step 1: ✅ cl(closed ball) = closed ball
ok, so take a point $y \in \bar B$ and prove that it's in the closure of $\bar B$
step 2: i began with the theorem, but i am not sure how to go about proving such
Kogasa
(every open neighborhood of $\bar B$ automatically contains $y$, since $y \in \bar B$)
Kogasa
now take a point $y \in (\bar B)^c$ and prove it's not in the closure; there exists an open set $U \ni y$ which is disjoint from $\bar B$
this should say "any closed set" btw
oh I see, every open neighborhood of y
it's correct, I was thinking about an open neighborhood of $\bar B$
Kogasa
oh gotcha
Kogasa
note that the above is equivalent to saying "There is a closed neighborhood $U^c \supset \bar B$ which does not contain $y$"
oh wait so -- do I prove that closure(closed Ball) = itself by first stating that OR do I work up to it?>
Kogasa
isn't that what the problem is asking us to prove?
yeah -- asking us to "find" it
you reference the closure as if we define it first
so we do define it first?
we're not defining anything
this was a proof strategy
we can see intuitively that the closed ball is closed
so then we decide to prove this is the case
so for an element in a set, every open neighborhood in that set contains the element?
if $A \subset B$ and $x \in A$ then $x \in B$
Kogasa
this is just what a subset is
but here
we have an open neighborhood of B \subset B and element in B, not the open neighborhood
=[
i mean
there is no reason we have to
but anyway, every open neighborhood of $y$ intersects $\bar B$ too... at $y$
Kogasa
i am trying to branch off of the characterization theorem for closure sir (or ma'am)
yes!
i feel like you can safely use the definition of closure lol
oaky i like that too
closure of set is intersection of all closed sets containing said set
im sorry if i am being difficult
this is my first class taking proofs
i am so terrible at them
that's why they're making you do em, to practice
but i feel like im not even getting better at them
like i understand more
and can understand more proofs when i get my hand held
but i am seemingly unable to come up with this stuff on my own
i spend 10+ hours studying this subject a week easily and i cannot even do this proof
even tho it's quite apparent that Cl(closed ball) = closed ball
maybe try doing more exercises on your own? and remember to show two sets are equal, the usual way is to show $A \subset B$ and $B \subset A$
Kogasa
or, what I suggested was $A \subset B$ and $A^c \subset B^c$
yeah ive seen this a lot
is that what we are essentially trying to do here?
cl(Bhat)=Bhat?
yes
which way are we proving first?
Kogasa
it doesn't really matter does it?
I reckon not!
Would you be willing to voice call? I don't want to waste ur whole evening
I'm a bit busy, sorry
Can I start the proof by saying like
W.T.S Cl(Closed Ball) is a subset of Closed Ball
Then there will be a second portion where I say
W.T.S Closed Ball is a subset of Cl(Closed Ball)
Sure. I would start by stating the thing you're actually trying to show though. "We claim $cl(\bar B) = \bar B$." Then go on to show both of those things, and then you're done
Kogasa
Oh okay
Sounds simple don't it
Hey kogasa
This direction was easy to prove I think
are you allowed to use that the closed ball is closed?
i would imagine not
"by defintion, the closed ball contains its boundary" is not far from making that assumption
If we have a covering from complex plane minus few points to complex plane minus few points, given by a complex polynomial why does the deck transformation have to be analytic on the whole complex plane?
I came up with the vector field X which is just the pushforward of d/dx by sigma_N^{-1} at all points except the north pole, where I defined it to be 0
How would I show that this vector field is smooth at N?
Are d, d' metric corresponding to equivalent norms?
pass to a chart for S^2 containing the point at infinity
should I be asking algebraic topology questions in this channel?
Yes
Have any of you people tried to learn qft
Kind of feels like something the “modern” mathematician should know
What is a strategy to find all covering spaces of something like a klein bottle?
Finding all subgroups of its fundamental group seem really tough task
Given a smooth manifold $M$ and a sufficiently nice subspace $N \subset M$, define the space $\Omega^k(M,N)$ of differential forms $\omega \in \Omega^k(M)$ with the property that, for any $p \in N$, the form $\omega$ is flat at $p$, meaning all its derivatives at $p$ vanish in any choice of local coordinates (equivalently, its infinity-jet vanishes at $p$). I have reason to believe that this behaves like a kind of relative de Rham cohomology (i.e. I think it probably fulfills Eilenberg-Steenrod axioms). Anybody got some thoughts on that, or a good reason for why that could be the case?
Lartomato
e.g. the associated cohomologies for (R^n, {0}) and (S^n, {x}) where x any point of the n-sphere seem to give the correct relative cohomologies, and that's just kinda cool to me
Hmmm..
What happens if we embed Omega^k(N) in Omega^k(M) somehow (bump functions?) and then consider the quotient?
I think this is somehow related
this is relative derham cohomology i think yea
theres another equivalent one thats like Omega^n(M, N) = Omega^n(M) oplus Omega^n-1(N) i think
sheafy proof that this works out https://mathoverflow.net/questions/122872/de-rham-model-for-relative-cohomology?rq=1
oooooh thanks to both of you
haha this is exactly what i've been doing but like a caveman
can a 3-sphere be obtained as a 3-simplex identifying oposite faces?
Can someone help me start this, I’ve been stumped for so long
the set of all pairs of straight lines is countable.
what is the set of points which are equidistant from two fixed, given straight lines?
What can we say about a function from RxR to RxR that has continuous coordinate functions
In particular with std. topology
But also in general
Continuous coordinate functions implies continuity
But isn't that only for like A -> X x Y where A subsets X
Locus of points equidistant from any pair of lines in a countable set of lines is a union of countable set of lines S. Union of all vertices of countable set of equilateral triangles is a countable set V. Cardinality of set of all lines in R^2 is cardinality of continuum, hence there exists a line m in R^2 not in S.
Now, as intersection of two distinct lines is either a single point or a null set, m intersection any line in S is a single point or a null set. Hence, union of m intersection all lines in S is atmost countable set A. Cardinality of set of all points of m is continuum, cardinality of A is at most countable, cardinality of V is countable. Hence, there exists a point R on m which is not in A and is not a vertex of any equilateral triangle in the countable collection. That point R is not equidistant from any pair of lines and is not a vertex of any equilateral triangle.
No I might be misinterpreting what you are saying, is that some theorem you've seen?
The product topology is defined in a way such that a function into the product is continuous iff all its coordinate functions are
Yeah that's in the munkres book
They do a whole section about continuous every variable sep. not implying continuous
They only talk about a set A -> XxY
But I'm asking about RxR -> RxR
It may be a result from a second course in real analysis I'm not sure really
Yeah
Well
But it's not true in general
Like f XxY -> A could be continuous in each coordinate
But
F not continuous
Hmm
Okay maybe I should just cite the book
I think coordinate functions being continuous is stronger than continuity along each axis
Because coordinate functions being continuous also tells you that the function's restrictions on say horizontal lines vary continuously
So my question is what if A is a product space R already
It's not really clear by these two statements
Oh yeah domain is continuous then not much you can say
I'm doing this on the codomain
You can still do the same, there are 2 coordinate functions, both RxR → R
It would be, assuming that by coordinate functions you mean these
I'm thinking like ex. F((x,y)) = (x + y^2, y)
Can I say oh well this is continuous since it's continuous in both coordinates
Guys, I might be way over my head here, but. Today in uni on analytical mechanics we were told about the Poisson bracket of two smooth functions on a differentiable manifold. I instantly thought: this reeks of a Lie algebra. For finite-dimensional Lie algebras there’s always a corresponding Lie group. Is there one for the algebra of smooth functions? What does it look like? I can’t wrap my head around it
Or should this question go to #groups-rings-fields?
no i think this is the right channel
this is the right channel.
Poisson stuff comes from vector fields
As far as I know there is no “poisson group” that induces whatever poisson bracket in some way
Like, usually you make a Lie group out of a Lie algebra by introducing some sort of an exponential operator that obeys Baker-Campbell-Hausdorff. But heck if I know how to do that if instead of matrices you have functions and instead of the commutator you have the Poisson bracket
I have the weil algebra W(g)
so its the tensor of the Symmetric algebra on g with the exterior algebra on g
and we grade it by an element in Lambda^p has degree p
an element in S^q has degree 2q
seemingly its obvioust that the zero degree of this is then the base field of the lie algebra
can anyone see why this is the case?
in particular it would be enough if the degree zero terms of the symmetric and exterior algebra for a vector space were just the base field
Okay, so the question is you have two top. Spaces X and Y, where Y is finer than X.
What can one space being comnected imply about the other.
So I am pretty sure Y connected means X is connected, but not the other way around.
However, I am having a hard time thinking about how to actually prove this.
remember a separation is just a pair of open sets with a certain property
and "Y finer than X" means that open sets of X are open in Y
so if you have a separation of one, is that also a separation of the other? if not, can you come up with an example?
Hmmm.
Well, if we take any two open sets in X, we know that they are not a separation in Y.
However, what if this is because there is a set in Y, but not X, that intersects them both?
you mean what if they're no longer disjoint in Y?
presumably X and Y are just different topologies on the same set
Wait, I am being silly.
If we take two open sets A,B in X, we know they are not a separation of Y.
But since we are acting on the same set, then clearly A and B also can't be disjoint in X.
So yes. Y connected implies X connected
But the opposite is not necessarily true. Because we can find two open sets that are not in X, so we cannot deduce if they form a separation based on the topology of X.
not immediately. but you won't know for sure until you find a counterexample
Easy. R and R\{0} both with the standard topology
you're right to think simple though
Hmmm, I am not so sure
there are some topologies we can always define on any set
Discrete/indiscrete
The Discrete space is always connected, but the indiscrete space is not connected.
Oh, whoops. Indiscrete is just X and the empty set
Still taking time to realize which is which :p
they're both trivial though
"indiscrete" as in "does not separate any points"
like "discrete" means "separates every point"
my professor called them both "stupid topologies"
or y'know
finest topology / coarsest topology
would probably be good
I Call it codiscrete topology
i was gonna suggest something categorical but
i don't think we ever talk about the category of topologies on a fixed space
Like, every map out of a discrete space is continous
it's really just a poset
yeah it makes sense i think
codiscrete reminds me of cofinite / cocountable, so it sounds like the complement
Big sully
Hmm true ig
well, it is the topology generated by the complement of the discrete topology 
Btw, thx for the help Kogasa
So I think I am pretty close to solving this. But I am having a hard time seeing how the connectedness of the fibers help here.
f is supposed to be p
$A \cup B$ a separation of X?
Kogasa
Yes, I literally just noticed that :p
do you know that f(A) and f(B) are even open?
that would be the same thing
f(A) and f(B) would be open if A and B are saturated with respect to p
which is to say they are a union of fibers
Ah, that is the key ingredient yes.
So then we just need to find a way to say that a union of connected fibers is connected.
again A and B aren't necessarily unions of fibers
that would make them saturated
but here's the thing
if A and B are saturated, then f(A) and f(B) are open, and that would make $f(A) \cup f(B)$ a separation of $Y$, which is impossible
Kogasa
if, say, A is not saturated, then there is $a \in A$ so that $f^{-1}(f(a)) \not\subset A$
Kogasa
if the fibers $f^{-1}(f(a)) \subset X$ are connected, and $A \cup B$ is a separation if $X$, what can we say from here
Kogasa
That f^-1(f(a)) intersects with B (in some compacity)
And that would be mean A and B are not separations since f^-1((f(a)) is connected.
if you have a separation of X into two disjoint pieces, any connected subspace must live entirely in one of the two pieces
Yes, but we just found one that is in both. Which is the contradiction
a contradiction even
That makes perfect sense. Thank you
i think this is worth doing if you are looking at the forgetful functor Top -> Sets and you want to look at its fibers. i think echoone can say more about this but even though the fibers are just poset categories they have some interesting properties. For example, if X is any set and you have a family of maps f_alpha : X -> Y_alpha into a family of topological spaces (even if this family is a proper class) there's a unique coarsest topology on X (object above it in the fiber category) that makes all these maps continuous. If you have a map of sets f : X -> Y and a topology on Y you can pull it back along f to get a topology on X by taking preimages. Stuff like that
So although poset categories on their own are uninteresting a big bundle of them together can be interesting.
also the discrete and indiscrete topology functors Set -> Top are the left and right adjoints respectively to the forgetful functor Top -> Sets
no. right and left adjoints respectively?
hmm
no i was right the first time lol
i can see all this, i think the adjunction is probably the thing i was looking for (a good categorical description of these topologies)
Wait, so why are we saying f(A) and f(B) is a separation here?
Nah, I got it.
ok good
i was writing it out but it's not like an instant observation
you have to kind of go through it
By the definition of A and B, f(A) and f(B) are disjoint.
Moreover, since p is a quotient map, the union is Y.
So f(A) and f(B) are a separation, but this can't happen since Y is connected.
f(A) and f(B) need not be disjoint for any quotient map f. but if they're not disjoint, then there's some $x \in f(A) \cap f(B)$
Kogasa
the fiber over x is connected, so it must be contained entirely in either A or B
but that's a contradiction
Ah, I see. That makes sense, yes
so f(A) and f(B) are disjoint, they cover Y, and you can show they must be open (i.e., A and B are saturated)
the last thing is to argue that neither of them are empty
then we would have a separation of Y, which we know is impossible
Well if one is empty, then the other, say f(A), would just be Y
which means f^{-1}(f(A)) = X, but as we said A is saturated, f^{-1}(f(A)) = A
How is this? I am not entirely sure if this does it
Not sure this works. If it did, then I think this same logic would imply X\Y is connected (which is not true)
I was trying to show that since there is no open and closed set in X, there is no open and closed set in YUA or YUB.
But again, this feels problematic since we can make the same type of argument for X\Y, but we know for a fact there are clopen sets (the separation) in X\Y
So I do not believe this works. I am also not too sure how to fix it
I see my issue. Unfortunately, this doesn't do a damn thing 😭
Hi, is this the right place for differential geometry?
yes
Hausdorff
How do I do this?
consider something like $$s \mapsto \int_a^s |c'(t)|,dt$$ i believe
TTerra
this is the phi?
idk
hmm

Hausdorff
yea
Hausdorff
yea so take the inverse of phi and you're good
the reparametrization you want is the inverse of the function you have here
note that c \circ \phi might not even make sense for the phi you wrote here
True
but then, the inverse also doesn't make sense, unless the range of phi is properly restricted
okay yeah i understand it now
good vibe
quick question, does such a reparametrization always exist?
problem being, in certain cases, the function we have defined may not be invertible
you need some regularity assumption
"c' \neq 0 except on a finite set of points" should also work
okay yeah i am assuming c' > 0 indeed
Hausdorff
Here's the complete proof
looks good
maybe a few words on why f is a bijection would be good, but you got the important ideas
hausdorff DG arc 
Hausdorff
Could you check surjectivity?
f is differentiable with positive derivative everywhere right?
Hausdorff
so it's strictly increasing, f(a) = 0 and f(b) = L
For the d- dimenstional cube, what is another way to write $$[0,1]^d?$$
beeswax
I am trying to prove that
$$ conv({0,1}^d) = [0,1]^d, $$ and I'm just trying to see what the elements in each set look like
conv means convex hull?
Yes
Yeah you can do this directly with what you have. I don't know if there's a more efficient way to say I^d than that
How would I argue that if some vector v is in [0,1]^d, then it's also part of the convex hull?
Wait what do you mean constant line segment
Hmm what is the definition you have of conv(A)
Because usually this contains A by definition
Are you inductively constructing it by including line segments?
Yeah, the set of points is contained in the convex hull. And for the proof, I am just showing that each set is a subset of the other
Right so this is by definition then right?
Oh, so [0,1]^d is the d dimensional cube.
S = {0,1}^d is the set of 01-vectors. The exercise wants me to prove that the convex hull of S forms a d dimensional cube
Ohh mb I didn't notice the curly on the left
So you can show, in order, that given any convex set containing {0,1}^d, it must contain
the vertices of the cube
the edges
the faces
the whole volume
Induction
Not in the way I phrased it at least, because the convex set I took could very well be R^d itself. I did not mention any smallness constraints
But the other way is easier, because [0,1]^d is already a convex set containing {0,1}^d
So must contain the smallest such set ie the convex hull
(x_1, …, x_n) =(1-x_n)(x_1 ,…, x_(n-1) ,0) + x_n (x_1, …, x_(n-1) ,1)
And the statement is trivial when n=1
With this one, you are saying $${0,1}^d \in [0,1]^d \implies {0,1}^d \in conv({0,1}^d )$$?
@jagged pivot
conv A gives the smallest convex set containing A, so any convex set containing A contains conv A
I gotta look into this a bit more.. I'm mostly doing the visual geometry part of higherdimensional objects...
As in: how to fold a tesseract in the most efficient way from any 3D net or how you could visualize a rubik's tesseract... for a game
reason being that I just do this as a hobby.. been studying 4D objects for roughly 2.5 years
What do you mean by efficiency of the folding?
Like a cube can be drawn as a series of adjacent squares on a paper, cut out and folded up?
Never thought about doing that in 4D, but not sure what efficiency would mean either
Minimal number of folds?
Yeah lol
Because it's the number of edges in a spanning tree of the graph you get
With faces as vertices and edges between adjacent faces
Not necessarily but up to some trivial reductions
Wait is it not?
I mean if you're just saying the number is well defined, then it may be
At least should be a special case of a spanning tree I think
Yeah and I'm saying that that's because a net should correspond to spanning tree of the graph
And folds should be the no of edges in it
Yeah
And no of edges in a spanning tree are the same for any spanning tree
I was thinking you can get a new net which adds folds but only in kind of trivial ways
Which would correspond to splitting an edge a --> b into a --> c --> b for example
I don't think that works, you are changing the entire tree
You would end up with 2 occurences of c if you just did that, and that means you'd have a cycle
c is intended to be a new node here
Oh are you taking nets with overlappings allowed?
exactly
I think I have to be
I see
the difference between 2D -> 3D and 3D -> 4D is the complexity of folding it... as in: what would be the universal first move for folding a tesseract?
There should be a way to reduce to the no overlaps case somehow
Yeah that's what I meant by up to some trivial reductions
Universal first move? 😵💫
Having a net like this:
makes it very easy
you move the inner cube in the 4th dimension, which would make it appear 2 times larger... like this:
(Step 1)
Turtle
(unrelated: what's the name of the software?)
I'm calling one step: all actions that brings one edge (2D-3D) / one face (3D-4D) from one starting point to another without moving the entire object.
For example:
⬛1️⃣⬛⬛
1️⃣🟦1️⃣🟦
⬛1️⃣⬛⬛
in 2D -> 3D this means moving at most 2 connected vertices .. one edge.. per step.
1: fold the outer squares up
this leaves us with something like this:
⬛🔽⬛⬛
▶️🟦◀️2️⃣
⬛🔼⬛⬛ where the arrows are faces that are set up like this: |[]|¯
the second step would be folding the last edge over to the left square's edge that is folded upwards, like closing a lid.
blender
1 step
as long as an adjacent square isn't folded, it remains one step... wait.. I'll just do it in blender.
I see
so: starting point, step 0
So I'd like to claim that the first step should always be to fold up the end squares ie the squares that only connect to one other square
step 1
And the most efficient net should be the next with the most branching
Let me see if I can prove that
should be the case
exactly
Do you want to just find the most efficient net or the most efficient folding given any net?
the latter
I see
sort of a folding formula.. how to fold any net without having to break your head for about 10 minutes
Lol it should start from the outermost cube and move inwards
Outermost in this sense
and maybe even an actual formula for how you could calculate the minimum amount of steps you need for folding a tesseract
Like leaves in graphs
yes
Number of steps should be minimum depth of the tree starting from any node
This is also sort of connected to the "Homeomorphically irreducible trees of size n=8" then.. right?
cuz there are certain nets that are basically the same.. just moved around a bit
yeah
There are less of those than there are nets
Because they require branching at each internal node
hm.. u right
wait... then we'd have to limit the connections per node to 4 for 2D-3D... and 6 for 3D-4D
wait no.. same thing... still the same thing
oh wait... then it's not homeomorphically irreducible... nope unrelated... since you can put faces of a cube together like this:
🟦🟦⬛
🟦⬛⬛
🟦🟦🟦 <- that isn't irreducible
I know I'm just kidding 
2️⃣1️⃣⬛
1️⃣⬛⬛
🟦1️⃣2️⃣... wait .. you're right
or... would it be like this then?
2️⃣3️⃣⬛
1️⃣⬛⬛
🟦1️⃣2️⃣
since the folding of one part would affect the starting points of the right edge on 3?
Yes
I might have to rethink the idea of a step...
one step = moving all edges / faces that are unaffected by another edge / face that is being moved..
so:
the green squares are those that are moved along while another face moves...
the red squares are the faces that are in their correct places.
🟩⬛⬛⬛
🟩1️⃣⬛⬛
⬛🟥1️⃣🟩
🟩⬛⬛⬛
2️⃣🟥⬛⬛
⬛🟥🟥2️⃣
3️⃣⬛⬛⬛
🟥🟥⬛⬛
⬛🟥🟥🟥
done
wait a minute...
have I gotten the net wrong this entire time?
yeah
But ye folding looks correct
Wait no this doesn't work either
... yep
The 2 2 squares overlap
dangit
oof
Sorry lol
np .. thx for checking it
But I think the 3 vertex and the right 2 vertex coincide
hm

dammit u right XD
🟩🟩1️⃣⬛⬛
⬛⬛🟥1️⃣🟩
🟩2️⃣🟥⬛⬛
⬛⬛🟥🟥2️⃣
3️⃣🟥🟥⬛⬛
⬛⬛🟥🟥🟥
Looks good
this should be right.. yeah
Alright I'm putting wayyyyy too much time into a system that isn't actually useful here.... so i'll just scrap that idea entirely T_T.. if you wanna reread that.. feel free to :/
I got to the point where I wanted to call this:
⬛🟦⬛⬛
🟦🟦🟦🟦
⬛🟦⬛⬛ 1x1-(2)-1x2-(2):3 .... so naahhh let's not
I really dislike the hyperfocus I get from my ADD sometimes... because I just focus on things that are unnecessarily pointless... trying to find a meaning or formula for everything
#topology-and-chemistry
chmeomistry 
I was bored... so I started building a 5D .. object
that's just a cube, eh?
not exactly
roughly a look into it
making the object wasn't the problem... it was just... adding the faces in was a pain
yo what program is this?
Blender
oh okay I see. Thanks! 
Suppose A is a closed subset of a manifold (say) M. Is there a relation between whether M retracts onto A, and the homotopy type of M - A?
this is more a question about intuition on general cases not something specific
when you see some statement about connected lie groups
what kind of obstructions will you have preventing the same statement being true for non connected lie groups
i wanna read the book Cohomology of Sheaves by Iversen.
it focuses mostly on the treatment of Poincare duality by means of sheaves
and tries to show how basic arguments in analysis can be seen from the point of sheaves.
I think this is meant to be like a book that transitions you from a decent general knowledge of homological algebra and some idea of applications to the point where you're ready to study derived categories, perverse sheaves and applications to geometry
i am really flaky and so i need somebody to buddy up with to help me read this lol
so lmk if you would wanna discuss it with me or read it with me.
I have been trying to read Equivariant sheaves and functors by bernstein but feel i am missing stuff. If is another person trying to read this with you i would like to try join, but If I was the only one I think I am a bit too slow to be a good partner
I am interested in reading the book but I'm currently struggling to find time just to exist 
is the cup product a homomorphism?
when I try checking it on the chain level it doesn't seem to add up because of distributivity
homomorphism from what to what 
wait wtf
I mean like $(\varphi \smile \psi)( \sigma_1 + \sigma_2) = (\varphi \smile \psi)(\sigma_1) + (\varphi \smile \psi)(\sigma_2)$
no wait
where's psi on the right side 
smiley
Tokidoki ✓
$\phi\smile\psi$ is a homomorphim to $G$, thats what you have written
Moldilocks ✓
but that is different from cup product being a homomorphism
$0 \smile 0$
Tokidoki ✓
that would have to be from H^m x H^n → H^(m+n) I suppose
but this won't be a homomorphism
instead of being linear it is bilinear (thats what distributivity of multiplication is)
and so this is really a homomorphism between
Moldilocks ✓
$\bigcup \smile \bigcup$
Kogasa
ye right. I mean something like this
right so phi cup psi is a homomorphism from C_{m+n} to G
otherwise the cup product wouldnt give you something in H^(m+n)(C; G)
because the elements in this are equivalence classes of homomorphisms
yee okay I see. But is that true?
are you doubting me that hard
did I say something blatantly wrong in the last call
okay but how do you prove that? I don't see how that is true
yee
that should also be a homomorphism by chmommutative algebruh
when I try to do it I get something different from (\varphi \smile \psi)(\sigma_1 + \sigma_2) because of distrubitivity
I'm too lazy to write the whole thing out
like it's (\varphi \smile \psi)(\sigma_1 + \sigma_2) but plus some terms
I am too lazy to answer your question 
let me look at hatcher once lol
oh wait its not a linear comb of homomorphisms

uh
isnt it defined by linear extension of a map on the basis
all such sigma form a basis of the group C_(k+l)(X)
He is defining a map on the basis and then extending it linearly
using universal property of free ab groups

This will definitely be a homomorphism
okay so like $(\sigma \smile \psi)(\sigma_1) + (\varphi \smile \psi)(\sigma_2) = \varphi(\sigma_{1[v_0, \cdots, v_k]} + \sigma_{2[v_k, \cdots, v_{k+l}]})\psi(\sigma_{1[v_0, \cdots, v_k]} + \sigma_{2[v_k, \cdots, v_{k+l}]})$ and now $\varphi$ and $\psi$ are homomorphism and now when you distribute stuff you don't get $(\psi \smile \psi)(\sigma_1 + \sigma_2)$
Tokidoki ✓
oh
lmao
okay so Hatcher just defines how the cup product "works" on basis elements?
yes
OOOH
lmao
yee okay I completely forgot how C^n looked like
I should sleep. Thank you so much! 

@plain raven i think this book is like the exact kind of material i need right now, so if you really want to read it with a buddy i am willing to do it 
the copy i have literally appears to be printed off a typewriter though which is cool
have you looked at kashiwara & schapira at all?
If you want to make a seperate discord or something i would join
Toki the cup product is a homomorphism on the tensor product
I was there first 
sheaves on manifolds or the cat one
toki i know hatcher gets a lot of hate around here but that said
I HATE how hatcher introduces the cup product.
really sounded like you were gonna praise it there
The cup product is NOT the most fundamental product. The most fundamental product is the CROSS product which he only defines 10 - 20 pages later in TERMS of the cup product
makes me so mad
or made me mad later once i understood it
cross product linear algebra moment

hmmm trying to come up with the short version...
I've told the same stories enough that i'm sure people are realizing that i have some idiosyncratic axes to grind or whatever, so, y'know, take what i say with a grain of salt.
ah yeah. ok i mean i vaguely know that one but i couldn't tell you off the top of my head if it's something i want to get into rn, let me look into it and get back to you
good book, some overlap, might be worth checking out
may i ask a little question
you can ask a big question if you want to
:]
what's the purpose of this big N here
why we have to say that n greater or equal to it?
"the sequence is eventually contained in U"
is exactly the same as "there exists an N so that when n >= N, x_n is in U"
It's saying that after a certain point (which is N), all terms of the sequence lie in U
what is the purpose of saying that tho, can't they just say that the sequence is contained in U?
it's not. it's eventually contained in U
We don't want absolutely all the terms in U because that is too strong a condition (everything in the sequence would be arbitrarily close to x, intuitively)
i want to see diligentClerk's holyfuck.txt of hatcher
For example the sequence 1/n converges to 0 as it should, but if you said that the whole sequence should be in U, then it wouldn't
Because you would be able to take U = (-1/3,1/3) and there are terms of the sequence outside
should i start a thread
What we are saying is that the terms of the sequence are eventually always within U
ah nvm i don't think i have that power

dear mods can i start a brief thread?
Brief he says 
I am a pathological liar.
Damn irrelevant tangent but there used to be this pathological liar character on SNL played by Jon Lovitz and like, i could recommend you check it out but it's so damn unfunny it's not worth doing.
Is everyone hammered today 
it is a thursday
😵💫
I want to read the post 
yeah idk i'm trying to find a compromise between saying what i want to say and saying it in a reasonable amount of time and space.
i can't keep you on the hook that long.
you could always put it in a pastebin
Yeah
ok let's say i'll write it now and uhh don't expect it in the next fifteen minutes
just go away and come back later lol
i'll ping the people who are here rn
oh, don't feel pressured to spend too much time on it
but if you do, i will read it at least
I HATE how hatcher introduces the cup product.

Hatcher is my best friend. We like to hang out
so should you actually not read hatcher as your first exposure to algtop?
if so, what would you guys recommend instead
Play skyrim
dont even have a mouse to play games kek
phil it's not the worst. i would say like, skip chapter 0, really take him seriously when he says it's meant to be superficial. if you try to work out the details of what he's saying it's honestly quite hard to read. Chapter 1 is absolutely fine. I don't remember having any problems. Chapter 2 is ok, i mean i struggled but homology is just pretty hard.
Rotman

Chapter 3 i just bailed and never looked back.
Rotman i think is probably a really good intro.
ok thx
I haven't read Rotman's book but i've heard a lot of good shit about it.
ill check it out then
hatcher did once reply to one of my emails
I tried to ask him for his latex template
if you're asking my personal opinion I really look the book by Spanier, that's what i ended up settling on, it's extremely formal tho whereas hatcher is more handwavy. I don't think the formalism impairs the geometric content tho. Not early on at least. later it becomes a struggle but like... i think lots of people have trouble finding geometric meaning in cohomology
I would definitely recommend the first 3 chapters of Spanier as an introduction to algebraic topology.
It's dense tho so like, it's ok to pass through it a bit quickly.
However Spanier does have its own problems.
You hearing this toki 
yeeeee I be listening to every word here
well i guess theres pros and cons to every book
also depends on personal taste
The book was meant to be a kind of compromise/balance between a textbook and a reference and i just don't think it succeeds. Rather it evolves slowly from textbook to reference. The chapters on homology and cohomology are truly encyclopedic.
He also strives to work in like, kind of ridiculous generality at times, considering all the possible arguments of all the functors. For example like
there's a notion of 'cohomology with coefficients in an abelian group G' which is based on maps from the space X into G
and it's a theorem that when G is a ring, the cohomology inherits a ring structure
but instead of saying that, spanier says:
If G, G', and G'' are Abelian groups and mu : G\otimes G' -> G'' is a bilinear map, then for all n, m there are induced maps H^n(X;G) \otimes H^m(X;G') -> H^{n+m}(X, G'')

I just don't think that level of generality is really necessary. You're almost always concerned with the case G = G' = G'' = R.
I will say that like, outside of the homology/cohomology chapters it's readable.
Chapter 7 on homotopy theory is quite good. The early chapters are quite good.
Also like
i really enjoy being told all this fancy math from a lovely smiley dog
the formalism is really visually intimidating, like when you open the page you're like "Jesus christ". But that just means it's not skimmable. If you read it line by line and think about the constructions they make a lot of sense.
He just prefers to give explicit line by line coordinate based homotopies in some cases, especially early on.
But later on like
he doesn't do that, you're expected to get the concept of homotopy by then lol
matter of fact there are a shitload of unproven statements whose proofs are left as exercises
and that's not even counting the actual exercises at the end of each chapter
which i've never done as i had quite enough of a workout from the text itself
If clerk isn't lovely smiley dog irl I'll be disappointed
I am a dog.
hello, i have a question about topology, should i post it here or in math help?
ask the question and if it's a bad place for it we'll redirect you elsewhere
I just started to learn topology at uni and I have a very basic question, yet i can't find any answer in my lectures.
Let's say I have a set X and a set Y and I know if they are open/closed/not open and not closed/open and closed. What will the cartesian product X x Y be like?
you need to define a notion of topology for cartesian products
i am learning about topology in R^n
the natural one for a cartesian product of two sets is called the "product topology," and is given by a basis consisting of sets U x V, where U is open in X and V is open in Y
so for example, an open set in R^2 is a union of elements like (a,b) x (c,d), since the intervals (a,b) are the basic open sets of R
i see, but what if the sets are not finite? like R^+ x R ?
the sets can be anything, finite or not
the product topology is still generated by products of open sets
there is a subtlety when you take infinite products
like R x R x ...
ok ,so if i have R (open and closed) and [0,1] (closed set), is R x [0,1] closed ?
given that products of open sets are open, you can show that products of closed sets are closed too
and if i have X (open ) and Y (closed), then X x Y is neither closed, nor open? (X is in R, Y is in R)
it's hard to say in general. for example if 0 is the empty set, R x 0 = 0 is both open and closed. if U = (a,b) and V = [c,d], then U x V is neither open nor closed
Kogasa
So usually, in RxR, an open x closed is neither open nor closed, with the only exceptions occurring when one of those sets is R or empty. This holds when R is replaced by any connected space
i have an exercise like : Find out if R+ x R is closed or open or both; how would you tackle it ?
I thought about taking the complement of R+ , so R- , which is open. If R- is open, then R+ is closed. So R+(closed) x R (open and closed) gives us a closed set?... I'm not sure if that's correct...
Well as we said a product of closed sets is closed
but R is closed and open, so i am confused


