#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 254 of 1
but H^i(0, Z) is 0
so mult by |G| is the zero map
so all elements of H^i(G, Z) are torsion
and here
the first map is the map induced by the inclusion, and the second is the map induced by the inclusion
the first map is restriction
sorry yes
MSE moment
Okay so I think I got it but it seems kind of sketchy so I would appreciate if someone checked it. So let me change some variables because its unreadable now. So we have $A \to^\alpha B \to^\beta C \to 0$ and applying $\text{Hom}(-, G)$ gives $A^* \leftarrow B^* \leftarrow C \leftarrow 0$. Assume that $\varphi$ is in $\ker(\alpha^*)$, i.e $\varphi |{\ker(\beta)} = 0$ by exactness. Now we want to construct a $\psi: C \to G$ such that $\psi \beta(b) = \varphi(b)$ for all $b \in B$. We know that $C$ is iso to $B/\ker(\beta)$. So define $\psi(b + \ker(\beta)) = \varphi(b)$. This is well defined because $\varphi |{\ker(\beta)} = 0$. Now under the iso $C \cong B/\ker(\beta)$, the element $\beta(b)$ will correspond to $b + \ker(\beta)$. So now $\psi(\beta(b)) = \psi(b + \ker(\beta)) = \varphi(b)$ and we are done
Tokidoki ✓
Yeetus
show both inclusions one by one
Which inclusion are you having trouble with?
You'd take an element in one set and show that it's there in the other one
is this even supposed to belong here lmao?
Let T be S^1 \times ... \times S^1 (l times)
Connected subgroups of this are just S^1 \times ... \times S^1 (k times) with k<l
?
any disconnected subgroup must then just be S^1 \times ... \times S^1 (k times) and some finite group
but im not sure how to see where the finite sub groups come from
@gritty widget The subgroups of T are in correspondence with those of R^l that contain Z^l. Maybe that helps.
The diagonal should also be a connected subgroup right?
@pearl holly looks correct for exactness at B*. Have you checked it at C*? Also all the work you did was just reproving the first isomorphism theorem/universal property of quotients 
yo wtf I didn't even know that lmao
can't tell if sarcastic or not 
yee I have, the only thing I was stuck at was proving exactness at B* and I'm pretty sure my arguments hold for everything else. Thank you so much for verifying, I thought that my post was unreadible lmao
It was unreadable because you were actually working with cosets 😵💫 disgusting
I didn't read the cosets part carefully but I am trusting you know how to compose functions

yeah all you've done is found a factoring of a map B → G through a quotient of B, and the first isomorphism theorem tells you exactly when such a factoring exists
in the sense that it satisfies the universal property of the quotient of B by ker beta
even though there are no cosets in C
but having cosets is not and should not be the definition of the quotient obviously
So in your solution you're also having to replace C with the quotient and beta with the quotient map because you're working explicitly with quotients
we know this because first isomorphism theorem again 
yeee I see. I should definitely use the diagram next time lmao
Okay I have to go lmao, thank you so much!
This does help thanks
@tight agate do you mind if I dm you?
Dumb question: is there a way to write exterior derivative in terms of covariant derivative?
I know and understand the formulas for div and curl in terms of exterior derivative. I’ve also seen them written in terms of christoffel symbols, but I struggle with comprehending how to derive them this way.
you can (and it's not a dumb question, perfectly reasonable thing to wonder)
for one forms for example you have $$d\omega(X, Y) = (\nabla_X \omega)(Y) - (\nabla_Y\omega)(X)$$ (so long as $\nabla$ is torsion free)
TTerra
and this generalizes to k-forms
@gritty widget Thanks a bunch! But… How?
How to derive the formula you gave me?
Just blow it up and check element by element?
That feels like an unenlightening thing to do 😢
yeah i guess that's one way to do it
i'm supposed to be watching an analysis lecture so i can't think of any more enlightening way to prove it
$$(\nabla_X\omega)(Y) = X(\omega(Y)) - \omega(\nabla_XY)$$ (like the product rule) now just expand the right hand side and move things around
TTerra
it's also probably the quickest way to do it
no problem
it's an exercise somewhere in lee's book on RG if you want to find the generalization to k forms
i couldn't reproduce it off the top of my head
you could probably derive it by taking the "intrinsic formula" for dω and rewriting the lie brackets in terms of the covariant derivative
it probably simplifies to something nice
continuity of functions?
I guess
the topology of a space is for know what function are continuos
the topology gives you the open sets and a functions is continuos if the preimage of every open is also open
If I’m not mistaken, a mapping f of one topological space (X) to another (Y) is continuous iff preimage of every open set in Y is open in X
Ah
Still I don’t see the intuition behind it
do you know the definiton of continuity of functions in terms of epsilon-delta?
I think that continuity is not what topology formalizes
maybe try verifying that this definition of continuity coincides with your concept of continuity of functions R -> R
Most things that already have an inherent notion of contintuity (e.g. metric spaces) don't need general topological definitions
Topology generalizes the idea of continuity and formalizes various ideas of connectivity
i.e. closeness and compactness and connectedness etc
as well as formalizing the study of "local" properties
Yes
you should check that definition in terms of epsilon-delta is the same as definition in terms of open sets for functions in euclidean space
open sets are generalisations of open intervals right?
I would say no
open sets are generalizations of unions of open intervals
bases are generalizations of open intervals
but also a lot of more basic topological spaces were studied before the defn of a topolog was written down
in R^n an set X is open if in every point x in X there is a open ball with center in x which is also in X
with usual topology
here, what exactly means to position the knot to lie almost flat on a table?
Basically like
Try to flatten it without making it self intersect
It’s just a visualization thing
The important part is the next sentence
so is like descompose a knot in arcs $\alpha_i$ and $\beta_i$ and then put all the $\alpha_i$ and $\beta_i$ in the table?
Or x1
sure
I mean think about how you typically draw knots on paper
it's a planar diagram, with the strands either overlapping or underlapping
since you can draw this in the plane with overlaps and underlaps, it means you can fit the picture into a disc x [0,epsilon]
The idea behind this exercise it to think of a knot as a bunch of arcs that meet at “crossings” and to use such a presentation to compute the fg group
thanks
If M, N are smooth manifolds, is there a smooth manifold which is homotopy equivalent to M v N (v for wedge sum)?
Too bad, why?
The easiest way to prove there is a counter example is poincare duality
I do not know of a good intuition other than, in general, there is no reason to assume one would exist
Being a manifold up to homotopy is very strong
Aha
A good counterexample is to compute the homology of S^2 v S^2 over Z/2
I will do that as soon as I can 😆
Can someone explain to me what extra info is required to demonstrate that a manifold with boundary is smooth rather than just a manifold without boundary ?
It makes sense though, they are of dimension 2 and intersect in a point, and it'd seem hard to bridge the gap.
I think im doing something wrong here
I want to show that Df maps TM to TN is smooth
But then i got stuck at the transition data of Df
f maps M to N is a smooth map then Df maps TM to TN is smooth
Hmmm that sounds like a correct statement. I hope you get it lol
o
So prove that f smooth function between manifolds implies the differential of f is smooth between tangent spaces
What is Phi tilde?
Also the condition is that phi o f o psi^-1 is smooth for f being smooth
where psi is a parameterization of M and phi of N
ill do this exercise ok my own soon
Its a chart on TM that my professor had introduced
To make( TUα , phiα tilda ) chart on TM
I meant its a coordinate map
For TUα where (Uα,siα) is a Chart on M
Yes it (f) is between two smooth manifolds M and N
Similarly ,TM and TN are smooth
yes so you have a chart from one manifold to the other using that phi o f o psi-1 is smooth
And DF is a map btween them
Ohh so this is what will come for the traansition data
yea
yeah makes sense
and look at this right here
the map taking M to TM is smooth
uh idk how thats useful nvm
but wait
i sorta get it
you want a smooth function between equivalence classes of curves
Hmm i remeber the natural projection map π: TM --M
Via (p,v)--p
and this can be given by the fact that phi o f o psi-1 is smooth
Yeah right
Yeah yeah i sorta get it
tangent spaces kinda complicated for me to think about
lmk the progress on problem
This is smooth
what is O_p
or D_p
Also the domain of $\tilde{\Phi}_\alpha$ is from U in M to Rn
I Killed the Most
Its Dp
It is Df restricted to p
As we know that diferential of a manifold near point p is basically a linearization
Yeah p is any point in manifold M
Yeah
Like we know the tangent space TpM is a vector space , so
Dfp :TpM -- Tf(p)N is a linear and contnous map between vector spaces
Yeah right it is , but dunno why my profesor had taken it like that
I mean yes when we are defining homeomorphisms then it would be UxR^n

any cute grad-level geometry book good for bedtime reading instead of intensive work
any topic
this is not what you asked but i remember Pour-El and Richard's book on computability in analysis and physics being light reading
I only bring it up because you seem like you would enjoy a book on the practical side of analysis/more theoretical aspects of numerical computation

So I understand why CPn and RPn are compact. Because their construction using quotient maps has that the image of compact sets is compact since quotient is continuous
How do I show CP1 diffeomorphic to S2 though?
I am not sure I know how its true that RP1 diffeomorphic to S1
but from what Ive heard there is a homeomorphism from hemisphere to S1 but that isnt a diffeomorphism
The homeomorphisms are not hard to see when you think about the construction
I assume it’s not so hard to show they have to be smooth
Think about S^1 as the unit vectors of R2
And recall the construction of Rp2 using equivalence classes of vectors
So what would it mean to smoothly map a unit vector to an equivalence class of vectors?
Hmm
we only quickly went over why RPn is a manifold
So pretty much I need to construct a map from f:S1 to RP1 such that phi o f o psi^-1 is smooth
where psi is chart for S1
and phi for RP1
well S1 can be charted by e^ix
f takes e^ix as input and turns that into an equivalence class??
so like f(x)=[x]? lol idk
that isnt injective but meh?
does it need to be?
ok it definitely does
oh wait
it can be injective
if i look at hemisphere of S1
idk what differentiable is supposed to mean here though since i dont think you can differentiate a line
For this to be smooth, you're asking that phi o f o psi^-1 is smooth?
Yes thats right, so I'm wondering why you're asking how to differentiate a line
uh dont I have to define f so that the composition of maps is differentiable, You cant differentiate an equivalence class and if I define f:S1->RP1 by f(x)=[x] i run into a smol problem
This is done well in lee's smooth manifolds
what is done?
RP^n is a manifold
yes, but you compose f with things?
well yea but not my question , it might be helpful though
in particular phi is going to send these equivalence classes of lines to R
yes
and you can differentiate a map from R to R
I think if you look at the charts for RP^n this will help alot
But cant you apply chain rule to the composition and then you get one factor which ends up being an equivalence class? So I am wondering if defining f(x)=[x] the right thing to do? Im not sure what else honestly
I mean, if you want to apply the chain rule, then you would get the differential of f is a map between the tangent spaces of S1 and RP1. You're still not "differentiating a line"
i think you are getting confused here
you are thinking about [x] as being an equivalence class
(which it is )
"you can't differentiate an equivalence class" part is not really correct, the set of equivalence classes has a smooth structure on it so you can differentiate wrt that
but just think of it as in element in RPn
What the elements are called is irrelevant
and use then read the part bout the charts on RPn
ok so smooth structures are the transistion maps right?
the charts for RPn will clear up how the equivalence class business works
we didnt go over that section in class yet
becuase even though [x] doesnt have a unique representative
in a given chart it does
Smooth structures are the charts. You get the transition maps by composing one chart with the inverse of another chart
ok so i hope im not expected to write explicitly how f is continuosuly differentiable, but I can show its isomorphic. Im only a little intimidated by the technicalities in showing its differentiable, but maybe I can just say it is because phi is differentiable?
to me this is terrible reasoning for why it would be differentiable
maybe I can just write down the composition of charts with f like the phi o f o psi-1 one
a map of manifolds is smooth if it is smooth in the charts
if you look at the charts for RPn
you will see why this is obviously differentiable
there is essentially no point in trying to show that such a map is smooth without know what the charts for RPn look like
no they are very nice
so can they be given by just linear equations lol
like
y=mx+b
but ig id try to write that in different terms
actually im not sure what the chart would be, my first instinct would be to write it as slopes
Atleast in R2 because each line has a unique slope , but then i get trouble for the line x=0
but then ig you can write that in terms of x=my+b
wait no b lol
just solve for m
How did you even define RP1 without talking about the charts
so x/y and y/x
Like, how did you define the smooth structure on RP1?
prof talked about it handwavy just saying its set of all lines through origin
we didnt define smooth structure
Uh
we didnt know what that was until two days ago
hw was assigned last week
but ig it isnt too complicated to read about
You can't ask if two things are diffeomorphic unless they both have smooth structures on them
Your prof wack
yea thats why i struggle with this section lol
this problem set*
Then shouldn't you start this question by figuring out what the smooth structure on RP1 is?
Ok so my question of how do I know f is smooth should have been what is smooth structure on RP1 so that I could know if phi o f o psi-1 is smooth
Well I think I mostly have the idea
o f o
Its getting a little bit late for me sadly, hopefully I can write up an explicit map tomorrow
I have to do same thing for CP1
but idk what a complex line is so im just assuming its whatever the charts are for RP1 but instead complex numbers
and they somehow come out as real numbers?
vector definition easiest for me to follow but idk any atlas for CPn or the proof that it is a manifold

it's a complex manifold and therefore a real smooth manifold, qed
are there nice conditions when a homotopy equivalence on two G-spaces is a G-homotopy equivalence
According to @marsh forge, S^2 v S^2 is not homotopy equivalent to a manifold. Now if K is a simplicial complex such that the intersection of two faces "lowers the dimension" by 1, is |K| a manifold up to homotopy, or is there no reason to expect that?
I am thinking up to homotopy
what classes you taking?
None. I am vaguely familiar with what homology is about.
simplicial complexes are very in general not homotopy equivalent to manifolds
i don’t know what the inrswction of faces part is supposed to give
My guess was that this happens because intersections don't behave well
Well, apparently the counterexample doesn't need to be too high-dimensional, and I just couldn't come up with one
I didn't think really hard, though
Let $X$ be a space with a $G$ action. Suppose $i:Y \hookrightarrow X$ is equivariant with $Y$ and $X$ homotopy equivalent. Are $Y/G$ and $X/G$ homotopy equivalent
lime_soup
damn they are not
saaanity check, if a space U has a CW-complex structure and is homeomorphic to V, then V also has a CW complex structure right
what is your definition of a CW-complex structure
this should be a tautology if youre using the definition that I know
actually yeah it only really makes sense up to homeomorphism, doesn't it
i.e. iso to a CW complex
yeah okay that's good lol
sometimes you do math in silence for so long, you just need a friendly soul to tell you "it's all okay"
thank you for fulfilling that role
:petthecat:
how does this work
if i choose X to be the torus, how is every map from I -> X homotopic
Does anyone have now about excision in equivariant homology?
I'm not sure what the precise statement should be
do we need some notion of a G-subspace
The Hom(X, Spec R) -> Hom(R, O_X(X)) equivalence, what's your favorite way of "remembering" why it's in this "direction" of the terms? I think of it in the way of Hom(X, A^1) = O_X(X)
Also I guess it's about R-schemes so the direction is natural in that way also, but is there a more fundamental reason?
?
It’s a bijection
Two directions not one
I like the way that it’s directly proved using a commutative diagram in algebraic geometry and arithmetic curves written by Q.Liu
Hey guys, really basic question, but I'm being asked to prove that Playfair's Axiom is a theorem of Euclidean Geometry.
I'm just wondering what criteria there is for this to be a theorem.
I proved a bunch of other things beforehand to get to this point, so I'm just trying to drive it home.
What's the prerequisite for topology?
barely anything, just some basic mathematical maturity
Technically you could get by with just set theory (etc) initially, although some familiarity with analysis / metric spaces can be helpful ig?
5 seconds before this turns into a "you dont need analysis for topology" argument
I didn't want that to occur dammit
No, I don't have familiarity with analysis and metric spaces.
I have Tao analysis with me. Complete it first?
Yeah i mean if you don't know some basic stuff about open and closed sets in R then you're gonna have a rough time, but it's still totally possible
Last part added to shut tterra up
Not because i actually believe it

I just think analysis serves one better initially than topology lol
switch to pugh
No yeah looking at Tao 1 is fine im sure
Idk how thoroughly you need to know it
Just being comfy with set theory and reading a bit about open / closed / bounded sets in R, sequences, and maybe compact sets should be totally fine for you to start learning topology and know why they're doing all stuff that looks like nonsense at first
Can you suggest something simpler than Tao for analysis.
Quite difficult for me as I have no touch with advanced math for past couple of years.
(for the record, i started topology before i knew analysis lol which had ups and downs)
Well, idk about simpler or less simple, but the book "understanding analysis" by Abbott and the intro analysis book by Ross have different flavors
So you might find one of those good
Hmm, all these things are covered under regular set theory?
I mean I never heard about sequence in set theory.
that was more an overview of intro set theory and intro analysis, can be helpful to look at those
yesh^ helps a lot to be somewhat comfortable with metrics and "topology of R" for topology
No, those are basic analysis definitions
The point is, even though you CAN learn topology with just basic set theory, it could be painful to understand what's going on if you haven't seen the basic analysis definitions
This is what happens if you do topology before analysis lmfao
Oh sad
I thought this was gonna be when Nikita started talking about glorified semi-lattices lol
Lol
Also re: more natural to consider f instead of f^-1 tbh I don’t have a great reason to explain why intuitively f^-1 is more… topological
BUT I can say f^-1 is so much nicer than f in so many ways
it was actually lmao, scroll down a bit
And eventually sometimes the thing that matters less is open sets and more about open covers and stuff, and what you really care about with continuous functions is that they pull back open covers
But this is like getting into Grothendieck topology shit so it’s not too relevant for a while lol
sequences are good for you
ah yeah okay I see
maybe it's also because intersections behave nicer with preimages?
I remember tterra talking about this
Yes this is what I mean by f^-1 being good
what did i say
oh lmao
oh i remember saying a word or two on that
Unions do not
a long time ago you explained why quotient maps are defined with preimages
why are they defined with preimages?
because f^-1(U \cap V) = f^-1(u) \cap f^-1(v) and there's no contradiction. THis is what you said
roughly what you said
oh crap lmao
oh lmao I didn't even notice 
\intersect
Me when I first had to latex the intersection of two sets
does it actually work tho?
I don’t think it’s a command
$\intersect$
lol
lmao
S
This is where memes go right?
yes
yeeess
this is where i procrastinate on reviewing ant or doing my homework
#topology-and-memes
legendary message
lmfao 
If u bring topology to other channels that channel morphs into #point-set-topology for a while
This is why we try to keep each channel to only that content
lets do some geometry
Isn't it that Monkey can rewrite the entire work Shakespeare, given enough time.
S
No monkey only type S and then break keyboard
So, this is against infinite monkey theorem logic.
theorem
Lmao
Rules don’t apply to regulars smh
This channel is a special zone anyway
Free of moderation
Namington and mniip have no power here
But i do 
what are étale extensions?
Like of a field?
That probably goes in #groups-rings-fields lol but theyre finite products of separable extensions
equivalently you can tensor them with a field extension E to get a free E-algebra
How do you show that a basis is a base for a specific topology? I can do it for some topology, but I wanna show that the balls at rational points with rational distance form a basis for the Euclidean topology
It suffices to show that if you take a point and consider any open neighborhood then there is a basis element containing the point that is contained within the neighborhood
No
This says the topology is finer
You need to know that you aren’t adding in a ton of open sets too
So you have to do something in the other direction too
It is impossible to do this if you know that all the sets in your potential basis are open
What?
If your bigger topology is the indiscrete one
And you take the basis of “every subset”
Oh
I see
Yeah
I agree now
can anyone elaborate on the underlined part here?
P = [a, b] is saying that there is a straight path from a to b that doesn't leave G. How does one of the segments making up P having a point from A and a point from B allow us to assume this?
well i think the point is that that segment is where things go wrong
so basically its just relabeling that specific segment to P again, since the rest of the original P probably wont matter for the coming argument
i mean i think i understand that much. I'm asking why does the sentence
"now a moment's thought will show that one of the segments making up P will have one point in A and another in B"
imply
"so we can assume that P = [a,b]"
i dont think it actually formally implies this
just for this proof, you can restrict attention to that segment
but just because there is a polygon from a to b doesn't mean there is a line segment from a to b
you also relabel a and b to the endpoints of that segment that crosses from A to B
ohhh
it could certainly be worded better ^^
i thought something like this was going on so i was bewildered
where the red line wouldve been the new P
but, yea, now i see the orange line would be the new P
thanks
this is more of a proof writing question but can someone sanity check me here that the union property is satisified by the topology (-infty, n) for n \in Z. like i know this is true but i am worried about bad faith grading and so i just want to make sure the jump from (-infty, m) subset (-infty, n) to union is equal isn't crazy .
(i am worried about bad faith grading ebcause the ta for this course is a notorious asshole)
maybe i should just include a picture.
Not all subsets of Z have a greatest element, so you should be a bit careful with using max

And the union jump isn't crazy but if you're being extra asshole then that inclusion just proves that the union is contained in (-infty, n), not equality
yeah thats what i figured
i guess proving the other direction of the inclusion is shrot

i do not understand this
why do i not understand this.

😐
god
not talking about the maxj
ig sup works.
i kinda want to test him on this just to see how pedantic i need to be for the rest of the semester

tbh I would deduct marks if you missed the case of unbounded n_i's
lmao
especially if the problem says the set is {(-infty, n) : n in Z}
okay ill right sup
because then this is not union closed
because infty and -infty which are possible values for n once you union are not there in this
this works i think
i cant possibly be more pedantic thna this

"We assume the positive integers are well-ordered"
My point was exactly that n need not be in {n_i} 
If the problem explicitly says it like this, then it's not a topology for precisely this reason
oh yes i see
my bad.
Yeah so you gotta handle the unbounded n_i case separately
Yes 
thats so fucked up
what do you even do if such an n_i doesn't exist
If it doesn't, then n_i has to be unbounded and the sup will be infinity
And then union is R
It is
i am confused.
Because they cheat by doing union {empty, R} at the end
Ok take the case Z = I
And n_i = i
Then there is not max n_i
yes
And then union is all of R
So I'm saying you need to handle this kind of case separately since your proof fails here
Yeah it's a topology
Nope intersections will be finite anyway
right
And finite totally ordered sets always have min and max
do i need to write sup still or does max work the same in this case
if I'm just going to assume such a max exists anyways
and then deal with it not existing seperately
Max works then yeah
n = sup n_i. If n = infty then union is R. If n ≠ infty then it's a max so your argument finishes it off

Can someone verify this?
The result seems too nice for a differential geometry class
uh similar request for checking finite intersection for the topology
i feel gross for writing math like this! but i just want to make sure he has no excuses to dock marks xd
im sure there is a way to do the second containment directly
not sure what it is tho
for each m<n, we have (-infty, n) sub (-infty, m)
this sounds wrong
maybe you just want the other inclusion
oh yes i want n < m right
right
this is what i get for checking my assignment at 3am 
you should say what m is though lol
maybe just say that m refers to some n_i everywhere
okay for each i in I, n < n_i is prob better
you really shouldn't
I would say these are important details
that you should be comfortable with
Moldi is a known asshole

And operates on bad faith
yeah
ur right
it just feels weird to write math defensively
but i suppose it is a good habit to work this stuff out lol
yeah I mean if you feel like this argument has been done multiple times in class or some previous courses then sure
but given that you missed the unbounded n_i case for arbitrary unions I would say you should write this stuff 
yes
i wonder if i was supposed to notice that 
i guess i should not assume that my very smart prof made a major oversight there
lol


okay yeah this looks correct
without telling me, is there a nicer way to do the second inclusion directly
i prob wont rewrite since I need to sleep but
Yes

No need for contradiction
ah
guh
this is due in 6hrs (9am) so i wont work it out now but i'll try to figure it out tmrw afternoon since it bothers me that i couldnt immediately do it directly
It is your proof pretty much 
Like you assumed (not A) and proved A to get the contradiction
but you didnt use the assumption not A anywhere

so you could just remove that assumption and make it a normal proof
Well let’s just say that we can use the universal property of the minima
didn't he already do that
I mean directly
guh okay before i am too tired to process this stuff, does this fail if X is a single element?
oh right
no?
No, I don’t think so
Wow, even this second problem has a categorical interpretation

your mom has a categorical interpretation
wait i get it
Your mom is fat, ugly and has no nice categorical interpretation
i was just worried that in the backwards direction the empty set would not be in the topologee


ok now i verify counter examples and sleep
what is the categorical interpretation of the first problem
Actually I can’t think of anything, I think I just said that because I shoehorned in the universal property. Apologies
lmfao
my counter examples are correct
i am a god
oh might as well check that this is. valid
bnefore i hand it in
just asks if nested topology is smaller/larger/incomparable than usual topology
it does not request a proof
so i assume handwave is fine
oh yeah i didnt know how to word that
what is the right way to say what i am trying to say there
because x is a point in Un but also it is a point in usual topology
ball around x contained in U_n should be fine lol
if you really wanna be explicit say ball of the standard metric/top
U_n \in T_nest
but "ball" already kinda implies that it is in the metric
ball is an element of T_usual and subset of U_n
where the T_usual part is implied by the word ball
This may be a bit nit picky, but just saying that for any x in Un you cab choose an open ball feels like you are assuming that Un is open already
I feel like you should actually give the construction of epsilon
~~probably because I am too
~~
well the answer also just says to "explain"
because it's an element of T_nest

Also maybe a cleaner way to do it rather than constructing the epsilon ball around each x you choose, you could probably just say that Un is the union over i<=n-1of B(i,1).
Ball of radius 1 around i
Oh and i ranges over integers
Just to clarify is this the lower order topology on Z or on R
Because the details of what I said will change depending
on R
I see, hopefully what I wrote is correct then
i see no issues
much nicer
okay thank u moldi and saketh you are both very good people. i will now get four hours of sleep. 
Good night
Is there any way to do this without having a bunch of different cases?
left adjoints preserve colimits. every set is the coproduct of copies of the singleton, so the discrete topology on a space should be the coproduct of singleton spaces
that's my categorical interpretation of the second question
why the (p,q)-torus knot only exist when p and q are coprime?
You can look at it when they share a common factor, but then it'll decompose into disjoint knots
They won't be disjoint right? You would just go over the same knot gcd(m,n) times?
Or x1
is there some nice way to show that ab and ba have the same characterstic polynomial
where a and b are square matrices over a general field
i thought there was something slick like using the irreducibility of affine n space
Here is a cool method: prove that det(I+AB)=det(I+BA). If A is invertible this is obvious, and then use the zariski denseness of invertible matrices to conclude generally
det(x+AB)=det(x+BA) can be done in the exact same way
yes this what I was looking for!
so what we are using here is that
if V is an algebraic set of affine n space
and p is a polynomial
if p is zero outside of V p is zero everywhere
else we would contradict the irreducibility
If you don't like zariski denseness, there is an even crazier argument which goes as follows, consider both these sides as polynomials in variables x,a_11,..a_nn (basically treating entries of A as a formal polynomial. we can divide by det(A) on both sides as it is a non zero polynomial and conclude that as formal polynomials these expressions are the same, hence they are equal when evaluating at whatever values you want to put for the a_ij's
i like that
can you explain a bit more to me the zariski dense arguement
so we know that
invertible matrices are dense
What we actually did was create a zariski dense open set, and proved that a zero polynomial had a zero set containing it. since zero sets are closed (algebraic set) we see that the zero set is the entire thing
oops replied to the wrong thing
now invertible matrices are dense because they are the set of matrices A st det(A)/=0, that is some xariski open set
and all nonzero open sets are dense
because of irreducibility
so the set of invertible matrices is dense
yes
Yes. you can think of it as det(xI-AB)-det(xI-BA)=0 as a polynomial on a dense set of matrices
we should probably move this to abstract algebra
For Zariski dense ness are you considering the zero set of the ludicrous polynomial you get by subtracting these two determinants?
yes

ah yes thank you i see this now
oh i think maybe we actually need to consider
det(I-XA)-det(I-AX)=0
Also fucking Hurb
thank you very much though
whats a Hurb
A is just what I'm putting in for the n^2 variables
oh okay
i think what i said only gives
for a given A
char(AB)=char(BA)
but
its arbitary A
yeah that is what my argument gives as well
(well, i suppose it is the same argument)
just another formal variable
okay okay i see now
affine space is only irreducible when the field is algebraically closed
or
atleast infinite
?
Infinite field
At least as a scheme it is
Finite field is the discrete topology

🤣 🔫
That doesn’t sit right with me 
Why is Spec F_p[x] irreducible but the varsity for A^1_F_p reducible
I mean, the topologies are different
I guess the moral of the story is that having (0) as a point makes all the difference
I've proven all the norm properties and that omega is dense -> nu is a norm, but I haven't done nu is a norm -> omega is dense. I see how I could do it in a metric space, but I don't see how to do it in the general topological setting.
I've proven that compact, Hausdorff spaces are T_4, so if x is a point not in the closure of omega, there are disjoint neighborhoods U and V containing x and the closure of omega respectively, and that feels very helpful, I just don't see exactly what to do from there. Any hints appreciated
and I'm wondering if there's an easy topology theorem I'm just missing that makes it obvious
the thing I want to do is for contradiction assume that there's some x not in the closure of omega. Then let f(x) = 0 on the closure of omega, and let f(x) = (something nonzero) at a point outside the closure of omega, and then use the disjoint neighborhoods to show that such a function can be extended to something continuous on the space, but no clue how to do that last part, or if it is even possible
Every compact hausdorff space is normal
So use urysohn’s lemma
I do not know Urysohn's lemma
and yeah I proved that compact, hasdorff spaces are T4 (so obviously normal) so I got that part
ok a quick google and that's literally what I needed ty lol
It says that for any two disjoint closed sets A and B in a topological space there is a function f that is 0 on A and 1 on B
Thank you so much
My school does not have an undergrad course in point-set topology for stupid reasons so I've only seen topology in metric spaces, and this is for a functional analysis class. The prof treats us as if we know point-set topology. I've had to pick a lot up very quickly so there are some gaps
that seems really unreasonable, urysohn's lemma is a very hard theorem
someone shared here a nice exposition on torsors the other day
does anyone still have that
if i have an open set X which is contractible and compact, then X minus one point is simply connected?
Do you mean topological space X instead of open set, or is your X some open set in euclidean space or something
Because in euclidean space, open sets are never compact
if you mean a topological space, then no
have to find tangent space of $\mathbb C[\frac{1}{x_1 x_2^2}, \frac{1}{x_2}, x_1 x_3, x_1^2 x_2 x_3, \frac{1}{x_1^2 x_2^3 x_3}, \frac{x_3}{x_2}]$ at point $I = (\frac{1}{x_1 x_2^2}, \frac{1}{x_2}, x_1 x_3, x_1^2 x_2 x_3, \frac{1}{x_1^2 x_2^3 x_3}, \frac{x_3}{x_2})$ how to do this?
Empty2
if i have an open neighbourhood contratible $B=B' \cup \lbrace \infty \rbrace$of $\infty$ in the compactification of R^3, where $\infty$ is the added point, then $B'$ is simply connected?
Or x1
Compile Error! Click the
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Uh
You have to phrase it more formally
But like
A disk minus a point
Sounds like a counterexample
I think in the more specific question about the compactification of R^3, indeed B’ is connected
It says simply connected
If B is a small disk around infinity then I still think what I said is a counterexample
Equivalent in euclidean spaces right?
Do you mean path connected, saketh
But small disks are not open in R^3
Simply connected means trivial fundamental group and path connected
Ah yes, I meant simply connected, apologies
Path connected
Ah yes
Wait no, I did mean simply connected
Basically, my intuition is that a simply connected open neighbourhood around infinity should look like a sphere
And spheres minus a point are simply connected
Does that seem right to you?
i know that spheres of dimension at least 2 are simply connected but why spheres minus a point are simply connected?
Apologies, I meant ball and not sphere
Ie: It has the sphere and all of the points in the sphere
balls minus one point are simply connected because R^n minus a finite number of points is simply connected and there is a deformation of R^n onto a ball?
Yes, but n must be greater than or equal to 3 for R^n minus some points to be simply connected
i also recommend learning the tietze extension theorem. a good summary of the topology you need for analysis can be found in chapter 4 of follan'ds book on real analysis
o yes, thanks
Ah I misread as R2 somehow
Hello I started my topology course and I have to prove that and I have no ideas how to start :/
I understand the two basis have a different nature
I try figure how to explain that certain sets of R can be described with 1 element of R_l and not by 1 element from R_k and vice versa
Sorry for my english
So you have to show that neither topologies contain each other
As a collection of subsets
Something like that ?
anyone want to dm me a link to the algebraic geometry syndicate discord
nvm.
how exactly can i define a deformation retraction of $S^3-T_{p,q}=(S^1 \times D^2)\cup (D^2 \times S^1)-T_{p,q}$ onto $S^1 \times I/ \sim$ where $\sim$ is the relation generated by $(z,0)\sim (e^{2 \pi i/p}z,0) $ and $(z,1) \sim (e^{2 \pi i /q}z,1)$ and $T_{p,q}$ is the $(p,q)$-torus knot?
Or x1
is there a characterization of compact subsets of Q?
there is the result that a subset of Q is compact in Q if and only if it is compact in R, but i mean like a heine borel for subsets of Q. since for example, [0,1] as a subset of Q is not compact, then closed and bounded isn’t enough to imply compactness.
ye, was just about to say that
it's basically going to be like
unions of sequences which converge in Q (including their limits)
such that the limits form a discrete set
something like that
the limits might not need to form a discrete set
hmm. so something like {1/n} U {0}
sure
and like
you can have unions of things like that
but
probably not big unions
finite unions of things like that def work
my question is, can you get infinitely many limit points in by having them all converge to another limit point?
yea countable doesn’t work i don’t think. u can probably get Q from unions of sets of that form
yea i think
like e.g. you pick the sequences {1/n + 1/(100n)^k : k in N} for each fixed n
and then the limits are {1/n}
There are sets whose limit points are exactly the 1/n
and then you throw in {0} too
Nice lol
so take the set 1/N = {1/n: n in N} and then squish it between 1/2 and 1. then squish 1/N between 1/3 and 1/2 and so on
It's compact yes
it should be, i don't see how it wouldnt be
ok
and you can do it forever too
you can keep fitting in smaller things convering to the last set of stuff
so it's very weird
It's bounded because of your choice of elements
which one are we talking about, ryc’s example?
Ye
thanks real chmonkey
i think mine does the same thing

I'm even verified
I guess you could just say sets which are bounded, closed in Q, and no irrational limits lmao
bruh that’s just sequentially compact
Equivalent to compact for all metric spaces 
yea but like, this is just as good as saying that the compact subsets of Q are exactly the sequentially compact subsets lol
not saying it’s bad
just kinda funny
No, that would be if you said "compact subsets are exactly the subsets in which all sequences have convergent subsequences" 
for this, why can't we use (C) to get a finite collection of cells which cover the closure of e, then let the collection of closures be the desired subcomplex?
It's not obvious that it will be a finite subcomplex
It is true, but it is the statement of the lemma. If I understand you correctly, your proof is circular.
I'm using one of the conditions of a CW complex, where the closure of each cell is contained in a union of finitely many cells
if you then take the closures of those cells it should form a subcomplex right?
Yes, finitely many open cells
A priori, we don't know how many open cells are in cl(e) - e
I mean even if you say cl(e) is contained in the union of e_i, the subcomplex composed of the cells {cl(e_i)} is not proven to be finite yet, because we don't know whether taking the closure will introduce infinitely many open cells or not.
yeah I was thinking something along those lines but couldn't really come up with an example
Well, there is none! The statement is that taking the closure only introduces finitely many cells. It's what we are trying to prove.
I think so
I have a question about this theorem, after showing that one-point sets are closed in a Hausdorff space, doesn't this imply that an arbitrary union of one-point sets is closed, which means that we could have a set with infinite points which is closed? Then why is the theorem stating that every 'finite' point set is closed when we could do an arbitrary union?
dammit, thank you!
I think not. You will have a long exact sequence instead I think
I see, thanks
I think my questions are a bit premature and dumb, but anyway: If we know all H_k (X ; Z/n) for all n, do we know H_k (X ; Z)?
i should like to see a quick example of the computation of homology groups for some simple manifold
where can i find this
Hello. Can anyone give a simple example of two limit point compact Hausdorff spaces whose product is not limit point compact?
If they are compact, then their product is also compact, and therefore limit point compact. So if X x Y has this property, at least one of them, say Y, is lp compact, but not compact. Do you know such a simple Y?
The only Hausdorff example I know is the minimal uncountable well-ordered set in the order topology.
omega1 x omega1 also seems to be limit point compact though
countable product of sequentially compact is sequentially compact iirc, so omega1 won't work
You will need a limit point compact space which is not compact and also not sequentially compact
wait does sequential compact imply limit point compact? It should I think, since for any infinite set you can take a sequence with distinct terms in it and that should have a subsequentiall limit and that should be a limit point of the original set
Yeah. Maybe we take X to be different than Y, but I still can't see how that will make things easier.
That makes sense
I doubt there are any simple examples
The linked answer also seems very complicated lol
Yeah
But I think it proves a strictly stronger result
How about the Sorgenfrei plane? It's a product, and has an uncountable discrete subset (so not limit point compact). Is R_l limit point compact?
The Sorgenfrey line is mentioned in the answer linked in the answer on the page that I linked, is that related?
Actually we should pick some bounded subspace
I don't know what it is
I think that was a counterexample to something else
The Sorgenfrei line is R_l (R in the lower limit topology). The Sorgenfrey plane is R_l x R_l.
ah
I see why you want a bounded subspace
Don't think that works though, because you can take the sequence 1 - 1/n, and the limit "should be 1" but it's not because lower limit shenanigans
I mean even viewing the sequence as just a set
I just checked and found that 1st ctbl + lpcompact implies seq. compact, so it doesn't work, as you said
I see
Ahaa, right
right yeah since first countable spaces are sequential
That's nice!
In finer spaces, compactness is harder, right?
I mean if you have X and two topologies on it, one of which is finer than the other
Yeah seems legit
open cover in coarser is also one in finer, so take finite in the finer topology and return
Yeah
I think one can often check whether a property is "increasing or decreasing"by looking at the discrete and indiscrete topologies
yeah true, if you know that the property is one of the two
It'd be amusing to formalize this

R with the topology generated by the basis {(r, infty) : r in R} is limit compact, not sequentially compact
but I think the square of this is limit compact too
yeah it is
Isn't that the upper limit topology?
the basis for that would be {(a,b] : a,b in R}
We can intersect
like these are going all the way to the right
Oh, my bad. That's not a subbasis
ye
I doubt this cheap fix will work
But what if we take X = [0, 1] with lower and upper limits?
I mean X with the union of these topologies
But uh, it still suffers from this
So the space should not be first countable
if you take both lower and upper then I think you just get discrete
intersection of (a,b] and [b,c)
lol
fuck this problem 
Agreed
I saw this question in MSE once
About whether there is a topology T on C, such that analytic = continuous in T
It wasn't answered
does seem more interesting though
More precisely, we want f : (C, T) --> C to be continuous iff it's analytic
Yeah
Is being normal increasing or decreasing?
Yeah. On the one hand, we don't want too many closed sets. But on the other hand, we want many open sets!
Aha
Yes, and so is discrete.
I guess it might be a matter of definition
Yeah that should work, doesn't seem normal
any 2 open sets intersect
non empty open sets
assuming infinite space
or actually lol
R^2 is coarser than R_l^2 is coarser than discrete on R^2
normal < not normal < normal
Great
I was thinking of invoking Tietze's theorem
For no really good reason, just that extensions are restricted in complex analysis
makes sense
Compactly generated Hausdorff spaces are used in homotopy theory.
Does anyone have a good idea of like, how much stuff about locally compact Hausdorff spaces goes through for CG spaces?
like
lots of analysis relies on results about LCH spaces.
A lot of sheaf theory, sheaf cohomology etc works well over LCH spaces
Just trying to get an idea of how practical it is to think of compactly-generated as a slight weakening of locally compact.
If we define the Riemann curvature tensor, in abstract index notation by $R_{\alpha\beta\gamma}^\delta V^\gamma=(\nabla_\alpha\nabla_\beta-\nabla_\beta\nabla_\alpha)V^\delta$, on a Riemannian manifold, then the right definition of the Ricci tensor $R_{\alpha\beta}$ should be $R_{\alpha\beta}=R_{\gamma\alpha\beta}^\gamma$, right? The book "Spinors and Space-Time" by Penrose and Rindler instead defines $R_{\alpha\beta}=R_{\alpha\gamma\beta}^\gamma$, which gives the opposite sign.
gustavn64
want to find intersection of ideal $I = (4 - \frac{x_2}{x_3} - \frac{x_3^2}{x_1x_2}, 4 - \frac{1}{x_1 x_2} - \frac{1}{x_3 x_3})$ with $\mathbb C[x_1,x_2,x_3]$ any idea how to do it?
Empty2
Like what?


