#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 238 of 1
$f: U \to V\subset\mathbb{R}^d$ is a homeomorphism, then $f^{-1}:V\to U$ must also be continuous.
Apopheniac
By "the other direction", i mean the continuity of f^{-1}
I see
Then the map f also maps open subsets of U bijectively to open subsets of V. So as far as topological data goes, these two open sets are equivalent via this homeo f.
You here?
yep

Toki and I have been doing trying some exercise again.
We argued if there existed a retraction, then the homomorphisms between their fundamental groups should be surjective, which it isn't, because it is of the form f(x)=ax and it is from Z to Z.
Is that correct?
this is the proposition that we used just to clarify
We also know that the fundamental group of the Möbius strip is Z and that the circle is a deformation retract of the Möbius strip since Hatcher said so in his book
(we know the proof is wrong by now, but is this the right direction?)
Yeah because what if a = 1? Then f(x) = x is surjective
then crap
We need to show that a can't be 1. Don't know how to do that tho
What does the boundary circle get mapped to via the induced map?
To the Möbius band, right?
The induced map would be on the level of groups, so homotopy classes of loops
So I'm like "projectring" a circle that goes around itself n times to the Möbius strip by the i_*[w_n] = [i o w_n]
Hmm but wait
Not just any n
f(x) = ax in "the language of fundamental groups", this would mean that I'm taking a loop that goes around itself x times and getting a loop that goes around itself ax times in the Möbius strip. But if I do a "whole rotation" in the Möbius band, I actually get "two rotations" in the circle. So a can't be one because a loop that goes around itself x times can't go around itself x times in the Möbious strip
I think that's the idea yes.
Because it takes two full rotations to get around the möbius strip
If you're only allowed to traverse a path along the boundary circle, then you end up going around twice
so in fact, the homomorphism should be f(x) = 2x
Okay so just like Max said to me yesterday, I should just relax and think of the intuitive geometry instead of working with symbols all the way lmao
Okay anyway, thank you so much Apopheniac!
🙂
happyperson, you got that?
I think a helpful tool in proving stuff like this is that you already have a special chosen deformation retraction of the Mobius strip onto the equator (the circle along the middle). So this gives you a specific way to tell what homotopy class a loop in the Mobius strip has.
So for context here p: Y -> X is a map over X, and H is isomorphic to a subgroup of the automorphism group of Y over X
I dont really see how the projections give us a space over X?
like whats the map project onto the second factor and then compose with p?
so only the second projection is being used or
Just learned what locally finite means, so a collection of sets A, of a topology X is locally finite if:
$\forall x, \exists U \ni x$ such that $U \cap A = {x_{i}}_{i=1}^n$
The example the book gave was $A = {(n,n+2) \mid n\in\mathbb{N}}$ and they say it is a locally finite set of topology on R
Abdo Kiza
I dont see how
Abdo Kiza
This is not correct. The last part should be "U intersects finitely many sets in A". U intersection A doesn't make sense as U is an subset of the space and A is a collection of subsets of the space.
Moldilocks
ty i realized my fault when i reread definition
original definition i gave in symbols would work for some topologies not a lot
im wondering working with the example i gave and the false definition i gave
what topologies this applies to on R
im thinking no topologies
Well U \cap A will always be empty (assuming no set theoretic pathologies where points of the space themselves are subsets)
It will be empty because U is a set of points, A is a set of subsets
So all topologies on R would make all collections locally finite with that definition
i think i like the correct definition in words because it is descriptive and easy for me to understand
Yeah it's easier to read
also the name locally finite is intuitive
yep
Guys, one fast question. I have to show that product of topological groups is topological group. That is easy if there is finite number of topological groups involved but what if there is infinitly many of them?
Product is defined componentwise, and the product function is continuous iff it is continuous in each coordinate (universal property of product topology) and the latter is known to be the case
Same for inverses
right you can just use the fact that maps into a product are continuous iff all compositions with the canonical projections from the product are continuous
what you do is you take your infinite family of topological groups {X_a} and consider the product \prod_a X_a with the product topology, then the main claim is that the product and inverse and so on are continuous with respect to this topology
but this is immediate from this remark about projections: it means you can check continuity pointwise
Okay so I started to think about the deformation retract in this question late at night yesterday and I became really confused lmao. I didn't want to ask it yesterday because it was late and my mind didn't work back then. So I will ask it now.
Like I said yesterday, the circle is a deformation retract of the Möbius strip because Hatcher said so. This means that there's a homotopy F: X x I -> S^1 such that for all x in X and a in S^1
- F(x, 0) = x,
- F(x, 1) in S^1 (i. e F(X, 1) = S^1),
- F(a, 1) = a.
Now we can define a continuous map f: X -> S^1 by f(x) = F(x, 1) and this will be a retract since f(a) = a for all a in S^1 by 3. Don't we now have a retraction of the Möbius band into its boundary circle, S^1? There's something that I misunderstand since the exercise clearly stated that there's so such retraction. So what goes wrong here?
So there's something that I misunderstand about deformation retractions and retractions. Isn't every deformation retraction a retraction? So if the circle is a deformation retraction of the Möbius strip, that should also define a retraction from the Möbius strip to the circle, right? But this is wrong and I don't understand why!
This guy apparently shows that S^1 is a retract of the Möbius strip. Doesn't this contradict the exercise?
the exercise clearly stated that there's so such retraction.
are you sure about this?
It might have said something about retractions to specific embeddings of the circle
Like the boundary, which would make sense because that goes around the strip twice
"Show that there is no retraction of the Möbius band onto its boundary circle" doesn't this mean that S^1 can't be a retraction of the Möbius strip?
the embedding matters
and since the boundary circle is a deformation retraction of the Möbius band, the circle should be a retraction of the Möbius band
Hmm what do you mean by embedding? Like how many times S^1 loops around itself?
like how the circle you asre trying to retract to sits in your space
take S^1 disjoint union D^2 for example
what is S^1
here you can embed S^1 in 2 different obvious ways
take the wedge sum not the disjoint union
Well I'm not that comfortable with wedge sums and disjoint unions 
will it be like Coordinate Transformation?
its just a disk and a circle, attached at their respective (1,0) point
unit circle
ok, in which Topological Space?
There are 2 natural embeddings of the circle in this, one to the boundary of the disk and the other to the copy of S^1 itself
and only one of these has a retract as its image
or take the figure 8, and fill in one of those circles
Since it is usually considered as a topological space (atleast it is in this case), there's two distinct definitions but the two spaces are (in a fairly natural way) homeomorphic @regal sonnet:
{z € C | |z| = 1} and {(x, y) € R² | x² + y² = 1}
(I'm assuming you constructed C as a civilized person, i.e not by defining some laws on R², else the two definitions are exactly the same 🐒)
is this ring theorist agenda

oh btw moldi remember that isometry group S_n of n+1 points in R^n problem ? The existence of the said points is actually ridiculously simple, but it's kinda hard to think of it
yeah its just a tetrahedron no?
In R^3, yes, but how do you generalize that in R^n ?
I still am convinced that the "counter argument: the core circle (as Hatcher describes it) is a deformation retract of the Möbius strip -> the core circle (which I assume is the boundary circle) is a retract of the Möbius strip" works tho
Is there maybe a difference between the core circle and the boundary circle?
I had the tetrahedron in mind, but I struggled to generalize it to higher dims
but it's actually really simple
the solution is 4 words long

||canonical basis of R^(n+1)||
with a bit more details ||consider the affine hyperplane of R^(n+1) generated by its canonical basis. That gives you a space of dim n containing n + 1 equidistant points||
yeah, "it is obvious bro"
it's not obvious, it's simple*
lol
it's kinda different, the solution is super simple but I honestly don't think I could've thought about it even with more time
(not sure if you clicked on the spoilers)
yeah, I clicked
I didnt lol im in the middle of a game
I havent tried the problem yet
lol u lost

😂
Yes
The core circle is the one in the middle of the band
The boundary one is the edges of the band
well frrriiiiccck
and the boundary circle goes around the band twice while the core goes around once
Then my solution is wrong god daimmit
F
Because then I can't use this proposition right
To show that the induced homomorphism is a isomorphism
yeah you cant
Yeah because the boundary circle is not a deformation retract of the Möbius strip, its the core circle
and those two are different
right? Have I understood that correctly?
Okay great thank you so much! So now I'm not confused but angry because happyperson and I have to redo the exercise lmao

it took So much Time!
boundary circle of mobius strip isnt a subspace of mobius strip?
Boundary isnt subspace of core
I thought that's what toki said
oh I just misread
mb
Lmao, I was also confused by that
core circle is S1 in middle of mobius strip right?
boundary circle is the one that intersects
the boundary is the edge
the edge intersects itself right?
also its included in the mobius strip
so it is a subspace
maybe its just the optical illusion?
the klein bottle doesn't self intersect in R^4
only when you embed in R^2
i honestly dont even know what embedding ur talking about
its r2 embedding
i only seen mobius strip in 2d afterall
what
You can project a mobius strip onto R^2 and I guess it self intersects
yeah i mean the projection won't be injective so sure
but this clearly doesn't need to self intersect in R^3
yea my r2 brain sees the twist as an intersection
in fact you can build one yourself with some tape and paper
i know it doesnt was a mental fuck up on my part
i have to always use my hands to visualize it sadly
Okay I realised (I think) that I don't even need any propositions to show that there's no retraction between the boundary circle of the Möbius strip to the Möbius strip. It will involve a very similar argument that I presented but I won't be using any propositions.
So first lets assume that there is a retraction $r: X \rightarrow S^1$ where $X$ is the Möbius strip. We know that the inclusion map $i$ is a right inverse to $r$, meaning that $r \circ i = e$ where $e$ is the identity. But this means that $r_* \circ i_* [f] = [r \circ i\circ w_n] = [w_n]$ so $r_$ is surjective since it has a right inverse (can you also use the pigeon hole principle to show that $r_$ is surjective?). So $r_*[f_n] = [r \circ f_n]$ where $f_n$ is a loop in the Möbius strip around the boundary circle. We also know that $[r \circ f_n]$ is a element of $\pi_1(S^1)$ so it must we of the form $w_m$ where $m$ is the winding number. But $[r \circ f_n] = [f_{2n}]$ because one loop around the Möbius strip results in two loops around the boundary circle. This would correspond to a function $g: Z \rightarrow Z$ defined as $g(n) = 2n$, but this is not surjective
Tokidoki ✓
It's basically the same argument that happyperson and I presented but this time we work with r instead of the inclusion map
yep works

idk about the pigeonhole principle thing tho
I don't see a way to prove surjectivity from that
You can't use the pigeon hole principle on this right? Since if A is a subset of B, then pi(A) doesn't need to be a subset of pi(B) I think
How would you usually show surjectivity of some map using pigeonhole?
It talks about non injectivity
Oh that might be right
I thought that if B is a subset of A, then a map f: A -> B must be surjective, but this might be wrong
pi(A) and be much larger than pi(B) is A is a subset of B
this is not true
what is f here?
Let B be the unit circle and A be the 2-unit circle so B is inside of A
disk***
not circle
then you can shrink A and send it back into B
non-surjectively
You can just take constant map then
and B a non singleton
Also A is a subset of itself
so that would suggest that all maps from a space to itself are surjective


just to encourage a little elegance, toki would you mind if I wrote up the result using the same approach but a little cleaner?
Yeah sure, go ahead! I wrote it in a way using symbols because I just don't want to skip any steps and I want to make sure that I understand everything
Guys, how do you define product topology on set of all functions from A to B?
Let $\omega$ be the generator of $\pi_1 S^1=\bZ$ and let $\gamma$ be the generator of $\pi_1 X=\bZ$. Then the inclusion $S^1\hookrightarrow X$ sends $\omega$ to $2\gamma$. Now, we know that if $r:X\to S^1$ is a retraction of the original inclusion, then $r\circ i\simeq id$ and therefore $(r\circ i)*=id$. But that must mean that $\omega = (r\circ i)(\omega) = r_(2\gamma)$ but no such homomorphism can exist as this would amount to a homomorphism $\bZ\to\bZ$ sending $1$ to $1/2$.
Max's Talk is on Sunday
do you mean the topology on Maps(A,B) where A and B are topological spaces?
Its the "compact open" topology
A and B are topological groups and it asks me to prove that B^A is topological group with respect to the product topology :/
yes give me a minute
I am guessing B^|A| 
@pearl holly after a little practice, you will probably stop writing things like gamma and omega and just write like
1 and 2
Okay I see now! Thank you so much!
Yea I guess it means the same, all functions from A to B
Any idea how to define topology on this set?
Its probably the most natural way but I have never saw this before
By that I meant you identify the space of such functions with the product of B with itself |A| times
and then give the subspace topology since you dont have all set functions
This makes sense thanks 😄
Only a guess though 
yes, thats what Moldilocks pointed out. I figured it 😄 Thanks 😄
are isotopy classes of torus in S^3 the same as knots? You can go from knots -> torus by thickening, but there doesn't seem to be canonical 'unthickening', however I had some vague memory that they are actually supposed to be the same thing?
@frigid river
Just gunna leave this dini surface here. The product of a tractrix thursday.
The heck is that??? It looks super cool
toe pology
a dingy surface
#topology-and-feet when
The standard solid torus in R^3 deformation retracts onto the circle. Via the embedding of the solid torus into S^3, you get a deformation retraction of the embedded solid torus onto a knot.
is it like Calabi-yau Manifold?
If I were to have a set S to be the set of all continuous functions f:X->R with the property that each of them is non-negative and there exists a function that is also nonzero with X compact....can I conclude that the sum of n functions of this set has to be positive?
I mean f(X) would be bounded too due to continuity
What do you mean by "positive"? Strictly positive everywhere?
Dini surface, aka a twisted pseudosphere aka a revolved and mirrored twisted tractrix. Tractrix solid of revolution on acid 😉
its rare for me to enter this channel and not recognize a single word in a sentence lmao
it's very nice. is it still constant negative curvature or is the twisting not an isometry?
oh yes it's still constant negative curvature. how pleasant.
log(tan(x/2)) 
Thanks, got it!
The twisting gets really strange, I used to have a good mathematica file on my old computer that can show it even disappearing with the right coefficients. Constant negative curvature.

Have you forgotten it now?(the solution)
Yeah, haha, did it as undergrad. Trying to find the file. I had it in spherical and cyllindrical coordinates aswell >.>
nonzero + nonnegative doesn't mean positive in that sense, so no
If it is nonzero and nonnegative ,what else could it be then?
Not a<0 nor a=0 is the same as saying a>0...
Hey, hey, hey. Anyone has a pdf of Algebraic Algebra? If yes, could you send it to me?
unless by "nonzero" you mean "different from 0 everywhere", which isn't the usual meaning afaict
This is what I meant actually , and what was taught too
the terminology on this is ambiguous
A function is nonzero means it is never 0 at any point
f > 0 means "f(x)>0 for all x" but f = 0 means f is the zero function, i.e null everywhere
@empty grove explain your position
I agree with syst3ms here 


woops

Well
toe pology
I agree with terra here.
You agree with everyone beside me here.
Interesting.


This made me think
What's the dual of support
For homomorphisms and things of that nature you have the kernel, but I guess the dual of the support would live in the range
Me want more perspective, what is best explanation given for a mapping cylinder
AK
i think viewing it as just a specific homotopy pushout is fairly natural
but you need to understand homotopy pushouts for that to be helpful
yea ill learn soon
AK
Could someone give me an intuitive explanation of what a uniform space is?
Because yeah, I get what the definition formally is.
But idk how it is connected to the fact that somehow "uniform spaces are those topological spaces where talking about cauchy sequences and uniform convergence makes sense"
I cant think of a space which is locally euclidean but not hausdorff.
Take 2 copies of R, quotient by the equivalence relation which identifies all corresponding points except for the 0s
It is called line with 2 origins
at either origin, you have euclidean space neighbourhoods but any neighbourhood of one origin intersects all of the other
another good example is provided by sheaf theory
if you look up the construction of the "espace etale" associated to a sheaf
then for most sheaves over a manifold (for example the sheaf of C^\infty functions over a smooth manifold)
the espace etale of that sheaf would be locally homeomorphic to R^n but not Hausdorff
huh, when will the espace etale even be hausdorff? That feels weird
it holds when you have a sheaf of extremely rigid functions which are totally controlled on a neighborhood by their germ at a point. so like, the sheaf of holomorphic or meromorphic functions on C or on a riemann surface
in this case the space will be more or less a manifold except that it won't be second countable. but i think each connected component will be second countable, and you'll be able to put a complex analytic structure on it
damn I haven't thought about it like this before that's really nice

Are questions about functional analysis appropriate here or shall I post in #advanced-analysis ?
better in analysis channel
ok thanks I'll post it there
@gritty widget just like how the kernel has a dual which is the cokernel
Wondering if the support has a dual objecy
stupid answer incoming:
in AG, the support of a (finitely generated) module is the set of primes at which its localization nonzero. this is an closed subscheme (so affine) and thus it's dual to the ring of functions on it
anyways someone just told me that the category of LCH spaces with proper maps and the category of pointed compact hausdorff spaces are equivalent via the one point compactification and it's neat! not that strange but I'd never thought about it that way
do you not think this is cool tterra
i am reading about k theory
this is so weird
that's what this book claims!
I think the other direction should be removing a point
ah sorry compact hausdorff

okay, so say you have a pointed compact hausdorff space (X, pt)
let Y = X \ pt
first question is whether this is even locally compact
right, any neighborhood of a point in Y must contain a compact subset (in X)
yeah
you think it's more plausible now?
the maps in the first category must be proper and the maps in the second must be based
based
otherwise it's not even a functor
i decided to try looking at a thing on operator k theory
so it would be very surprising if there was an obvious objection based on C* algebras
https://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.649.9955&rep=rep1&type=pdf
just skimming the section on topological k theory rn to see if I can look further
yup
that's why this came up
yup!
not sure if i will stick with it but what we were talking about last night seemed interesting
and I wanted something new to look ahead to as motivation
right
It's neat
Haven't gotten to the new-to-me stuff yet
well, besides that equivalence
but the quick topological k theory section is nice and I like the writing
will do!
i have come across my second surprise equivalence of categories
no no no
categories of left and right modules over a fixed ring being equivalent

uhoh
it should be left modules over R is equiv to right modules over R^op
but this is for general rings
but how do you do the same for modules over a ring?
R and R^op certainly don't need to be isomorphic
you can do it for hopf algebras
those are jsut self important groups
page 8 of blackader

does anyone have some nice noncommutative rings we can try
M_n(A) for A commutative doesn't work (I think, at least, since any ring is morita equivalent to a matrix ring over it)
hopf algebras don't work
steenrod algebra
/s
what are you trying to prove/disprove
i wanted to try and figure out if the categories of left and right modules are equivalent [for a specific example]
but that's probably too hard even with a specific example
ahh that condition would make sense here
and it seems a little more believable
yeah i don't see a functor either way
maybe you want to pass through idempotents?
i also just realized that looking at K^0 of a suspension is less weird than i had previously thought
like, a bundle E on SX should be determined by its restriction to the two cones and the gluing data on their intersection
which is like, two trivial bundles and an isomorphism between bundles on X
something like that
it probably works for the quaternions 
i agree
quaternions are too nice
i was thinking maybe division rings are too nice
or just quaternion algebras in general
doesn't linear algebra work pretty well for them?
yup
ah okay sick
so the category of left modules is equivalent to N with matrices
and the category of right modules is equivalent to N with matrices^op
or something
(this is over a generic division ring)
like find a counterexample?
for division rings the inverse thing works
so all division rings have order 2 in the brauer group?
it's not true that every divison ring is iso to its opposite if that's what you're asking
sorry i had two replies two different people
oh ok nvm
i figured out my concern
with your thing ultra
so i think this might work
ah neat!
wait...
if A^2 = A then (A^T)^2 = (A^2)^T = A^T
wouldn't this be the orthogonal complement?
wtf there are like two complements
oh
C* 
hmm this is not required in Blackadar
well, not yet at least(?)
oh but we are taking similarity classes right
and A is similar to A^T
i am C*ing myself tterra
ah and we handle the nonunital case by adjoining a unit
like how we compactified in the LCH case
oh right if you want to look at the algebra of like, compactly supported functions or something then you'll only get a unit in the compact case
interesting....
oh dear, the book has just said there is also an "algebraic" k theory for C* algebras and it can be different from the "topological" one
i do not like that
ah okay sick
okay back to non-C* stuff for a sec bc i want to write down my thoughts
suppose i wanted to motivate or define K^-1(X) more directly in terms of X
well clutching(?) should(?) tell you that a bundle on S X is like two bundles on CX with an isomorphism between their restrictions to the equator X
but CX is contractible!
so it's like two trivial bundles and an isomorphism between their restrictions
this should(?) be the data of a number n, the rank of the trivial bundle, and an automorphism of the trivial bundle of rank n on X
or something
so it's something like, K^0(X) "is" bundles on X and K^-1(X) "is" automorphisms of trivial bundles on X
or something???
okay sorry ultra you can post now
i saw "ultraornithologist was typing" before I said this
ah okay
it is very rough right now
I'm just thinking about this picture
yup
so K^-1(X) "is" bundles on this, but you can decompose a bundle on the suspension into bundles on the two cones (maybe you want to add a little open set fuzz, or take the complement of the poles)
but those are contractible spaces!
so bundles over them are trivial
so my next step, which i am the least comfortable with
is saying that this means a rank n bundle on the suspension "is just" the data of an isomorphism between two trivial bundles of rank n on X
but it feels like a nicer interpretation of K^-1(X)
what do you mean by asymptotically?
Sure, although i will likely have to ask you to stop and explain things
hmm
this feels more like an anologue of taking the cylinder
okay, so we're sort of looking at functions on the suspension which are forced to be zero at the poles, I guess?
feel free to continue though
I think the blackadar book did mention this
suspension for LCH spaces is multiplying with R
yeah, they corrected above
Right
Okay, that makes sense to me
M_n(C) is free on matrices with exactly one 1 and zeroes elsewhere in the entries with some relations between the generators specifying multiplication
tensoring preserves those relations and generators
but now you're looking at function-linear-combinations
ooh
weird
hahaha
it does give me another interpretation of K_1
right so a K_1 class should be a (similarity class of but let's ignore this) idemptotents in M_n(C_c(0,1))
oh and the functions are compactly supported!
and there's finitely many!
so you can find like, a start and end time between 0 and 1
view those as initial and terminal idempotents
oooh
er wait... that isn't right
hmm
it is still a continuously varying family of idempotents
which is neat
does the zero matrix correspond to a trivial bundle?
then yeah, it interpolates from the zero matrix to the zero matrix!
hahaha
no you didn't
It's another perspective
the way we got there is very different, at least
and as we've just seen
that's the whole reason K^1(X) is interesting
:P
kk
ohhh
OHHHH
cant you motivate K^{-n} by just: this makes the LES work
i think i get why multiplying by (0,1) works
if you think of it for LCH spaces
then you're going to compactify it
and the endpoints are the same!
the puppe sequence pretty much forces this to be the defintion
something like that
if you want it to be representable
sure, but if youre triangulated-brained this would be the first thing to do
okay i have finished the topological k theory review
now to look at the next couple sections
and then learn topological k theory
all math subjects should be called calculus
not many
ive been in a bit of a math-funk for the past couple weeks, talking about K stuff on here today and yesterday has been good
I think I'm going to try to go to more of them
did you go to the diff geo ones
I was really hyped for peter's lectures and then I absolutely hated them
cannot stand his lecturing style
they were fun
i wish I had seen the gauss bonnet explanation
he did not prove gauss bonnet
oh lol
well then
i already took a class that did that
i meant to go to the Introduction to Quantitative Topology one but I woke up too late
yup
yupo\
same for Borel–Weil and Beyond
yeah I missed borel-weil-bott 
do you know waht the topics next week are?
nope
the one lecture I'd been going to super consistently was the ultrafilters one
but it's ended
but the topology talks are going to be on something more basic I think
i think i made a good impression though
Shame.
lol logic
sure but fireworks are pretty
My family always used to watch fireworks in my parents bedroom
But then they moved down to California
Maybe I should see if my brother wants to watch fireworks with me
And break into our old home
Yes
Have been for 58 days
wtf
Oh
Right
The sex number
lol
In 25 days I will turn 21
I don't believe you
turn 25 days into what
That makes sense.
You can find it in the recent chat history

I said I was going to take a break and get food
I was thinking about bundles on a suspension being determined by the like, clutching construction
Lmk if you find anything that sounds sus
K Theory? What's next, DN theory?
Deligne Numford stack
derived category of nixed notives
Can you recover the n skeleton of a CW complex from the underlying topological space?
Put another way, if X is a topological space with two CW complexes structures Y, Z, is Y^n = Z^n?
no take the two most common spheres
but just like more generally
i can always add extra 0 cells
sussy
That makes sense
hello
does calculus on manifolds talk go in here
or is that for #multivariable-calculus

to classify all angle preserving transformations
its just scaling and rotating uniformly
right
Sounds right then
and then also consider for every angle that the vectors can rotate in, each angle has to be a fixed angle
depends if you want to preserve orientation as well, otherwise you can reflect as well (about hyperplanes through the origin)
cute!!!!
Please, does someone knows the explicit formula, nor a reference to find it, which tells us explicitly what is the interior product between a 1-form and k-form in local coordinates ?
Before I kill myself doing computations
In mathematics, the interior product (also known as interior derivative, interior multiplication, inner multiplication, inner derivative, insertion operator, or inner derivation) is a degree −1 (anti)derivation on the exterior algebra of differential forms on a smooth manifold. The interior product, named in opposition to the exterior product, s...
are you talking about this?
I'm a little confused because you mention the "interior product of a 1-form and a k-form." Do you mean the interior product of a vector field with a k-form?
If you prefer, yes
$i_X ( a_{j_1,\dots, j_k}(x_1,\dots, x_n) dx_{j_1} \land dx_{j_2}\land\dots\land dx_{j_k}) =\
a_{j_1,\dots, j_k}(x_1,\dots, x_n) \sum_{i=1}^k (-1)^i X(x_{j_i}) dx_{j_1} \land\dots\hat{dx}{j_i} \dots\land dx{j_k}$
should be this, right? interior product is a graded derivation
ah wait i forgot the sign. it should be an alternating sum
diligentClerk
i usually look this stuff up in warner's foundations of differentiable manifolds
thanks a lot
it is cursed as fuck
but thanks
sighs go back to PDE's, since i'm aware of it now
Wait I have to count tensor's coordinates that don't vanish under my vector field
Oh god
lemme die
Adieu
Are there topological vector spaces which are T1, but not T2 (Hausdorff)?
In the case of prenormed spaces, that clearly holds, because 0 being closed implies that we have a norm.
T2 implies T1
That is why I'm asking whether that inclusion is strict.
Ohhh
I misread
Cofinite topology on R.
Oh
I'm very bad at reading today
I will show myself out

Luna star for Luna? 
Can you summarize the idea? I mean we have a natural transitive action by homeomorphisms, but how does that help us
And does it hold in generality, or only when we're locally compact?
(will read up on that later)
Thanks!
Oh, (x,y)↦xy⁻¹ is continuous and preimage of {e} is {(x,x)}=Δ
how cool
First time I've used the „diagonal is closed“ characterization of T2
hi friends, how obvious is it that the dimension of the space of roots associated to a complex semisimple lie algebra is equal to the rank of the lie algebra
(if it's even true)
(kinda wish there was a lie theory channel because these questions are always somewhere on the blurry line between #groups-rings-fields and #point-set-topology)
(my definition of rank of a lie algebra is equal to the dimension of a cartan subalgebra, for example)
oh my
it's just the dimension of the cartan subalgebra on the nose
wonderful, i am garbage, thank you
You're not garbage, you're at most a garbage can. Maybe there is some garbage inside of you right now, but you clearly aim at throwing that out and replacing it with valuable knowledge.
inspiring
Okay so the k theory stuff I was talking about yesterday is simultaneously more and less complicated
I'm having trouble thinking about basepoints
But if I ignore them
$\mathrm{Vect}^n(\Sigma X) \cong [\Sigma X, \mathrm{Gr}_n(\C)] \cong [X, \Omega \mathrm{Gr}_n(\C)] \cong [X, \Omega B \mathrm{GL}_n(\C)] \cong [X, \mathrm{GL}_n(\C)]$
nonprincipal shamrock
I'm not sure if the first isomorphism actually holds, since the maps on the right hand side have to preserve basepoint and the left ones don't...
(I'm not sure what the right basepoint is either, but that shouldn't matter?)
Anyways if this works then it gives a nice description of K^-1(X) I think
would based and unbased homotopy classes of maps coincide if we had a path-connected cw complex?
hm
So BG should be path connected
since it's a quotient of EG, which is contractible
I think if you take the right construction then BG is a CW complex(?)
Why am I working in this generality lol
The infinite grassmannian is a path connected cw complex
I guess I'm worried about losing generality since I was considering an arbitrary compact hausdorff space X
but anyways
You have (X, x0) and (Y, y0)
For each y in Y, choose a path p_y : y0 -> y
I guess
Oh hm I've become more confused
we're allowing rank to be only locally constant
instead of globally constant
Which means vector bundles aren't quite classified by maps into the grassmannians
Maybe you can take Y to be the disjoint union of all infinite grassmannians and say [X, Y] is iso classes of vector bundles? But then based stuff becomes even worse!
Ignore that
Will do

I can't find a counterexample, but for some reason a part of me really wants to say no to this
Same
My deleted thing was a fake counterexample
what if you look at maps from a point into a circle
There's only one based map
I thought I had just found a counterexample too, fuck
Oh, I think you're onto something
Can you just contracr all unbased maps?
Yeah I think so
You just like, connect them
Via a path
And that's your homotopy
Yeah, what you said definitely works, since unbased homotopies of that map would correspond to loops in S^1
Have I forgotten all definitions
A based homotopy is a homotopy that always fixes the basepoint, no?
Right but the based case is trivial anyways
And we're looking at unbased homotopies v.s. based homotopies of based maps?
I was looking at unbased homotopies of unbased maps vs based homotopies of based maps
But there's only one based function anyways
Yeah, so in that case it's obvious
Right
So you need to show there are at least 2 unbased maps that aren't homotopic
I think they're all homotopic
Which is why I thought lux was asking about what I said
oh
Wait now I'm confused by this
I thought you meant it works as a counterexample
I think I'm also confused, lmao
hahaha
I think I see where I got confused
Wait no
So lux was asking whether it is true that if f and f are two based maps into a path-connected CW complex, same domain blah blah, then there is an unbased homotopy from f to g iff there is a based homotopy from f to g
I feel like I formulated it in a stupid way, but oh well
So wait, what's Vect^n(X)?
Is it defined as the homotopy classes of based maps from X to GL_n(C), or is that a consequence of something?
It's the set of isomorphism classes of rank n vector bundles on X
It's true but not obvious that this is in bijection with the set of homotopy classes of maps from X to the n-grassmannian in infinite dimensions
(X must be paracompact hausdorff, I'm even assuming compact, and no basepoints are present here)
me waiting patiently for someone who already understands k theory to explain what's going on to me:
I haven't either! I'm trying to get focused because I'm a quarter of the way through this reu and haven't done anything
In any case, I'm pretty sure that there's a loop space-suspension adjunction that doesn't involve basepoints, so maybe there's a way for you to use that instead?
Oh that would be very helpful
Although I'm not sure how you would even define loop spaces there
I mean, just all continuous maps S^1 -> X
Although I can't seem to find a source for what I'm saying
So maybe I'm completely wrong here, lmao
oh hm I think compact(ly generated) hausdorff spaces should just have like, Hom(X×Y, Z) = Hom(X, Hom(Y, Z))
Or something
But suspension isn't X × S^1
hnnng
Yesterday we were talking about multiplying by (0,1) as an analogue of suspension
This then that Hom(X×I, Y) = Hom(X, path space of Y)
Or something
@sleek thicket if youre talking based maps that tensor hom works with smash in which case you get suspension with S1
I think I have something that is relevant to the based/unbased maps question
Consider the following chain of isomorphisms:
this doesn't make sense because it plays fast and loose with based vs unbased maps
I'm trying to make sense of it
Gr_n(C) here is the grassmannian of n dimensional subspaces of C^infty
Yes
And the right hand side of the first iso should be unbased maps
I have no idea if this is salvageable, to be clear. I wrote it down and then thought better and I'm trying to see if it's workable in any way
Let $(X,x_0)$ be a space with basepoint, and $Y$ be a space, then if $y_0$, $y_1$ are two points in $X$, and you draw any path $\omega$ from $y_0$ to $y_1$, then there is an induced map $[(X,x_0), (Y,y_0)]\to [(X,x_0),(Y,y_1)]$, assuming that the inclusion $x_0\to X$ is a cofibration.
diligentClerk
I know that there are good examples of cases where this action depends on $\omega$. For example, if you take $(X,x_0) = (S^1,x_0)$ and $y_0 = y_1$
diligentClerk
Are you talking to me?
I often don't finish my arguments in a single message.
I'm just thinking out loud here. We know that the induced endomorphism of the fundamental group may not be trivial, in general this will be conjugation. If $f : X\to Y$ is a map, then we can always tweak this so that it is based by giving a path from $y_0$ to $f(x_0)$ and homotoping $f$ along this path. But in general this correspondence will depend on the choice of path, so there's not a canonical way to make it based.
diligentClerk
Yeah
Ultra, I thought I could simplify my thoughts from yesterday like this
But I no longer think so
I also think it might be that the description I wanted yesterday is more like maps X × (0,1) -> GL_n(C)
Well yesterday I thought I could just homotopy out the factor of (0,1)
But I was having trouble doing that
right
But I was looking at this from the topological pov
And saying like
"a bundle on the suspension is determined by the bundle on the two cones, each of which is trivial, and the gluing data on the intersection
So what this shows is that two distinct elements of the fundamental group may be freely homotopic - because any two elements of the fundamental group identified under the monodromy action are freely homotopic. This means that the forgetful map from based maps to unbased maps is not injective, in general. Which I think gives an answer to the question.
@hazy nexus does this make sense?
But it's no longer clear to me that you can just look at the intersection instead of including some factor like (0,1)
Sick
I am not confident in this
Also my project mentor wrote down a computation like this last Tuesday
So I am confused
Something to ask about at least
It was this:
$\mathrm{Vect}^n(\mathbb{S}^k) \cong [\Sigma \mathbb{S}^{k-1}, \mathrm{Gr}_n(\C)] \cong [\mathbb{S}^{k-1}, \Omega \mathrm{Gr}_n(\C)] \cong [\mathbb{S}^{k-1}, \Omega B \mathrm{GL}_n(\C)] \cong [\mathbb{S}^{k-1}, \mathrm{GL}_n(\C)]$
nonprincipal shamrock
Maybe I just need to remember how to justify the clutching construction (specifically that you only need to look at the equator, not any open overlap) and then rejustify it for the suspension
I took a class on bundles in the winter using an unreleased book
ok
Now I'm trying to learn k theory
nice
using Hatcher's book
And this other one for operator algebras stuff
Uhh
Blackadar
Wym ultra?
Nice
Oh it's true for spheres, sorry
That's why I didn't think hard about it at the time
I've already seen the clutching construction and justified it in a different way
ye, I think so
Oh dear, I went to sit in the sun and they're are bees everywhere
Fear
Going to sit in a patch of dead, dry grass
Get on my level
dog!!
He says hi
i love him
sweet dog
what is the name of this dog
dog
that's what ultraproduct would name it
His name is Gaston
What a lovely name
okay, so to pop the question, where did you get this from? your head or karoubi?
what's karoubi?
the only text I know that does vector bundles in full generality with all the suspension stuff
(and I kinda did not read it and switched to may because of that, I'm scared of capital Σs)
From my head, I was trying to shortcut some thoughts I'd had yesterday
But also in the process I remembered my reu mentor writing something similar
Hello, I am trying to understand this formula for intersection number when we flip joint orientation $K \circ L = (-1)^{k*l} L \circ K$
That k*l as I understand it is referring to flipping the basis vectors of the tangent space for each manifold K and L until we've transposed the joint orientation at an intersection. My question is why do the flipping in what seems like the most possible steps?
Abdul Aziz
So why do this
Rather than this which takes fewer steps and achieves the same result?
A video I was watching on this used k * l steps to conduct the transposition so I was wondering if that was necessary, for ultimately you'd arrive at the same result with a better transposition algorithm.
Well, you have to have a consistent sign change procedure. Like, I can understand your reasoning but whatever transposition algorithm you come up with, you would have to make sure that it yields the same sign each way
Maybe that's not helpful. Think of like, working in R^n for some large n, and you have a bunch of vectors v1.... vn that span some kind of n-dimensional paralellogram.
Say that we assign this thing volume V.
Now you are asked to come up with some systematic way of assigning volumes in a linear way to the parallelogram spanned by (+/- v1, +/- v2, ... +/- vn)
always +/- V, but the question is what sign convention you should give it
The determinant of the vectors is pretty much the only good answer to this question
That makes sense to have some consistency with the sign changing you need something like the determinant.
is there a classification of the measure preserving diffeomorphisms of R^n/ a way to "write them down"?
Maybe matrices with determinant 1?
At least that should encompass the linear case
And in fact the requirement is probably the diffeomorphism has derivative with determinant 1 at each point
So it preserves local measure or someone
Determinant should be ±1 yeah
Hmm there do seem to be non linear ones as well
I think shearing by some smooth function could work
Like (x,y) → (x, y + e^x)
Since shearing preserves area of shapes at least. You could probably prove that it does preserve measures using fubini
$\mu(E) = \int_E |\det DF|$ for any measurable set $E$ right?
nonprincipal shamrock
I want to like
Take E shrinking down
And say |det DF| = 1 everywhere
Something something lebesgue differentiation
@empty grove this actually proved your example works I think. The jacobian of your thing should be like
1 hjekeksj
0 1
Yeah seems reasonable
and this always has det 1
It's def sufficient
I'm just not 100% sure it's necessary (it almost certainly is I'm just having some brain fog)
Take μ(F(E))
Write as an integral
Use multivariate change of variables
Right yeah
Necessity should come from |det DF| > 1 at x → > 1 in a neighborhood of x
And same for < 1
right
yeah I was being silly
about using lebesgue diff
DF is just continuous lmao
So yeah the condition is equivalent to having jacobian det ±1 everywhere
Let me google lebesgue differentation 
Broad?
The class of all measure preserving diffeomorphisms
Oh yeah I expected special linear 
yee not quite
yeah, i was wondering if there was a characterization of functions with |det dF|=1
more than just that condition on the jacobian
hm, doesn't really feel like it
rip, i agree it seems hard
i ran into a paper that showed that the measure preserving diffeos of the torus are unclassifiable
while digging around
we dont understand this definition of corresponding vector fields, because the vector fields on M and N are taken to be in the ambient space, but the derivative of f is from the tanfgent space of M to the tsngent space of N. how does this definition work when the vectors in the vector field arent tangent to the manifold?
i feel like you would have to assume they're actually tangent to the submanifolds
does milnor say explicitly?
well the intended use of this is when they are perpenicular to the manifold
hes doing gauss mapping
my idea was to extend the map to a smooth map between the ambient spaces
yeah, but then you have to check that it doesn't depend on the extension somehow
hmm
i have a copy of this book, give me some time and ill see if i can figure it out. what page?
32
can you ping @drifting sundial or me when you figure it out? im gonna sleep pretty soon
yeah @barren sleet @drifting sundial im pretty sure milnor is only talking about tangent vector fields here
i don't see why the definition of vector field correspondence should make sense if the vector fields aren't necessarily tangent to the manifold
yeah I see
btw this condition is sometimes called "f-related" in modern books, and it's only ever defined for tangent vector fields
ok yeah then I definitely misinterpreted it
just for context, I was originally trying to prove that the degree of the gauss mapping is invariant under diffeo
is that true in general?
oh I forgot to clarify that I'm only considering boundaries of open subsets of R^n
things get a bit iffy in general manifolds
let me stare at the book to make sure im not talking out my ass lol
ive had this book on my shelf and have been meaning to read it for a week now 
x will be in atleast one of the open sets
but we cannot take a neighbourhood x that is a subset if x actually isnt in the set?
Ah, okay. Yeah, there is a different proof for union. Then you just know it's in one of the G_i
And that will be enough
ty
he meant the degree
yeah sorry about that
i didn't get a lot of sleep
Is there a binary coproduct of real topological vector spaces?
Or, explicitly: is there a coarsest topology that makes both injections as well as addition/subtraction/scalar multiplication continuous?
I would presume that the usual product top would suffice but I'm not sure why that would be initial in this respect
Not always, only if blank is a collection of arrows into our space, not sure whether that works with self-referential stuff like X\times X\to X like we need for the multiplication map

Or is my top game just too weak lol
In what way?
I am dragging most of this out of my nose btw, in my analysis literature TVSes are not talked about per se, and the topological groups texts I recall did not care about vector spaces at all.
I mean we can be sure that the underlying VS is just the product because the forgetful functor to Vec has both adjoints, so preserves colimits
A friend of mine just found https://mathoverflow.net/a/345202/66999 and that sounds a bit complicated, would need to work through that. Perhaps the binary case becomes way simpler.
But man, This TopGrp/TVS stuff is all so intricate! I just wanted to know whether there is an obvious „simplest“ ctbl-dim TVS (hence infinite colimit) and whether that is normable. But hey, even binary stuff is non-obvious, lol.
But I guess that is more #advanced-analysis .
this seems to give a simpler construction in the case of a coproduct instead of more general colimits https://mathoverflow.net/a/345160
same question, different answer
Oh, something something attention span and lack of sleep
Wow, I've never seen such a construction. So the Idea seems to be that for large enough quotients, we definitely know a VS-top exists, and then we represent E as this subspace of that big product for all admissible quotients.
Not quite sure whether making the product smaller coarsens or refines the resulting top we get on E
e.g. restricting N to be of cofinite dim would still give us an embedding from E into the product
The co-product for vector spaces is just the direct sum which is the same as the co-product for abelian groups. right?
Wouldn't the co-product for topological vector spaces also then be the co-product for topological abelian groups?
I don't think you need to make such weird constructions.
Oh I guess this is just how he's constructing the co-product for topological abelian groups.
It does seem too complicated.
G * H x G * H -> G * H is continuous iff the four maps G x G -> G * H, H x H -> G * H, H x G -> G * H, G x H -> G * H are continuous.
and all of those maps are continuous



