#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 220 of 1
well i guess im thinking about it in terms of equivalence classes because that's all i know
like if 3 points of a triangle lying on a circle were equal
and then the quotient space of that
If you aren’t familiar w homotopy this question will be a problem
in general you have to be careful with quotients
as they can really mess up homotopy types
Our goal is to compute pi_1 which is only a homotopy invariant
not a quotient space invariant
ok, thanks
Thanks again for the help
the transition from what i drew to a wedge of circles is a little tricky
you basically just have to slide stuff around
another thing that's like good to see I think
is when you do the unfilled in version
you get a wedge of five circles, which should have pi_1 the free group on five generators
if you glue on an open square to make the filled in version
this "kills" one of your generators
by providing a relation on them
namely it'll be like if you have generators a, b, c, d, e
then you'll have something like abcd is trivial
(ofc this depends on what generators you pick in particular, but this is the idea)
Okay thank you very much very helpfull
ive just realized theres actually an alternate way to do the filled in square lol
take all the little line segments
we can slide their endpoints along any part of the square we want
ah yeah
so just slide them all to one corner
get it to be wedge of a disk with
and then contract the square
mhm
sliding argument go brrrrrrrrr
slimvesus
I am pretty sure that most of the use of this construction comes from this property, and I was thinking if this is indeed actually a universal property of the space $M_{f}$ which defines it at least up to homotopy. Is that true?
MisterSystem
I am trying to explicit construct a homotopy equivalence between two spaces that satisfy simultaneously this property.
But I don't know if even what I am trying to do is true.
I see. I’m confused bc I’m thinking “okay you have a point X on V1. Then you map that to V2 through phi. Then you put that point into f (where f is in the ideal of V2), but doesn’t that just give you 0?”
Even still, what’s the point of that condition
@bright acorn the mapping cylinder does satisfy a universal property
it's the homotopy pushout of f and the identity map on X
just embedding + homotopy equivalent to Y doesn't characterize it
the map from X to the mapping cylinder is a cofibration, which is nicer than a general embedding
I still don't have a good notion of what a fibration or the dual notion of a cofibration are tho
are these notions in category theory?
Could you give a brief description of what it is tho? Does the name comes from like fiber bundles or something? At least historically.
I am still at the very beginning of algebraic topology
Soon I will take a look at it
It's just that the prof mentioned this property
And I thought if you could somehow make it into a universal property
because they are usually easier to work with
rather than explicit constructions
aight
I will take a look
thanks
Yes
Fiber bundles have this thing called the homotopy lifting property
In mathematics, in particular in homotopy theory within algebraic topology, the homotopy lifting property (also known as an instance of the right lifting property or the covering homotopy axiom) is a technical condition on a continuous function from a topological space E to another one, B. It is designed to support the picture of E "above" B by ...
It turns out this property is a good analogue of being a fiber bundle for homotopy theory
Since being a fiber bundle is very much not homotopy invariant
I think every fibration is homotopy equivalent to a fiber bundle though
Hmm
I didn't know this question of mine would have such interesting connections to other things
That's kinda nice
I will take a look at these articles
But I am pretty sure Hatcher covers these, right?
On chapter 1
is this true?
I remember looking into it and finding a paper
im not doubting it
Let me search
im just surprised ive never heard it
Suppose we are given a fibration p: E → B over a connected base, with both base and fibre having the homotopy type of CW complexes. We construct a fibre bundle ...
True if you restrict the base and total spaces to be cw complexes
ok this is probably a silly basic doubt but in the metric space of Real numbers with the discrete metric, how do i prove that the subset [0,1] is closed. Can i use the direct definition that every closed interval in R is a closed set?
Try to prove that the topology induced by the discrete metric is equivalent to the discrete topology
in particular
can i say that since every subset in discrete is closed and open, so hence [0,1] is closed?
every subspace of such a space would be closed
because its complement would trivially be open
if you can prove the trivial metric is homeomorphic
then yes
there is probably an easier way
or at least a more direct one
what is that?
What is your definition of closed
hmmm
Yeah
Prolly
this is the easier way I thought tho
but we should stick to the definition of closed sets he knows
the proof i have in mind is effectively the same thing without the word discrete or cross topology comparison
for me right now we prove closed only by proving that the complement is oopen
Nice
Okay lets start there
Try proving that every singleton set is open
what are the basic open sets of a metric space
please stop giving it away hahaha
oook I am sorry 😦
nbd
wait i thought singleton is closed?
It will help if you answer my question
open and closed are not necessarily mutually exclusive properties 
not in every space
but they happen to be here—its not relevant to us though
(there is no direct proof based on closedness of points bc [0,1] is the uncountable union of points)
anyway
what is the standard basis for a metric space?
what do open sets look like?
You should review this hopefully
your notes should have this
or textbook
i dont want to just tell you bc knowing this off the top of your head is essential
okay yes, i will review
you can just look up this specific defn for now
hmm if the channel is open for now then

let A = k[t1, ..., tn], k an infinite field, and let P a prime ideal and consider the variety V defined by P. atiyah macdonald says you can identify the localization of A at P, A_P, with the ring of rational functions defined on almost all points of V
so i understand that for any g notin P (so f/g in A_P) you have some x in V with g(x) non-zero
but the "almost all" part is pretty confusing to me
or maybe im just not totally clear on what that term means
usually its all but finitely many i think but cant V be finite?
Can you post the passage
uh yes
the set on which it is not defined has lower codim
uh no dimension stuff has been introduced but that sounds right from the diff top ive seen
i guess
almost all = dense open set here ig
is there a reason that g is non-zero on almost all points of V?
oh I think I see what they mean
all but finitely many points in Spec
not k-points on the variety
wait sorry wdym
uh i think i kind of vaguely recall that
eh this is probably not the right way to look at it
something about a correspondance between points on the variety and maximal ideals in k[...]/I where I is generated by the variety
that makes sense i think
i guess i just dont see why f/g would be defined on almost all points in V?
in this sense?
yeah
g shouldnt share too many 0s with V i think
show that the vanishing subscheme has lower dim
um
oh wait you didnt talk about dim
the complement of vanishing set is open
you are on a variety
any nonempty open set is dense
in the zariski top
im not sure i really get what u mean by zariski top on the variety
is this using the nullstellensatz or whatever where
points correspond to maximal ideals in the quotient of k[...]
what topology are you working with?
A-M does the zariski top pretty early on
yeah
the first or second chapter
im just not super clear on the details of how that relates to varieties
k[...]/I is a ring
the variety is spec k[...]/I
and the topology is the zariski top
okay right
so we say that that complement of the points that g vanishes on is open and non-empty and thus dense in the zariski top?
that is a true statement
im not sure if that's what they mean in the exercise
probably
idk what else it could be
varieties were discussed for like two exercises in the very end of ch1
it certainly isnt true cardinality-wise
and the "varieties are secretly Max Spec(k[...]/I)" is like the only thing from that that wouldbe relevant here
so i guess?
yeah thats what tripped me up xd
they're working with the classical definition 
weird exercise
oh
the main point is
"p" is the generic point of the variety
nbhds of p are dense open subsets
anything that happens at p holds almost everywhere
this might make a bit more sense once you start working with the structure sheaf
it also probably will make more sense once it is formalized
in general if an example or expository statement is not like
obvious or even rigorous
its often best to keep it in mind and move toward the rigorous parts of the text
i mean i guess but AM is so terse that like
and come back later to make sure you understand it
if you move on from a few paragraphs you're missing a substantial chunk of the chapter
haha yeah learning what you can skip is a skill
god the list of exercises is nearly as long as the actual exposition in this chapter
its less than 8 pages and it has 30 
so, if the channel is open again
go for it
yeah i'm done :^) sorry for hijacking it while you were rereading haha
can i show that the subset [0,1] in discrete metric in R is closed by saying its complement is open using the neighbourhood ball definition?
yes makes sense, thanks
and i can generalise my radius of the ball to be half of the distance between the point in the complement and the set A?
will that be correct?
you can choose any distance you want less than 1
oh yes because its discrete, of course
cool thank you again
np hopefully my refusal to just tell you the stuff wasn't too annoying
no it helped, i really should know my basics clearly
Well when you do f(phi(X)), for any X in V1, isn’t it always equal to 0? Why would he say that it’s now in I(V1)
So I was thinking here
This is sort of a conceptual soft question
But like
When you have an oriantable manifold
You can defined integration of differential k-forms over it
How is this definition of integration
Related to other definitions of integration in measure theory?
Definition of differentiation or of integration?
Integration
If you have a smooth oriantable manifold
It makes sense to talk about integrating differential forms
And I was thinking
Sorry, I just wanted to make sure
If it is also related to measure theory
Oh
Silly mistake right there
I am sorry
I think if you fix a volume form on the manifold then you should be able to define a measure from it, but I've never actually worked out the details
By integrating characteristic functions, I mean
hello 
Hi TTerra
seconding what shamrock is saying
One specific connection which might be of interest is the Haar measure on a compact lie group
Vs the Haar form
Hmm
That might actually be a neat exercise
in both cases there's a unique-up-to-scaling measure/form whcih is translation invariant
And the definitions of integration you get are the same
Oh nice! That makes sense
Haven't formally studied functional analysis
So I don't really know the details of this theorem
But I might look up into it
Given a locally compact hausdorff space, you have an associated set of continuous compactly supported functions
Right?
Real valued
Yup
This has the structure of a real vector space, and there's a norm on it given by ||f|| = sup_x |f(x)|
have I screwed up yet ultra?
ah whoops thanks
Oh, so the usual operator norm
Hm, but I do not want to define that
No, that's something different
I guess it's not so bad
I've heard this called the sup or uniform norm
Also sometimes the infinity norm
Nah, I said locally compact
I think you're right
Wait
Isn't functions vanishing at infinity the completion of functions of compact support?
I'm checking folland now to make sure I don't say the wrong thing
because in that case, shouldn't the duals should be the same?
Okay I have gotten off track
Let's just do the compact case
So I don't get things wrong
MS, say you have a compact hausdorff space X
In particular something like a compact manifold
Then C(X) is a metric space
So you want to fix a compact Hausdorff space and look at the subspace of C(X,[0,1]) given by of all functions with compact support.
Not [0,1], all of R
Ok
And since I'm working with a compact space all functions are compactly supported
I may or may not have screwed up when trying to state it more generally and I want to not lie
So focus on X compact
Yeah no I get what he’s trying to say, I just don’t understand how it works out. f o phi (x) is always 0, is what I’m thinking, so why it be in I(V1)
Oh
That's why it's easier to state
Yup haha
Makes sense, since the image of a compact set by a continuous function is always compact
What would be the problem if X was locally compact tho?
Not quite. The support is a closed subset of the domain, so it's automatically compact if the domain is compact
Part of the problem is that we're going to talk about integrating functions
And you can't integrate arbitrary functions against a measure, you need them to be nice in some way
Continuous on a compact space gives you that they're bounded and borel measurable
Okay so
Okay so if you have a (borel) measure μ on X, you get a "functional" I : C(X) -> R given by integrating a function against μ
So $I(f) = \int_X f , \mathrm{d} \mu$
Shomrack (not a furry)
What makes this a "functional" is that's it's linear and continuous (remember, C(X) is a metric space)
Does that make sense?
@bright acorn did my statement about getting a functional associated to a measure make sense?
integrating functions is linear and respect uniform convergence
Ah wait I did screw up, I want this measure μ to be finite. Otherwise eg you might not be able to integrate
Yeah
Yup
So this defines a map from finite borel measures into the dual space C(X)^* of C(X), ie the space of all continuous linear maps C(X) -> R
yeah?
Let me write this map down
oh goddammit I screwed up again. Technical topological difficulty: restrict to the case where X is second countable. This still loses no generality in the case of manifolds
So, suppose that $\Omega$ is the set of all finite borel measures induced by a borel sigma algebra on X.
\
\
Then $F : \Omega \rightarrow C(x)^{\ast}$ where $\mu \mapsto I : C(x) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ and $I(f) = \int_{X} f d\mu$, for every $f \in C(X)$.
Well, what I wanted originally was just manifolds :P
Lmao
:/
Ah true. But (I am actually checking folland now) it would've worked if I'd done compactly supported functions to start!
MisterSystem
It's okay haha
Integrating differential forms is nicer in the compact case anyway
Yup, this is the map
Yup
Nice nice
So this map is actually injective
Mind if I interrupt?
Our weird topological condition implies that if two finite borel measures agree on all open sets they are equal (i will not prove this)
Yeah sure
What book is this one by folland you are talking about?
Reading the preface
It seems like a nice book on measure theory and functional analysis
It's where I learned both of those from
Okay so this map is injective, the idea is that it suffices to check that the measures agree on open sets, and then for a fixed open set you can approximate inside by compact sets and use urysohn's lemma
To sort of approximate the characteristic function of U
i'm going to do the opposite and say that if you wish to read a book on measure theory you should not look at the sixth chapter of pugh
This is where the topological nicety condition ("second countable") comes in
Anyways don't worry, about it, F is injective
I've read a bit of Bogachev's first book on the subject
So what's the image of this function F?
Yup
F maps finite borel measures into a linear funtional of the form $\int_{X} \cdot , d\mu$
So ok
Hmmm
MisterSystem
This is like
Asking if for every linear funtional from C(X) to IR
There exists a certain finite measure mu
Yup
Such that this linear functional is nothing more than integrating a continuous function over mu
I have no idea seriously
Hahaha
And finding a counterexample seems hard
Well the riesz representation theorem says, pretty much, yeah!
However there's an easy way to see this isn't exactly true
In the way I've set this up
If I = F(μ) then I(f) >= 0 for any function f such that f >= 0 everywhere
Yeah?
Yup
Well, what if I consider -I(μ)
Where μ is just some random measure
Does this have the same property?
||but I'm working with real vector spaces
||
||and yeah i just didn't want to have to define signed measures||
||I am lazy||
Oh yeah lol
It couldn't be roughly because of what you said
Sorry -F(μ)
Take any non negative valued funtion
Then
In order for there to exist a certain ν such that -F(μ) would be integral over X in dν
We would have that for for a non negative valued function
Integral over X f dν would be positive
But since (-F(μ))(f)=-(F(μ)(f)) and F(μ) is always positive
Then (-F(μ))(f) would be negative
Yup, that's the idea!
Which would be a contradiction
Minor nitpick, we need to start with a measure μ which isn't just 0
And we need to take f to be like constant so that the integral is actually positive
But basically yeah
Oh yeah
But yeah, you see why F isn't exactly surjective
Hm hm
So there's two ways we can fix this
The first is to consider only positive functionals
(continuous also)
Positive is this condition on I
In the way we've set things up, the image of F is exactly the positive functionals
Does that make sense?
Yup
I am still keeping up I guess haha
Most of the details I will work out by myself tomorrow tho
But I think that I am getting the main ideas
Ok, so we consider a compact second countable hausdorff space X and the space of all real valued functions with compact support (which are actually all of them)
And we construct a certain map
Which brings you from the finite borel measures induced by a certain borel sigma algebra on X
Into linear functions of the space of continuous real valued functions defined on X
This linear funtional is actually injective
And to force this thing to be surjective we have to take a little bit more of care of
Np
Yes, and the way you've said it here you don't actually need X compact, just locally compact hausdorff
Which is nice for when we return to manifolds
Ultra was concerned earlier but both them and I agree it works for X just locally compact now
You do need compactly supported functions in this case though
(and still second countable)
I agree with your summary so far
So we are working with functions of compact support defined on a locally second countable hausdorff space
This seems almost like a manifold lmao
Locally compact
yeah haha
There's a more general statement
I'm just trying to simplify things
I want to avoid defining radon measures
And second countable does that
Okay so the image of this map F is exactly the positive continuous functional
🤯
and, even better, any (continuous) functional can be written as the difference of two positive ones
I think that I have seen this covered in real analysis actually tho
You just take like
ah okay, nice!
If f is a continuous linear functional
Take g=max{f,0} and h=max{0,-f} which are both positive
Proving continuity of these is trickier I guess
Those won't be linear
Oh
I think you're thinking of eg functions X -> R, not functionals C(X) -> R
(apologies if not)
but yeah, the other solution is to generalize our notion of "measure"
which is what ultra was scolding me for not doing earlier
if you allow your measure to take on negative values then you can eg add or subtract or scale measures by real numbers, and M(X) = {finite borel signed measure on X} forms a vector space
and in fact it has a norm $|\mu| = |\mu|(X)$
Shomrack (not a furry)
don't worry about what |mu| is if you haven't seen it
but then the theorem gets even better, not only if F injective and surjective it's also an isometry!
hahaha
But like
look at a maximal subset P of X on which mu(E) >= 0 for each subset E of P
A measure is a function so like
do the same to get a subset N of X but for negative
Can't you just apply the sup norm here?
$|\mu|(E) = \mu(E \cap P) - \mu(E \cap N)$
Shomrack (not a furry)
nah, that's not quite right
you want to account for both the positive and negative parts together
I see
anyways
if we return to manifolds
say you have an smooth oriented $n$-manifold $M$
Shomrack (not a furry)
and a top dimensional differential form $\omega \in \Omega^n(M)$
Shomrack (not a furry)
you then get a functional on continuous compactly supported functions on $M$
Shomrack (not a furry)
namely $f \mapsto \int_M f \omega$
Shomrack (not a furry)
and then this must be associated to some signed measure(!)
(equivalently, there are two positive measures where this is the difference of their integrals)
yeah haha I had never thought about using riesz rep here
I just sort of figured it worked out lmao
ty ultra for pointing me in this direction
oh also this map should be injective but don't quote me on that
yeah I think injectivity follows because knowing the integral of omega against any function lets you take the average value of each coordinate of omega at a given point once inside some fixed chart
and the limit of average values of omega will equal the value of omega by continuity
Was the riez rep theorem, right? From which we deduced that a certain map from the space of finite borel sigma algebras to the space of linear functionals on C(X) with compact support is surjective.
So I will take a look into it
yeah, it's a cool theorem
Looks a very nice application of something I haven't even properly studied yet lmao
But when I study functional analysis more seriously
I will have this example in mind
And fill out the details
Proving that map F is injective tho follows from what?
this is where the second countability comes in
the right way to do this, in more generality, is to let you work with measures where you can approximate outside by open sets/inside by compact sets
and so if two measures have the same integral against every function, use something like urysohn on increasingly large compact sets to say they have the same value on any open set
it's a little hairy
@sleek thicket i think that it would be a good idea to do your french homework
i hope you enjoyed my integration thing
I will now go do french
,iam studying but it locks me out of this channel too
No selfroles matching studying but it locks me out of this channel too.
See ,selfroles --list for the list of valid selfroles.
Good luck
Also
oh nvm 😳
TTerra
If that map F is actually injective
I was thinking of the converse statement
Let mu be a finite borel measure on an orientable n dimensional manifold
then there exists a differential form
it will not be integration against a differential form, consider evaluation at a fixed point
okay goodbye for real sorry I am cringe
SORRY
Although
hmmm
No
I cannot think about this
Sorry
Oh my fucking god I have to write about how my experience as a student changed during the covid 19 pandemic
I want to not do this
«C'est mal» fin
I don't like it
that's uhh

look i know language courses are usually starved of actual rich topics to write about
but could they have at least picked something that most people definitely dont wanna think about
The present tense/during corona part turned out to be really easy to write
I just said everything was shit
oh maybe I should include the word merde somewhere
I talked about how I teach but I don't see students during class

R^2 is not homeomorphic to R^3 because, by deleting a point in the former, we get a space that is not simply connected. Can we generalize this to prove that R^n isn't homeomorphic to R^(n + 1)? I think by removing a certain copy of R^(n - 1) of R^n, we get a space that is not simply connected.
(I don't know any algebraic topology)
yes (look at π_n / H_n (nth homotopy/homology group)
or jus like
space not contractible
hence done
simply connected isn't sufficient
(show that R^n-* is not contractible, not super trivial but doable)
oh lol
right oops
🤦♀️
iirc theres some way to define dimension that may work in munkres but i havent rlly read it in too much detal as well
I can imagine R^3 - * and R^4 - * aren't easy to distinguish using elementary methods.
But the thing is that R^3 - line seems easier, to me. For example, a circle around the (now nonexistent) line isn't contractible, right?
any circles in R^3-* is contractible unfortunately
But its image under a homeomorphism should be
Yes, that's why I considered R^3 - line.
It's true that R^n \ k plane is homotopy equivalent to R^(n-k) \ a point
By projecting down
there's this purely nonalgtop way to do in munkres
But I'm not sure this is true for arbitrary subsets homeomorphic to a k plane
And so the homeomorphism R^n ≈ R^m might distort your line in a weird way
Is it easy to show that the dimension is indeed an invariant?
by definition it kinda is?
Is it easy to compute the dimension of R^n, then?
Yeah
Oh, true..
Makes sense, because otherwise any reference to the invariance of dimension would be quoting it.
isnt trivial but doable without AT
I see
Yeah just to reiterate what ari said earlier
in some sense elementary in regards to the prerequesite
but nonelementary in like proofsense
This same argument works but replacing "connected" with "nonvanishing nth homology group"
(homotopy also works but is more involved)
yea
I see
Well, is there a reason to expect the R^n =/= R^(n + 1) case to be easier?
Yes.
I don't see why, but maybe
My only argument was the R^n - plane thing, but as you said it doesn't work..
I wonder if there's an algebraic proof
Looking at the algebras of real valued functions
Probably hard
probably exists but quite tricky
What are some potential invariants one could use?
¯\_(ツ)_/¯
I mean my first thought is the coordinates
But they don't really generate it in any meaningful way
or just cry and this
AT
The one based on algebraic topology or dimension theory?
You can actually use it elsewhere
like you can easily throw AT onto many sufficiently nice spaces
I looked it up and it seems like the most straightforward proof that dim R^n = n uses brouwers fixed point theorem
hmm interesting
At which point you might as well just use the homology proof
True lol
How about other definitions of dimension?
There's the algebraic geometry one ("combinatorial dimension")
This is pretty neat here in that dim R^n = 0 for all n
Not particularly helpful
Hausdorff dimension, for example
Yes, I agree
I'm not suggesting you can get it for free
Just wondering if there's a nice alternate proof
but idt it's a topological invariant
This is very neat
Oh..
looking at it's definition itself convinces me it isnt as well 
oh
We saw this the other night
Hahaha
For those who missed this discussion https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Osgood_curve
So, it's homeomorphic to the circle?
To the interval
I mean you can get a circle version too
Nope
Maybe she saw my course eval from last quarter 
I said harsh words
It was a bad class
(this is why I'm not actually taking GMT)
That seems interesting, could you reply to a message of the discussion?
If you search Osgood curve you should find it in #advanced-analysis
Essentially we were curious how regular an Osgood curve could be
It can't be rectifiable
But what about differentiable ae?
That is, a continuous injection I -> R^2 whose image has positive area
Seems interesting. Although I don't have tools to attack it at moment, I would think of the cases "differentiable at a cofinite/cocountable set" first.
I'm actually not sure how to handle the differentiable everywhere case
If you're not C^1 then the curve might not be rectifiable
C1 means f' is continuous?
Yup
Weird!
But yeah I see why
If the derivative is bounded then you're rectifiable
Not only that, but my length is an effectively computable constant.
What do you mean?
It's a joke lol
I see..
So, in "the wild world of 4-manifolds" chapter 3, Scorpan claims that any 2-homology class of a simply-connected 4-manifold may be represented by images of maps f:S^2->M thanks to Hurewicz's theorem. He then claims that these images may be perturbed to be immersed spheres and that any double points which obstruct embedding may be removed by increasing the genus before going on to list a few examples.
So, my questions are, "why can these spheres always be perturbed to be immersed? Is it the consequence of the whitney immersion theorem?
and "why can these double-points be eliminated in general? Is it just the whitney trick?"
sounds a lot like whitney trick
yeah, my problem with it is that I thought that the whitney trick failed (aside from freedman's work on casson handles) for surfaces in 4-manifolds
but that might well be a misunderstanding
Ohhhh I get it now haha, thank you lol
Hmm, unless it is just removing the points and keeping the remaining map which is now an embedding
And having that submanifold represent the homology class (though I still don't really like that tbh since it loses the directness in my understanding)
homework this week in manifolds be like "generalize the cross product to R^d in order to show (d-1)-submanifolds have smooth unit normal vector fields"
And I'm like "Professor Hani i do not know what the cross product in R^3 is"
If you know how the exterior product works
and the hodge star operator
then cross product is exterior composed with hodge
🧠
@obtuse meteor re: your twitter question
cohomology theories are represented by spectra. If you have the dimension axiom, this corresponds to ordinary cohomology theories, and all of these are represented by Eilenberg-MacLane spectra HA for some Abelian group A
but these spectra are particularly simple: they correspond to the embedding of the category of Abelian groups into the category of spectra
in some sense this is no more interesting than the category of Abelian groups (although to be fair there are plenty of interesting things you can ask about Eilenberg-MacLane spectra and the Eilenberg-MacLane spaces that constitute them)
I just looked at this lel
literally have https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brown's_representability_theorem open
give me a sec
yea!
sure okay this makes sense
the proof of brown rep is pretty neat
I have never like seen Eilenberg Maclane spectra be constructed or the isomorphism with homology/cohomology
but this seems like a really cool thing
it is
it also feels unintuitive that like
well so have you seen Eilenberg-MacLane spaces before?
all cohomology theories are representable in this way
nop
I know what they do
never seen a construction
or seen them be used
yea the construction is a little annoying
just know they're CW complexes whose homotopy groups are zero except for in one degree
and you can specify any group you want in that degree
keep gluing in cells so that it kills the lower homotopy groups
it's generally not something that's nice to write down obviously
yeah
I guess like the harder question to me is
how do you kill the higher homotopy groups
very carefully 
lmao
bc the lower homotopy groups you can kinda just add cells above that degree
and they won't effect the lower ones
and so you can just use them to kill shit
inductively
yea there's a few ways to construct them
one way is to represent them as simplicial Abelian groups and then take geometric realization
another way is like
this feels like a miracle???
like I haven't worked enough with reduced suspension
to have any intuition for whether or not this is true
but
it feels like
it shouldn't be
oh yea it's really bizarre that this happens I agree
another way you can construct K(A,n) is using something called the Moore space M(A,n)
since these have π_n(M(A,n))=A and all the lower homotopy groups vanish
but it has higher homotopy groups
so you just have to kill these
mhm
anyways
this shit wild
the thing that the Eilenberg-MacLane spaces have is they behave nicely under suspension and delooping
namely like
oh god I'm going to fuck it up hold on
it's either like
suspension takes K(A,n) to K(A,n+1)
nG I've got the career trajectory planned out
take Igor Kriz's AT class => meet Igor Kriz / Sophie Kriz and make good impressions => Get a letter from Igor Kriz and get into Uchicago bc JP May => work with Sophie Kriz for the rest of my life because she's 1000% smarter than me
😌
/s
huh
ah okay I didn't fuck this up
okay so suspension takes K(A,n) to K(A,n+1)
and conversely
loops takes K(A,n) to K(A,n-1)
so the Eilenberg-MacLane spaces K(A,n) form a so called sequential spectrum: this is an infinite sequence of spaces related by suspension/loops in an invertible way like this

yea ping me if you wanna keep chatting about this I love this stuff 
don't let me hold you up lol
I really want to
tru
When people write a Riemannian metric like this
Is it usually understood that tensor product is symmetric?
i.e in this we would have $g = g_{ji} dx ^j \otimes dx^i$?
snypehype
it's some einstein notation
it means $g = \sum_{i=1}^n \sum_{j=1}^n g_{ij} dx^i \otimes dx^j$
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
tensor product isn't symmetric commutative
I understand that. What I mean was that on a Riemmannian manifold if g is symmetric then $g = g_{ji} dx ^j \otimes dx^i = g_{ij} dx ^i \otimes dx^j$?
snypehype
The reason what I'm asking was because I saw the following calculation
This can only be true if you treat the mixed tensor product terms to be the same i.e. $d\theta \otimes d\phi = d\phi \otimes d\theta$
snypehype
I'm aware that tensor product is not in general symmetric hence my question.
with einstein notation, $g = g_{ji} dx ^j \otimes dx^i = g_{ij} dx ^i \otimes dx^j$ is just swapping the names of the two indices and is always true. The tensor is symmetric when forall i and j, $g_{ij} = g_{ji}$, and that's not always true.
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
if you do the computation, the coefficients of both $d\theta \otimes d\phi$ and $d\phi \otimes d\theta$ vanish.
Zef Klop 🍃 🌿 🌻
@wanton marsh I see thanks. So in general if I have I have let's say $2 dx \otimes dy$ and $2 dy \otimes dx$ and I'm working with a symmetric tensor, am I correct in assuming that these two terms are the same?
snypehype
no
I see. Now I'm a bit confused by this.
This is from my lecture notes, where $dx^i dx^j$ is the symmetric tensor product and I was under the impression that the notation above meant the same thing
snypehype
$dx^i dx^j = \frac{1}{2}(dx^i \otimes dx^j + dx^j \otimes dx^i)$
Buncho Spheres
to see why they're the same for $g$, $g_{ij}dx^i dx^j = \frac{1}{2}\qty(g_{ij}dx^i\otimes dx^j + g_{ij}dx^j \otimes dx^i)$ and by the symmetry in the indices, $g_{ij}dx^j \otimes dx^i = g_{ji}dx^j\otimes dx^i = g_{ij}dx^i \otimes dx^j$, so $$g_{ij}dx^idx^j = \frac{1}{2}\qty(g_{ij}dx^i\otimes dx^j + g_{ij}dx^i\otimes dx^j) = g_{ij}dx^i\otimes dx^j$$
god i hate latex
Buncho Spheres
@shut moat thanks helped a lot! Ok so we have $dx^i dx^j \neq dx^i \otimes dx^j$ but we have $g{ij}dx^idx^j = g_{ij}dx^i\otimes dx^j$
snypehype
np! 😄 and yeah
I wish people stuck to the same notation!
what does (8.16) say ?
It's what @shut moat said #point-set-topology message
I was under the impression that tensor product symbol in this is case meant something different (symmetric tensor product)
but it turns out you were right, it's just the ordinary tensor product
Hey! Does anyone have formula sheet for shapes in 3d (analytic geometry)

honestly #geometry-and-trigonometry
Can anyone help me?
this should probably be in #geometry-and-trigonometry
Yes this should be in #geometry-and-trigonometry
I'm kinda confused if it should be in #geometry-and-trigonometry
I don't think this is a part of standard school geometry
is an upper 300 level course.
yea
Yeah, this seems to be a classical geometry course for undergrads
Oh ok
you have a weeek to complete that homework? damn, i'm scared of grad school 😦
let's just sum this up shall we
- Mayer-Vietoris Sigma_g inductively
- Euler Characteristic up to Euler Characteristic of a cover
- Moore Spaces
- Classification of Surfaces stuff (but it sounds like it's a "draw and explain why this works" problem)
- Define Homology with Coefficients and Use Universal Coefficients without proof
6 (bonus): Fundamental classes for orientable manifolds from Hatcher
That bonus looks hyper spicy
so I might just read it
and not do it
oh
oh that's spicy
assignment: health comes first uwu
also the assignment:
and yea that is kinda funny
t-that can't be that bad
@thin bramble I'm not a grad student but yeah this is a grad qualifying exam course
they are known to be scary
the fact that you pointed out this one--which I expect to be the easiest one--makes me very scared
wow that is nice. I never took a math grad course as an undergrad.
oh
IDK how to draw that that's gonna be a pain
like wtf does that look like on a torus lol
tex it 
no?
hm?
speaking of tedious exercises

this is for my quivers course
this is Homework 13
but yeah the qual courses are burtal @thin bramble, so it has become tradition for me to complain about how long the algtop psets are here every sunday
quivers?
go for it
not unless someone can help, then you can spam chat
idk anyone here who knows classical geometry unfortunately :(
a quiver is a directed graph where multiple edges/loops are allowed
yes!
no no it's precisely that kind
given a quiver Q you can consider K-linear representations of that quiver: you assign to each vertex a K-vector space and to each directed edge a K-linear map between the corresponding vector spaces
morphisms of quiver representations are what you suspect
so I guess I should think of a quiver as a presentation for a category
and a K-linear representation of a quiver
is an equivalence between the category the quiver presents
and a subcategory of K-Vect
you can complete such a quiver to a category
and then the representations are like
functors from that category to Vect_K
yeah
that makes sense
they have to satisfy some injectivity condition though right?
actually no
this isn't what group reps do
like 0-rep is fine
not necessarily! What you're talking about corresponds to faithful representations
ok cool
anyways
yeah yeah makes sense
another way to think about this: given a quiver Q with finitely many vertices and edges, you can define an associative K-algebra KQ
and then morphisms of representations are functors in a slice category
the underlying vector space is spanned by paths in Q

and the multiplication is given by like
either composition of paths if they compose nicely
or 0 if they don't
K-linear representations of Q are equivalently KQ-modules
hmmm
ok I kinda see this
you don't have composition in a quiver though
so I'm a bit confused
example?
okay
and an algebra is just vector space + multiplication
where the obvious axioms work
mhm!
right and for instance
you need finiteness because
you can take the trivial path e_v at each vertex v of Q
and the unit of this algebra is \sum_v e_v
which only makes sense when this is vertex-finite
ye
okee so
and presumably something similar for edges?
mhm
you can do something a little more general: you can take a two-sided ideal I of KQ and consider the quotient KQ/I
on the representation side this is like
if you think of I as being generated by some paths
you demand that the composition of the K-linear maps in the representation compose to 0 along those paths
so for example if you have a quiver Q like 1->2->3 with edges a:1->2 and b:2->3
a K-linear representation of Q (equivalently a KQ-module) is just K-vector spaces V_1, V_2, V_3 with K-linear maps V_1->V_2 and V_2->V_3
if you take the ideal I=(ab)
a KQ/I-module is the same thing but you demand that the composition V_1->V_2->V_3 is zero
good so far?
mmmm
probably need to do homework instead of this right now
but I would like another rant about it!
okay let me say the punchline and then you can leave 
without getting into the technical details and which adjectives you have to add
the main theorem is essentially the following:
given any associative K-algebra A
you can produce a quiver Q and an (admissible) ideal I of KQ
such that A is Morita equivalent to KQ/I: that is the category Mod_A of A-modules is equivalent to the category Mod_KQ/I of KQ/I-modules
that is to say, the representation theory of quivers completely captures the representation theory of associative K-algebras
this is great because quiver representation theory is extremely explicit
for example: you can enumerate all the simple KQ/I-modules and indecomposible projective KQ/I modules essentially for free, and in particular you can compute projective resolutions in a completely combinatorial way
yeaaa
really weird
it's really bizarre
but it's insanely powerful
like for instance
as soon as you can find the quiver/relations for an associative K-algebra
you can just like
compute ext groups algorithmically and really quickly too
which if you didn't know this would be like
impossibly hard






