#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 208 of 1
time to transfer
I'm probably going to buy a hard copy as soon as it comes out
read ch 23 and 24 from a concise course in alg top while you're waiting
Yeah, that's kinda what was my starting point :>
pretty great starting point
Ah, didn't come far enough to notice „a glimpse at the general theory“
until now it just seemed very much restricted to VBs
VBs are dope tho
I mean I still have to say that I am a bit surprised that the functoriality of B is not very easy to find. Things like this question https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1458470/91103 make it seem like this was common knowledge, and nobody in the comments asked about that construction.
ive found a lot of things in alg top have an issue where like
i cannot google them for the life of me
but i can dig them up in textbooks
In that case I'm glad that I haven't set a deadline for my BS thesis yet, lol
or long manuscripts
what's your thesis on?
yeah unfortunately it's from an unreleased book, sorry
characteristic classes and in particular the chern character
oh he did ask me if I could help him edit it/keep looking at draft copies after the class ends though
That was kind of cool
from which POV
I don't know which POVs there are, but my main guideline is Hatcher
there's also the super nice diff geo POV
TAKE BACK THE SULLY
i will sully diffgeo however i please
I think that's what my class ia doing right night
But I got very lost
Turns out not having a textbook+awful diff geo computations is bad
you can remove the first summand
chern-weil theory is super nice
that diffgeo view actually the stretch goal, i.e. to give a description both ways and show that they're equivalent
But to give a complete intro do the algtop view will be enough work on its own I think
read huybrechts
noice
Most texts I've read so far do some intro-level talk and at the hard parts do stuff like „we can prove that with spectral sequences“ and you're just like WTF
there's another POV via lambda rings and stuff
and you do everything via the splitting principle
which is super nice
What are lambda rings?
rings + operations which behave like exterior power operations
this is the woke part
so for each natural number n, you have a map \Lambda^n: R ---> R
Oh, the big lambda.
and then these Lambda^n satisfy pretty much all the relations that exterior powers satisfy
yeah and once you have this you can define Adams operations and stuff
I've not quite gotten to internalize the splitting principle, but it seemed like embedding H(bundle, A) into H(Σline bundles, A) via the pullback of the flag bundle, which is inherently nicer
What counts as an „Operation“?
I've heard of things like Adams operation and „cohomology operations“ in general, but have no Idea what these are
Oh, it's an NT between cohomology functors
nice
adams operations are a bunch of operations on K-theory
but these can be defined on any lambda ring
the k-th adams operation acts as the k-th power operation on line bundles
and this determines them
by using the splitting principle
but yeah there's an explicit definition using newton polys and stuff
I think I'll keep that in the back of my head for a few weeks when I've understood the splitting principle and the necessary polynomial relations a bit better, but it sounds interesting.
I need to read more about this stuff too
once you have the lambda ring formalism set up there are a whole bunch of weird filtrations you get on the ring
and I have no intuition for them
@marsh forge
An understanding of exact sequences and very basic homological algebra would also be good.
if I have zero clue about both of these things, can I still get something out of your talk?
Hm
the issue is that the computations would be largely nonsense
and i think the meat of the talk is actually like, how you go through the computations
rather than the results being that interesting
ah, rip
I mean it wont be that long and i wont get mad if you leave in the middle
so no reason not to just show up if youre interested
introduction
You found my secret plan all along :P
My posts are good
I'm inspired, I too will give an intentionally bad talk
I'm inspired, I too will give an intentionally bad talk
“This talk intentionally left bad”
maybe i should learn how to use inkscape for this
i want to draw out all the SS stuff beforehand
so people dont want to kill themselves trying to keep up w the indicies
just wanna get my definition correct. Is it true that the closure of (GnH) is: R - (GnH)
Where G,H are subsets of R
no, that sounds like the complement of G\cap H if both were subsets of R
oh oops
i forgot to mention yeah they are
because im looking at this solution here, and just wondering on this part
gee that's some awful notation for the complement
anyhow seems like more of a set-theoretic question than a topology one
hmm i guess it is. well thanks anyway
I have a question on some basic topology
Proving every bounded perfect set is seperable
I have a proof but need to confirm can someone help me in off topic voice?
Or 384kbs voice
<@&286206848099549185>
How does this point radially inward friends. I thought it would be the negative of this vector field?
it points inwards because it takes points in the cube S and decreases their magnitude
i.e. makes them go into the origin a little
imagine a box and then a sphere sitting inside, both concentric. if you take a point on the box and then project it to the sphere along the line though the origin, it's going inwards, yeah? (if there's some rigorous definition of "points inwards" that i'm missing that you mean, that isn't just "look where points go and draw arrows," ignore this)
but the actual function should have a minus sign in
wait no
phi is just a scalar
oh no wait it isn't
it's a vector divided by a scalar
ok so rn for phi(0, 0, 1), it returns (0, 0, 1)
which points outwards, not inwards?
That's what I thought but I'm reading @gritty widget explanation
wait no
what comes out of phi isn't the adjustment
it's the end vector
ok, and (0, 0, 1) is on the sphere so that makes sense
ok and for any other vector it just normalises it
this is just a function that normalises a vector
which gives the vector of a point on the sphere
not the change between the point on the cube and the projection on the cube
ok, right, makes sense
i'm too tired for this lol
@gritty widget I think I understand 

that's lee isn't it :o
I got invited to come to a stable homotopy theory seminar?!
I'm gonna be so lost lol
oh sick
Okay. So I have questions about this.
- I found out the sets in 3i) are equivalent, however, I believe I am about to come to the conclusion that the relationship for both 3ii) and 3iii) are supersets. How can this be?
nvm, I think I just concluded that they are all equivalent.
Hold on, is the third one equivalent? If not, I could use some help piecing it together.
oh that's awesome!!
why does the accepted answer define a continuous function
if we let $x\in\bar{A}\cap B$, then there exists neighborhood x such that x intersets with A is not empty
亜城木 夢叶
a subset $A$ of a top. space is connected iff every continuous function from $A$ to ${0,1}$ is constant.
derivada.schwarziana
hi
hello!
stuck on this one
i think this is the right channel for it, I believe
This is more appropriate for #geometry-and-trigonometry imo
really i find it to be advanced
or maybe too hard for that
It's not really about difficulty, more subject matter
ah ok i will post it in there, nonetheless do you think u could guide me to the solution?
sure, I'll think about it
wait is this an amc problem
oh
thanks boss
is this close to being right
i have a feeling it's really wrong
G is a lie group here
i don't think $\varphi_p$ is the restriction of the projection $G \times M \rightarrow G$ is it?
8da | dumbass
oh, unless you mean something like, there is a commutative square involving $G \times {p}, Orb(p), G\times M, M$, and we wish to show that the map $G \times {p} \rightarrow Orb(p)$ (inverse of $\varphi_p$) is smooth, given that the other maps are smooth
8da | dumbass
@gritty widget aaaa i'm so confused
ive decided partitions of unity are bad actually
huh
that is very cute
brb stealing this and passing it off as my own for clout
petthecat
Just realized "partitions of unity" is an oxymoron 🤯
anyways I need to think really hard about why a certain cover admits a partition of unity
and do not see it

bad
oh okay
okay i fucked up yall I stole this from someone else. I am ashamed and will do better in the future. Thank you "Ultrapyknotic set" for pointing this out to me, you are the best of us
okay so homework time
lol
i thought about doing a notes app apology
but that's too much effort for 10:39pm
here E -> M is a rank k numerable vector bundle
,ti shamrock
The current time for shamrock is 10:39 PM (PST) on Mon, 01/03/2021.
its too much effort to even proof read
you don't know fram?
if it looks like that
where is she fram
it's a pretty trivial neighborhood
Carly Rae Maxsen
\[\]
oh no
Carly Rae Maxsen
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oh no
every 3 sentences
this is not more readable max
it is!
wtf is this
yes i understand lol I'm joking that the accidental triggering of the bot makes your messages unreadable
oh
time for Latex Conventions Discourse
if you use double dollarsa
instead of brackets
why this admits a partition of unity
i will literally kill you
why would I use double dollars
i have no need for newlines
jk jk i of course use them
the slash sign is so much effort to reach tho 
pls
this has been very unhelpful thank you everybody
i am going back to my homework
well you did point out the typo
I removed fram
i do not think a partition of unity exists
gonna need to like
think harder about this
pain
me rn being stuck
have u considered just boldly asserting it
no, because I think it is likely false
I only boldly assert things I've already checked
all the more reason
okay soi guess gentop question
supppose X admits a cover which admits a partition of unity
what does this tell me about X
or about other covers of X
oh no this is very boring
because I can just cover by X
hnnnnng
so a bundle then
with a numerable trivializing cover
So I’ve got this question but I’m gonna give what I know first: a cube orthogonally projected onto a plane from the right angle is essentially a regular hexagon, which can then be divided into three rhombi that represent the three sides.
I discovered I can model an octahedron from the same angle by connecting the midpoints of the faces (because they’re duals) or just by drawing an equilateral triangle “inscribed” (not sure if that’s the right word) in the hexagon.
My question is, how would I go about drawing other Platonic solids from the same angle? As far as I know a tetrahedron is a quadrilateral made of two similar triangles, one the mirror of the other, connected. But I don’t know the exact angle measures or the ratios of sides to each other, both of which are important to know.
Here’s a picture of what I’m talking about:
Pixel art is my medium
Also I did figure out an icosahedron would be really similar to the octahedron, just the triangle in the middle would be shaped differently
does this work
i was thinking something like this diagram
$\begin{tikzcd}
G\cong G \times {p} \arrow{r}{i} \arrow[swap]{d}{\varphi_p^{-1}} & G \times M \arrow{d}{\rhd} \
Orb(p) \arrow{r}{i}& M
\end{tikzcd}$
and presumably that the fact that all other maps besides $\varphi_p^{-1}$ is smooth implies that $\varphi_p^{-1}$ is smooth as well. but i can't say i am good enough at manifolds to know off hand if this is true/how to show it
what is the p map in your diagram? oh, you are saying it is projection
8da | dumbass
yeah i agree
but yea same i have no idea if this is justified/how to justify it
oh and yes whoops p is my projection a bit overloaded mb
it looks like lee's ISM page 166, proposition 7.26 has some relevant discussion
actually it looks like it is basically this problem lol
I have a question: why are cl(A) and cl(int(A)) Not necessarily equivalent?
what if A is a closed set with empty interior
So like a set of isolated points?
that works
it doesn't have to be a set of isolated points though, e.g. R x 0 in R^2
it's closed in R^2 so it's its own closure, and its interior is empty so its interior's closure is empty
Ohhhh, I see! That makes a lot of sense.
Thank you. I was struggling with that intuotion. I have one more question
I am not really sure what notions of boundary we can use to solve 3iii)
try closure - interior
The thing that throws me off is i) and ii) are equivalent. But iii) is not. I can't wrap my head around the intuition for that
Can you explain what's going on here?
the square is the product of two line segments
the boundary of square is the black square
but the boundary of each line segment is just the two red dots
Sorry, I was studying while I was thinking about this, but I think I understand what you are saying.
So bd(A)xbd(B) would simply just be those 4 dots, where bd(AxB) would be the border of the entire square.
This also doesn't break apart the equalities from i) and ii)
exactly
How is this?
I mean it gets the job done, but would you say I'm missing any important steps?
this picture is kinda blurry, can you type it in @gentle osprey ?
Let me just get a better picture. LaTeX will take a bit too long right now
Better?
Can someone help with sections on a bundle over a torus? Consider the trivial bundle T^2\times C^2, i want to show that a section of this bundle can be given as two smooth functions on T^2
So i know that a section is a map s:T^2 to T^2\times C^2 such that s(p) lies in the fibre at p
It seems this should be $\eta_i\in C^{\infty}(T^2,\mathbb C)$ but I thought $C^{\infty}(M)$ always meant real functions
lime_soup
Hi, we just started an intro to diff geometry course, and we're parametrizing curves a lot
So I'm wondering, do I need to memorize all of their parametrizations?
Or just the basic ones like ellipse, hyperbola, parabola...?
you'll probably end up working with them enough that you'll remember them
no point in sitting down and trying to memorize various parametrizations of common shapes
okay thanks
Hello! This is probably a stupid question but isn't the final topology (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Final_topology) always the discrete topology, since any function from the discrete topology should be continuous? Like if $f:X\to Y$ where X is equipped with the discrete topology and Y is equipped with some other topology then if U is an open subset in Y, we have that $f^{-1}(U)\in P(X)$ so it is open hence f is continuous.
It seems that you're reading it backwards? The maps are from Y to X
nice tex
lol
I see, idk how I would fix it though
\url{https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Final_topology} $f^{-1}$
Zopherus
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yea you need the package rip
slimvesus
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\text{https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Final_topology}} $ f^{-1} $
\text{https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Final_topology}} $f^{-1}$
Vanhousen
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lol
think its just discord formatting being weird
Am I the only one that likes to pronounce topology with a hard g?
I guess I am
how hard of a g are we talking?
As hard of a g as I am 😎
yes, you are alone and you should feel bad about not being more like me
Can someone help me understand a connection in this context?
As a map from $\Gamma(E)\rightarrow \Omega^1(E)$
lime_soup
So I have a trivial bundle over the torus E=T^2\times \mathbb C^2
Since this is a trivial bundle we can think of any section as s=(s_1, s_2) where s_i are smooth functions from T^2 to C
I want to see that D which maps from sections on E to one forms on E by Ds=D(s_1,s_2)=(ds_1,ds_2) is a connection
but i
not even sure how to see concretely that d is a connection on the trivial bundle
You say topolo-ghee?
I like to say it this way
I am admittedly shy to say it this way in front of other people though
D:
in the definition of a conncetion we have this fs
clearly it doesn't mean composition because that doesnt work
I also assume it doesn't mean multiplying
so how does a smooth function act on a section
Oh lol no, I didn't know that, interesting though. I just have a weird inclination towards pronouncing things weird
@gritty widget I might be misunderstanding, but
at every point on p on M, you get a real number f(p)
so like f \nabla(s) at p is just f(p) \nabla(s)(p)
right
now the other think, lets say have a trival bundle, the the exterior derivative should be a connection on this
on the trivial bundle our smooth section s will just be a smooth function from M to R
so f*s is again a smooth fuction
so we can indeed act on this by the exterior derivative
where does the vector field come into play?
do we just evaluate the form dfs on the vector field?
how do I extend a smooth function from a closed embedded submanifold to a neighborhood thereof?
smells like partitions of unity
one of your open sets should be ambient manifold setminus closed submanifold ( iirc the "closed" condition just ensures you can choose the neighborhood to which you extend to be the entire ambient space. you don't need to assume closed to extend to just a neighbourhood of the submanifold.)
Partitions of unity reduces you to a closed set in R^n
Oh or even a closed line segment by taking rank theorem charts
Which is very nice
Is anyone good with bundle stuff?
If it's about the stuff you're doing above I think I'm learning it right now too
But am not comfy enough to give definitive answers
Can i try ask anyway even for rubber duck purposes?
Sure
I have a trivial bundle over torus, T^2 \times \mathbb C^2. We will call this C^2
yup
I have a nice map from the torus into two by two matrices with complex entries defined by
sugar are f, g, h ?
But what if my manifold is R, and my SUV manifold is everything except the origin. Then smooth functions on the SUV manifold cannot generally be extended
And are θ, φ points on the circle?
yeah view the torus as S1 \times S1
The result in general is that they can be extended to an open set
its not hard to show p^2=p
but I have no idea why this gives a map from the bundle C^2 to C^2
Ah I see, the neighborhood here being the whole suvbmanifold itself
matrix multiplication?
elements of C^2 as 2x1 row vectors
you have a map for every point, which acts fibrewise
If you could introduce a social ranking system here I wold transfer a large amount of my score thank you
if we*
np
im assuming this map acts fibrewise because p^2=p
but how do we correspond a point on the torus to that matrix?
the question is how to extend it locally at all
I figure if I can extend to an open set, I can extend to the entire manifold by partition of unity
but how do I do that?
what
what do you know about embedded submanifolds?
We are already embedded, so k should be 0 right?
the definition
no 8da, S^2 is embedded in R^3
that's about it
ah, that's trickier
lime_soup what do you mean correspond a point? The mapping P is a correspondence
Ah, maybe I am getting my definitions mixed up, I thought embedded meant codimension 0
frankly we hardly defined what df is
the definition was on the order of "given a chart on here and a chart on there this composite map has full rank jacobian" or something
What i mean is, p is a map from T^2 to Mat(2,\mathbb C)
we want to use this to define a map P on the bundles so we send (theta, phi) , (z,w) to (?,?)(p(theta,phi)*(z,w))
so what's your definition of embedded submanifold? Topological subspace with the structure of a smooth manifold where the inclusion is an immersion?
does my question make sense (pretend (z,w) is a column vector?
i don't know what we do with the basepoints in our map
i see, i just read it as (theta, phi) , (z,w) to (theta, phi)(p(theta,phi)*(z,w))
oh okay
immersion via jacobian on charts, a submanifold is an image of an injective immersion, an embedding is when the submanifold is homeo to the domain
cool
I thought there was some way to maybe take the columns in the matrix and turn them into complex numbers and then somehow relate this to a base point
but yeah it it makes more sense that is just the identity onteh base poits
in the base*
Okay so we can wlog to be in R^n
"sure"
There are nice ways to characterize embedded submanifolds here
But I guess you don't know those
I'm just trying to avoid reproving a bunch of stuff that would simplify this
and failing
I mean modulo locality and charts, we can talk about an embedding R^k -> R^m
that much is evident
Yup
showing that "slice coordinates" exist seems nontrivial
Yeah, it is
how would we prove that the bundle map between $F(TM)\to M$ and $F(TM)\to F(TM)/GL_n(\bR)$ is an iso
But it's also the nicest way I can think of to do this...
Maybe I'm being a coward though
especially since it's like not true if we lose homeo
well sort of. You can still solve the local problem
not in the points where homeo is broken
I mean that if S <= M then there's a cover of S by S-open subsets {Ui} where Ui is embedded in M
are you sure you have phrased that properly spinsicle?
but then these may fail to be open in M
spinsicle
I'll think about this mniip but it seems very irritating
No promises I can figure it out
sorry there we go
I think you need some kind of slice coordinates thing
By which I mean
You need to apply to inverse/implicit function theorem at some point
I just don't see any way to get local control of an embedding otherwise
why can't mnlip just use a partition of unity?
So we have some f:V to R?
and just so I understand the problem, we have this f:V to R, and we want to extend this to f':M to R where f and f' agree on V?
no
we have some embedded submanifold N of M
and a smooth function f : N -> R
And we want to find an open set U of M containing N on which there is a smooth extension g : U -> R of f
extending to all of M may not be possible
Consider 1/x on N = R\{0} and M = R
oh okay
right
the entire problem asks about Im(f) closed
at which point you readily apply partitions of unity
but you have to extend f to U first
It's easy if you know things about embedded submanifolds
I didn't mean that as a diss?
You don't have a lot of tools for working with embedded submanifolds
Mniip I guess my advice is to try and use the IFT
It's the only way to get reasonable info out of something being an embedding
but like, all the ways I can think to apply it end up proving slice coordinates exist
Idk
If i have a map from a manifold into some nxn matrices, is the differential just done entry wise?
For example if I have this map p :T^2 to 2x2 matrices, and here f,g,h:S^1 to \mathbb C
Sort of yeah
Think about it as a map into R^n²
And the differential of a map X -> M × N is just given by the direct sum of the differential of X -> M and X -> N, identifying T_(p, q) M×N with T_pM (+) T_qN
Ty
wow some of the stuff you get for free groups
from covering space theory
is really really cool
nielsen-schreier?
the better version (tm)
which is like a corrolary / computational thing
if you have a map F -> G where F is free
and G is some group
then thinking about the kernel of this map often allows you to construct the universal cover graph explicitly
and grab generators for the kernel
explicitly
Well I’m dumb, the tetrahedron turned out to be two 45-45-90 triangles and so it’s just a square
Weird how that works
Thank you for the answers both of you though
Hello, can anyone tell me the difference between a basis and a subbasis of a topological space? Thank you!
Bases generate topologies via arbitrary unions, subbases generate topologies by arbitrary unions + finite intersections
Thanks a lot, may I ask what do you mean with finite intersections? I understand the fact that they generate topologies via arbitrary unions
as in, just taking unions is not enough to generate the whole topology with a subbasis
you need to take unions of intersections of the elements of the subbasis
another way to think about it is if you add all the intersections to the subbasis, it becomes a basis
Okay, but if you intersect elements of a subbasis you get a "smaller" element, then how can it become a basis?
For a collection of subsets to be considered a topology, it must be closed under arbitrary unions and finite intersections
A subbasis on its own may not necessarily satisfy the latter condition
By using intersections, you guarantee that this works
np!
Does anyone have an idea for this? I'm trying to show that if $\phi: V\rightarrow V$ is a map of symplectic vector spaces (not nesccairly linear). Then
The graph of $\phi$ is a lagrangian subspace of $V\times V$ if and only if $\phi$ is a linear symplectic map
lime_soup
symplectic map means phi pulls back the symp form on V to itself, yeah?
yes
there is this very slick proof which even works in the case of symplectic manifolds
but I'd like to be able to do this concretely as I feel there is something good to understand from doing it concretly
also its actually not clear to me why this proof works
it's worded a little strangely imo
let me attempt to clarify it
at least in the context of this
(if it holds for a vector space it ought to hold for manifolds by doing everything fiberwise; this is me being lazy)
let's say $\phi\colon V \to V$ is a linear symplectic map. the linearity part says $\Gamma_\phi$ is a subspace of $V \times V$, and since this subspace is isomorphic to $V$ via the map $\gamma \colon v \mapsto (v,\phi(v))$, you get that its of dimension $\frac{1}{2}\dim V \times V = \dim V$. let's write the symplectic form on $V \times V$ as $\Omega = \pi_1^\omega-\pi_2^\omega$. now, we wanna check that $i^\Omega=0$, where $i \colon \Gamma_\phi \hookrightarrow V \times V$ is the inclusion, yeah? it's enough to check that $\gamma^(i^\Omega) = 0$. if we write this out, we get $$ \gamma^i^\Omega = (\pi_1 \circ i \circ \gamma)^\omega - (\pi_2 \circ i \circ \gamma)^\omega = \omega - \phi^\omega = 0, $$ showing that $\Gamma_\phi$ is a lagrangian subspace of $V \times V$.
(T*Terra, dqⁱ ∧ dpᵢ)
i'm trying to be really explicit about the forms and pullbacks involved
ooh
i am
silly
if $L$ is lagrangian, then $L^\perp=L$
also the converse follows from the computation at the end
lime_soup
so L is lagrangian iff the form is identitly zero on L
ah i probably should hvae asked what your definition of lagrangian is lol but it seems like you got it
Thank you very much though
no problem 
Is the dog in your profile picture the same dogs that were in Shamrocks previous picture
just for max clarity: the definition of "lagrangian" i had in mind is: sub(space/manifold) of dimension half that of the ambient space onto which the symplectic form of the ambient space/manifold restricts to 0
it is not
it's the beastars wolf 
also
If V is a symplectic vector space
then the only lagrangian subspace is 0?
But a presymplectic vector space can have lots of lagrangian subspace?
If V is a symplectic vector space
then the only lagrangian subspace is 0?
i am not sure about this, although to be completely honest i couldn't give you an example right off the top of my head (lee's smooth manifolds book 1000% has something on this)
he does all the usual symplectic linear algebra stuff and also tells you how to find symplectic/isotropic/coisotropic/lagrangian subspaces, in terms of coordinates where the symplectic form looks like the standard one. maybe you can look there?
oh well i guess if you take the usual symplectic form on R^2 you get a lagrangian subspace by looking at an axis LOL
x_1, x_2, ..., x_n is a lagrangian subspace
following the usual naming convention
lagrangian subspaces need to have dim n (if the vector space has dim 2n)
what brofibration is saying is exactly the thing in lee i was thinking of 
noice
yeah there's an exercise in lee that tells you exactly how to construct nice subspaces of symplectic v spaces using a symp basis
one of them is a lagrangian subspace



S^2
yes
cotangent bundle
and every projective variety
is simp
right?
yeah they're kaehler
not sure what a projective variety is
but i guess so
it's a variety
and a closed subscheme of P^n
the kaehler structure can be given by the restriction of the fubini-study metric
i think
and once you have the almost complex structure and a riemannian metric
you can recover the simp form
Does anyone know what this means? I thought a classification would be any subspace spanned by x_i’s in the standard basis
But then
This is given as the classification for coisotropic
And it doesn’t really seem to tell us much about coisotropic spaces?
Okay so i assume the idea is to show if W,W' are isotropic there is and automorphism as above that maps W to W'
I know we can do this for Lagrangian subspaces
as for W Lagrangian, W\times W^* is iso to V
@tight agate that's not a bad symp mfld to know, given that locally it's the only one! 🙂
your brain on microlocal analysis
broser trick
i believe it is spelled simp 🙂





finite sets that look like cw complexes up to algebraic topology
really scare me
what's like
the explicit generator of the fundamental group for this dude
ah you can determine this
with groupoid Van Kampen

what happens if you enforce hausdorffness
but all topological spaces are hausdorff
🧠
hi i personally dont identify as absolutely flat rings
too flat for me
the first line is the LHS of 3.12 wedged with ek1...ek(n-r)and the second line is the RHS of 3.12 wedged with ek1...ek(n-r)
a bilinear map is positive definite if f(x,x)>0 with equality only when x=0?
I'm actually finding it very hard to find a definition for it but this seems like the only thing that would make sense
as in requiring f(x,y)>0 would not make sense since f(x,-x)=-f(x,x)>0 implies f(x,x)<0
good ol' nlab
i really like these meta arguements on what a definition should be
assuming the definition is good it cannot mean such and such
are there any fun exercises applying point set top (besides manifolds)
topology hw has been a bit grindy and dry lol
go through an algtop book and explain why all the technical conditions are necessary
and then tell me
lol

technical conditions scary
give me the technical conditions for when a CW complex product agrees with the traditional product

after some research
apparently the answer
depends on CH
which is crazy
but if either X,Y is locally finite or if both are locally countable
it works out
I hate this I hate this I hate this,,,,
do you have a link???
like holy shit that's so fucked
poll: should I introduce homotopies to my real analysis students next week at the discussion section office hour?
(the context of the discussion section is to give them exposure to other parts of math)
(I've been doing topology bc I'm a nerd)
lol faye are u a TA
its not a bad idea but at the same time it might be better to go broad and cover math from lots of different areas than to keep doing topology
up to u tho (and maybe ur students xd)
homotopies are boring imo
unless you learn about like
uses of them
but certainly not really self-motivating
id teach them some group theory or smth
I have been teaching them group theory stuff
topic list so far
We're doing quotient space today
(Some basic definitions includes topological space + continuous + connectedness, which they're also getting some of in class)
they really like the topology stuff so far. I could cover some elementary number theory or combinatorics if we wanted to?
Do some computability theory
or some dynamics
rotations of the circle is the example that keeps on giving
or expanding maps of the circle
idk anything about either of those lol
not 2 late 2 learn
its cool!
The two even intersect
the theory of like ML random points of a computable metric space
is cool stuff
Hey, guys, is this set simply connected? I’m trying to define a universal cover and need this condition. As I draw it’s a subset of $R^3$ consisting of one of the axis with a bunch of tangent spheres which doesn’t intersect each other
pmorelli
You can prove it is simply connected
I assume you've seen SvK
if you're doing covering theory
I’m studying covering theory but what do you mean by SvK?
Seifert Van Kampen
interesting
well
it makes computing this pretty straightforward
but to answer your question yes it is simply connected
(and the universal cover of S^2 v S^1 if thats what you are going for)
Ok, I’ll try applying it
Yes, that’s the base space
Thanks!
np
try computing it for just one sphere wedged with the axis
its the same for countably many
but it might be less intimidating
you can also do it by applying CW complex stuff
CW complexes are homotopy equivalent to quotienting by a subcomplex
so just identify the line
then this is a wedge of spheres
a sphere is always simply connected
and wedge of simply connected is simply connected
this is how I would do it because I avoid SvK like the plague
you mean contractible subcomplex right
SvK makes a lot of sense when u think about it in terms of "when do properties of Top get preserved under the fund. groupoid"
before that i always found it kinda unintuitive
pushie pushie
I have a very good memory of my frosh analysis TA trying to explain de rham cohomology in section when we were doing div/grad/curl
he got yelled at by the professor after the prof found out, apparently
bad take
SvK is like
so visually justifiable
you dont need to think about it w category theory at all
Its just like
it is when the intersection is trivial
even nontrivial
it never was intuitive to me when it was nontrivial
well i dont think ive seen a text
that explains it well
but the quotient you take is literally like
okay so you have loops in space 1 and space 2
they can interact freely
but what loops should we identify
if you look at a picture and think hard about it
i think you'd come up w exactly the relations induced by SvK
like you're basically identifying things that can be made into eachother
by homotoping them through the intersection
ik i have the visual intuition now
?
i dont see how the categorical approach could have given you the visual intuition lol
it made me understand the whole picture better and when i went back and thought about it more intuitively it clicked
okay
i think you could have achieved the same result without the detour
but whatever makes it click ig
(this is a good example of the type of thing a lecturer can do better than textbooks, though)
¯_(ツ)_/¯
idk seeing the pushout coproduct stuff made it clear to me that we were basically identifying the two copies of the intersection
but i also think maybe hatchers style where it was really long with a lot of exposition kind of obscures the big picture sometimes
like the relationship between free products in group and unions in Top was vague to me
seeing it categorified made it really obvious that like oh these are the same so it makes sense that under some conditions one would become the other
i dont think its necessary per se but it was good for me
but i think sometimes the niceness of categorical language can prevent people from understanding more fundamental basic/concrete stuff
you went back and understood it
so i dont mean you in particular here
honestly if i hadnt done hatcher i dont think dieck would do anything valuable for me
like ur not wrong that the categorical approach alone i think can be a little unhelpful
but having already seen it from the more visual perspective the categorical approach i guess "organizes" it in a way that i find nice
also sometimes its just very neat when the two seem really different but get the same results
like hatcher doing universal covers very directly by constructing them and going for the unwinding loops perspective vs dieck doing that stuff with a fiber sequence of the htpy groups is neat
yah lol
yeah I know
based
this is incredibly important
im not anti-categorical stuff
i just feel like a lot of people disregard the concrete stuff
for the abstract nonsense
i feel like that would suck
and as a result end up being unable to compute basic stuff
i think dieck is enjoyable for me as a second very different perspective on intro AT
not really as a primary or first one
I agree that SvK is very visually intuitive
I haven't done groupoid version
haven't needed it
the groupoid version is pretty much the same honestly
you just dont have to think about basepoints
doesn't it allow you to do ridiculous things tho
no
idk if thats 'ridiculous'
it does but like
it is to me
it seems 'pathologically overcomplicated'
I mean traditional SvK can't do anything like that lol
yes its more general
and good for computing particularly tricky fundamental groups i guess
also faye the version of that proof i saw is like
honestly its not that different from the normal covering defn at least intuitively you still use the exp map
it still involves a morphism from the groupoid of R to the groupoid of S^1
sooooooo
you dont
i think there aren't that many times where the categorification approach
isnt just like
a better organized version of the same thing
there are a few examples
i can send it but the basic idea is that you define a topological groupoid using the covering map from R -> S^1
so its really not that different xd
lol
I guess like correct me if I'm misinterpreting
but SvK will tell you that you're like some pushout of groupoids
two of which are an R groupoid
sharing a common 2 point groupoids
and the issue is that like
to compute the pushout
you essentially end up doing the same work?
oh man
this would be
a fun REU project for an apprentice
i feel
give like 3-4 proofs of \pi_1 S^1
lol
and compare them
very cute expository that would involve a lot of learning
ill keep it in my back pocket
ehhhh like basically the idea is you define a topological groupoid G
like this
you end up with this kind of situation
jesus
lmao right
ah this is what I expected then
then you take a basepoint
yea
(tm)
its not like awful and you dont have to develop much theory to pull it off but i honestly dont understand why groupoids are so valuable
or why anyone cares that much
the proof of van kampen is like the only thing
is there a nice theory of presentations of groupoids?
and like
if you have presentations what happens when you take a pushout?
topology and groupoids does a theory of presentations
this is what makes computing with groups nice
bc like
you can just use presentations for everything you know
and a presentation pops out from SvK
is this proof nicer when you have a theory of presentations?
@sleek thicket here's some meme material--I could technically do two REUs this summer (idk if this is allowed or not, but I could if it's not expressly disallowed)
(this would be helpful bc I need money to pay for college lol)
I don't think that's a good idea but it is a meme
no it's a terrible idea
namely this is bc UMich doesn't have like
a set timeframe
it has to be 8 contiguous weeks with nothing else going on during those weeks
but SMALL is towards the latter half of the summer,,,
and if I started early,,,
oh yeah u mich got back to my email asking about decisions and told me it'll be like a month until they're finished and I should take u chicago
category memes are okay if you can do the concrete things when its time
still think max should start pulling some strings to sneak me in but whatever
theres a great (perhaps apocryphal story)
about a grad student of Peter May's
who was so category pilled
he failed an interview question
that asked him to compute H_*(S^2)
with mayer-vietoris
if you cant
put down dieck
and go do it
lol
you should already have done it before
yea
i just mean H_k for all k
yea i vaguely remember this
I wonder when we'll see Mayer-Vietoris 🥺
Lee yelled at me on homework for using MV
i read the cohomology chapter
why
4head
MV is good
Instead of just looking at it as a polygonal presentation
homology and cohomology computations r so fun
gross
I had a space I wanted to show was the klein bottle
im basically planning to do a phd in them
based
ur done w/ apps right?
"literally just track how it glues"
no lol
can you even use H_* to identify the klein bottle
yes
It was easy to see its a compact surface
hello
so I got iii.) wrong
and I kind of understand why
I think I have a fundamental misunderstanding
what exactly are the rules for taking the union of two subspaces?
wdym "rules"
This is the answer I got
how exactly does the topology of the spaces come together exactly?
lemme think how to phrase this
uhh im pretty sure whoever was grading you is wrong because if this was false then literally every topological space would be connected
in fact the defn of disconnectedness is that there exist such an A, B (disjoint, open, non-empty) whose union is X
I don't think its a general case
I think he means that there exist a space such that this is true
and furthermore ur example is correct
bad phrasing
what did u say then? true?
Can you phrase your question a little more precisely
do you understand the counterexample?
Or why the result should be false in general?
I don't understand anymore
but i can see why itd be confusing if you havent learned about the disjoint union topology
wait what?
^


