#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 206 of 1
Okay yup
anyways I think this is a valid reduction to the case R = Z
break out the cover {U0,...,Ui} of Vi
write down the equalizer condition
Right
I feel like somehow this wasn’t how they intended to you to go about this but I like it
To do what?
but I realized I was implicitly working over a field
well I have a map O_X(Vi) -> product
in the sheaf condition
right?
Like the first map yeah
yeah
Right
integralness should tell you things about the image
Hmm
Hmmm
This is a map from an integral domain (if it was integral) into some product
And you’re saying you can’t like map into disjoint parts?
I mean I agree
You can probably just do it manually over Z too if for some reason that ends up being easier
I know for defining the segre embedding I reduced to Z
yeah I mean like
But now that I think about it
I don’t think I used anything special to Z besides maybe it being integral
anything to reduce complexity
Yeah
Better to know you can do it and then just if at any point you go “if this was Z then...” then well... it is Z
right lol
@gritty widget if T is some 2-tensor, is <g, T> anything nice?
maybe you can write it in like normal coordinates or something and it turns out to be something good
since in normal coordinates centered at a point p, the matrix of g(p) is the identity
idk
Was hoping it was like a trace somehow
my proof for that problem used normal coordinates lol
Your problem nerdsniped me
i wouldn't be surprised if it's like a trace or related to the trace
i don't really wanna check rn though
Can someone suggest a problem set with solutions for topology
go open up a copy of munkres, you can find solutions online in your brain
is the zarski topology related to the finite complement topology in any way? 
My professor keeps calling the latter the former
wiki pages suggest they're not lol
idts
ty
Oh, but they are the same in dimension 1 or something like that right?
yes, for curves over an alg closed field
(assuming you're working in the classical setup)
all curves over an alg closed field are homeomorphic
in the zariski top
the zariski topology on the line has closed sets the zero sets of 1-variable polynomials
a set is the zero set of some polynomial iff it is finite
so like if X = {a1,...,an} is some closed set in the cofinite topology then X is the vanishing set of the polynomial p(x) = (x-a1)...(x-an), and conversly the vanishing set of a (one variable) polynomial is finite
but in higher dimensions this is not true. the y-axis {(x,y) : x = 0} is closed in the zariski topology on the plane because it's defined by a polynomial equation, but it isn't finite
is this or abstract-algebra better for algebraic geometry talk
(not trying to say you guys should move, just wondering for my own sake if i need to ask)
either fits but i'd probably consider this a better place
#groups-rings-fields generally has a lot of first semester groups/rings/modules stuff
a point $x\inX$ astrong limit pointof $A$ if the intersection $N\cap A$ is infinite for any neighborhood $N$ of $x$. In T1, every open neighborhood $\mathcal{O}$ of $x$ contains infinitely many points of $A$, then $x$ automatically is a strong limit point
亜城木 夢叶
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What if the T1 space is finite?
T1 has no limit points
\begin{align*}
\mathrm{Vol}(\tilde{M}) = \int_{\tilde{M}} dV_{\tilde{g}} &= \sum_{i=1}^m \sum_{j=1}^k \int_{(\varphi_i \circ \pi)(U_i^j)} ((\varphi_i \circ \pi|{U_i^j})^{-1})^*( \psi{i,j} dV_{\tilde{g}} ), \
&= \sum_{j=1}^k \sum_{i=1}^m \int_{\varphi_i(U_i)} (\varphi_i^{-1})^* \left( (\psi_{i,j} \circ \pi|{U_i^j}^{-1}) (\pi|{U_i^j}^{-1})^dV_{\tilde{g}} \right) \
&= \sum_{j=1}^k \sum_{i=1}^m \int_{\varphi_i(U_i)} (\varphi_i^{-1})^\left( (\psi_{i,j} \circ \pi|_{U_i^j}^{-1}) dV_g \right),
\end{align*}
(T*(Terra), -dτ)
The sick, degenerate mind of a differential geometer
one look at those equations and it could literally only be partitions of unity
yucky
(but handy)
speaking of which that reminds me that I wanted to read the PoU section in tu
it's worth it to read the construction at least once
it's very general-topological
and also you can see how second-countability is required in the definition of a manifold to get partitions of unity
(which is also why some authors say that manifolds are paracompact instead, since that also implies existence of pou's)
it's just making bumps in R^n and putting them in places.
ooh, so that explains why he flipped them ig
also partitions of unity are great wtf
they're so slick
they are based
sheaf cohomology goes brrr
say $X$ is a space whose topology is coherent with the cover ${X_i}{i \in I}$ and $S$ is a subspace. What condition on $S$ and the $X_i$ are necessary/sufficient for $S$ to have topology coherent with ${S \cap X_i}{i \in I}$? I was hoping it's always true but I can't prove it
Shamrock emoji ☘
I have a proof in the case each X_i is open but that's useless to me unfortunately
stuck in gentop hell again
I think if $p : \tilde{X} \to X$ is a covering map with finite fibers then $p$ is closed
Shamrock emoji ☘
say $C \subseteq \tilde{X}$ is closed
Shamrock emoji ☘
it suffices to show $p(C) \cap U$ is closed in $U$ for any evenly covered open set $U$
Shamrock emoji ☘
hmm if the map were normal this would be trivial
I think it actually suffices for me to prove this case but w/e
so okay anyways
$p^{-1}(U) = V_1\cup\ldots\cup V_n$
Shamrock emoji ☘
$p(C) \cap U$ is closed in $U$ iff $p^{-1}(p(C) \cap U) = (p^{-1}(p(C)) \cap V_1) \cup \ldots \cup (p^{-1}(p(C)) \cap V_n)$ is closed in $p^{-1}(U)$
Shamrock emoji ☘
or really $p^{-1}(p(C)) \cap V_i$ is closed for some $i$
Shamrock emoji ☘
figured it out
I'm having trouble thinking of a map between CW complexes that isn't cellular 🤔
Take the antipode map on the circle, where we build the circle by attaching a line segment to one point. The 0 skeleton is sent into the 1 skeleton
this is cellular with respect to another cw structure on the circle
but not the one I've given
I think a rotation by an irrational multiple of π might not be cellular with respect to any cw complex structure but I'm not sure
Why is this not cellular?
it seems to me that you've just described this situation?
Hmm, so one example I've come up with since is to have a space Y, where you attach a 2 Disk to a point, to make a sphere
and then you have a circle X, from linking a point to itself, which you wrap around this sphere
then you can't find skeleton maps at all
What?
Take a point
Attach a line to it to get a circle
The antipode map sends the point you started with to some point in the 1 cell
So it maps the 0 skeleton into something which is not the 0 skeleton
So I've never actually had to explicitly work out an integral on a manifold. Now I realize I do not know how to do it.
If I want to integrate $\omega=sin(\theta)d\theta \wedge d \varphi$ on $S^2$
lime_soup
I'm guessing this is the same as just integrating sin(x)dxdy with the proper limits?
The general formal procedure for the integration of forms is: Cover your manifold with charts $\psi_U : U \to M$, decompose the form you want to integrate with a partition of unity $\omega = \sum \rho_U \omega$ so that every summand is supported in one of the images of the charts, and then calculate the integrals of the pullback forms $\psi_U^* (\rho_U \omega)$
Lartomato
'cause that last thing is just a form on some open set of $\mathbb{R}^n$ where things can be integrated with yer boy lebesgue
Lartomato
For the sphere, the good thing is that you can cover it with a single chart up to a zero set, using polar coordinates; so you only need to find that chart and pull back your form
uuh, that is the abstract theory in general, once it comes to juggling with explicit expressions like d \theta \wedge d \phi i need to actually start up my brain
I wish, most books I know keep this very abstract, they just always have a single exercise of calculating some spherical integral lmao
Maybe someone else has a book
But I guess the way that d theta and d \phi are defined, they are exactly the forms which, when pulled back to the domain of the domain of spherical coordinates (0, pi) \times (0, 2 \pi), they correspond exactly to "dx" and "dy"
So you were probably right all along
Thinking about it in this level of abstraction even feels a bit silly, because when you write a form on S^2 using the polar coordinates theta and phi, you're never really leaving the chart-description, so you don't really see the pullback at all
ah thank you
No, i do appreciate linking the abstract stuff back to reality
Hey, I'm trying to get my head around what is the difference between a retraction and a deformation retraction. My definition of retraction is: A continuous map $r: X \rightarrow Z$ s.t. $r(z) = z \in Z, \forall z \in Z$
And for a deformation retraction I was told: A continuous map $h: X \times [0,1] \rightarrow X$ s.t
$$\begin{align}h(x,1) = x \in X, \forall x \in X \
h(x,0) \in Z \
h(z,0) = z , \forall z \in Z
\end{align}
$$
But I'm struggling to interpret these definitions.
snypehype46
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For example in the definition of a retraction are only the points in the subspace Z that are sent to Z. What happens to the points not in Z?
Hubbard & Hubbard!
it describes it backwards in terms of parametrizations instead of charts, but it goes through a whole section developing the "chart that covers a manifold up to a zero set" thing
(also only considers submanifolds)
__
clarification: partitions of unity only show up as a tool to prove stoke's thm
@gritty widget ok so would the identity map be a retraction?
On this point, I have some doubts because my definition was: A continuous map $r: X \rightarrow Z$ s.t. $r(z) = z \in Z, \forall z \in Z$. However, I'm confused about the domain. It seems that the domain is Z, but then I don't see how the identity is not a retraction since it doesn't change any point in Z.
snypehype46
Ok right but there is a "for all z in Z", right. So essentially r only concerns itself with Z not the entire space X
my topology professor graded our exams so quickly wow
r has to map all of X into Z
but it has to be the identity on Z
is the restriction
easy disproof is every space retracts to a point trivially
and deformation retract shows homotopy equivalence, and not every space is contractible
I think @summer jolt the thing you want to think about is that deformation retracts have a time parameter
so you can imagine points in X continuously moving to points in Z over time
whereas a retract is sudden
mapping all of S^1 to the point (1, 0) is a retract, because all constant maps are continuous
but you can't make a deformation retract out of this, because you can't envision it happening over time
it would somehow "break" the circle
Ok this makes sense. So for example (forgetting about continuity for a sec), if X = {0,1} with Z = {1}, then f(x) = 1 is a retraction right but id(x) is not because the codomain is not Z.
it's a kinda subtle and hard difference to understand bc it pushes up against visualization in some ways
yes
id : X -> X is a retraction of X onto X
but not a retraction of X onto Z
That's if X is not subset of Z?
Z is a subspace of X
Oh okay
Ok and going back to my definition of deformation retraction: A continuous map $h: X \times [0,1] \rightarrow X$ s.t
$$\begin{align}h(x,1) = x \in X, \forall x \in X \
h(x,0) \in Z \
h(z,0) = z , \forall z \in Z
\end{align}
$$
What is the meaning of the first and last condition?
snypehype46
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The first condition tells you that h is the identity at time 1
and the last condition is,,,written wrong lol
oh well that's fine actually
there's just an equivalent way to do it I'm pretty sure
who is Z
the last two conditions guarantee that h is a retract of X onto Z at time 0
coho the difference is that in this defn that he sent
we aren't given a retraction to start with
so theres no need to care about what the htpy does outside of z
because r(x):=h(x,0) is a retraction
yeah we give a slightly stronger def in my class
but I think they're equivalent
namely that F_t(z) = z for all t and z in Z
thats normally called a strong def retract iirc
and i dont think its equivalent even up to htpy
but i dont have a counterexample in mind
should be in hatcher ch0 i think
MSE cites Hatcher exercise 6 ch0
sorry for derailing @summer jolt did we answer your question?
ahh I see
we only talked about the strong ones
and I just call them deformation retracts so I didn't think about it lol
@marsh forge that was helpful. I will try to draw a picture and post it here to see if I get it.
@summer jolt do you know the general definition of a homotopy between two continuous maps?
Yes
yeah
then a weak deformation retract is just a homotopy from the identity to a retract is a good definition
the three conditions given there
gurantee h_1 is the identity
and h_0 is a retract
def retracts are nice because they let you know that there is an isomorphism on invariants and also that the generators are exactly what you expect bc the retract is a retract
and you dont need strong to get that
A good example is taking an annulus and including S^1 into it
yeah, I don't think we've stated it formally
but in computations it has been pretty easy to write down generators after doing a deformation retract
So this would be a deformation retraction right?
However if I have a hole on one side of the cylinder then I can't do a deformation retraction but could technically still do a retraction
yes
Ok I see, what would be h(x,0) here?
a projection map
onto the first coordinate (the S^1 coordinate)
which is your retract
have you learned about how retracts interact with pi1?
And h(x,1) is the identity right?
Ok I see, I was kind of confused because the time coordinates seem "reversed"
yeah I agree
usually I use the opposite time convention from what your definition was
That makes sense thanks a lot I get it now!
yes
come to the dark side
this channel has been too much smooth stuff lately
we need more topology and less geometry
I don't like smooth stuff at all so I am welcome to talk about this a ton :)
not yet
we're gonna do covering spaces though
its JUST SO NEAT
don't know if we'll get galois covering
ah ur close then
the class has to do like
you 100% will i think
the whole point of covering theory is to make computing pi_1 easier
a lot of stuff bc like quals prep lol
and make computing pi_n trivial
here's the course description
Course Description: This course covers the fundamentals of algebraic topology. Topics include fundamental group, covering spaces, simplicial complexes, graphs and trees, applications to group theory, singular and simplicial homology, Eilenberg-Steenrod axioms, Brouwer’s and Lefschetz’ fixed-point theorems. This is one of the basic courses for students beginning study towards the Ph.D. degree in mathematics, and preparation for the corresponding qualifying exam.
We should talk more about topology
Thats a great curriculum
missing higher homotopy groups
but honestly theres not a ton to say about them in a first course other than
they exist
they are abelian
good luck computing them
lmao yeah basically that's what our prof said
"take the next alg top course if you want to learn about higher homotopy groups"
heres a fun theorem though
if Y is a cover of X then they share higher homotopy groups
maybe you need X to have some adjectives
lol
that is a fun theorem
My brain went gigantamax mode on my topology exam and I remembered a random comment from someone about how covering spaces tell you the subgroups of your fundamental group that someone told me a few months ago or something
which allowed me to answer a True False Question correctly
even though we hadn't covered that
(the question was "There does not exist a cover of S^1 by S^1 wedge S^1")
this is galois covering theory
good and based
covered that
yes
Did they give you the expected answer
/ do you have a geometric reason why there isnt one
Wonder if you can prove that using the idea that the point where the circles join isn’t locally homeomorphic to any point on the circle
we didn't have to justify true things
there is nothing you can map that too on S^1
bc it's two-dimensional there
I realized my "solution" was wrong because of that
but I couldn't figure out why there couldn't be some weird one
and convinced myself of it from the algebra reason
A cover of a manifold should also have to be a manifold because the local homeos should lift local euclideanness
(it's obvious geometrically now)
ive never heard that stated but it should be true
yeah this was a problem on our study guide actually
you soln was a good one though
although it requires some thought about why pi_1(S^1vS^1) can't be a subgroup of Z
yeah abelian
yeah thats easy
that's what I thought yeah
apparently there's some point set extra condition on your covering space
or else it's not a manifold
probably something like long line covers something that's a manifold
yeah it does was to specific problem
I doubt it covers R^2 but maybe im wrong
yeah ur not getting a local homeo
sometimes I envision long line as like
a plane with a weird topology
bc long line weird
and there is a bijection
I think of the long line as a line where every increasing sequence converges
Hey, so I was wondering if there were any texts which could serve as a good introduction to studying top/pl/diff/btop etc?
For context, I have some knowledge of singular homology/cohomology, de rham cohomology and a very basic acquaintance with stuff like plumbing/fibre bundles etc so feel free to tell me there's so much more I need to understand first (and hopefully some stuff that might be good to read while I'm at it)
yeah
interesting, no I'm not sure.
I think a good idea is to compare the history of the Poincare Conjecture in all of them
basically I want to understand what it means that the kirby-siebenmann invariant is an obstruction to lifting
and similar stuff
idk if there is anything that compares them maybe you should write up some notes haha
i'd read it
fair lol
I guess I'll go bury my head in some category theory and hope stuff starts falling into place
I think we weren't intended to like actually do all those for review
just like give each a look and solve the ones which were interesting and stuff
the ones to focus on were true/false and fundamental group calculations
the fact that when you puncture a fundamental polygon you can deformation retract to the boundary of the fundamental polygon and it works with all the gluing
is honestly OP for a lot of these
Can I someone help me with the hodge star operator
I’m comfortable with it abstractly but cannot calculate with it
Say we have \omega=sin(\theta)d\theta wedge d\phi
How would i show this field is axis symmetry
I'd look at the symmetry of the quadratic surface u dot u = c for a constant c
i have a feeling this field has been rotated somehow? it should be 2D
@chrome dew
i think
what you said doesn't seem to have anything to do with what I said
yeah i know
Say i rotate this by z->-z, x->-x and y->-y
this gives back the same field
so in symmetric on rotation
i dont quite understand why that works
what you're saying is just a special case
it's looking at for what values u is constant
which defines a level surface
symmetries of this level surface are the symmetries of your field
Does anyone know conditions for a one form, such that the integral of that one form does not depend on the choice of path in your space?
If we are in R^n stokes theorem gives us that being closed is sufficient
For the context I am trying to do this
These are called exact differential forms I think
Really? I know that A is exact if A=dB
But I don’t see how this implies that the integral of A around a path is constant
Oh
If we are only talking about closed paths then this should work
Closed should be enough
In fact I think it's equivalent
No, I am lying
I misunderstood the question
Thought it was about homotopy invariance of paths
ISM proves exact iff only integral depends only on endpoints
Ism?
Would like to see him do a characteristic class book
Well they're showing up in my bundles class
Today we did stuff with the chern classes
But he's not doing eg the construction of them
So he probably won't write a book on the subject
My manifold knowledge is so strange
I did point set topology
Then moved uni for a masters
And the masters diff geom started with vector bundles, principal bundles and finished with chern-gauss-bonnet theorem
So
I suck at manifolds
Thumb reveal? OwO
Starting with topological spaces and ending with like, stokes theorem/de rham coho/foliations
Done a good manifolds course in the bachelors
Yeah I’ve used myself
But never taken a course with it
And I’ve done cohomology operations like steenrod squares
But not fundamental group
Wtf
That seems like a tough situation
Nice!
But it is funny
Doing a problem and getting it down to some statements that sounds like it should be true
But I don’t know enough of some bachelor course to know if it is
Lol
Like lmao I’ve never taken proof based linear algebra
same lol
I think of all that stuff in the context of like, modules over a PID
Big ty
Topkek
this is why honorables should get delete powers again
actually this is a great reason why they shouldn't
Let X be a regularly embedded submanifold of M. What does the pushforward of the inclusion look like? Is it injective with rank equal to dim X?
sounds right
"embedded submanifold" usually means "inclusion is an embedding" (immersion, homeo onto image)
makes sense. Thanks
does anyone have any intuition behind the iso $[\Sigma X, Y]\simeq [X, \Omega Y]$
spinsicle
for like S^ 1 or something
this is how I imagine @cedar pebble
oh, ng is a pothead?
Are you familiar with currying or tensor-hom adjunctions
Another way of writing this is $[X\wedge S^1,Y]=[X,Maps(S^1,Y)]$
MaxJ
Yea lmfao
Hi, do you guys have content about the Kay-Wald boundedness theorem ? Intuitive explanation or not too hard proof would be awesome
where is this coming up? it's a fairly recent result so i doubt there'll be a particularly easy proof
I'm working on a project for a Mathematical course ("mathematics of wave equations of general relativity")
And ... I'm a physicist
So it's quite hard, not to say really hard to try to understand
I didn't find any conference or video lesson either unfortunately
i skimmed the paper (https://iopscience.iop.org/article/10.1088/0264-9381/4/4/022) and i'll confess i'm not familiar with a lot of the terminology they use, so i'd wager you'd have better luck asking in a space for physics than math
although if anyone here can offer anything it'd certainly be welcome
I'll try that thank you
btw https://arxiv.org/pdf/0811.0354.pdf this is the paper on which I have to work. And I need to focus on the 3. and 4. chapter
I'm trying to show that the Zarinski topology on R agrees with the cofinite topology on R. I was wondering if this reasoning is enough?
Furthermore I'm not entirely sure on what "agree" actually means, does it mean that I have to show that all open sets in one topology is open in the other and same with closed sets?
yeah that looks fine
you might want to justify why V(P) is finite
as thats like the main thing
but thats obvious
alright cool, thanks
nitpick: you may want to amend your first sentence to also include the empty set
oh yes, will do
also, the logic is slightly weird, "[V(P)] is indeed finite if P is non-zero", but you really want to know that V(P) is always finite and can be made to correspondn to any finite set
what you said implies only that the zariski topology is coarser than the cofinite topology
Oh I see, so I'd have to do the converse as well?
i guess you can think of it like that
you can certainly do it by "every open set in the cofinite topology is open in the zariski topology" and vice versa. or you can just do it by characterizing all open sets in the cofinite topology and all open sets in the zariski topology, and showing that they are the same (which sounds like the way that you want to do it)
Hm I think I'll do it the first way, since I have more of an idea of how to do that. What I wrote down is just random thoughts written in a formal manner so I'm not really sure how that corresponds to the second way haha.
the second way essentially amounts to showing that ${{x \in \mathbb{R}: P(x) = 0}: P \in \mathbb{R}[x]} = {A \subseteq \mathbb{R}: |A|<\infty} \cup {\mathbb{R}}$
8da
where you have already pointed out that the LHS is a subset of the RHS
ah okay I see, thank you I'll go with that then
Hi, I've got a question about the definition of intersection multiplicity for intersections between algebraic curves. This was the definition given to me
I don't quite get what the definition means by the ideal I. In my abstract algebra course,we defined ideals as subsets that are closed wrt addition, negatives and absorbs products. So here what are the ideals generated by f(x,y,1) and g(x,y,1)
smallest ideal containing both
@marsh forge ok so suppose we consider two curves let's say $y^2 z = x^3$ and $y=0$, then what is the ideal?
snypehype
Sorry when it comes to this kind of computation I'd need to be more careful bc I dont think about it often, but the intuition is that you make the ideal by throwing in f,g, and then everything else needed to make it an ideal (for example, you'd have to add f+g, -f,-g, etc)
So all linear combinations of f(x,y,1) and g(x,y,1)?
Would anyone like to help me try to formalize the concept of a geometric conjugate?
Does anyone have a good intuition for uniformizers and divisors?
i only know them through number theory 
do you have a good intuition for them through number theory?
Maybe just shoot your question and see what comes up ?
how can one prove the polarization identity for the einstein tensor?
rather: why is the einstein tensor a symmetric bilinear form?
This is not really my topic, but doesn't symmetry follow from symmetry of the ricci tensor and the metric tensor?
And bilinearity since it's a linear combination of 2-tensors
right makes sense
@fading vale hello
Moth | not male
hi shamrock
locally trivial as in a locally trivial fiber bundle?
uh anyway the part of the proof im confused about
Moth | not male
sorry I just started an irl thing but I'll look in like 10
Moth | not male
(U x {b} i meant obviously)
so i assume he means an automorphism in the slice category over U or something
but then idk how youd extend it
im gonna move on for now and just assume this but if anyone could ping me if they figure it out that would be nice lmao
ok wait nvm that was silly
f obviously gives rise to a map on U and then that gives rise to a map f_x U x {x} for any x in [b, c] so u can let the automorphism g be given by the f_x on every U x {x} i think
and then glue phi and g circ psi
yeah nvm u can ignore this i had to work out some kinks in what i described above lmao but it works
uniformizer -> (π) is prime
divisors -> "factorization but weirder"
tom dieck why
what exactly does this mean by "connected principle coverings are the connected coverings with largest possible automorphism group"
didnt this entire discussion assume that p had a G principle covering
without that you cant even define l so i dont see how this says anything about general connected coverings
Principal coverings probably means normal coverings?
I say this because a covering map is normal iff it's a principal bundle over the group of deck transforms
its properly discontinuous with p(gx) = x for g in G, and where the induced action on each fiber is transitive
sooo
idk is that equivalent
i dont remember hatcher 1.3 at all
Hmm, the second condition should be equivalent to normality
I think the first is just ensuring you get a covering map?
hmm
im mostlyj ust confused because like
Okay I think I see why I was confused
E connected ensures that l is injective right?
uhh i should probably reread and verify that real quick
I don't see why? Can't you take G = Aut(p) × C2 and let the second factor act trivially?
You'll preserve transitivity and all
(assuming the group of automorphisms acts transitively)
i meant like
in this specific context
with G properly discontinuous, p(gx) = p(x), action on the fiber transitive
Ah I was missing proper discontinuity
yeah
i guess im just confused cuz i feel like in the case where you have an arbitrary cover this discussion shouldnt tell us anything at all
the only way the size of the cover comes into play here as far as i can tell would be if l was surjective but not injective
and G principle implies l injective
but like... you need that for l(g) to even be an automorphism
so ??
i feel like this shouldnt tell us anything at all about arbitrary connected coverings
ok another thing since i moved on from that
what are the equivalence classes here? like under what relation?
it sounds like its just identifying the orbits of H but like. arent those just the points of E/H??
i found an answer on MSE god i love that website
Give an example of a pair (X, d) which obeys axioms (bcd) of Definition
1.1.2, but not (a)
any examples?
we've to show if d(x,y) > 0 can be shown from the rest axioms of a metric
or give an example where d(x,x) = 0, d(y,x) = d(x,y) and triangle inequality holds
but d(x,y) < 0
metric on a singleton space
could you describe a bit?
not without seeing what definition 1.1.2 is
d(x, y) > 0 could just never occur, e.g. if all of the points of the space are the same.
that's not even what you originally asked
anyways the "distinct" part makes my example fail
so you'll have to look for something else
although with these definitions you could do something similar
like ||send everything in a two point space to zero||
cause then a and c and d are trivially satisfied, but you have two distinct points in the space whose d is zero
the first condition isn't an iff, in that picture
in fact the second condition could be rephrased as the converse to the first
so with that in mind
the question is essentially to find a case where all conditions but one direction of that biconditional hold
hello! i'd like to work out the positions of these circles but i can't figure it out, been here for a while
i'd like some sort of function $p : \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{R}^2$ so that $p(i)$ is the position of the i'th circle
jn3008
i don't understand what the initial configuration is
it's a fractal
yeah but afaik it's really hard to do anything without an initial setup
what is that
red is isometric to blue
ok i think i see it better now
it's the same pattern over and over, rotated and scaled
i guess in a way it is the "initial setup" that's the mystery to be solved
it's still incredibly difficult but now there's somewhere to start
jesus, that's awful, idk how to do this
well it could
what if we stop at some big circle, and call that the beginning
and the sequence proceeds to infinity as they get smaller
let's just take all the circles with centres on the blue lines
okay
wow, no, that's just absurdly hard
the tangency pattern is given by i is tangent to {i-5, i-3, i-2, i+2, i+3, i+5}
i have absolutely no clue what that means
what i mean is, if we sort the circles by size, the i'th circle is touching the (i-5)'th and so on..
yes
I have an image of the circles labelled, but I cannot upload it
not on the phone nor on pc.
should I give up?
so given 3 circles you want to find the two circles that are tangent to all of them ?
i've done it
i'm quite proud of myself
it's a recursive function
but it works
You shlould be. Good work!
what language/program did you code that in?
thanks! :), so the ratio in between the circles was guessed by trial and error because working it out by hand on paper was way too complicated, like sums of arcsin(sqrt(thing)), ended up being around 0.730001 which is really curious
I coded it in javascript using p5.js @prisma pebble
whoa, cool
#point-set-topology is clearly the favorite channel--see server icon

as it should be
#advanced-number-theory superiority
what does number theory have to do with coffee cups???
😡
smh
the server icon is a picture of an elliptic curve over C
no it is a cup of coffee, the most fundamental object in topology
and besides "elliptic curve"??? That doesn't sound like it's about numbers at all
Actually I don't know if I mentioned it but I applied to an reu on elliptic curves
Pomona
@shut moat did you have a question?
no it's foreshadowing
all of us are going to end up being baristas
ya but I'm still trying to word it decently
hey! some of us are going to end up selling our soul to finance
then when THAT doesnt work out we'll become baristas
does the generalization of stoke's theorem to discontinuous forms require currents? the context here is that I'm trying to formally justify some of the stuff we do in electrostatics. $\mathbf{E}$ is a vector field that satisfies $\text{div}\mathbf{E} = \frac{\rho}{\epsilon_0}$. Using this, we then say that $\frac{Q}{\epsilon_0} = \int_V \div \mathbf{E} d^3\mathbf{x} = \int_{\partial V} \Phi_{\mathbf{E}}$. However, we often have charge densities defined only on surfaces. (For instance, a uniform charge density on a sphere). $\rho$ can't be formally regarded as a $3$-form without some dirac delta bullshit. So stoke's theorem seems to break here. Yet we can still charge on and use divergence theorem to show that the electric field in the ball bounded by the sphere is zero, and a $\frac{1}{r^2}$ vector field outside. So presumably there's a variant of stoke's out that \emph{does} work for this problem.
shite
lol
~S^1
the best thing I've found was stoke's for currents (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Current_(mathematics)), but this feels like overkill (and I'm not sure if this coincides exactly with the way physicists throw around the dirac delta)
lol I was going to ping double dual but he's already in chat
Hi
I don't know anything but I would believe it if currents were the rigorous answer
this feels more #multivariable-calculus but is stoke's theorem not curl
No this definitely is advanced
ok
Although actually, if your form defined on the surface may be extended, your ok
I vaguely feel like spivak calc on manifolds deals with these things
You can always extend it, right? A continuous or smooth section of a vector bundle on a closed subset to a nbhd ?
This is done in ISM I think
well, the problem is that the associated \rho isn't smooth
Ah okay, sorry
it's zero inside and outside, and rho on the boundary
oh that's odd
hmm
you could try writing it as a limit
But you'd need some way to commute the limit and the integral
So like if it's 1/r^2 you'd use an annulus for example
And compute things close to the singularity
Sorry for vagueness lol
Based opinion
I mean tbh not the worst end
true
that's a similar issue, but not exactly that
I think it might help if I wrote the specifics of the problem-
You have a charge density $\rho$ on the sphere of radius $R$, so that the amount of charge on a patch $U$ of the sphere is $\int_{U}\rho dS$. To come up with the electric field, you do the following:
Take a sphere of radius$ r < R$. the ball it bounds contains no charge, so $\text{div}\mathbf{E} = 0$ everywhere inside, so there's no flux, and the electric field vanishes.
Then, take a sphere of radius $r > R$. It now contains the charged sphere, so the enclosed charge is Q so the electric field is $\mathbf{E}(\mathbf{x}) = \frac{Q}{4\pi \epsilon_0 |\mathbf{x}|^3}\mathbf{x}$. So the full electric field is defined as this piecewise vector field inside and outside the sphere
~S^1
oh maybe you just want to smoothly approximate this discontinuous thing you have
in the context of physics, i think you would need to carefully look at what your model is assuming. is it valid to have discontinuous charge density?
i’m not a physicist so forgive me if i’m totally not getting it btw
we use "lower dimensional" charge densities all the time as dummy systems in intro EM, but it's true that IRL charge densities are always actually 3d distributions
that really makes me think this is just a case of a physicist making an assumption that breaks their own model
and pressing on because they don’t really care
but I would still think smoothly approximating the invalid given is probably the best way to deal with this
well, the conclusion is reasonable, I think, and it is a good approximation of putting charge on a plastic sphere or something like that (so I'm not sure if it's breaking the model)
right sure
i think the real physical situation is basically a smooth approximation too right?
Was just about to say that
yeah this seems reasonable given that we physically justify it as a limiting case anyway
wdym?
ok i don’t know physics very well i think that comment was wrong
this came up in google, seems helpful: https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/24709/the-discontinuity-of-electric-field
being more rigorous is reduced to a sentence, which is basically “technically you need to use limits”
presumably because these multivariable calc laws don’t apply when things are discontinuous
so i would see if you can get the same answer with an approach of that nature
stokes theorem applies outside an epsilon neighborhood of the sphere. apply the theorem and send epsilon to 0
But integrating while ignoring the discontinuity seems to consistently work well. Doesn't this suggest that there's probably a stronger statement to be made that characterizes problems like these? (without treating them as limits of integrals)
it probably depends on how messy the discontinuity is
it’s very regular in this problem, and any problem you’d actually see in physics
this approach would be correct but yield a more complicated result if the discontinuity was worse
one that might disagree with “ignoring the discontinuity”
maybe S^1 wants to see if there is a version of stokes that captures these nice disconts
i guess
that’s a guess, but you should try and see if you can figure out what conditions make “ignoring the discontinuity” work!
there probably is but idk if it’d be written anywhere
probably “piecewise smooth” is good enough
Yeah i dont even know who i would ask for the folklore lol
i would think
but you have to think about the geometry of the pieces too
“piecewise smooth with piecewise smooth boundaries on each piece”
something like that i bet is good
that sounds believable
oh I didn't know the form can be C^1, the version I've seen requires that both the form and the manifold containing the rough set be C^2 :o
i bet you can use stokes theorem to write down a formula in the case above i discussed
by using epsilon neighborhoods of the discontinuities
that’s probably as general as you can get it
yeah that seems reasonable, I'll try and see if I can work out the details of this
ty for the help! 
idk if im stupid or what
but like
at the start of the second paragraph "there exists for each x in B an open neighborhood V_x blah blah blah h maps V_x x [i/n, (i+1)/n]..."
h is a map from X x I -> B
so??
this looks vaguely like a typo because lemma 3.2.3 talks about open coverings of what would be X x I in the case of 3.2.2 but even substitute that isnt super clear
since we dont ahve a given cover of X x I and it talks about how the thing is mapped into an open set U that p is trivial over
so ud think that youd have to apply 3.2.3 to the covering \mathcal{U} of B or something where p is trivial over U in \mathcal{U}
i like how this channel is just progressively tracking my mental breakdowns as i go through tom dieck
honestly the messages here could be an autobiography
petthecat

it's like exercising
but instead of breaking down your muscles and they reform stronger it's your mental
It's gonna be the source of a docudrama
no your mental
And here we see the killer, known only as Moth, and their notes on why they suddenly snapped and went on a spree that would shock academia to its core
spinsicle
i'm trying to find an \eta so this commutes
spinsicle
i tried using this but it doesn't workkkkkkkk
help thank you n.n
actually i should to this the other way around and then the iso is simpler
hey, anyone able to help me define a left-invariant metric on SU(2)?
so far i've got that the tangent space is diffeomorphic to S^3 x R^3
so i just need to explicitly define a left-invariant global frame right? and then i could equip it with the standard inner product to make it an orthonormal frame?
makes sense to me
essentially what you're doing is choosing a basis on the tangent space at the identity (= lie algebra), using that to define an inner product on the lie algebra, and then defining the inner product everywhere else by pushing forward along the left translation maps
yeah i think i follow that much
maybe my problem is that i'm trying avoid working in coordinates lol
lie groups
coordinates
you should be avoiding working on coordinates!
oh okay good lol
The whole point of lie groups is that they have nice global structure
can i just like. let E_1, E_2, E_3 be some left-invariant global frame
i'm sorry i'm terrible at this
that could work, and then you define the metric to be the one that makes that frame orthonormal
it's probably easier to, as shamrock said, work on the lie algebra and then left translate
(basically the same thing i guess, since left-invariant global frames are obtained by left-translating bases of \mathfrak g)
okay i'll try that, thank you!
Let G be a lie group. Use the fact that G x G -> G, (g,h) |-> gh is differentiable to show that G -> G, g |-> g^-1 is differentiable.
Hint: ||Use inverse function theorem in a neighborhood of the unit element.||
Are you posing this problem to us or asking for help?
Asking for help
Just incase you dont want to use a hint
This is the first exercise in tom Dieck's book
||m(g, i(g)) = m(i(g), g) = e, where m is the multiplication map and i the inversion||
idk it's just the first thing that comes to mind, i've never done the exercise before

You know that inverses exist since G is a group
Define the ‘inverse diagonal’ to be all points (g,g inverse) in G times G
is sphere an analytic manifold 
it's gotta be, right? stereographic projection is a rational function
S^2
Then yeah I think it's easiest to think of it as a complex manifold
Which should automatically imply it's real analytic
How spoilery of a hint do you want?
CP1 honestly
Doesnt matter
Consider the function f(x, y) = (x, xy)
Then f is smooth and h = i(g) is uniquely determined by f(g, h) = (g, e)
I think so
It comes down to the differential of the multiplication at the identity
And to the differential of a cartesian roduct of two functions
(something of the form of p |-> (φ(p), ψ(p))
Ok I think the jacobian at the identity is something like
[1 1]
[0 1]
something like that
wrt any basis for T_(e, e) (G×G) you get by pairing two bases for T_e G
Oh I realize I miss read the hint and it said to use implicit function thm
That might work too
We have a relation gh = e
so we can locally solve for h
(that's my idea at least)
Yeah it's just implicit function thm 
tbh I don't remember the statement of either the implicit or inverse function theorems
I just think about the rank theorem
weird
lie theory starts with a bit of intro top... doesn't mention connectedness. Hw has a connectedness problem
how do you do lie theory without already knowing topology stuff?
Is it like, matrix groups exclusively?
connectedness is an importing thing to consider in lie thoery
if your lie group isnt connected, you can quotient out by the connected component of the identity and get a discrete group
thats why most of lie theory is concerned with connected lie groups
that was the hw problem
there isn't a top class at this university 
This does not answer my question 
there is a fun anal class that spends the first half building up point set, but just the parts relevant to fun anal
not connectedness
Why does any nhbd of identity generate the whole connected component of the identity?
@digital peak what book are you using for lie groups
i'm thinking like, any point in the identity component can be expressed as exp(v) for some v in the lie algebra (this might be false, i don't know off the top of my head), so then given a neighbourhood of the identity, exp(v/n) is in it for n large enough. then exp(v/n)^n = exp(v)
not confident on that one
shamrock correct me
Let X be the subgroup generated by that nbhd U of the identity. Then for any g in X we have gU <= X because X is a subgroup and gU is open because left translation by g is a homeomorphism. An open subgroup is automatically closed, because its complement is a union of cosets, which will all be open. Since the connected component of the identity is subgroup containing U it also contains X. By connectedness X is the whole component
It's not a lie group thing
We dont have exp@gritty widget
It's a topological group thing
This is chapter 1
oh ew it's just topology 🤢
I think you need to assume the nbhd is contained in the connected component of the identity
Additionally
Otherwise take your nbhd to be the whole space
Thanks rocksham
Also I don't think the claim about exp is true. I think SL(2,C) is connected but the exponential isn't surjective
the best way to learn is to post the wrong answer
thanks shamrock
lol
Exp may diverge far away from the original pt
I remembered correctly
Not entirely sure that it's connected but uhh probably idk

shouldn't you be able to riemannian geometry this
Simply find a connected lie group which is not complete under a bi invariant metric


yes then i have to pull out lie groups with bi-invariant metrics out of my ass
e.g. O(n)

Wait I think I just realized something

Thinking
I'm being dumb
Lie groups are automatically complete under a bi invariant metric
Right?
I've seriously confused myself
R+
Because the exponential map exists for all time?
I mean I've been saying nonsense for like the past 5 minutes
Seriously confused about RG
i believe you are right
I wonder if I could work as a TA for the manifolds course at my school
It's notoriously hard and faced paced
would probably be a dick move to not just help ppl though
The clientbase is very small
yeah, so complete = some exponential map is defined on the entire tangent space. for a bi-invariant metric, the lie group exponential (defined on all of T_eG) coincides with riemannian exponential
Yupp
And lie groups equipped with a left invariant metric are homogeneous
So complete iff complete at a point
do carmo's treatment of completeness is still haunting me
all manifolds are connected 
aha I remembered correctly!
So a necessary condition for a connected lie group to admit a bi invariant metric is that the exponential map be surjective
right?
yes
That's p cool
lie group exponential and riemannian exponential at identity (which is onto by lemma) coincide so you're all good 
oh huh
Milnor showed that the only lie groups which admit bi invariant metric are direct products of compact and abelian lie groups

I did not know that
Lee mentions it in IRM
that's neat
i might have glanced through it before
i vaguely recall something like that
you probably could read it
hm okay i might have been reading something else
do you know what it;s called
Something like "on left invariant metrics and curvature"
Curvatures of Left Invariant Metrics on Lie Groups ?
That's the one
Lol
i like to think that spending that long on a problem and slowly convincing myself it was wrong was a good thing
lmao consider yourself lucky
It happens to me like
Once per class
I think 3/6 of my algebra exams last year had an error
iconic email from my professor
:(
This isn't exhaustive lol
I love Sándor but he did make a lot of mistakes on the problem sets/exams
That's the best one
I ended up working up until the end of the extension
turned an arduous day long exam into an until 3am exam
Lmao
Usually my profs announce it in class and/or on canvas
When I point something out
one time my analysis prof put me on the spot after I pointed out an error before class
And made me do the announcement
(folland's hint was false)
Yeah haha I was a deer in the headlights
Zero0




